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Management Model Exit Examination II

IT Project management (Debark University)

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Management Model Exit Examination II

Name: ----------------------------------- ID No --------------------------Campus/Branch-----------------

General Instruction

 This model exit exam contains a total of 180 multiple choice questions. Make sure that
the exam contains a total of thirty eight pages.
 When you seat in this exam, you should switch off your cell phone and using any
electronic equipment is strictly forbidden.
 A student who engages in cheating and tries to cheat by any means automatically results
zero in his/her score.
 For your answer use only upper cases and provide the correct answer on the provided
space only.
 Do not detach any paper of this exam until you told to do so. Using additional white
paper is strictly forbidden.
 Time allowed 3:00 Hrs.

Do not turn this page until you told to do so!!!

Good Luck!!!

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Instruction: Answer all Questions by circling the letter of the appropriate Answer

Model Exit Exam Questions for the Human Resource Management Course
1. Human resource management is amalgam of

A. Job analysis, recruitment and selection

B. Social behavior and business ethics

C. Organizational behavior, personal management and industrial relation

D. Employer and employees

2. Operative functions of HRM includes

A. Procurement, development, compensation & motivation

B. Maintenance

C. Integration and emerging trends

D. All of these

3. Challenges faced by Human resource management includes

A. technological changes, workforce diversity, globalization

B. productivity, career planning

C. compensation management

D. downsizing and voluntary retirement scheme

4. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the external environment of an organization?

A. Social factors
B. Political factors
C. Legal factors
D. Organizational factors

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5. On the date of joining the employee is introduced to the company and other employees this
process is called as

A. Training B. Induction

C. Introduction D. Fresher welcome

6. Which one of the following is not a part of Process of Human resource planning?

A. Analyzing existing HR B. Implementation of HR plan

C. Recruitment D. Analyzing organizational objective

7. _________________ is a detailed & systematic study of information relating to operations &

responsibilities of a specific job.

A. Job Description B. Job analysis

C. Job designing D. None of the above

8. The activities in HRP doesn’t includes

A. Forecasting future HR needs B. Analyzing existing HR

C. Recruitment D. Evaluate & redesign of HR plan

9. Promotion is a/an _______________________ source Recruitment.

A. Suitable B. Higher

C. Internal D. External

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10. Identifying the __________________ candidates and ______________ them to apply for the
job is called Recruitment

A. Available, insisting B. Available, making

C. Potential, Attracting D. Potential, insisting

11. ________________ is the process of imparting or increasing knowledge or skill of an

employee to do a particular job.

A. Training B. Development C. Motivation D. Leadership

12. Off the job training method includes:

A. Vestibule training B. Syndicate

C. Sensitivity training D. All of these

13. Which of the below is not an objective of Performance appraisal?

A. Assessment of performance. B. Measuring the efficiency.

C. Maintaining organizational control. D. Designing Organizational goal.

14. “If a worker has few absences, his supervisor might give him a high rating in all other areas
of work” this is an example of ________________ bias in Performance Appraisal.
A. Halo effect B. Central Tendency
C. Personal Biases D. Stereo Typing

Model Exit Examination Questions for the Business Research Methods Course
15. A statement of the problem __________.
A. is a brief explanation of an issue, a condition, or a situation that you wish to study
B. refers to the critical issue that your research seeks to address
C. may be defined as an area of concern, a gap in the existing knowledge
D. All of the above

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16. Which one of the following is CORRECT about a research question?

A. It is a specific inquiry which the research seeks to provide a response to.

B. It is derived from your research problem but is based on your study design.

C. It is the central question of the study that has to be answered on the basis of research findings.

D. All of the above

17. Which one of the following is a characteristics of a statement of the problem?

A. It should be concrete and concise.

B. It should address a gap in knowledge.

C. It should be significant enough to contribute to the existing body of research

D. All of the above

18. Which one of the following is NOT CORRECT about an interview?

A. An interview is a qualitative research method

B. An interview is a quantitative research method

C. It can be close-ended or open-ended,

D. It can be structured, semi-structured, or unstructured

19. What is a research design?

A. A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
B. The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
C. The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph.
D. A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
D. It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.

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20. Which of the following are sampling considerations?

A. Who do you need to study in order to investigate your research questions?
B. How easily can you gain access to a sampling frame?
C. What kind of sampling strategy will you employ?
D. All of the above.

21. What is the major attribute of Correlation Analysis?

A. Association among variables
B. Difference among variables
C. Regression among variables
D. Variations among variables
22. Which of the following is NOT a non-random sampling method?
A. Quota sampling
B. Accidental sampling
C. Convenience sampling
D. Cluster sampling
23. Systematic sampling ______________.
A. needs a list of all elements in the study population
B. uses the researcher’s judgment as to the ability of the respondents to contribute to the
research
C. is based on convenience in accessing the sample population
D. is none of the above
24. A positive correlation occurs when:

A. Two variables remain constant

B. Two variables move in the same direction
C. One variable goes up and the other goes down
D. Two variables move in opposite directions

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25. Qualitative research is used in all the following circumstances, EXCEPT:

A. It is based on a collection of non-numerical data such as words and pictures

B. It often uses small samples

C. It uses the inductive method

D. It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest

26. What do we call data that are used for a new study but which were collected by an earlier
researcher for a different set of research questions?
A. Secondary data
B. Field notes
C. Qualitative data
D. Primary data
27. When each member of a population has an equal chance of being selected, this is called:

A. A snowball sample
B. A stratified sample
C. A random probability sample
D. A non-random sample
28. When people are readily available, volunteer, or are easily recruited to the sample, this is
called:
A. Snowball sampling
B. Convenience sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Random sampling
29. Which of the following is NOT always true about focus groups?

A. The ideal size is normally between 6 and 12 participants

B. Moderators should introduce themselves to the group

C. Participants should come from diverse backgrounds

D. The moderator poses preplanned questions

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30. What differentiates qualitative and quantitative research methodology?

A. Sampling methods
B. Data collection methods
C. Analysis methods
D. All of the above
31. Before starting to write a research report it is advisable to develop ____________.
A. An outline
B. A model
C. A chapter
D. A theme

Model Exit Exam Questions for the Project Management Course

32. Why do projects need a project feasibility study?
A. In order to ensure you have enough people to work on the project.
B. To provide detailed information on the budget required for the project.
C. To provide accurate information as to whether the project will succeed.
D. To conduct research on your competitors.

33. What are the steps involved in a project feasibility study?

A. Scope feasibility, market feasibility, organizational/managerial feasibility,

Financial/economic feasibility

B. Technical feasibility, market feasibility, financial/economic feasibility

C. Technical feasibility, market feasibility, organizational/managerial feasibility,

financial/economic feasibility, legal and labor feasibility

D. Technical feasibility, market feasibility, organizational/managerial feasibility,

Financial/economic feasibility

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34. What kind of feasibility measures cost-effectiveness of a project or solution?

A. Schedule feasibility
B. Operational feasibility
C. Economic feasibility
D. strategic feasibility
E. none of the above
35. Which of the following questions is/are considered when looking at feasibility study?
A .How well does a solution met the identified system requirements?
B. is the proposed technology or solution practical?
C. How cost-effective is the proposed solution?
D. Do we possess the necessary technical expertise?
E. Both (b) and (d)
36. The net present value of a project is equal to
A. the present value of all net cash flows that result from the project.
B. the present value of all revenues minus the present value of all costs that result from
the project.
C. the present value of all future net cash flows that result from the project minus the
initial investment required to start the project.
D. All of the above re correct.
37. You have mutually exclusive projects: A, B, and C. They have NPVs of $+50, -$20, and
+$100, respectively. What should you do?
A. Accept A B. Accept B C. Accept C D Accept A and C
38. Which one of the following statement is NOT true?
A. Projects need are normally initiated by a perceived need in an organization.
B. Sources of projects idea from a specific sector of economy can be considered as macro
sources.
C. Government policy priorities or government development planning documents are micro
sources.
D. None of the above

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39. Which one of the following is NOT true about project identification?
A. It is the second phase of the project development cycle.
B. It begins with conceiving of ideas or intentions to set up a project.
C. It is concerned with the collection, compilation, and analysis of economic data for the purpose
of locating possible opportunities for investment.

D. All of the above

40. By economic feasibility of a system we mean that ______.

A. It is economical to operate
B. It is expensive to operate
C. It will be cost effective if implemented
D. Finances are available to implement the system and it will be cost effective.
41. Feasibility analysis is the process of determining a business case is viable. It consists of four,
areas of feasibility analysis. Identify the correct combination.
A. Product/service feasibility, Industry/target market feasibility, organizational feasibility,
Human resource feasibility
B. Industry/target market feasibility, organizational feasibility, Human resource feasibility,
Leadership feasibility
C. Financial feasibility, Product/service feasibility, Industry/target market feasibility
organizational feasibility
D. Industry/target market feasibility, organizational feasibility, financial feasibility, Leadership
feasibility

Model Exit Exam Questions for the Operations /production/ Management Course
42. JIT refers to:
A. Jump in Time
B. Judge in time
C. Just in time
D. Job in time

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43. ------------ are materials held at various locations in a production system

A. Store
B. Go down
C. Inventories
D. Yard

44. The factory, the location where all the activities take place, machinery and heavy equipment
are kept is known as -----
A. God down
B. Plant
C. Industry
D. Workshop
45. To excellence, --------- processes are employed and international certification sought
A. Information
B. Operations
C. Quality
D. Benchmarking
46. ----------------- introduced the “science of management”
A. Frederick Taylor
B. Peter Taylor
C. John Collias
D. Douglas McGregor
47. In the banking sector has resulted in ATM, which save the banks a huge amount of labor and
it is found to have given greater customer satisfaction
A. Customization
B. Internet
C. Cost reduction
D. Automation
48. ---------- are designed so that the assembly tasks are performed in the sequence they are
designed
A. Plant layout
B. Production layouts
C. Assembling units
D. Production units
49. The essence of planning is the determination of activities that need to be performed at a
future date to meet demands that have been forecasted based on -------------- and -----------

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A. Product characteristics and specification

B. Market surveys and forecasting
C. Prediction models and forecasting
D. Manpower and resource availability

50. The forecasting technique that assumes demand for any period equals the previous period’s
actual values is called -------
A. Exponential smoothing
B. Nair forecast
C. Moring average
D. Radom variation
51. One can find out the variance and use the variance to analysis the various probabilistic
estimates pertaining to the product in -------- method
A. CPM
B. PERT
C. CPA
D. ICT

Model /Practice Exam / Questions for the Statistics for Business Course
52. A sampling method where each element in the population has equal chance of being in the
sample is known as
A. Quota sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Cluster sampling
E. None of the above

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53. Non – probability sampling is used if the population is finite, while probability sampling is
used for infinite population only.
A. True
B. False
54. In statistical methods the Greek letterµ represents the population mean and Sigma(δ) repents
the standard deviation
A. True
B. False
55. The essence of decision making through sampling is concluding about the population by
studying the part
A. True
B. False
56. A complete list of the population is called
A. Parametric sample
B. Sample
C. Census
D. Statistics
E. None of the above
57. If the following is a list of the ages of thirteen boys:
7, 11, 10, 14, 11, 9, 10, 8, 12, 11, 13, 11, 14: What is the value of the mode?
A. 14
B. 11
C. 10
D. 13
E. None of the above
58. Given the age distribution in question 6 above, what would be the median value?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 8
D. 14
E. None of the above
59. If it is assumed that the population is large enough the graphical method used for computing
different statistical value, such as the mean, standard deviation, variance, standard error, etc is
called
A. Normal curve
B. Ogive graph
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C. Histogram
D. Bar graph
E. None of the above
Answer questions 61- 67 based on the following information below.
Pizza Garden periodically offers carryout five – piece pizza dinners at special prices. Let Y
(dependent variable) be the number of dinners sold and X (independent variable) be the price
in dollar.Based on the historical observations and calculations in the table below answer the
following questions.
Observations Price X Dinners Sold Y
1 2.70 700
2 3.50 510
3 2.00 980
4 4.20 250
5 3.10 320
6 4.05 480
Total 19.55 3300
Average 3.258 550

60. If “a” represents the difference between the dependent variable (Y) and the intercept of the
line, and “b” represents the regression coefficient (slope of the line) and n number of
observations, the equation /formula representing the sum of the dependent variable Y is
A . ∑Y = na +b∑ X
B .∑ X Y = a∑ X + b∑ X 2
C.∑Y =b ∑ x 2−a ∑ X
D. ∑ Y = ∑ X ∑ Y +anx
E. None of the above
61. The value of “a” will be
A. 1450.12
B. – 276.28
C. 621.28
D. – 0.84
E. None of the above

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62. The value of “ b” will be

A. -276.28
B. 1450.12
C. 0.71
D. 3.258
E. None of the above
63. The regression equation will be
A. Y = 1450.12 – 276.28X
B. Y = 3300 – 0. 84X
C. Y = 19.55 – 621.28X
D. Y = 550 – 19.55X
E. None of the above
64. The value of “r” (the coefficient of correlation) is
A. 0.71
B. – 0.84
C. 550
D. – 276.28
E. None of the above
65. The value of r2 (the coefficient of determination) will be
A. 0.71
B. 0.84
C. 276.28
D. - 0.71
E. None of the above
66. The total number of dinners Pizza Garden can expect to sell at $3.0 each will be
A. 550 dinners
B. 621 dinners
C. 1450 dinners

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D. 276 dinner
E. None of the above
Model Exit Exam Questions for the Principles of Marketing Course
67. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Marketing is the term used to refer only to the sales function within a firm
B. Marketing managers usually don't get involved in production or distribution decisions
C. Marketing is an activity that considers only the needs of the organization, not the needs of
society as a whole
D. Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating,
delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and
society at large
E. None of the above

68. The term "Marketing" refers to?

A. Promotion of the product

B. Focusing on sales and profit
C. Strategizing and implementing the organization process
D. Set of activities to deliver customer value and satisfaction
E. None of the above

69. Which one is not a part of the 4 Ps?

A. Product
B. People
C. Price
D. Place
E. None of the above

70. Strategic marketing planning establishes the---

A. Resource base provided by the firm's strategy

B. Economic impact of additional sales
C. Tactical plans that must be implemented by the entire organization
D. Basis for any marketing strategy
E. None of the above

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71. Which of the following is NOT an element of the marketing mix?

A. Distribution
B. Product
C. Target market
D. Pricing
E. None of the above

72. ______________ is the collection and interpretation of information about forces, events, and
relationships that may affect the organization.

A. Environmental scanning
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Market sampling
D. Opportunity analysis
E. None of the above

73. Which concept holds that consumers will favor the products that are easily available at an
affordable price?

A. Production concept
B. Product concept
C. Marketing concept
D. Production cost concept
E. None of the above

74. In an organization strategic marketing planning must begin with?

A. Hiring a senior planning consultant

B. Establishing organizational goals and objectives
C. Writing the mission statement
D. Writing the vision statement
E. None of the above

75. Which period worked on the marketing philosophy of "A good product will sell itself"?

A. Marketing
B. Production
C. Sales
D. Relationship
E. None of the above

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76. Which of the following describes "diversification"?

A. New products in new markets

B. New products in existing markets
C. Existing products in an existing market
D. Existing products in new markets
E. None of the above

77. The marketer focuses on product awareness, trial, and expansion in this stage of the product
life cycle?

A. Growth Stage
B. Decline Stage
C. Maturity stage
D. Introduction stage
E. None of the above

78. Dividing the market into homogeneous groups is called?

A. Segmentation
B. Classification
C. Analysis
D. Grouping

Model Exit Exam Questions for the Leadership and Change Management Course

79. ___________ is increasing Leadership rapidly:

A. Strategy
B. Command
C. Control
D. Getting others to follow
E. none of the above
80. __________ are the approaches to the study of leadership which emphasize the personality
of the leader:
A. Contingency theories
B. Group theories
C. Trait theories
D. Inspirational theories
81. Contingency theories of leadership based upon:
A. That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
B. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers

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C. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

D. None of the above
82. What is most important to a transactional leader when delivering rewards or punishment to
subordinates?

A. Employee relationships with the manager

B. Employee performance
C. Employee tenure
D. Employee benefits
E. None of the above
83. A style of leadership in which leaders promote compliance by followers through both
rewards and punishments
.
A. Charismatic Leadership
B. Transactional Leadership
C. Transformational Leadership
D. Authentic Leadership
E. None of the above

84. What do you call a style of leadership that takes account of others' views, opinions and ideas?
A. Laissez –fair
B. People-oriented
C. Democratic
D. Autocratic
85. The great person theory is another name for -------- theory of leadership
A. Trait
B. Behavioral
C. Situational
D. Path goal
E. None of the above

86. How can you describe the thinking and outlook of transformational leaders?

A. Strategic

B. Operational

C. Functional

D. Developmental

E. None of the above

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87. What are the key characteristics of transactional leaders?

A. Guiding, mentoring and motivating

B. Guiding, commanding and motivating
C. Guiding, demonstrating and motivating
D. Guiding, mentoring and demonstrating

88. Motivating change and creating readiness for change does not include:

A. Sensitize organization to pressure for change

B. Reveal discrepancies between current and desired states
C. Covey credible positive expectation for Change
D. Constructing the Envisioned Future

89. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways you might deny using power in a conflict?

A. Deny that the other person communicated something.

B. Deny that something was communicated.
C. Deny that you communicated something to the other person.
D. Deny that you communicated something

Model Exit Exam Questions for Organizational Behavior and Management

90. Organizational behavior analyzes three levels of an organization-which are:

A. Country, employer, society

B. Society, country, nation

C. Employee, employer, management

D. Individuals, groups, organization

91. According to the scientists of organizational behavior, how are the organizations?

A. Dynamic and ever-changing

B. Researching

C. Processing

D. Static

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A. What are consequences of a good fit between person and occupation?

B. a. a low level of stress
C. b. a high level of accomplishment
D. c. high satisfaction and low turnover
E. d. maximum performance and efficiency
F. e. a high rate of turnove
G. Why should managers be interested in their employees’ attitudes?
H. a. They result from behavior.
I. b. They cause problems.
J. c. They give warnings of potential problems.
K. d. They are generally low.
L. e. They result in cognitive dissonance
92. Which of the following options is correct regarding organizational cultures?

A. A stronger culture more influences the behavior of the employee

B. A strong culture always means the more productive environment
C. A particular culture that brings positive effectiveness is better
D. A weak culture always means the more productive environment

93. To study employee behavior in any organization, which of the following should be the most
important concern?

A. The employee’s personality and attitude are basically dependent on the environment.
B. Environmental and individual differences are crucial for understanding employee behavior.
C. Environmental and individual differences do not play a role in understanding employee
behavior.
D. The environment in the organization is the most important factor that assists in understanding
individual behavior
E. None of the above
94. Why should managers be interested in their employees’ attitudes for Job Satisfaction and
Implications for Managers?

A. They result from behavior

B. They cause problems

C. They give warnings of potential problems

D. They are generally low.

E. They result in cognitive dissonance

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95. The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred to as
_____.
A. classical conditioning
B. self-management
C. reengineering
D. Organizational behavior mode
E. social modeling
96. What is the primary meaning of the organization structure?

A. The exact designated position of spaces and departments in an organization

B. The policies created and implemented by the firm

C. The way different resources are distributed

D. The manner in which activities are controlled and performed in a simplified manner

97. Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?

A. Group members are interdependent.

B. Groups have two or more members

C. Groups have assigned goals

D. Groups interact

E. Groups have shared fates

98. What sort of groups are defined by the organization’s structure?

A. Informal
B. Task
C. Friendship
D. Interest
E. Formal
99. What are the five stages of group development?
A. generation, implementation, construction, production, termination
B. introduction, development, production, deterioration, adjournment

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C. initiation, evolution, maturation, degeneration, termination

D. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
E. acting, reacting, enacting, impacting, acting

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100. Which of the following statements is true?

A. All task groups are also command groups.

B. All command groups are also task groups.

C. All task groups are also friendship groups.

D. All command groups are also informal groups

E. All informal groups are also command groups

101. What are consequences of a good fit between person and occupation and person-
organization fit?

A. a low level of stress

B. a high level of accomplishment

C. high satisfaction and low turnover

D. maximum performance and efficiency

E. a high rate of turnover

102. According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an
individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the
individual is known as what sort of relationship?

A. performance-reward
B. effort-performance
C. rewards-personal goal and relationship
D. effort-satisfaction
E. performance-achievement

103. Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the
group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?

A. group conformity

B. group shift

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C. Groupthink

D. compromise

E. risk transfer

104. What does a positive organizational culture do?

A. uses positive reinforcement instead of punishment

B. rarely uses rewards

C. emphasizes individual growth, and creating a Positive Organizational Culture

D. emphasizes building on the organization’s strengths

E. emphasizes organizational vitality

105. Organizations that promote a spiritual culture _____.

A. have organized religious practices

B. adopt a corporate religion

C. recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit

D. de-emphasize community in the work place

E. tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction

M. Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.
N. a. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes
O. b. focusing on individual differences
P. c. eliminating group learning
Q. d. balancing work/life conflicts
R. e. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees
106. Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.
A. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes
B. focusing on individual differences
C. eliminating group learning
D. balancing work/life conflicts
E. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees

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A. The centerpiece of most diversity programs is _____.

B. a. top management commitment
C. b. employee commitment
D. c. training
E. d. human resource personnel
F. e. employee satisfaction

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107. The centerpiece of most diversity programs is _____.

A. top management commitment
B. employee commitment
C. Diversity training
D. human resource personnel
E. employee satisfaction
108. Specialization is a feature of which organizational structure?

A. Matrix

B. Divisional

C. Multi-divisional

D. Functional

109. What is NOT a purpose of an organizational structure?

A. To coordinate people and resources
B. To organize lines of communication
C. To formalize authority
D. To limit workers' rights
E. None of the above
110. What is NOT an advantage of a hierarchical structure?
A. Clear chain of command,
B. Quick response to change,
C. Discipline and stability,
D. Small span of control
E. None of the above
111. How can organizational structures that are characterized by democratic and inclusive styles
of management be described?

A. Hierarchical,
B. Bureaucratic
C. Flat
D. Functional

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E. None of the above

A. The most important aspect of power is
B. a. it is needed to get things done in an organization.
C. b. it is a function of dependency.
D. c. it tends to corrupt people.
E. d. it is counterproductive.
F. e. it is productive
112. The most important aspect of power in organization is:

A. It is needed to get things done in an organization.

B. it is a function of dependency

C. It tends to corrupt people.

D. It is counterproductive.

E. it is productive

A. Your manager ofers you a raise if you will complete additional work beyond the
requirements of
B. your job; he or she is exercising
C. a. legitimate power.
D. b. coercive power.
E. c. reward power.
F. d. expert power.
G. e. referent powe
113. Your manager offers you a raise if you will complete additional work beyond the
requirements of your job; he or she is exercising
A. Legitimate power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Reward power.
D. Expert power.
E. referent power
114. Which of the following are the basic sources of stress?
A. The Environment
B. Social Stressors
C. Physiological
D. Thoughts

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E. All of the above

115. Stress management is about learning

A. How to avoid the pressures of life

B. How to develop skills that would enhance our body’s adjustment when we are subjected to the
pressures of life
C. Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are true
D. None of the above

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116. Which of the following statements is true about stress management?

A. Stress management is learning about the connection between mind and body
B. Stress management helps us control our health in a positive sense
C. Stress management teaches us to avoid all kinds of stress
D. Only ‘1’ & ‘2’ are right
E. None of the above

Model Exit Exam Questions for the Management Information System Course

117. __________ is a set of elements which are linked together to achieve their common goal or
objective.

A. Data B. System C. Sub-System D. Information E. A and D

118. Although there are very many reasons and importance for Management Information System
(MIS) to be practiced in organization. Which one of the following is not the major importance of
MIS?

A) MIS minimizes Information Overload. B. MIS makes Control easier

B) C. MIS helps in decision-making processes. D. Facilitate Coordination

E. none of the above

119. ____________________ are un organized raw facts or observation typically about physical
phenomena or business transaction and it is objective measurement of the attribute of entities.

A. Data B. information C.MIS D. datum E. A and C

120. ________________________ is the branch of engineering that deals with the use of
computer and telecommunication to retrieve; store and transmit information.
A. Computer system B. Information Technology C. Process D. A and B E. A and C

121. Which one of the following is not the role of information system can perform for a business
enterprise or an organization.
A) Facilitation of business process and operation.
B) Facilitation of decision making processes.
C) Facilitate or support strategy formulation processes.
D) All of the above except C.
E) None of the above.

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122. The physical Component of a computer system which is part of the computer that can be
touché felt and seen physically is called as .
A) Storage Ram B) Screen C) Software D) Hardware E) A and C

123. It is part of a computer which accept data from outside a computer and convert it into an
electronic form that the computer can understand. This part is called as .
A) Software B) Input device C) Output device D) Primary storage E) All of
the above

124. Local Area Networks (LAN) become more popular alternatives for end users and working
groups. Which one of the following is the advantage of LAN
A) Allow to share the same hardware storage.
B) Allow to share software.
C) Enable to share data resource
D) All of the above.
E) B and C

125. The star topology is widely used structure for data communications system. Which one of
the following is not the feature of star topology?
A) All deices connected to a central deice or hub.
B) All data transferred from one computer to another passes through hub.
C) Collisions are prevented by the central device.
D) If one connection with the hub goes down her rest can not continue.
E) More centralized.

126. The data flow is in one direction only; with one single node receiving the transmission and
relaying it to the next node. This type of topology is .
A) Ring Topology B) Bus Topology C) Star Topology D) A and C E) All of the above

127. __________________is the operational for checking or validating of data to ensure it was
captured and recorded correctly.
A) Verifying B) Communication C) Capture D) Reproducing E None of the above

128. Marketing Information System (MIS) is a set of procedure and methods designed to
generate analyze disseminate and store anticipated marketing decision information on a regular
continuous bases. Which of the following the major component of MIS.
A) Internal Reporting System. B) Marketing Research System. C) Marketing intelligence
System. D) Marketing Models. E) All of the above.

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129. Integration is the key to any successful IFMIS so; integration implies that the system has :-
A) Standard data classification for recording financial events.
B) Internal control over data entry; transaction processing and reporting.
C) Common processes for similar transaction.
D) Eliminate unnecessary duplication of data entry.
E) All of the above.

130. A transaction processes system is a computerized system that performs an records the daily
routine transactions necessary to conduct businesses. Which of the following can not be
processes by transaction processes system.
A) Sales Order Entry. B) Hotel Reservation. C) Payroll data.
D) Employee record keeping. E) None of the above.

131. Decision Support system helps managers to make decision that are:
A) Unique; rapidly changing and not easily specified in advance.
B) They address problems where the procedure for arriving at solution may not be fully
predefined in advance.
C) They use internal information from TPS and MIS; they often bring in information from
external sources.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.

Model Exit Exam Questions for the International Marketing Course

132. Which one of the following is true about nature of International marketing?
A) Multiple markets; multiple mix of marketing variable demand new set up of
administrative machinery.
B) Advertising messages has to care for many cultural differences between countries.
C) Product has to be adapted to every market segments.
D) Mostly the application of a single marketing mix model is suitable to be successful in
the market. E) None of the above

133. In order to improve the overall welfare of all counties; a country should specialized in
production and export of commodities that it can produce at a lower opportunity cost than others
and import commodities that are produces at a lower cost by others countries. This is the basic
premise of .

A) Absolute Advantage theory. B) Comparatives advantage theory C) Free trade

theory D) All of the above. E) None of the above.

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134. The EPRG framework attempts to identify four broad type of orientation of a firm toward
internationalization of its operation. is one of the four orientation which
states that organized international marketing activities on Country-by-County basis.

A) Ethnocentric Orientation. B) Polycentric Orientation C) Regiocenteric Orientation.

C) Geocentric Orientation. E) All of the above.

135. There are differences between Domestic market and International Marketing except one of
the following:
A) Cultural B) Political C) Religious D) Customary E) None of the above.

136. Online Marketing is a popular method to gain audiences.

A) International. B) Only local C) People at home together
D) All of the above E) None of the above

137. The ability of a country or a company or a region to produce goods or service at lower cost
than the cost at which any other country or company or region or any entity can produced the
same good and service is the basic premise of .
A) Absolute Advantage theory. B) Comparatives advantage theory C) Free trade
theory D) All of the above. E) All of the above.

138. At which product life cycle phases (stage) the promotion expenses of the product is higher
due to this and other factors the profit from sales of the product may not exist?
A) At Introduction phase B) At Growth phase C) At maturity phase
D) Declining phase E) All of the Above.

139. Transactions that result in conversion of one currency into another are termed as .
A) Exchange control. B) Foreign exchange Market C) Foreign Exchange Transaction
D) Balance of payment E) None of the above.

140. International market segmentation can be done by clustering markets based on certain
criterion. Which of the following factor can be serving as market segment classification at
international Market?
A) Stage of economic development: B) Language: C) Product attributes
D) Usage rate E) All of the above

141. Pricing methods is taken to mean starting to price from known fixed
costs and adding all variable costs as well as the costs of getting the goods to the customer. This
type of pricing techniques is
A) Cost-based pricing. B) Differential pricing. C) Transfer pricing
D) Standardized pricing E) A and C

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142. In deciding the form in which the product is to be marketed abroad, the firm should
consider any of the following sets of factor/s:
A) The market(s) that have been targeted, B) The product and its
characteristics,
C) Company characteristics, such as resources and policy. D) All of the above E. None of
the above.

143. Which one of the following are the elements considered when international prices are fixed?
A) Production cost. B) Competition. C) Brand image or equity in the
host country. D) Seasonality of business. E) All of the above
144. A firm can charge higher prices on its products than the competition while keeping their
market share; when this happened?
A) When a firm’s product has better brand equity than its competitors (rivals).
B) When a firm’s distribution network is better than its rivals.
C) When a firm has loyal customers than its rivals.
D) When a firm able to delivered differentiated product than its rivals.
E) All of the above

145. Countries are usually in place import product standards, testing or approval procedures,
subsidies for local products, and bureaucratic red tape for imported products to keep foreign
products out and/or to protect domestic producers. Such action is an example of
A) Non-tariff barrier B) Tariff Barrier C) import incentive
D) A and B E) none of the above

146. When there is free moment of labor; Capital and Technology within economic co-operation
member countries and the restriction on cross broader trade; such type of cooperation is called
.
A) Free trade area B) Customs union C) Common market
D) Economic Union E) None of the above

Model Exit Exam Questions for the Strategic Marketing Course

147. Strategic Management does not involve any one of the following major activities.
A) Strategy formulation B) Strategic thinking C) Strategic implementation
D) Strategic monitoring and evaluation E) None of the above.

148. . states that the main reason for the existence of any organization
or it is enduring statements of purpose that distinguish one business from other similar firms.
A) Vision statement B) Mission statement C) Objectives
D) Policies E) None of the above

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149. Strategic management offers the following main benefit except one of the following.
Which one?
A) Creates a framework for internal communication among personnel
B) Gives encouragement to forward thinking.
C) Encourage a favorable attitude towards change.
D) Provide basis for clarification of individual responsibility.
E) None of the above

150. _______________ is a means by which long-term objectives can be achieved.

A) Mission B) vision C) Strategy D) Objectives D) None of the above
151. _______________refer to economic, social, cultural, demographic, environmental,
political, legal, governmental, technological, and competitive trends and events that could
significantly benefit an organization in the future.
A) Opportunity B) Internal Strength C) Internal weakness
D) A and C E) None of the above.

152. can be defined as specific results that an organization seeks to achieve in

pursuing its basic mission.
A) Policy B) Objective C) Threat D) strategy E) None of the above.

153. Which one of the following is not important question to answer in developing a strategic
plan?
A) Where are we now? B) Where do we want to go?
B) How are we going to get there? C) A and C
E) None of the above

154. A focuses on the major activities of the company.

A) Business level strategy. B) Functional level strategy C) Mission statement
D) Corporate level strategy E) None of the above

155. Having clear vision and mission statement provide the following benefits except one
of the following.

A) Provide direction. B). Provide a focal point for all stakeholders of the firm.
C) Resolve divergent views among managers. D). Project a sense of worth and intent to
all stakeholders. E) None of the above.
156. According to Porter, the nature of competitiveness in a given industry can be viewed as
a composite of the following forces except one of the following; Which one?
A) Rivalry among competing firms B) Potential entry of new competitors
C) Bargaining power of suppliers D) Type of ownership
E) Bargaining power of consumers.

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Model Exit Examination for the Operations Research Course

Answer questions 157-159 base on the following problem.
Problem I
Suppose four business firms seek your advice and assistance on the possibility of introducing
appropriate Operations Research tools in their decision making process. Of the four firms, one is
manufacturing, the second service giving, the third is a retail business buying and selling goods,
while the fourth is a technical training school.
Use the data / information in Problem I to answer the following questions
157. The LP model is appropriate for the first three firms (True, False).
158. The forecasting method can be used for all the four firms (True, False).
159. The ---------- model is more appropriate for the technical training school.
A. LP
B. Markov chain
C. Stepping stone method
D. Simulation model
Answer questions 160-164 base on the following problem
Problem II
A service organization charges its subscribers 50 birr per period less 0.50 for every subscriber
Y over 10; that is, for example, 11 subscribers would pay 49.50 Birr each and the organization
would have a total revenue of 11 (49.50) = 544.50 birr.

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160. If x is the number of additional subscribers, then the revenue (R) function would be
A) R = 500+ 45x – 0.50x2
B) R = 500 + 45 X + 0.50x2
C) R = 500 + 10x – 0.50x2
D) R = 544.50 + 45x – 5x2
161. The first derivative of the revenue function DR/DX is
A. 45 - x
B. 45 + x
C. 50 + x2
D. 55x – x 2
162. Then solving for x using the first derivative, the total number of subscribers would be
A. 55
B. 45
C. 500
D. 50
163. Given the total number of subscribers, the total revenue would be
A. 55
B. 275
C. 1512.5
D. 500

Answer questions 164-169 base on the following problem

Problem III
The owner of a travel agency receives 15% commission on all tickets that his agency sells. He
employs a supervisor at a salary of $5000 per year. In addition, he hires temporary help at $2 per
hour, whenever needed. One hour of temporary help is needed for each $10 received in
commission. Other expenses include rent at $10 per day on a long term contract, and interest
expense equals to 2% of the value of tickets sold. Assume the office is open 250 days per year.
164. If it is assumed that X is the total number of sales per year, the total revenue (TR) function
is equal to
A. TR = 0.15X
B. TR = 0.05X
C. TR = 0.06X
D. TR = 015X + X2

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165. Total fixed cost is equal to

A. 7500
B. 5700
C. 75,000
D. 55,000
166. The variable cost (VC) function will be
A. VC = 0.05X
B. VC = 0.1X
C. VC = 0.15X
D. VC = 0. 03X
167. The year total revenue at breakeven level is equal
A. X = 75,000
B. X = 65, 000
C. X = 1200
D. X= 7500
168. If ticket sales are $1,200 per day earnings (commission) will be
A. $300 per day
B. $18o per day
C. $90 per day
D. $75 per day

Answer questions 169-174 base on the following problem

Problem IV
Dr. Tesfaye is a lecturer of biochemistry at the National University. He has developed a formula
for a new detergent. Two chemical companies have approached him. Both want exclusive rights
to the formula in order to commercialize it. If he signs with Company X, he will receive a single
lump sum, but if he signs with Company Y, the amount he will receive depends on the market
response to the product. Dr. Tesfaye’s payoffs are summarized below:

STATE OF NATURE
Decision Small (S) Medium (M) Large (L)
A1: Sign with Com X $ 4000,000 $ 2000,000 $ 6, 000,000
A2: Sign with Com Y $ 1, 8000,000 $ 1, 8000,000 $ 1, 8000,000

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169. What is the optimal strategy (to whom should Tesfaye sell the formula if the maximim
criterion is used?)
A. Sign with Company Y
B. Sign with Company X
C. Sign with both
D. Do not sign with either company
E. None of the above
170. Using Laplace rule the optimal act will be
A. Sign with company X
B. Sign with company Y
C. Do not sign with both
D. None of the above
171. Using the minimax regret criterion, the best decision is:
A. Sign with company x
B. Sign with company Y
C. Sign with one of them
D. Not enough data given
E. None of the above
172. If P (S) = 0.3, P (M) = 0.6, P(L) = 0.1, to whom should Tesfaye sell the formula?
A. To Company X
B. To company Y
C. To one of them
D. To both
E. None of the above

173. What is the most Tesfaye should be willing to pay to learn what the size of the demand for
the new detergent would be before he decides with whom to sign
A. $ 420,000
B. $210,000
C. $540,00
D. $270,000
E. None of the above

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Answer questions 174-180 based on the following problem

Problem V
Appropriate Technology Industries (ATI) imports electronic components that are used to
assemble two different models of personal computers. One model is called the AT Deskpro
computer and the other model is called AT Portable computer. AT’s management is currently
interested in developing a weekly production schedule for both products.
The Deskpro generates a profit contribution of $50 per unit and the Portable generates a profit
contribution of $40 per unit. For the next weeks production a maximum of 150 hours of
assembly time can be made available. Each unit of the Deskpro requires 3 hours of assembly
time and each unit of the Portable requires 5 hours of assembly time. In addition AT currently
has in inventory only 20 of the display units used in the Portable, thus no more than 20 units of
the Portable may be assembled. Finally, only 300 square feet of warehouse space can be made
available for new production of these products. Each unit of the Deskpro requires 8 square feet
of warehouse space and each unit of the Portable requires 5 square feet of warehouse space.
Instruction: After formulating and solving as a linear programing problem using the information
given in problem V above answer the following questions.
174. The objective function can be stated as
A. Zmax = 50X1 + 40x2
B. Zmin = 50X1 + 40x2
C. Zmax = 20X1 + 40x2
D. Zmax = 300X1 + 150x2
E. None of the above
175. Then, the product mix that maximizes profit is
A. X1 = 12 and x=30
B. X1 = 30 and X2 = 12
C. X1 = 8 and X2 = 1980
D. X1 = 1980 and X2 = 1875
E. None of the above
176. The optimal value of the problem is
A. 1875
B. 1980
C. 1380
D. 1080
E. None of the above
177. All the resources are fully used
A. Yes
B. No

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178. If there are any resources not fully utilized, which one?
A. Assembly time
B. Portable display
C. Warehouse space
D. A and B
E. None of the above
179. If AT had an opportunity to acquire additional resources, which resource would be the most
valuable?
A. Resource 1 (Assembly time)
B. Resource 2 (portable display)
C. Resource 3 (warehouse space)
D. Resource 1 & 3
E. None of the above
180. How much should AT be willing to pay for the material chosen in Q6 above?
A. At most $5.2
B. At least $5.2
C. At most $2.8
D. None of the above

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