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SMCC 2122 Paper

The document is a physics examination paper for Form 6 students, consisting of two sections: multiple-choice questions in Section A and conventional questions in Section B. It includes various physics problems related to heat transfer, motion, sound waves, and optics, with specific instructions for answering. Students are required to complete the exam within a set time limit and follow guidelines for marking their answers.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
28 views21 pages

SMCC 2122 Paper

The document is a physics examination paper for Form 6 students, consisting of two sections: multiple-choice questions in Section A and conventional questions in Section B. It includes various physics problems related to heat transfer, motion, sound waves, and optics, with specific instructions for answering. Students are required to complete the exam within a set time limit and follow guidelines for marking their answers.

Uploaded by

Snowy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 21

Form 6 Name:_______________________ Section A

There are 33 questions. Questions marked with * involve knowledge of the extension component.
Class:________ No.: ______ 1. Two identical heaters are immersed in two identical beakers, one containing 1 kg of liquid X and the other
one containing 1 kg of water as shown. Both heaters are switched on for 10 minutes.
The specific heat capacity of liquid X is smaller than that of water.

Final Examination 2021/22 Heater


Power
Heater
Power
supply supply
PHYSICS
Water Liquid X
Time Allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes
Stirrer Stirrer

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Thermometer Thermometer


Beaker Beaker
(1) There are TWO sections, A and B, in this Paper. You are advised to finish Section A in about 50
minutes. Assuming no energy is lost to the surroundings. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(2) Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question book, while Section B contains (1) Liquid X absorbs more energy from the heater than water does.
conventional questions printed separately in Question-Answer Book B. (2) The temperature rise of water is smaller than that of liquid X.
(3) Answers to Section A should be marked on the Multiple-choice Answer Sheet while answers to (3) If the masses of water and liquid X are both halved, the final temperature difference between water
Section B should be written in the spaces provided in Question-Answer Book. The Answer Sheet and liquid X will be halved.
for Section A and the Question-Answer Book for Section B will be collected separately at the
A. (l) only
end of the examination.
B. (2) only
(4) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
C. (l) and (3) only
(5) The last two pages of this question paper contain a list of data, formulae and relationships which
D. (2) and (3) only
you may find useful.
________________________________________________________________________________
2. 0.2 kg of water is heated to its boiling point by an immersion heater. The initial temperature of water is
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A
20 C. The mass of water remained in the beaker is 140 g after the immersion heater is switched on for
1. Read carefully the instructions on the Answer Sheet. After the announcement of the start of the 5 minutes. Assume that no energy lost to or gained from the surroundings, find the power of the
examination, you should first insert the information required in the spaces provided.
immersion heater.
2. When told to open this book, you should check that all the questions are there. Look for the
Neglect the heat capacity of the beaker. The specific heat capacity and specific latent heat of vaporization
words ‘END OF SECTION A’ after the last question.
of water are 4200 J kg-1 C-1 and 2.26 x 106 J kg-1 respectively.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
A. 676 W
4. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. You are advised to use an HB pencil to mark all the answers on
B. 1 055 W
the Answer Sheet, so that wrong marks can be completely erased with a clean rubber. You must
mark the answers clearly; otherwise you will lose marks if the answers cannot be captured. C. 1 279 W
5. You should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you mark more than one answer, you D. 36 160 W
will receive NO MARKS for that question.
6. No marks will be deducted for wrong answers. 3. Milk at 10 C is added to a cup of coffee at 80 C. Assume that there is no heat exchange with the
surroundings and neglect the heat capacity of the cup. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) The energy lost by the coffee equals the energy gained by the milk.
(2) The average potential energy of the water molecules in the coffee decreases.
(3) The average kinetic energy of the water molecules in the coffee decreases.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3)

2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.1 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.2 of 14


4. Two containers X and Y of volume V and 4V respectively are connected by a tube as shown below. 7. As shown below, two blocks P and Q connected by a string S are placed on a horizontal frictionless
surface. The masses of the blocks P and Q are 3m and 5m respectively. Two horizontal forces X and Y are
tap
applying by two strings on the blocks P and Q respectively (X > Y) such that the two blocks move with
X V 4V Y
constant acceleration to the left. Find the tension of the string S.
20 C
100 C
Initially, the tap is closed and an ideal gas is contained in X at 20 C and 400 kPa. The same ideal gas is S
X P Q Y
contained in Y at 100 C and 100 kPa. The tap is then opened. Both containers X and Y are maintained at
their initial temperatures throughout the process. What is the final pressure in Y?
A. 140 kPa
A.
B. 172 kPa
C. 187 kPa
B.
D. 267 kPa

C.
5. An experiment to study heat transfer is conducted. A light bulb is turned on and two thermometers A and
B are clamped at the same distance from it. The thermometers are covered by two shiny aluminium foils
D.
and two blackened aluminium foils as shown in the figure below. The temperatures on both thermometers
are recorded every minute. Which of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature against
time? 8. A block of mass m resting on a 30° incline is given a slight push and slides down the incline plane with a
X Y uniform speed. Which of the following statements about the block’s motion on the incline are incorrect?

blackened aluminium foils shiny aluminium foils

30

(1) The frictional force acting on the block is 0.866 mg.


A. B. C. D. (2) The net force acting on the block is 0.5 mg.
temperature temperature temperature temperature (3) If the block is given a greater initial speed, it will slide down the incline with acceleration.
X Y X Y A. (1) and (2) only
Y X Y X
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
time time time time
D. (1), (2) and (3)

6. Cars A and B start from rest to move along a straight path of distance x to reach the destination. Car A
9. An open truck moves with a uniform velocity on a frictionless horizontal surface. Rain falls into the truck
accelerates uniformly for 5 seconds to attain a speed of 30 m s-1 while car B accelerates uniformly for
with negligible speed at a rate of 45 kg per minute. To keep the truck in uniform motion, a 9 N horizontal
8 seconds to attain a speed of 40 m s-1. Both cars travel with uniform velocities after acceleration.
force is needed to apply to it. Find the uniform speed of the truck.
A. 0.2 m s-l
A
B. 5 m s-l
B
C. 11.25 m s-l
x D. 12 m s-l
If car B reaches the destination 1 second earlier than car A, find x.
A. 165 m
B. 180 m
C. 280 m
D. 300 m
2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.3 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.4 of 14
10. The figure below shows a heavy cylinder with axle O, radius r and mass m. What is the minimum force 13. During an alpha decay process, the following reaction occurs:
(Fmin) required to pull it on to the step? 𝑋 → 𝑌 + 𝐻𝑒
Initially, 𝑋 is at rest. It splits into two daughter nuclei, 𝑌 and 𝐻𝑒. The masses of a proton and a
O neutron are 1.673 x 10-27 kg and 1.675 x 10-27 kg respectively. If the kinetic energy of 𝐻𝑒 is
r 7.6 × 10-13 J, which of the following statements is/are correct?
a
(1) The ratio of the speeds of 𝐻𝑒 and 𝑌 is 2 : 111.
d
(2) The speed of 𝐻𝑒 is 1.51 × 107 m s-1.
A.
(3) The kinetic energy of 𝐻𝑒 is greater than that of 𝑌.
A. (l) only
B.
B. (3) only
C. (l) and (2) only
C.
( ) D. (2) and (3) only
( )
D.
14. Satellites X and Y are orbiting around the Earth in circular orbits under the gravity of the Earth only. It is
known that X is at a higher altitude. Which of the following statements must be correct? Assume that the
11. A ball is projected with an initial velocity 12 m s-1 along a plane. The plane makes an angle of 30 with Earth is a perfect sphere.
horizontal and the ball is projected at an angle of 35 to the plane. What is the height (h) of the ball above (1) The acceleration of X is smaller in magnitude.
the ground when it hits the plane? (2) X has a higher orbital speed.
(3) Y has a higher angular speed.
A. (1) and (2) only
h 35 B. (1) and (3) only
30
C. (2) and (3) only
A. 2.37 m D. (1), (2) and (3)
B. 3.52 m
C. 4.74 m 15. A monochromatic light strikes a triangular glass prism as shown below.
D. 9.48 m
35

12. A bullet of mass 0.02 kg is fired from a gun so that it moves with 800 m s-1 towards a wooden block.
65
Assume the frictional force of the wooden block is constant. If the speed of the bullet is reduced by
100 m s-1 after penetrating through 20 cm, find the penetration depth of the bullet in the block.
A. 20.3 cm
B. 22.9 cm Find the refractive index of glass.
C. 85.3 cm A. 1.51
D. 160 cm B. 1.58
C. 1.72
D. 1.81

2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.5 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.6 of 14


16. 20. Which of the following statements about sound waves is/are correct?
(1) Sound wave can only travel in liquids and solids.
(2) Energy carried by the sound increases with its amplitude.
(3) Sound wave diffracts better than light wave as sound wave has a higher frequency.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
A student observes the words on the worksheet using a lens as shown above. Which of the following
D. (2) and (3) only
statements are incorrect?
(1) The image is real.
(2) The lens is a convex lens. 21. In the figure below, three charges are arranged on the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length r.
(3) If the lens is put nearer to the printing words, the observed image becomes larger. If the magnitude of the electrostatic force acting on +Q is F, find the magnitude of the electrostatic force

A. (1) and (2) only acting on +2Q.

B. (1) and (3) only +Q


C. (2) and (3) only r

D. (1), (2) and (3) only +2Q


r

17. The figure below shows displacement-distance graph of a section of a continuous transverse wave r
travelling along the x-direction at time t = 0. Q

A. F

B. 𝐹


C. 𝐹

At time t = 2 s, the particle P just passes the equilibrium position for a third time at that instant. Find the D. √3𝐹
wave speed.
A. 9.6 cm s-1 22. 4 resistors are connected in a circuit network as shown below. If the equivalent resistance across BC

B. 12 cm s -1 is 3 , find the equivalent resistance across AC?


-1
C. 15 cm s
4
D. 18 cm s-1 A B

18. Which of the following statements about light is correct? 2R R


A. When light travels from water to air, its speed decreases.
D C
B. When light travels from glass to water, its frequency increases. R
C. Young's double slit experiment proves that light is a wave. A. 2
D. Diffraction of light can be observed through a 3 cm slit. B. 4
nd C. 6
19. A beam of light strikes normally on a diffraction grating. If the angle between the two 2 -order bright
D. 8
fringes is 46, find the total number of bright fringes in the interference pattern.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 10
D. 11
2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.7 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.8 of 14
23. A battery of constant e.m.f. and negligible internal resistance is connected to four 8  resistors and an 26. A sinusoidal a.c. of frequency f delivers a root-mean-square voltage Vr.m.s.. If its frequency is halved and
ideal ammeter as shown below. If an ideal voltmeter is connected across XY, it reads 3 V. its peak voltage is doubled, what would be the new root-mean-square voltage?

X A. 𝑉r.m.s.

A

V B. 𝑉r.m.s.

Y C. 𝑉0

What is the reading of the ammeter if XY is shorted?
A. 0.225 A D. 𝑉

B. 0.125 A
C. 0.09375 A
27. The diagram below shows the path of a positively charged particle inside the three regions X, Y and Z.
D. 0.0625 A
Which of the following statements is/are the possible explanation for the path?
Region X Region Y Region Z
24. A magnet is accelerating towards a solenoid as shown below. Which of the following statements is
correct?
+ve

S N P

(1) In region X, a magnetic field is applied and points out of the paper.
X Y (2) In region Y, the positively charged particle is accelerating.
(3) In region Z, an electric field is applied and points to the right.
A. The end of the coil marked P is a South pole.
A. (2) only
B. Current flows through the galvanometer from X to Y.
B. (3) only
C. The deflection of the galvanometer is increasing.
C. (1) and (2) only
D. The net force acting on the magnet is zero.
D. (1) and (3) only

25. An aluminium ring is dropped over a bar magnet placed on a balance as


28. A metal rod is given a slight push to the right in a magnetic field as shown below. It then moves off with a
shown on the right. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
initial velocity u to the right. Neglect the friction on the rails. Which of the following is correct?
(1) An induced current is flowing in anticlockwise direction in the iron
ring when viewed from above. × × × × × × × × × × × × ×
metal rod
(2) The reading of the balance remains constant before the ring rests on it. × × × × × × × × × × × × ×
(3) The temperature of the iron ring increases. × × × × × × u× × × × × × × conducting rails
A. (1) only × × × × × × × × × × × × ×
N
B. (3) only × × × × X× × × × × × × × ×
S
C. (1) and (2) only × × × × × × × × × × × × ×
D. (2) and (3) only × × × × × × × × × × × × ×
O
× × × × Y× × × × × × × × ×

A. The induced current is in direction YXO.


B. The rod will accelerate uniformly to the right.
C. The rod will move with a constant velocity.
D. The rod experiences a rightward force.

2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.9 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.10 of 14


29. A solenoid of 200 turns, length 20 cm and diameter 40 cm is connected to a resistor and a variable d.c. 32. Which of the following is not a necessary condition for chain reaction of the fission of uranium to occur?
supply as shown. A. The mass of the uranium is large enough.
B. The number of neutrons generated exceeds the number of neutrons reacted.
V C. The speed of the neutrons hitting uranium is slow enough.
D. The temperature is high enough.

33. A reaction is represented by the nuclear equation is shown below.

The energy yielded is 17.6 MeV. How is the total mass of the constituents on the right compared with that
on the left?
A. The total mass on the left is 1.96 × 10−10 kg less.
A circular coil of 10 turns and diameter 20 cm is placed in the mid-point of the solenoid and connected to B. The total mass on the right is 1.96 × 10−10 kg less.
-1
a voltmeter. If the current flowing through the solenoid increases at a rate 5 A s , what is the reading of C. The total mass on the left is 0.0189 u more.
-7 -2 -2
the voltmeter? (Given: permeability of free space o = 4  × 10 m kg s A ) D. The total mass on the right is 0.0189 u more.
A. 1.97 mV
B. 3.95 mV
C. 0.197 V ~ End of section A ~
D. 0.395 V

30. Solution X contains a radioactive isotope of half-life 2.5 hours. At 9 am, 250 cm3 of solution X, having an
activity of 12800 Bq, is mixed with an unknown volume of pure water. At 7 pm, 25 cm3 of the diluted
solution is extracted and the activity is found to be 20 Bq. What is the volume of pure water used?
A. 500 cm3
B. 750 cm3
C. 1000 cm3
D. 1250 cm3

31. The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is double of that of a radioactive isotope Y. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(1) The decay constant of X is half of that of Y.
(2) The activity of X is half of that of Y.
(3) The number of particles emitted by 1 g of X is smaller than that of 1 g of Y.
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only

2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.11 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.12 of 14


energy transfer during Q1Q2
A1. E = mcT D1. F= Coulomb’s law
List of data, formulae and relationships heating and cooling 4 π 0 r 2
Data
molar gas constant R = 8.31 J mol1 K1 energy transfer during Q electric field strength due to a
A2. E = lm D2. E=
Avogadro constant NA = 6.02  1023 mol1 change of state 4 π 0 r 2 point charge
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m s2 (close to the Earth)
equation of state for an V electric field between parallel
universal gravitational constant G = 6.67  1011 N m2 kg2 A3. pV = nRT D3. E=
ideal gas d plates (numerically)
speed of light in vacuum c = 3.00  108 m s1
charge of electron e = 1.60  1019 C 1 l
electron rest mass me = 9.11  1031 kg A4. pV = Nmc 2 kinetic theory equation D4. R= resistance and resistivity
3 A
permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2 N1 m2
permeability of free space 0 = 4  107 H m1 3RT
A5. EK = molecular kinetic energy D5. R = R1 + R2 resistors in series
atomic mass unit u = 1.661  1027 kg (1 u is equivalent to 931 MeV) 2N A
astronomical unit AU = 1.50  1011 m
light year ly = 9.46  1015 m 1 1 1
D6. = + resistors in parallel
parsec pc = 3.09  1016 m = 3.26 ly = 206 265 AU R R1 R2
Stefan constant  = 5.67  108 W m2 K4
Planck constant h = 6.63  1034 J s v p
B1. F =m = force D7. P = IV = I2R power in a circuit
t t
Rectilinear motion Mathematics
force on a moving charge in a
For uniformly accelerated motion: Equation of a straight line y = mx + c B2. moment = F  d moment of a force D8. F = BQv sin 
magnetic field
Arc length = r
v = u + at Surface area of cylinder = 2rh + 2r2 gravitational potential force on a current-carrying
B3. EP = mgh D9. F = BIl sin 
s =
1
ut + at 2 Volume of cylinder = r2h energy conductor in a magnetic field
2 Surface area of sphere = 4r2
1 0 I magnetic field due to a long
v2 = u2 + 2as 4 B4. EK = mv 2 kinetic energy D10. B=
Volume of sphere = πr 3 2 2πr straight wire
3
For small angles, sin   tan    (in radians)  0 NI magnetic field inside a long
B5. P = Fv mechanical power D11. B=
Astronomy and Space Science Energy and Use of Energy l solenoid
GMm 
U = gravitational potential energy E illuminance

r A v2
B6. a= = 2r centripetal acceleration D12. =N induced e.m.f.
P = AT4 Stefan’s law Q A(TH  TC ) r t
= rate of energy transfer by conduction
f v λ t d
  Doppler effect Vs N s ratio of secondary voltage to
f 0 c λ0  Gm1 m 2 Newton’s law of
B7. F= D13.  primary voltage in a
U= thermal transmittance U-value r 2 gravitation Vp N p
d transformer
1
P = Av 3 maximum power by wind turbine
2
Atomic World Medical Physics λD fringe width in
C1. y = E1. N = N0ekt law of radioactive decay
1 1.22 λ a double-slit interference
2
me vmax = hf   Einstein’s photoelectric equation  Rayleigh criterion (resolving power)
2 d
diffraction grating ln 2
1 C2. d sin  = n E2. t1 = half-life and decay constant
1  me e 
4
13.6 power = power of a lens equation k
En =  2   =  2 eV f 2
n  8h  0 2 
2
n
I 1 1 1
energy level equation for hydrogen L = 10 log intensity level (dB)  = activity and the number of
I0 C3. equation for a single lens E3. A = kN
atom u v f undecayed nuclei
Z = c acoustic impedance
h h
= = de Broglie formula I r (Z 2  Z 1 ) 2 E4. E = mc2 mass-energy relationship
p mv = = intensity reflection coefficient
I 0 (Z 2  Z1 ) 2
1.22 λ
 Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) I = I0e x
transmitted intensity through a
d
medium

2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.13 of 14 2021-2022_F6_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_A P.14 of 14


Form 6 Name:_______________________ Q.1 You are given the instruments below to investigate the relationship between the volume and pressure of
a gas.
Class:________ No.: ______

Form 6 PHYSICS
2021 - 2022 Bourdon gauge

Rubber tube
Gas syringe
Final Examination
Marker' s Use Only
(a) Describe how you can use the given instruments to investigate the Boyle’s law. (4 marks)
SECTION B: Question-Answer Book B
This paper must be answered in English ______________________________________________________________________________
Question
No. Marks
______________________________________________________________________________
1 /7
______________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION B
2 /6 ______________________________________________________________________________
(1) After the announcement of the start of the
examination, you should first insert your 3 /8 ______________________________________________________________________________
information in the spaces provided on Page 1.
4 /8 ______________________________________________________________________________
(2) Refer to the general instructions on the cover of
the Question Paper for Section A.
______________________________________________________________________________
5 /6
(3) Answer ALL questions.
______________________________________________________________________________
(4) Write your answers of Section B in the spaces 6 / 10
provided in this Question-Answer Book. Do not ______________________________________________________________________________
write in the margins. Answers written in the 7 /8
margins will not be marked. ______________________________________________________________________________
(5) Graph paper and supplementary answer sheets 8 /8
will be provided on request. Insert the information ______________________________________________________________________________
required, mark the question number box, and 9 /8
attach them INSIDE this Question-Answer Book. ______________________________________________________________________________

(6) No extra time will be given for inserting your 10 /8 ______________________________________________________________________________


information after the ‘Time is up’ announcement.
11 /7
(b) State the two physical variables that are fixed in the experiment. (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________________
Total / 84
______________________________________________________________________________
(c) Explain Boyle’s law in terms of the kinetic theory. (2 marks)

Section Marks ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
A
______________________________________________________________________________
B
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
2021-2022_F6_Physics_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_B P.1 of 13 2021-2022_F6_Physics_Final_Examination_Paper_1_Section_B P.2 of 13
Q.2 In the 16th century, a famous scientist performed an experiment by dropping two objects of different Q.3 A block of mass 3 kg is pulled by a rope up an inclined plane at 20 to the horizontal. The rope makes
masses simultaneously from the top of a high building. It was found that both objects hit the ground at an angle at 30 to the inclined plane as shown. The friction between the block and the plane is 12 N.
the same time. The block moves from rest with an acceleration of 0.5 m s-2 for 5 seconds up the plane.

30

20

(a) Find the tension in the rope. (2 marks)


______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
(a) If the above experiment is carried out using modern timing equipment, it is found that the heavier
object reaches the ground slightly sooner than the lighter one. Explain why. (2 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ (b) Find the normal force acting on the block by the inclined plane. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(b) When a heavy object is released from the top of the building, it takes 1.79 s to reach the ground. The ______________________________________________________________________________
height of the building is 15.6 m. Assume the object accelerates uniformly throughout its motion. ______________________________________________________________________________
(i) Calculate the speed of the object when it reaches the ground. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________ (c) After moving for 5 seconds, the rope suddenly breaks. Find the speed of the block just after the
______________________________________________________________________________ rope breaks. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(ii) The mass of the heavy object is found to be 3.58 kg. How much mechanical energy is lost ______________________________________________________________________________
during the downward motion? (2 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________ (d) Describe the subsequent motion of the block after the rope breaks. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

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Q.4 An object S is connected to a fixed point O by an inextensible light string on a smooth horizontal table Q.5 A satellite is orbiting around the Earth at a distance of 1200 km above the surface. The mass of the
as shown. The string is 1.5 m long. The object completes 5 revolutions in 2 s. satellite is 6000 kg. Take the acceleration due to gravity at the Earth’s surface as 9.81 m s-2 and the
Earth’s radius as 6370 km.

1.5 m O
S

The object breaks up into two parts A and B suddenly. Parts A and B are 1 kg and 2 kg respectively.
Both parts move along the original moving direction just after breaking. Part A remains attached to the (a) Find the orbital speed of the satellite. (2 marks)
string after breaking. ______________________________________________________________________________
(a) Find the linear speed of the object before breaking. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(b) What is the kinetic energy of the satellite? (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(b) After breaking, the tension in the string becomes 2 times the original value. Find the
corresponding linear speed of part A. (3 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ (c) If the orbital radius of the satellite is halved, find the new kinetic energy of the satellite. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(c) Find the speed of part B just after breaking. (2 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________
(d) If the object breaks at point S, sketch the subsequent motion of part B in the above diagram. (1 mark)

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Q.6 Two vibrators S1 and S2 are set up in a ripple tank to demonstrate interference. They vibrate in phase to Q.6
produce two circular water waves of wavelength 8 cm. The figure below shows the wave pattern (c) If the vibrators in the experiment are replaced by two identical monochromatic light sources and
produced at time t = 0 s. placed in front of a screen, can we obtain an observable interference pattern on the screen?
Explain your answer briefly. (2 marks)
crest ______________________________________________________________________________
D trough
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
S1 A E B S2 C
______________________________________________________________________________
(a) (i) Point C is on the line joining S1 and S2 as shown. Which kind of interference occurs at C?
Briefly explain. (2 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________
(d) A double-slit and a point light source of frequency 6.7 × 1014 Hz are used to demonstrate the
______________________________________________________________________________
interference of light. The screen is placed 5 m away from the double-slit. The fringe pattern on the
______________________________________________________________________________ screen is shown below.
nd bright spot
(ii) If point D is a 2 -order maximum, find the lengths of S1D and S2D. (1 mark)
3 cm
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ Find the wavelength of the light from the source. Estimate the slit separation. (3 marks)

(b) (i) Sketch the water level at point A against time (for 2 periods). (1 mark) ______________________________________________________________________________

water ______________________________________________________________________________
level at
point A ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
time
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Sketch the water level at point E against time (for 2 periods). (1 mark)
water
level at
point E

time

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Q.7 The diagram below shows a peephole on a door and the image seen through it. Q.8 A 3-A fuse is connected in an electrical circuit. A current of 5 A passes through the circuit suddenly. A

particular part of the fuse wire, with latent heat of fusion 20 J, melts and breaks the circuit. The room

temperature is 20 C.

Specifications:
 Diameter: 0.5 mm
 Length: 1.2 cm
 Resistivity: 2.50 × 10-5  m
 Melting point: 58 C
 Heat capacity: 0.085 J C-1
(a) What kind of lens is used in a peephole? State one advantage of using this kind of lens. (2 marks)
(a) Find the total amount of energy required to melt that segment of the fuse wire. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(b) When a man of height 1.8 m stands 36 cm in front of the door, the image formed by the lens of the ______________________________________________________________________________
peephole is just 0.4 m. ______________________________________________________________________________
(i) Find the linear magnification of the image. (1 mark)
(b) Find the resistance of the fuse wire. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Draw a ray diagram on the graph below to find the focal length of the lens used. (3 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

(c) Find the amount of time required to break the circuit. (4 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
principal
axis
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

50 cm
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

5 cm position of lens ______________________________________________________________________________

Focal length of the lens in part (a) is ________________ . (1 mark) ______________________________________________________________________________


(c) State one advantage of using a lens with shorter focal length in the peephole. (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
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Q.9 An ideal transformer has 3000 turns in the primary coil and 200 turns in the secondary coil. The Q.10
primary coil is connected to the 220-V mains supply via a 2-A fuse.
(a) What is the current through the secondary coil when it is connected to a 20- light bulb? (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________ connected to
a d.c. power
______________________________________________________________________________ supply + X
 Y
copper
______________________________________________________________________________
rod

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ fixed copper rails


magnadur
(b) Hence, find the current through the primary coil. (2 marks) magnet

______________________________________________________________________________ In a magnetic field produced by a magnadur magnet, a copper rod is resting on two fixed
parallel and horizontal rails as shown. When the d.c. power supply is switched on, the copper
______________________________________________________________________________
rod moves to the right at a uniform speed.
______________________________________________________________________________ (a) State the direction of the magnetic field of the magnadur magnet. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ (b) Draw a free body diagram to show all the forces acting on the copper rod. (2 marks)
(c) What is the maximum number of 20- light bulbs that can be connected in parallel to the
secondary coil without blowing the fuse? (2 marks) copper rod

______________________________________________________________________________
copper rail
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________ (c) The current drawn from the d.c. power supply is 1.2 A and the magnetic field of the magnadur
magnet is 0.5 T. The length of XY is 10 cm. Find the friction acting on the copper rod. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(d) For the 20- light bulb to light up, the minimum operating current is 0.08 A. What is the
maximum number of light bulbs that can be connected in series to the secondary coil? (2 marks) ______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________ (d) What happens to the rod when the d.c. power supply is switched off suddenly? Explain and
describe briefly. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(e) At the instant the supply is switched off, which end, X or Y is at a higher potential? (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________
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Q.11

Bi  baX + He
A source contains radioactive nuclide Bi-210. Bi-210 underwent alpha decay and became X as shown
in the above equation. In this reaction, 8.49 × 10-13 J of energy was released. The half-life of Bi-210 is
5.01 days. The initial activity of the source is 16 800 Bq.
Given: Mass of Bi-210 = 209.9841 u Mass of alpha particle = 4.0015 u
-27
1 u = 1.661 × 10 kg Speed of light = 3 × 108 m s-1
(a) Find a and b. (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________________
(b) Find the mass of X (in terms of u). (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
(c) Find the decay constant of Bi-210. (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
(d) Find the initial number of Bi-210 nuclides. (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
(e) Find the total energy released by the source in 10 days. (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________
~ End of paper ~
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Form 6 Name: ___________________ Section B: Atomic World

Class: _______ No:______ Q.2: Multiple-choice questions

2.1 The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Which of the following photon(s) may excite
Final Examination 2021/22 a hydrogen atom from the ground state to the first excited state?
(1) A photon with energy 3.4 eV
PHYSICS PAPER 2
(2) A photon with energy 10.2 eV
Question-Answer Book (3) A photon with energy 12.1 eV
Time allowed: 1 hour A. (1) only
B. (2) only
INSTRUCTIONS
C. (1) and (2) only
1. After the announcement of the start of the
examination, you should first write your Section B: Atomic World D. (2) and (3) only A B C D
name, class and class number in the space    
provided on Page 1 and the answer book.
Full Marks Marks
2.2 Which of the following can be explained by the Bohr’s model?
2. This paper consists of THREE sections, MC 8
sections B, C and D. Each section contains (1) The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
SQ 10
eight multiple-choice questions and one (2) Discrete bright lines are observed in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom.
structured question which carries 10 marks. Section C: Energy and Use of Energy
Attempt ALL questions in any TWO (3) Dark lines are observed in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom.
sections. Full Marks Marks A. (1) and (2) only
3. Write your answers to the structured MC 8 B. (1) and (3) only
questions in the ANSWER BOOK
SQ 10 C. (2) and (3) only
provided. For multiple-choice questions,
blacken the appropriate circle with an HB D. (1), (2) and (3) A B C D
Section D: Medical Physics
pencil. You should mark only ONE answer    
for each question. If you mark more than Full Marks Marks
one answer, you will receive NO MARKS 2.3 Which of the following best explains the way that  particles are deflected in Rutherford’s
for that question. MC 8 -particle scattering experiment?
4. Graph paper and supplementary answer SQ 10 A. There is gravitational force between the  particle and the gold nucleus.
sheets will be provided on request. Write
your Name, Class, Class Number and B. Most of the mass of a gold atom is concentrated in a tiny volume at the centre.
Question Number on each sheet. C. Electrons are unevenly distributed inside a gold atom.
Paper 2 Total A B C D
5. The Question-Answer Book and Answer D. Many electrons orbit a gold nucleus.
Book will be collected SEPARATELY at Full Marks Marks    
the end of the examination.
40 2.4 Which of the following postulates of the Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom is/are ‘quantum’?
6. The diagrams in this paper are NOT
necessarily drawn to scale. (1) The electron is moving around the nucleus in a circular orbit.
7. The last two pages of this Question-Answer (2) The total energy of the electron staying in its orbit remains unchanged.
Book contain a list of data, formulae and
(3) The electron can only occupy certain discrete orbits.
relationships which you may find useful.
A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only A B C D
D. (1), (2) and (3)    

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2.5 The apertures and the de Broglie wavelengths of the electrons used in four transmission electron Q.2: Structured question
microscopes are shown below. In a photoelectric experiment, a calcium metal plate of area 3 × 10−4 m2 is illuminated by a beam of violet
microscope aperture / μm de Broglie wavelength of the light of intensity 0.032 W m−2 as shown.
electrons used / nm
P 35 0.0040
Q 35 0.0060
R 30 0.0060
S 40 0.0070
Assume that the resolving power of a microscope is only limited by diffraction. Which of the
following microscopes has the smallest minimum resolvable angular separation? The maximum KE of the photoelectrons is 0.95 eV. The work function of calcium is 2.87 eV.
A. P
Take e = 1.6 × 10−19 C.
B. Q
(a) Find the energy (in eV) of the photons of the beam of violet light. (1 mark)
C. R
D. S A B C D (b) Explain why not all the emitted photoelectrons possess the maximum KE. (1 mark)
    (c) (i) Estimate, using the classical wave theory, the minimum time required for a calcium atom to absorb
2.6 Which of the following properties of a specimen affects whether it can be observed under a scanning enough energy to eject an electron. Take the effective area of a calcium atom in absorbing energy
tunnelling microscope? as 0.2 nm2. (2 marks)
A. colour (ii) The experiment shows that the emission of photoelectrons is immediate even though the intensity
B. thickness of the beam is weak. Why? (1 mark)
C. thermal conductivity
(d) (i) How many photons fall on the calcium surface in each second? (1 mark)
D. electrical conductivity A B C D
    (ii) If only 5% of the photons can cause the emission of photoelectrons, estimate the maximum
photocurrent produced. (2 marks)
2.7 A metal of work function 5.55 eV is exposed to an electromagnetic radiation of frequency
6.89 × 1015 Hz. Find the stopping potential. (e) The graph below shows how the photocurrent IP changes with the applied voltage V where Vs is the
A. 23.0 V stopping potential.
B. 24.9 V
C. 28.6 V
D. 30.3 V A B C D
   
2.8 In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, electrons are emitted when the metal plate of a
photocell is illuminated by yellow light. Which of the following statements about the experiment
must be correct?
(1) Electrons will also be emitted if the yellow light is replaced by red light.
(2) Electrons are emitted almost immediately after the illumination. On the same graph, draw the IP–V graph (in dotted line) that would be obtained if the intensity of the
(3) The maximum kinetic energy of the electrons is independent of the intensity of the light used. light is doubled. (2 marks)
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only A B C D
   

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Section C: Energy and Use of Energy 3.4 A wind turbine has 3 blades of length 4 m. Wind is blowing head-on at a velocity of 6 m s−1. The
efficiency of generating electricity is 25%. The density of air is 1.3 kg m−3. How many 60 W light
Q.3: Multiple-choice questions
bulbs can be operated at the same time?
A. 29
3.1 The rated power and COP of an air conditioner are 1.25 kW and 3.2 respectively. Estimate the
maximum amount of energy released to the outside by the air conditioner in 2 hours. B. 58

A. 2.5 kW h C. 88
D. 116 A B C D
B. 4.0 kW h
   
C. 8.0 kW h
D. 10.5 kW h A B C D 3.5 The Overall Thermal Transfer Value (OTTV) of a building can be reduced by
    (1) applying external shades to windows.
3.2 A point light source S is at the centre of the celling in a room of dimensions 2 m × 3 m × 3 m. It (2) installing curtain or blinds.
gives an illuminance of 30 lux at a tiny surface P on the floor as shown. (3) designing building with a high windows-to-wall ratio.
A. (1) only
B. (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only
2m A B C D
D. (2) and (3) only
   
1.5 m 3.6 Which of the following statements about a fossil-fuel vehicle are incorrect?
(1) It does not give out air pollutants.
Estimate the luminous flux produced by the source. Neglect reflections of light. (2) Its end-use energy efficiency is higher than that of an electric vehicle.
A. 2360 lm (3) It has a larger combustion engine than an electric vehicle of a similar size.
B. 2950 lm A. (1) and (2) only
C. 3930 lm B. (1) and (3) only
D. 5890 lm A B C D
C. (2) and (3) only
    A B C D
D. (1), (2) and (3)
3.3 A rod is made of two kinds of materials A and B as shown below. The two parts have the same    
length and radius. The thermal conductivity of A is twice that of B. The temperatures at the two
3.7 Which of the following is/are (an) advantage(s) of an electric hotplate over an induction cooker?
ends of the rod are maintained at 100 C and 25 C respectively. What is the temperature at the
(1) An electric hotplate is more energy efficient.
interface between A and B after the temperature becomes steady?
(2) An electric hotplate heats food without generating heat itself.
(3) An electric hotplate can be used with non-metallic pots.
100 C A B 25 C A. (2) only
B. (3) only
A. 50.0 C A B C D
C. (1) and (3) only
B. 62.5 C    
C. 75.0 C
A B C D D. (1), (2) and (3)

D. 87.5 C    

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3.8 A solar panel is connected to an electric fan as shown. The fan operates when sunlight falls on the Q.3: Structured question
solar panel.
An interior designer is designing an environmentally friendly warehouse in the city. The rate of heat transfer
between the interior and the exterior of the warehouse is designed to be as low as possible.
(a) The designer uses a low-e glass for the windows of the warehouse. Explain why this kind of glass can
help reduce the rate of heat transfer. (2 marks)
(b) The designer claims that the insulation of the roof of the warehouse is more important than that of the
walls.
solar panel
(i) Explain why the insulation of the roof is more important. (1 mark)

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (ii) The designer installed a layer of insulation board which is made of polystyrene on the interior of
(1) Free electrons and holes are created in the junction region.
the roof. The following figure shows the cross-section of the insulating board.
(2) Free electrons leave the panel from the n-type region.
Polystyrene
(3) The panel remains electrically neutral.
A. (1) only Wood
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
A B C D
D. (1), (2) and (3)
    Describe how this material can reduce the rate of heat transfer through the roof. (2 marks)

(c) The following table lists the total area of the concrete walls, the roof and the glass of the warehouse and
their corresponding U-values.
Component Total Area / m2 U-value / W m-2 K-1
concrete wall 360 0.9
roof 216 0.3
glass 36 2.5
The temperature of the interior and exterior 20 C and 35 C respectively. The average rate of heat
transfer into the warehouse by radiation is 100 W m-2.
(i) Find the overall rate of heat gained by the warehouse through the building envelope. (2 marks)
(ii) Hence, find the OTTV of the warehouse. (1 mark)

An air-conditioning system is used to maintain the temperature inside the warehouse at 20 C. The
coefficient of performance (COP) of the air-conditioning system is 3.5.
(d) What is the input power of the air-conditioning system? (1 mark)
(e) Suggest a method to reduce the electrical energy consumption of the air-conditioning system. (1 mark)
[Remark: The temperature of the warehouse has to be maintained at 20 C.]

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Section D: Medical Physics 4.5 The half-value thickness of an aluminium plate is 3 mm. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Q.4: Multiple-choice questions
(1) The intensity of an X-ray can be reduced to zero by using two 3 mm aluminium plates.
(2) The intensity of an X-ray will be reduced to its half after the X-ray passes through a 3 mm
4.1 Peter has a defective eye whose near point is at 50 cm. He can see objects at 25 cm clearly with a
aluminium plate.
spectacle lens. The spectacle lens is 2 cm from the eye. Peter now switches from a spectacle lens to a
(3) The linear attenuation coefficient is directly proportional to the half-value thickness of
contact lens. Which of the following statements are correct?
aluminium.
(1) Peter is suffering from short sight.
A. (1) only
(2) The focal length of the spectacle lens is 44.2 cm.
B. (2) only
(3) The focal length of the spectacle lens is longer than that of the contact lens.
C. (1) and (3) only
A. (1) and (2) only A B C D
D. (2) and (3) only
B. (1) and (3) only    
C. (2) and (3) only
A B C D 4.6 Which of the following statements about artificial contrast media is / are correct?
D. (1), (2) and (3)
    (1) They can be taken in through injection only.
(2) They have higher attenuation coefficients than soft tissues do.
4.2 Refer to the Rayleigh criterion, under which of the following conditions will the resolving power be
(3) They allow an organ to appear whiter on an X-ray image.
the best? Assume that all points are of equal separation at the same distance away. (Aperture can be
A. (1) only
defined as the opening in a lens through which light passes to enter the camera.)
B. (1) and (2) only
A. Two blue points observed by a telescope of large aperture
C. (2) and (3) only
B. Two red points observed by a telescope of small aperture A B C D
D. (1), (2) and (3)
C. Two blue points observed by a telescope of small aperture    
A B C D
D. Two red points observed by a telescope of large aperture
    4.7 An aluminium plate of thickness 2 mm can reduce the intensity of an X-ray by 37%. What is the
percentage reduction in the intensity after the X-ray passes through an aluminium plate of thickness
4.3 What is the major function of the eardrum?
8 mm?
A. It converts the vibration of air to the vibration of the ear bones.
A. 39.7%
B. It converts the mechanical vibrations to signals for the nerves.
B. 60.3%
C. It separates the middle ear and the inner ear.
A B C D C. 74.0%
D. It amplifies the sound incident on it. A B C D
    D. 84.3%
   
4.4 In an ultrasound scan, an ultrasound wave with a higher frequency
4.8 Which of the following are the processes involved in reconstructing a 3D image in a CT scan?
A. penetrates deeper into body tissues.
(1) A one-dimensional X-ray scan is performed.
B. provides a higher resolution of the images.
(2) Multiple X-ray scans on the same plane to form a 2D scan slice.
C. travels faster in body tissues.
(3) Stacking up of slices gives a 3D model.
D. has a larger power. A B C D
A. (1) and (2) only
   
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (2) and (3) A B C D
   

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Q.4: Structured question

A radioactive tracer is injected into a patient’s body. The activity of the tracer inside the patient’s body at
different time is shown below.
Activity
𝐴

2𝐴
3

0 3 time / h

(a) Find the effective decay constant and effective half-life of the radioactive tracer. (2 marks)

(b) Given that the biological half-life of the tracer is 12 hours. Find its physical half-life. (2 marks)

(c) When will the activity drop to 𝐴 ? (2 marks)

A man feels pain in his chest and is suspected to suffer from bone fracture. He then consults a doctor. The

doctor runs some diagnostic tests to check his health condition.

(d) What kind of medical imaging should the man receive first? (1 mark)

After taking the imaging in (d), the doctor finds that the man’s bones are fine. The doctor then suggests the

man to have a check on soft tissues.

(e) Suggest a kind of medical imaging method to serve this purpose. (1 mark)

(f) Why is it appropriate for the doctor suggesting to use the imaging method mentioned in (d) first before

using the method in (e)? Explain briefly. (2 marks)

~ End of paper ~

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energy transfer during Q1Q2
A1. E = mcT D1. F= Coulomb’s law
List of data, formulae and relationships heating and cooling 4π 0 r 2
Data
molar gas constant R = 8.31 J mol1 K1 energy transfer during change Q electric field strength due to a
A2. E = lm D2. E=
Avogadro constant NA = 6.02  1023 mol1 of state 4π 0 r 2 point charge
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m s2 (close to the Earth)
equation of state for an ideal V electric field between parallel
universal gravitational constant G = 6.67  1011 N m2 kg2 A3. pV = nRT D3. E=
gas d plates (numerically)
speed of light in vacuum c = 3.00  108 m s1
charge of electron e = 1.60  1019 C 1 l
electron rest mass me = 9.11  1031 kg A4. pV = Nmc 2 kinetic theory equation D4. R= resistance and resistivity
3 A
permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2 N1 m2
permeability of free space 0 = 4  107 H m1 3RT
A5. EK = molecular kinetic energy D5. R = R1 + R2 resistors in series
atomic mass unit u = 1.661  1027 kg (1 u is equivalent to 931 MeV) 2N A
astronomical unit AU = 1.50  1011 m
light year ly = 9.46  1015 m 1
=
1
+
1
D6. resistors in parallel
parsec pc = 3.09  1016 m = 3.26 ly = 206 265 AU R R1 R 2
Stefan constant  = 5.67  108 W m2 K4
Planck constant h = 6.63  1034 J s v p
B1. F =m = force D7. P = IV = I2R power in a circuit
t t
Rectilinear motion Mathematics
For uniformly accelerated motion: Equation of a straight line y = mx + c force on a moving charge in a
B2. moment = F  d moment of a force D8. F = BQv sin 
Arc length = r magnetic field
v = u + at Surface area of cylinder = 2rh + 2r2 force on a current-carrying
B3. EP = mgh gravitational potential energy D9. F = BIl sin 
s =
1
ut + at 2 Volume of cylinder = r2h conductor in a magnetic field
2 Surface area of sphere = 4r2
v2 = u2 + 2as 4 1 0 I magnetic field due to a long
B4. EK = mv 2 kinetic energy D10. B=
Volume of sphere = πr 3 2 2πr straight wire
3
For small angles, sin   tan    (in radians)  0 NI magnetic field inside a long
B5. P = Fv mechanical power D11. B=
l solenoid
Astronomy and Space Science Energy and Use of Energy
GMm  v2 
U = gravitational potential energy E  illuminance B6. a= = 2r centripetal acceleration D12. =N induced e.m.f.
r A r t
P = AT4 Stefan’s law Q A(TH  TC )
= rate of energy transfer by conduction Vs N s ratio of secondary voltage to
f v λ t d Gm1 m 2
  Doppler effect B7. F= Newton’s law of gravitation D13.  primary voltage in a
f 0 c λ0  r2 Vp N p
U= thermal transmittance U-value transformer
d
1
P= Av 3 maximum power by wind turbine
2 λD fringe width in
Atomic World Medical Physics C1. y = E1. N = N0ekt law of radioactive decay
a double-slit interference
1 1 .22 λ
me vmax 2 = hf   Einstein’s photoelectric equation  Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) ln 2
2 d t1 =
C2. d sin  = n diffraction grating equation E2.
k
half-life and decay constant
1
1  m e e 
4 2
13.6 power = power of a lens
En =    =  2 eV f
n 2  8h 2  0 2  n 1 1 1 activity and the number of
I C3.  = equation for a single lens E3. A = kN
energy level equation for hydrogen L = 10 log intensity level (dB) u v f undecayed nuclei
I0
h h
= = de Broglie formula Z = c acoustic impedance E4. E = mc2 mass-energy relationship
p mv
I r (Z 2  Z 1 ) 2
1 .22 λ = = intensity reflection coefficient
 Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) I 0 (Z 2  Z1 ) 2
d
I = I0ex transmitted intensity through a

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