NEET

Date : TEST ID: 1

Time : 03:00:00 Marks:720

Guidelines :
In every subject :
(a) In section - A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section - A
(b) In section - B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.

PHYSICS: SECTION - A
1. Calculate the momentum transferred to a surface when a radiation of energy E falls normally on it.
Assume that the reflectivity of the surface is unity.
E 2E E
1) 2) 3) Ec 4) 2
c c c
2. Taking the wavelength of first Balmer line in the hydrogen spectrum  n  3 to n  2  as 660 nm, then
the wavelength of 2nd balmer line in the same spectrum  n  4 to n  2  will be
1) 488.9 nm 2) 388.9 nm 3) 889.2 nm 4) 642.7 nm
3. A circular hole is cut from a disc of radius 6 cm in such a way that the radius of the hole is 1 cm and
the centre of the hole is a distance of 3 cm from the centre of the disc. The distance of the centre of
mass of the remaining part from the centre of the original disc is
1) 3/35 cm 2) 1/35 cm 3) 3/10 cm 4) 7/35 cm
4. A uniform solid sphere A of mass ‘m’ is rolling without sliding on a smooth horizontal surface. It
collides elastically and head – on with another stationary hollow sphere B of the same mass and
radius. Assuming friction to be absent everywhere, the ratio of the kinetic energy of B to that of A
just after the collision is

1) 5:2 2) 1:1 3) 2:3 4) 3:2

5. The magnitude of displacement vector of a particle which is moving in a circle of radius a with
constant angular velocity  as a function of time is
t t
1) 2a sin t 2) 2a sin 3) 2a cos t 4) 2a cos
2 2
6. An ideal gas    1.5  is expanded adiabatically. How many times its initial volume should the gas
be expanded to reduce the root mean square velocity of molecules by a factor of 2?
1) 4 times 2) 16 times 3) 8 times 4) 2 times
7. An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the number of charge carries be n and the average
drift speed be v. if the temperature is increased, then
1) both n and v will increase
2) n will increase and v will decrease
3) both n and v will decrease
4) n will decrease and v will increase
8. A battery is charged to a voltage of 15V for 8 hours with 10 A current. On discharge, the battery
supplies a current of 5A for 15 hours at a mean terminal voltage of 14V. The efficiency of the battery
is
1) 80% 2) 90% 3) 87.5% 4) 82.5%
9. Two concentric co – planar circular loops of radius R and  r  R  are placed as shown in the figure.
The mutual inductance of the system will be

0 r 2 0 r 2  0 R 2  0 R 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2R 4R 4r 2r
10. A transformer of frequency 60 Hz and 120 V input has 8:1 turn ratio. The frequency of the output is
1) 40Hz 2) 480 Hz 3) 2 Hz 4) 60 Hz
11. A system consists of four equal charges –Q placed at the four corners of a square and another charge
q is placed at the centre of the square, then the value of q for which the system is equilibrium, is
Q Q Q Q
4

1)  1  2 2  2)
2

1 2 2  
3)  1  2 2
2
 4)
4

1 2 2 
12. There are two charged metallic spheres S1 and S 2 of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The electric fields
E1 and E2 on their surfaces are such that E1 / E2  R1 / R2 . Then the ratio V1 / V2 of their electrostatic
potentials on each sphere is
3 2
R  R R  R 
1)  1  2) 1 3)  2  4)  1 
 R2  R2  R1   R2 
 l 
13. There is an unknown quantity x  R   , here l is length (in cm) measured using a scale having
 100  l 
least count of 1 cm, and R is a quantity known accurately. Find the percentage error in measurement
of x for l  50cm ?
1) 1% 2) 6% 3) 2% 4) 4%
14. On which quantity the escape velocity for earth does not depend on
1) mass of the earth 2) mass of the projectile
3) point of projection relative to the earth 4) gravitational constant
15. A simple pendulum is taken to 64 km above the earth’s surface. Its new time period will
1) increase by 1% 2) decrease by 1%
3) increase by 2% 4) decrease by 2%
16. An iron wire AB has diameter of 0.6 mm and length 3m at 00 C . The wire is now stretched between
the opposite walls of a brass casing at 00 C . What is the extra tension that will be set up the wire
when the temperature of the system is raised to 40 0 C ?
Given abrass  18  106 / K , airon  12  106 / K , Yiron  21 1010 N / m2

1) 14.2 N 2) 13.8 N 3) 16.3 N 4) 21.7 N

17. Two heat engines are operating in such a way that the heat rejected by the first engine is used as the
heat input of the second. If both the engines are 40% efficient, then the overall efficiency of the
system is
1) 0.64 2) 0.8 3) 0.5 4) 0.9
18. The change in internal energy when 5 mole of hydrogen is heated to 200 C from 100 C is (specific
heat of hydrogen at constant pressure is 8 cal ( ( mol 0C ) 1 )
1) 200 cal 2) 350 cal 3) 300 cal 4) 475 cal
19. Find the amount of heat energy supplied to a Carnot engine from the source in each cycle if the
engine is working between 300K and 600K and it has a work output of 800J per cycle.
 1) 800J 2) 1600J 3) 3500J 4) 6400J
20. A rectangular conducting loop carrying a current i1 is situated near a long straight wire carrying a
steady current i2 . The wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is placed in the same plane
as that of the loop as shown in the figure. Then, the current loop will

1) Move away from the wire

2) Move towards the wire
3) Remain stationary
4) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
21. A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is placed at the centre of a circular coil of 30
turns and radius 12cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an angle of 450 with the magnetic
meridian. The needle points west to east when the current in the coil is 0.35 A. the horizontal
component of the earth magnetic field (in T) at that location is
1) 3.9  105 2) 3.9  106 3) 5  105 4) 2.6  105
22. In ground to ground projectile motion under gravity, which of the following doesn’t affect the time
of flight?
1) rotation of earth 2) air resistance 3) curvature of earth 4) all of these
23. The force exerted by the ideal string on the ideal pulley P shown in the figure is

1) mg 2) 2 mg 3) 2mg 4) 4 mg
24. A boy of mass 50 kg is climbing a vertical pole at a constant speed. If coefficient of friction between
his palms and the pole is 0.75, then the normal reaction between him and the pole is (take g =
10 m / s 2 )
1) 700N 2) 625.67 N 3) 550 N 4) 666.67 N
25. An element of mass M has Z protons and N neutrons. Masses of proton and neutron are m p and mn
respectively. Choose the correct relation among following options
1) M  Zm p  Nmn 2) M  Zm p  Nmn 3) M  Zm p  Nmn
4) M may be greater than, less than or equal to Zm p  Nmn depending on nature of nucleus
26. The amplitude of a simple pendulum is 10cm. when the pendulum is at a displacement of 4 cm from
the mean position, the ratio of kinetic and potential energies at that point is
1) 5.25 2) 2.5 3) 4.5 4) 7.5
27. For a particle of mass m executing SHM with angular frequency  , the kinetic energy ‘k’ is given
by k  k0 cos2 wt . The equation of its displacement can be
1/2 1/2
 k   2k 
1)  0 2  sin wt 2)  02  sin wt
 mw   mw 
1/2 1/2
 2 w2   2k 
3)   sin wt 4)  0  sin wt
 mk0   mw 
28. Light of wavelength 3000 A0 is incident on a metal surface whose work function is 1 eV. The
maximum velocity of emitted photoelectrons will be
1) 10 ms 1 2) 103 ms 1 3) 104 ms 1 4) 106 ms 1
29. When light of wavelength 300 nm or less falls on a photoelectric emitter A, photoelectrons are
emitted. For another emitter B, light of wavelength 600 nm is sufficient for releasing photoelectrons.
The ratio of the work function of emitter A to B is
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 4:1 4) 1:4
30. Flow rate of blood through a capillary of cross sectional area of 0.25 m 2 is 100 cm3 / s . The velocity
of flow of blood is
1) 1 mm/s 2) 0.2 mm/s 3) 0.3 mm/s 4) 0.4 mm/s
31. The surface tension of a thin liquid film formed between a U shaped wire and a light slider of length
30 cm supporting a weight of 1.5  10 2 N is

1) 0.0125 Nm 1 2) 0.1 Nm 1 3) 0.05 Nm 1 4) 0.025 Nm 1

32. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g/cc) over mercury (density 13.6 g/cc). a homogeneous sphere
floats with half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half of its volume immersed in
mercury and the other half is immersed in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in g/cc is
1) 3.3 2) 6.4 3) 7.2 4) 12.8
33. If a piece of plane glass is placed on a word with letters of different colours, then the colour of the
letter which will appear to be least raised is
1) red 2) green 3) yellow 4) violet
34. If moment of inertia of disc about the diameter is given as I, then the moment of inertia of the same
disc about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its rim is
1) 6I 2) 4I 3) 2I 4) 8I
35. A uniform disc of mass 300kg is rotating freely about a vertical axis through its centre at a constant
angular velocity 0 . A boy of mass 30 kg starts from the centre and moves along a radius to the edge
of the disc. Angular velocity of the disc will now become
  40 50
1) 0 2) 0 3) 4)
6 5 5 6
PHYSICS: SECTION - B

36. A transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 2k . The input
resistance is 150 . Base current is changed by 20  A which results in change in collector current by
1.5 mA. The voltage gain of the amplifier is
1) 900 2) 1000 3) 1100 4) 1200
37. If a LED forward biased, then
1) electrons from the n – type side cross the p – n junction and recombine with holes in the p – type
side
2) electrons and holes neutralize each other in depletion region
3) at junction electrons and holes
4) none of these
38. Temperature at which the kinetic energy of gas molecule is half of the value of kinetic energy at
27 0 C is
1) 13.50 C 2) 1500 C 3) 75K 4) 1230 C
39. When the temperature of metal sphere is increased by 400 C , its volume increases by 0.24%. The
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal (in 0 C 1 ) is
1) 2  10 5 2) 6  10 5 3) 2.1 105 4) 1.2  10 5
a a  t2
40. Dimensional formula of satisfying P  where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time will
b bx
be
1 1
1) MLT 2) M 2 LT 1 3) ML0T 2 4) M 0 L1

41. In Young’s experiment, monochromatic light is used to illuminate the two slits A and B. Interference
fringes are observed on a screen placed in front of the slits. Now if a thin glass plate is placed
normally in the path of the beam coming from the slit, then which of the following explanation holds
true with regards to fringes/fringe width?

1) fringes will disappear 2) fringe width will decrease

3) fringe width will increases
4) there will be no change in the fringe width but fringe pattern will shift
42. An electromagnetic wave is propagating along the +z-axis. Direction of electric and the magnetic
field of this wave can be represented by
   
1) E  E0iˆ, B  B0 ˆj 2) E  E0 kˆ, B  B0iˆ
   
3) E  E0 ˆj , B  B0iˆ 4) E  E0 ˆj , B  B0 kˆ
43. A wave of frequency 500Hz has a velocity of 350 m/s. The distance between two nearest points on
the wave which are 600 out of phase with each other will be around
1) 70 cm 2) 0.7 m 3) 12.0 cm 4) 120.0 cm
 
44. A wave is represented by the equation given by y  7 sin  7 t  0.04 x   where x is in metres
 3
and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is
1) 175 m/s 2) 49 m / s 3) 4.9  m / s 4) 0.28 m / s
45. Work done by static friction on an object
1) may be positive 2) must be negative 3) must be zero 4) none of these
46. Three rods of identical geometry but different thermal conductivity are joined as shown.
Temperature of the three ends are shown. Temperature of the junction is

(1) 35ºC (2) 40ºC (3) 45ºC (4) 55ºC

47. One mole of an ideal gas expands from initial state (2T0, V0) to final state (T0, 2V0). The process of
 T 
expansion is given by T    0 V  3T0  .Work done by the gas during the expansion is (T:
 V0 
temperature; V- Volume)
1) RT0 In 2 2) 3RT0 In2 3) RT0  3In2  1 4) T0V0
48. The efficiency of a heat engine increases by 20% when temperature of source is increased by 20%
and temperature of sink is decreased by 20% simultaneously. The old efficiency of the engine is
(1) 40% (2) 42.5% (3) 50% (4) 62.5%
49. In the arrangement for SHM shown, the horizontal ground is smooth and the coefficient of friction
between the two blocks is  . The time period of oscillation is T. The maximum amplitude of
vibration so that the two blocks remain together is

 m1 gT 2 2 g  gT 2  m2 gT 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 m2 T2 4 2 4 2 m1
50. A particle is executing SHM according to the relation x = A cos  t. Average speed of the particle

during time interval 0  t 
6
3 A 3 A 3 A 3A
1)

2  3 2)
4
3)
2
4)


CHEMISTRY : SECTION - A

51. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4 respectively. The pH
of their salt (AB) solution at 250 C is
1) 6.9 2) 7.0 3) 1.0 4) 7.2
KCN 4 H 
52. CH 3 Br   A 
LiAlH 4
 CH 3CH 2 NH 2
IUPAC name of A is
1) Methyl cyanide 2) Methyl isonitrile 3) Acetonitrile 4) Ethane nitrile
53. Which of the following exhibits greater coagulation power towards a negative colloid?
1) ZnSO4 2) Na3 PO4 3) AlCl3 4) K4 [Fe(CN )6 ]
54. Two half cells have reduction potentials -0.76 V and -0.13 V respectively. A galvanic cell is
made from these two half cells. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.76 V acts as cathode
2) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.76 V acts as anode
3) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.13 V acts as anode
4) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.76 V acts as positive electrode and -0.13 V as negative
electrode
55. What will happen when a block of copper metal is dropped into a beaker containing a
solution of 1 M ZnSO4 ?
1) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of oxygen gas
2) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of hydrogen gas
3) No reaction will occur
4) The copper metal will dissolve and zinc metal will be deposited
56. Electrometallurgical process is used to extract
1) Fe 2) Pb 3) Na 4) Ni

57. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

1) 7-Ethyl-2, 4, 5, 6 – tetramethyldeca-1, 8 – diene

2) 4-Ethyl-5,6,7,9-tetramethyldeca-2,9-diene
3) 2, 4, 5, 6 – tetramethyl-7-ethyldeca-1, 7-diene
4) None of these
58. Which of the following sulphates has the highest solubility?
1) BeSO4 2) MgSO4 3) BaSO4 4) CaSO4
59. In Clemmensen’s reduction, the catalyst used is
1) Zn – Hg + Conc. HCl 2) NH2 NH2  C2 H5ONa
3) PdCl2 / H2O 4) (C6 H5 )3 P  C2 H5ONa
60. The functional group which is formed when Phenol is made to react with Chloroform in the
presence of dilute Sodium hydroxide
1) CH2Cl 2) COOH 3) CHCl2 4) –CHO
61. The compound formed when Ethyl bromide is heated with dry Silver oxide is
1) dimethylether 2) diethylether 3) Methylalcohol 4) ethylalcohol
62. One mole of Ethylamine when reacts with nitrous acid will produce dinitrogen gas (at 00 C
and 1 atmospheric pressure) equal to
1) 22.4 L 2) 1L 3) 11.2 L 4) 24.8 L
63. The correct statement about orthoboric acid is
1) It is a strong monobasic acid
2) It is not a proton donor, but a weak Lewis acid
3) It is a tribasic acid 4) It is harmful for eyes
64. The energy required to remove an electron from the surface of sodium metal is 2.3 eV.
What Is the longest wavelength of radiation with which it can show photoelectric effect?
1) 5.4  1017 m 2) 5.4  10 8 m 3) 5.4  10 7 m 4) 5.4  10 9 m
65. If the dipole moment of Toluene and Nitro-benzene are 0.43D and 3.93D respectively, then
what is the expected dipole moment of p-Nitrotoluene?
1) 3.50 D 2) 2.18 D 3) 4.36 D 4) 5.30 D
66. Methanoic acid is heated with conc. H2 SO4 to form
1) CO 2) CO2 3) CH 4 4) (COOH )2
67. Glucose when treated with conc. HNO3 gives
1) Acetic acid 2) Saccharic acid 3) Gluconic acid 4) Sorbitol
68. Phenol associated in Benzene to a certain extent to form dimer. A solution containing
2.0 102 kg of Phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene has its freezing point decreased by 0.69 K. The
percentage of association of Phenol is ( K f for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol 1 )
1) 73.4 2) 50.1 3) 42.3 4) 25.1
69. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F is
1) B < S < P < F 2) F < S < P < B 3) P < S < B < F 4) B < P < S < F
70. When a NaCl is heated with sulphuric acid in the presence of MnO2 a greenish-yellow gas
liberated. The gas is
1) Cl2 2) NH3 3) N2 4) H 2
71. C5 H10O is a carbonyl compound. The number of carbonyl structural isomers possible for
this molecular formula are
1) 5 2) 8 3) 6 4) 7
72. In the reaction 4 A  2B  3C  A4 B2C3 , what will be the number moles of product formed,
starting from one mole of A, 0.6 moles of B and 0.72 moles of C?
1) 0.25 2) 0.3 3) 0.24 4) 2.32
10
73. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6  10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be
1) 1.26  10 5 M 2) 1.6  10 9 M 3) 1.6  1011 M 4) 1.26  1015 M
74. A non-stoichiometric compound Cu1.8 S is formed due to the incorporation of Cu 2  ions in the
lattice. What is the mole percentage of Cu 2  present in the compound?
1) 88.88 2) 89.8 3) 63.5% 4) 11.11
75. At low pressure and high temperature, the Van der Waals equation is finally reduced
(simplified) to
 a 
1)  p   (Vm  b)  RT 2) p(Vm  b)  RT
 Vm2 
 a 
3)  p  2 Vm  RT 4) pVm  RT
 Vm 
76. Zinc and hydrochloric acid react according to the following reaction:
Zn(s)  2HCl (aq.)  ZnCl2 (aq.)  H2 ( g )
If 0.30 mole of Zn is added to 0.52 mole HCl, how many moles of H 2 is produced?
1) 0.2 2) 0.62 3) 0.6 4) 0.26
2 3
77. In a reaction, Cr2O7 is reduced to Cr . What will be concentration of 0.1 M K2Cr2O7 in
equivalent per litre?
Cr2O72  14H   6e  2Cr 3  7 H2O
1) 0.9 N 2) 0.6 N 3) 0.3 N 4) 0.2 N
78. A gaseous mixture of 2 moles of A, 3 moles of B, 5 moles of C and 10 moles of D is
contained in a vessel. Assuming that gases are ideal and the partial pressure of C is 1.5 atm,
total pressure is
1) 3 atm 2) 6 atm 3) 9 atm 4) 15 atm
79. In which of the following options chlorine will act as the best leaving group

1) CH3  Cl 2) CH3  CH 2  Cl 3) 4)

80. A compound of variation chloride has spin only magnetic moment of 1.73 Bm. Its formula
is
1) VCl2 2) VCl5 3) VCl4 4) VCl3
81. The following equilibrium constants are given;
N 2  3H 2 2 NH 3 ; K1
N 2  O2 2 NO; K 2
1
H 2  O2 H 2O; K 3
2
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of 2 mole NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
K 2 K 32 K 22 K 3 K1 K 2 K 2 K 33
1) 2) 3) 4)
K1 K3 K3 K1
82. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?
1) [Co(ox)3 ]3 2) [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl 3) [Cr( NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
4) both [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl and [Cr ( NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl
83. For a reaction in which all reactants and products are liquids, which one of the following
equations is most applicable?
1)  H   E 2)  H   S 3)  H   E 4) Total W = 0
84. The void space in a primitive unit cell is:
1) 48% void space 2) 24% void space 3) 96% void space 4) 50% void space
85. In chelate therapy, lead toxicity is removed by using the ligand
COO 

1) CH3COO 2) |
COO 

3) AsO43 4)

CHEMISTRY : SECTION - B
86. The oxidation of SO2 toSO3 is an exothermic reaction. The yield of SO3 will be maximum if:
1) Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
2) Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
3) Both temperature and pressure are increased
4) Both temperature and pressure are reduced
87. Aqueous solution of 0.004 M Na2 SO4 and 0.01 M glucose are isotonic. The percentage degree
of dissociation of Na2 SO4 is
1) 85% 2) 75% 3) 60% 4) 25%
88. Which of the following statements regarding nitrogen pentoxide is not correct?
1) Nitrogen pentoxide is a colourless, deliquescent liquid
2) Nitrogen pentoxide is the anhydride of nitric acid
3) In solid state it exists as NO2 , NO3 ions
4) The molecule of N2O5 in planar
89. Two different electrolytic cells filled with molten Cu( NO3 )2 and molten Al ( NO3 )3 respectively
are connected in series. When electricity is passed 2.7 g Al is deposited on electrode.
Calculate the weight of Cu deposited on cathode.
[Cu  63.5; Al  27.0 g mol 1 ]
1) 190.5 g 2) 9.525 g 3) 63.5 g 4) 31.75 g
90. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give
1) A mixture of anisol and Mg (OH) Br
2) A mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
3) A mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br
4) A mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br
91. If H 0f for H 2 O2 and H 2 O are -188 kJ/mol and -286 kJ/mol, What will be the enthalpy change
of the reaction:
2H2O2 (l )  2H2O(l )  O2 ( g)
1) -196 kJ 2) -494 kJ 3) 146 kJ 4) -98 kJ
92. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. Melting point of alkane increases with increase in number of C atoms and with increase
in branching.
ii. Boiling point of alkane increases with increase in number of C atoms but with decrease in
branching.
iii. Cycloalkanes have lower boiling point than normal alkane with same number of C
atoms.
iv. Alkenes have lower boiling point than same number of C atoms in alkanes.
1) (I), (II) 2) (I), (II), (III) 3) (III), (IV) 4) (IV)
93. The binding energy of an element is 64 MeV. If Binding energy/nucleon is 6.4, then the
number of nucleons are
1) 10 2) 64 3) 16 4) 6
94. Consider the following reaction in aqueous solution
5Br  (aq)  BrO3 (aq)  6 H  (aq)  3Br2 (aq)  3H 2O(l )
If the rate of appearance of Br2 at a particular time during the reaction is 0.025 M sec1 , what
is the rate of disappearance (in M sec 1 ) of Br  at that time?
1) 0.025 M sec1 2) 0.042 M sec1 3) 0.075 M sec1 4) 0.125 M sec1
95. The rate constant (k ') of one reaction is double the rate constant ( k '') of another reaction.
Then the relationship between the corresponding activation energies of the two reactions
( Ea' and Eb'' ) will be-
(Assume the pre-exponential factor & temperature to be same)
1) Ea'  Ea'' 2) Ea'  Ea'' 3) Ea'  Ea'' 4) Ea'  4 Ea''
96. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(1) CF2Cl2 (2) CH 4 (3) NO2 (4) CO2
97. Two liquids A and B are mixed in a ratio of 2 : 3. If PA0  100 mmHg and PB0  300 mmHg, then
the mole fraction of A in vapour phase will be
(1) 2/11 (2) 2/5 (3) 3/5 (4) 10/11
98. Reduction electrode potential of hydrogen electrode having pH = 4 will be
(1) 0.236 V (2) –0.236 V (3) – 0.059V (4) 0.059 V
99. If aqueous solution of CuCl2 is electrolysed by 9.65 A current for 1000 seconds then mass of Cu
liberated is (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u)
(1) 0.635 g (2) 6.35 g (3) 0.3175 g (4) 3.175 g
100. If, at t = 30 sec, [A] = 100 moles/L,
at t = 40 sec, [A] = 80 moles/L,
at t = 50 sec, [A] = 64 moles/L
For a reaction, A  B , the order will be
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) Zero

BOTONY : SECTION - A

101. Androecium and gynoecium are _____of a flower.

1) Essential whorls 2) Accessory whorls 3) Non – essential whorls 4) All of these
15 14
102. E.coli with completely N DNA was allowed to replicate in N medium for two generations.
Percentage of bacteria with heavy DNA will be
1) 6.25% 2) 50% 3) 25% 4) 100%
103. The asexual spores are generally not found in
1) Basidiomycetes 2) Ascomycetes
3) Deuteromycetes 4) Zygomycetes
104. The cells of the embryo sac in the chalazal end are called as
1) Antipodal cells 2) Synergids 3) Egg and synergids 4) Antipodals and synergids
105. Which one of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal?
1) Mycoplasma 2) Paramecium 3) Bacteria 4) Euglena
106. Sticky pollen grains with large and attractive coloured flowers is characteristic of flower showing
1) Anemophily 2) Entomophily 3) Hydrophily 4) malacophily
107. The Pneumococcus experiment of Griffith proves that
1) DNA is the transforming principle
2) Bacteria undergo binary fission
3) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
4) RNA sometimes controls the production of DNA and proteins
108. Respiration is an
1) Endothermic process 2) Exothermic process
3) Anabolic process unexceptionally 4) Endergonic process
109. Match the column with respect to organelles and their respective function.

Column I Column II
a. Golgi apparatus i) Helps in spindle formation
b. Ribosomes bound to ER ii) Synthesis and storage of fats
c. Microtubules iii) Secretory proteins
d. Spherosomes iv) Helps in pseudopodia formation
v) Acrosome of sperms

1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iv), d – v

2) a – (v), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (ii)
3) a – (v), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (ii)
4) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (v), d – (ii)

110. The type of chlorophyll present in Phaeophyceae is

1) chlorophyll a and chlorophyll e
2) chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c
3) chlorophyll a and chlorophyll d
4) chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
111. Enzymes which are slightly different in molecular structure but can perform identical activity are
called
1) Isoenzymes 2) Holoenzymes 3) Apoenzymes 4) Coenzymes
112. Culturing of shoot apex as explants on nutrient medium in tissue culture gives to disease free plants
because
1) Such an explant contains secondary metabolites
2) It contains toxins that prevent growth of another organism
3) Such explants are pathogen free
4) Sterilization kills all pathogens
113. Which one of the following structures is not common to mitotic cells of higher plants?
1) cell plate 2) centriole 3) centromere 4) spindle fibres
114. To study any kind of genetic abnormality arising due to change is chromosome number, the
karyotype is prepared. Which of the following stages is most suitable to develop a karyotype?
1) metaphase 2) telophase 3) anaphase 4) prophase
115. The names of Schleiden and Schwann are associated with
1) Protoplasm as the physical basis of life
2) cell theory
3) theory of cell lineage
4) nucleus functions as control center of cell
116. If the gene of interest is inserted at the Bam HI site in pBR322, the recombinant plasmid will
1) Show, ampicillin & tetracycline resistance
2) Show tetracycline resistance
3) Will grow well on tetracycline containing medium
4) Will not grow on tetracycline containing medium
117. In lichens, sexual reproduction is performed by
1) Fungal partner only
2) Algal partner only
3) Fungal and algal partners (both)
4) Either fungal partner or algal partner (not both)
118. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance of the ovule?
1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
 2) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid
3) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac
4) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg.
119. Which of the following sets of bacteria are found to be very useful in genetic engineering
experiments?
1) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
2) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
3) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
4) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
120. Which one of the following traits of garden pea is a recessive feature?
1) Round seed shape 2) Axial flower position
3) Green seed colour 4) Green pod colour
121. Hydrolysis of nucleic acid yields
1) Only sugar 2) Phosphoric acid only
3) Nitrogenous base only 4) Nitrogenous base, sugar and phosphate
122. Read the following statements:
i) presence of DNA
ii) presence of cristae
iii) presence of the 70S ribosome
iv) Enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis
v) site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are in common for mitochondria and chloroplast?
1) Two 2) Five 3) Three 4) Three
123. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Blackman’s law of limiting factor?
1) only one factor can be limited in photosynthesis
2) photosynthesis consists of a light and dark reaction
3) the trapping of light by chloroplast is temperature dependent
4) the trapping of light by chloroplast can occur only if CO2 is present
124. Stirred – tank bioreactors have been designed for:
1) Addition of preservatives to the product
2) Purification of the product
3) Ensuring anaerobic condition in the culture vessel
4) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
125. The enzyme nitrogenase is
1) A Cu – Fe protein 2) Found in prokaryotes only
3) An O2 requiring enzyme 4) Essential to convert NH 3 to N 2
126. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds is
1) Pteridophyta 2) Rhodophyta 3) Bryophyta 4) Phaeophyta
127. There are two plants A and B with respective critical photoperiod of 13 hours and 11 hours. When
they are exposed to light for a period of 12 hours, it initiated flowering in both. Which of the
following conclusions is most appropriate for these plants?
1) Both Plant A and B are long day plants
2) Both plant A and B are short day
3) Plant A is short day plant and plant B is long day plant
4) Plant A is long day plant and plant B is short day plant
128.
 In which of the following, this kind of vascular bundle can be seen?
1) Dicot stem 2) Monocot stem 3) Dicot leaf 4) Monocot leaf
129. Liberation of oxygen when green cells in water are exposed to sunlight in presence of suitable
acceptor is called
1) Arnon’s reaction 2) Emerson’s enhance effect
3) Blackman’s reaction 4) Hill’s reaction
130. Vexillary aestivation is seen in
1) China rose 2) Bean 3) Gulmohur 4) Cotton
131. Cyanophycean granules and glycogen granules are examples of
1) Microbodies 2) Inclusion bodies 3) SER 4) Lysosome
132. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called
1) Terminator 2) Promoter 3) Regulator 4) Operator
133. Practical significance of taxonomy is
1) To classify the organism 2) To understand diversity
3) To understand evolution 4) Identification of organisms
134. Coenocytic mycelium is formed in
1) Ustilago 2) Saccharomyces 3) Rhizopus 4) Alternaria
135. Adaptations to plants against dry environmental conditions is/are
1) Stomata arranged in deep pits
2) Stomata remain open during day time
3) CAM pathway
4) More than one option is correct

BOTONY : SECTION - B
136. The meristem which occurs in grasses and regenerates parts removed by the grazing herbivores is
1) Apical meristem 2) Intercalary meristem 3) Secondary meristem 4) Cambium
137. Which of following are the steps of genetic engineering?
1) Isolation of DNA
2) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonuclease.
3) Isolation of the desired DNA
4) All of these
138. Apical dominance is due to
1) Auxins 2) Gibberellins 3) Cytokinins 4) ABA
139. Which of the following statements is correct regarding liverworts?
1) The thallus is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substratum
2) They are monoecious as well as dioecious
3) Asexual reproduction by fragmentation or Gemma cups
4) more than one option is correct
140. What is true about ecosystem?
1) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
2) Primary consumers out – number producers
3) Produces are more than primary consumers
4) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful
141. Phyllode is present in
1) Asparagus 2) Euphorbia 3) Australian Acacia 4) Opuntia
142. How many bacteria are produced in four hours if a bacterium divides once in half an hour?
1) 8 2) 64 3) 16 4) 256
143. Underground stems of some plants spread to new niches, and when older parts die new plants are
formed. An example of such a modification is
1) Banana and pineapple 2) jasmine and mint
3) Grass and strawberry 4) Chrysanthemum and Pistia
144. Which of the statements supports that a flower is a highly condensed and modified part of the plant
body?
1) Anatomically, the pedicel and thalamus of a flower resembles that of a flower
2) Except for the lower internode, other internodes are condensed forming a broad bas called
 thalamus
3) The flower may develop in the axis of a small leaf – like structure called bract.
4) All of the above
145. How many microspore mother cells will give rise to 256 microspores after reduction division?
1) 512 2) 128 3) 64 4) 96
146. C4 acid is converted into C3 acid and vice-versa in sugarcane leaf, respectively in
1) Mesophyll and mesophyll cell 2) Mesophyll and bundle sheath cell
3) Bundle sheath cell and mesophyll cell 4) Mesophyll lysosomes and mesophyll chloroplast
147. Total number of ATPs produced during aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule is
1) Ten 2) Thirty eight 3) Twenty eight 4) Thirty
148. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. plant growth regulators.
1) 2, 4-D (2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a synthetic auxin
2) Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins increases the length of the stem
3) Cytokinins promote the apical dominance
4) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone
149. Choose the incorrect match.
1) Nucleoside : Adenosine, uridine
2) Nucleotide : Uridylic acid, cytidylic acid
3) Nucleic acid : DNA, RNA
4) Pyrimidines : Adenine and Guanine
150. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to region___(i)___ and uses substrate as___(ii)__to
polymerise in template dependent fashion.
(i) (ii)
1) Intron Nucleoside triphosphate
2) Promotor Nucleoside monophosphate
3) Promotor Nucleoside triphosphate
4) Structural Nucleoside monophosphate

ZOOLOGY : SECTION - A
151. Given below are four method and their mode of action in achieving contraception. Find the incorrect
match.
1) Cervical caps – Prevent sperms reaching cervix
2) periodic abstinence – Natural method that avoids chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
3) Cu 375 – Suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
4) Saheli – prevent ovulation
152. Snakes and lizards shed their scales as skin cast. It is
1) Dermis 2) Epiderms 3) Cornified cells 4) None of these
153. Hyposecretion of steroid hormones from adrenal glands leads to
1) Addion’s disease 2) Cushing’s disease 3) Dwarfism 4) None of the above
154. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally
undigested?
1) Protein and starch 2) Starch and fat 3) Fat and cellulose 4) Starch and cellulose
155. Three levels of biodiversity are
1) Genetic diversity, species diversity and ecological diversity
2) Species diversity, ecological diversity and habitat diversity
3) Geographical diversity, genetic diversity and habitat diversity
4) Ecological diversity, species diversity and community diversity
156. In ECG the repolarization of ventricles is indicated by
1) P wave 2) QRS complex 3) S wave 4) T wave
157. Species with small world populations that are not endangered or vulnerable at present, but are at the
risk are called
 1) Critically endangered 2) Lower risk
3) Rare 4) Extinct
158. Emulsification of fat is carried out by
1) Pancreatic juice 2) HCl 3) Bile 4) Mucus of intestine
159. Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of
1) Adaptive radiation 2) Seasonal migration 3) Brood parasitism 4) Connecting links
160. In Mongolism, each cell has how many chromosomes
1) 21st pair having one less 2) 23rd pair with one less
3) 45 4) 47
161. The posterior lobe of the pituitary is called
1) Glandularhypopysis 2) neurohypophysis 3) Adenohypophysis 4) Vascularhypophysis
162. Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to remedy for plastic waste?
A. Polyblend is a fine mixture of recycled modified plastic
B. It is a zero – waste procedure.
C. It was due to the collaboration of town people of Arcata and biologists of Humboldt State
University.
D. A blend of polyblend and bitumen enhacens bitumen’s water – reprellent properties and helps to
increase road life.
1) A and B 2) A and C 3) A and D 4) Only A
163. How many statements are correct?
a. Biomagnification is the natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water
b. After CFC, methane is a major cause of greenhouse effect
c. Ozone is a secondary pollutant in troposphere
d. The thickness of the ozone is measured in Dobson unit
1) a,b 2) only d 3) c, d 4) a,b,c
164. In mammals growing oocytes are surrounded by special nutritive cells called
1) Follicle cells 2) Nurse cells
3) Follicle cells and nurse cells 4) None of the above
165. The number of occital condyles in man is/are
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four
166. According to Hardy – Weinberg’s principle, if allele one is denoted as ‘A’ and allele two as ‘a’ and
their frequencies are denoted by p and q, and if random mating occurs. The frequency of
heterozygous individual would be :
1) 2pq 2) q 2 3) pq 4) p2
167. Multiple allels control the inheritance of
1) Phenylketonuria 2) Colour blindness 3) Sickle cell anaemia 4) Blood groups
168. If the birth rate is 100, the death rate is 10 and the number of individuals in a population group is
1000, then what will be the intrinsic rate of natural increase of the population?
1) 900 2) 90 3) 1090 4) 890
169. Genetically engineered bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of
1) Human insulin 2) Testosterone 3) Thyroxine 4) Melatomin
170. At the neuromuscular junction:
1) The muscle membrane possesses musculariae receptors.
2) The motor nerve endings secrete norepinephine.
3) Curare leads to prolongation of neuromuscular transmission
4) The motor nerve endings secrete acetycholine
171. Which one of the following is associated with excretion in amoeba?
1) Endoplasm 2) Mitochondria 3) Contractile vacuole 4) plasma membrane
172. Peripatus is known as a connecting link because it has the characteristics of both
1) Aves and Fishes 2) Reptiles and Birds 3) Fishes and Amphibians 4) Arthropods and Annelids

173. Caffeine, amphetamines and cocaine are:

1) nerve depressants 2) nerve initiators 3) nerve stimulants 4) nerve impulse initiators
174. ADH is synthesized by _________released by __________and acts on ________
1) Hypothalamus, neurohypophysis, PCT
 2) Hypothalamus, neurohypphysis, DCT and collecting duct
3) Hypothalamus, adenohypophysis, PCT
4) Hypothalamus, denohypophysis, loop of Henle
175. Which of the following statements is correct for the nodes of Ranveir’ in nerves?
1) neurilemma is discontinuous
2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
3) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous
4) Covered by myelin sheath
176. HIV causes reduction in
1) T – helper cells only 2) All T – cells
3) B – cells only 4) Both B and T – cells
177. Which of the following is incorrect about Klinefelter’s syndrome?
1) A chromosomal disorder 2) Karyotype of 44 + XXY
3) Gynaecomastia 4) Fertile males
178. Residual volume is
1) Lesser than tidal volume 2) Greater than inspiratory volume
3) Greater than vital capacity 4) Greater than tidal volume
179. The rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of ovum occurs under the influence of
1) LH 2) FSH 3) MSH 4) GH
180. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
1) Drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
2) An increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
3) Death of fish due to lack of oxygen
4) Increased complexity of the aquatic food web
181. Contraction of diaphragm during inhalation
1) It decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis
2) It increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso – ventral axis.
3) It increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis
4) It decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso – ventral axis
182. Which of the following is a pair of bacterial diseases?
1) Typhoid and Pneumonia 2) Malaria and AIDS
3) Ringworm and AIDS 4) Common cold and Malaria
183. In a medicolegal case of accidental interchange between two babies in a hospital, the baby of the
blood group –A could not be rightly given to a couple with
1) Husband of O group and wife of AB group
2) Husband of A group and wife of O group
3) Husband of B group and wife of O group
4) Husband of AB group and wife of A group
184. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t class cyclostomata?
1) All the members are ectoparasites on some fishes
2) Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins
3) Circulation is of open type
4) They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water

185. A type of granulocyte (i) and agranulocyte (ii) are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign organisms
entering the body. (iii) secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory
reactions. (iv) resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions. (v) are responsible for
the immune responses of the body.
 1)
i) ii) iii) iv) v)

Monocytes Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Lymphocytes

2)
i) ii) iii) iv) v)

Neutrophils Monocytes Basophils Ecosinophi9ls Lymphocytes

3)
i) ii) iii) iv) v)
Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils Lymphocytes
4)
i) ii) iii) iv) v)
Monocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils lymphocytes

ZOOLOGY : SECTION - B
186. Which of the following statement about human population is correct?
1) The world population was around 7.2 billion by 2000.
2) India’s population reached close to 1.2 billion by 2000.
3) India’s population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence
4) According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was more than 2 percent.
187. Which of the following tissue originates exclusively from the Ectoderm of the Embryo?
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Muscular tissue 3) Connective tissue 4) Nervous tissue
188. The main function of lacteals in the villi of human small intestine is the absorption of
1) Glucose & vitamins 2) Amino acids & glucose
3) Fatty acids & Glycerol 4) Water and Mineral salts
189. Sertoli cells are mousishing cells in the testis. They also secrete a hormone. Identify the same
1) Testosterone 2) Gonadotsopin 3) Inhibin 4) Relaxin
190. Coronary heart disease is due to
1) Weakening of the heart values
2) Insufficient blood supply to the heart muscles
3) Streptococcal bacteria
4) Inflammation of pericardiems
191. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Catalytic converter I. Particulate matter
B. Electrostatic precipitator II. Carbon monoxide and precipitator nitrogen oxides
C. Ear muffs III. High noise level
D. Land fills IV. Solid wastes
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(4) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I

192. Which of the following is the correct set of the labels A, B, C and D in the given figure of maturation
of pro-insulin into insulin?
 A B C D
(1) Proinsulin cell peptidases Insulin Free C-Peptide
(2) Insulin cell peptidases Free C-Peptide Proinsulin
(3) Insulin Free C-Peptide cell peptidases Proinsulin
(4) Insulin Proinsulin Free C-Peptide cell peptidases
193. The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island. This is apparently due to
(1) lower intrinsic rate of goat. (2) the greater browsing efficiency of the goats.
(3) limiting resource. (4) superiority of the goat.
194. Match the following and then choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Endemism I. Khasi and Jaintia hills Meghalaya
B. Hotspot of India II. Advanced ex-situ conservation
C. Sacred groove III. Species found in a particular area only
D. Cryopreservation IV. Zoological park and Botanical gardens
E. Ex-situ conservation V. Western Ghats
(1) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV (2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E– V
(3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I (4) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – III
195. A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is called
(1) interferon (2) antigen (3) histone (4) antibody
196. Which of the following describes bats but not the birds?
1) They are endotherms 2) They are amniotes 3) They are viviparous 4) They have feathers
197. Which of the following is the incorrect match w.r.t ART?
1) ZIFT : Zygote or early embryo upto eight blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tubes.
2) IUT : Embryo with more than eight blastomeres is transferred into the uterus
3) GIFT : Transfer of an ovum after fertilisation into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot
reduce her own ova.
4) ICSI : A specialized procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which the sperm is injected
into the ovum.
198. Chromosome component in the person affected from Klinefelter syndrome will be
1) 44 + XX 2) 44 + XXY 3) 44 + XY 4) 44 + XO
199. Which group of three of the following statements A to E contains all correct statements w.r.t.
Kwashiorkor?
A) Caused mainly by deficiency of proteins.
B) Fat is not left under the skin.
C) Extensive oedema and swelling of the body parts.
D) Is found in a child more than one year of age.
Extreme emaciation and thinning of limbs occurs.
1) A, C and E 2) A, C and D 3) B, D and E 4) C, D and E
200. Which enzymes are likely to act sequentially on white of egg eaten by man as it moves down the
alimentary canal?
1) Trypsin Pepsin  Carboxypeptidase 2) Pepsin  Trypsin  Carboxypeptidase
3) Chymotrypsin  Enterokinase  Pepsin 4) Aminopeptidase  Trypsin  Pepsin