MRNL/101 Milestone Test-1 Phase-1

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 28/05/2023 M.MARKS: 720

Code-C
Topic Covered
Physics : Electric charges and field
Chemistry : Solid state, Solutions
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Human Reproduction
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics), Section -
II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section
B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 (Section-I) PHYSICS
SECTION – A 6. Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as
1. The number of electrons in 2 C of charge is: shown in the figure. The x-component of the force
on –q1 is proportional to:
(1) 5 × 1029 (2) 125 × 1017
(3) 1.6 × 1019 (4) 9 × 1011

2. Two identical spheres carrying charges –9C and

5C, respectively are kept in contact and then q2 q3 q2 q3
(1) − sin  (2) − cos
separated from each other. Point out true statement b2 a 2 b2 a 2
from the following. In each sphere q2 q3 q2 q3
(3) + sin  (4) + cos
(1) 1.25 × 1013 electrons are in deficit b2 a 2 b2 a 2
(2) 1.25 × 1013 elections are in excess
(3) 2.15 × 1013 electrons are in excess 7. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four
corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre.
(4) 2.25 × 1013 electrons are in deficit If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is:

3. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal

(1)
Q
4
( 1+ 2 2 )
(2) Q

radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each

other with a force F when kept apart at some
Q
(
(3) − 1 + 2 2
2
(4) ) Q
2
1+ 2 2 ( )
distance. A third spherical conductor having same 8. A charge Q is placed at two opposite corners of a
radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in square. A charge q is placed at each of the other
two corners. If the net electrical force on Q is zero,
contact with B, then brought in contact with C and then the Q/q equals
finally removed away from both. The new force of
(1) −2 2 (2) –1
repulsion between B and C is:
1
F 3F (3) 1 (4) −
(1) (2) 2
4 4
F 3F 9. Three charges each of magnitude q are placed at
(3) (4)
8 8 the corners of an equilateral triangle, the
electrostatic force on the charge placed at the
centre is (each side of triangle is L):
4. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
1 q2
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of (1) zero (2) .
4 0 L2
repulsion between the ions, the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being 1 3q 2 1 q2
(3) . (4) .
the charge on an electron) 4 0 L2 12 0 L2
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe2 10. Four charges are placed on corners of a square as
(1) 2
(2) 2
e d shown in figure having side of 5 cm. If Q is one
micro coulomb, then electric field intensity at
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd centre will be:
(3) (4)
e 2
e2

5. An infinite number of charges, each of charge

1µC, are placed on the X-axis with co-ordinates x
= 1, 2, 4, 8, ……..∞. If a charge of 1C is kept at
(1) 1.02 × 107 N/C upwards
the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1C
(2) 2.04 × 107 N/C downwards
charge?
(3) 2.04 × 107 N/C upwards
(1) 9000 N (2) 12000 N
(4) 1.02 × 107 N/C downwards
(3) 24000 N (4) 36000 N

[2]
11. A charge of +2µCis placed at a point P where the 3R
15. The electric field at a distance from the centre
electric field due to other charges has a magnitude 2
of 3 × 106 N/C and directed to the right. If the of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R
charge is replaced with a charge of –2µC then the R
is E. The electric field at a distance from the
electric field at point P. 2
(1) decreases in magnitude and changes direction centre of the sphere is
(2) increase in magnitude and changes direction (1) Zero (2) E
(3) remains the same E E
(4) has the same magnitude but changes direction (3) (4)
2 3

12. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob 16. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear
which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to charges density 1 and 2 respectively are placed at
oscillate above a positively charged metal plate, its a distance R meter. The force per length on either
period will: 1
(1) Remain equal to T (2) Less than T wire will be k =
40
(3) Greater then T (4) Infinite
21 2 212
(1) k 2
(2) k
R R
13. A thin glass rod is bent into a semicircle of radius
r. A charge +Q is uniformly distributed along the 1 2 
(3) k (4) k 1 2
upper half, and a charge –Q is uniformly R2 R
distributed along the lower half, as shown in
figure. The electric field E at P, the center of the 17. Which of the field patterns given below is valid for
semicircle, is electric field as well as for magnetic field

(1) (2)

Q 2Q (3) (4)
(1) (2)
 0 r 2
2
 0 r 2
2

4Q Q
(3) (4)
 0 r 2
2
4 0 r 2
2
18. Electric lines of force due to negative point charges
are:
14. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive (1) circular, anticlockwise
charge q distributed uniformly over it. Then net (2) circular, clockwise
field E at the center O is (3) radial, inward
(4) radial, outward

19. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed

surface respectively is 1 and 2 the electric charge
inside the surface will be
(1) (1 + 2)0 (2) (2 – 1)0
(3) (1 + 2)/0 (4) (2 – 1)/0
q ˆj q ˆj
(1) (2)
4 0 r 2
2
4 0 r 2
2
20. In a region, the intensity of an electric field is
q q given by E = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ in NC–1. The electric flux
(3) − 2 2 ˆj (4) ˆj
2  0 r 2 0 r 2
2
through a surface S = 10iˆ m2 in the region is
(1) 5 Nm2C–1 (2) 10 Nm2C–1
(3) 15 Nm2C–1 (4) 20 Nm2C–1
[3]
21. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end 27. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube. The
of cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field electric flux through all the six faces of the cube is:
through the surface of the vessel is Q Q
(1) (2)
(1) Zero (2)
q 30 240
0
Q Q
q 2q (3) (4)
(3) (4) 80 0
2 0 0

28. A charge Q is situated at the centre of an

22. In figure +Q charge is located at one of the edge of
imaginary hemispherical surface, as shown in Fig.
the cube, then electric flux through cube due to +Q
Using Gauss’s Theorem and symmetry
charge is
considerations, determine the electric flux due to
this charge through the hemispherical surface.

+Q +Q
(1) (2)
0 2 0 Q Q
(1) (2)
+Q +Q 0 2 0
(3) (4)
4 0 80 2Q 3Q
(3) (4)
0 0
23. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical
surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then
29. A Gaussian Surface S encloses two charges
the outward electric flux will
q1 = q and q2 = –q. The field at P is :
(1) Be doubled (2) Increase four times
(3) Be reduced to half (4) Remain the same

24. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform electric

field. It may experience
(1) A force and a torque
(2) A forced but not a torque
(1) ⃗E1 + ⃗E2 (2) ⃗E1 + ⃗E2 + ⃗E3
(3) A torque but not a force
(3) E⃗3 (4) E⃗1+E ⃗2–E ⃗3
(4) Neither a force nor a torque

25. A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field 30. Two bodies X and Y carry charges –6.6 C and
of 3 × 104 NC–1. The dipole moment of each HCl –5C. How many electrons should be transferred
molecule is 6 × 10–30 c × m. The maximum torque from X to Y so that they acquire equal charges?
that can act on a molecule is (1) 2 × 1012 (2) 5 × 1013
(1) 2 × 10–34 C2 N–1m (2) 2 × 10–34 Nm (3) 5 × 10 12
(4) 2 × 1013
(3) 18 × 10–26 Nm (4) 0.5 × 10–34 C–2N–1m–1
31. Two charges repel each other with a force of
26. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with 200N. One of the charges is increased by 20% and
an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It other is reduced by 10%. The new repulsive force
experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on at same distance would be
the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is (1) 200 N (2) 216 N
(1) 7 C (2) 8 mC (3) 300 N (4) 316 N
(3) 2 mC (4) 5 mC

[4]
32. Two point charges +10C and +20C repel each 39. Three equal charges each +Q, placed at the corners
other with a force of 100 N. If a charge of –2C is of on equilateral triangle of side a what will be the
added to each charge, then force between them  1 
force on any charge  k = 
will become  4 0 
(1) 72 N (2) 7.2 N kQ 2
2kQ 2
(3) 720 N (4) 100 N (1) (2)
a2 a2
33. Calculate the total electric flux through the
2 kQ 2 3 kQ 2
paraboloidal surface due to a uniform electric field (3) (4)
a2 a2
of magnitude E0 in the direction shown in

40. Two equal charges are separated by a distance d. A

third charge placed on a perpendicular bisector at x
distance, will experience maximum coulomb force
(1) E0r 2 (2) E0d 2 when

(
(3) E0  r 2 + d 2 ) (4) Zero (1) x =
d
2
d
34. An electric dipole is formed by + 4 μC and – 4 μC (2) x =
2
charges at 5 mm distance. Calculate the dipole d
moment. (3) x =
2 2
(1) 10–8 C-m (2) 2 × 10–8 C-m
d
(3) 3 × 10–8 C-m (4) 4 × 10–8 Cm (4) x =
2 3

35. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery

41. What is the magnitude of a point charge due to
of emf 4 volt. If a plate of dielectric constant 8 is
which the electric field 30 cm away has the
inserted into it, then the potential difference on the
magnitude of 2 newton/coulomb
capacitor will be -
(1) 0.5 V (2) 2V [1 / 4 0 = 9  10 9 Nm 2 ]
(3) 4V (4) 32V (1) 2  10 −11 coulomb
SECTION – B (2) 3  10 −11 coulomb
(3) 5  10 −11 coulomb
36. In 1 gm of a solid, there are 5  1021 atoms. If one (4) 9  10 −11 coulomb
electron is removed from everyone of 0.01%
atoms of the solid, the charge gained by the solid
42. Two point charges Q and – 3Q are placed at some
is (given that electronic charge is 1.6  10–19 C)
(1) + 0.08 C (2) + 0.8 C distance apart. If the electric field at the location of
(3) – 0.08 C (4) – 0.8 C Q is E, then at the locality of – 3Q, it is
(1) − E
37. Two charges of 40 C and −20 C are placed at a (2) E/3
(3) −3 E
certain distance apart. They are touched and kept
(d) – E/3
at the same distance. The ratio of the initial to the
final force between them is
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 43. Electric field intensity at a point in between two
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 1 parallel sheets with like charges of same surface
charge densities () is
38. The force between two charges 0.06m apart is 5 N. 
(1)
2 0
If each charge is moved towards the other by
0.04m, then the force between them will become 
(2)
0
(1) 7.20 N (2) 11.25 N
(3) 22.50 N (4) 45.00 N (3) Zero
2
(4)
0

[5]
44. Six charges, three positive and ;three negative of 47. Assertion (A): Force on a charge decreases when
equal magnitude are to be placed at the vertices of air separating the two charges is replaced by water.
a regular hexagon such that the electric field at O Reason (R): Medium intervening the charges has
is double the electric field when only one positive
no effect on force.
charge of same magnitude is placed at R. Which of
the following arrangements of charges is possible (1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
for P, Q, R, S, T and U respectively? Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
Assertion (A)
(2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False.
(4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True.
(1) +, –, +, –, –, + (2) +, –, +, –, +, –
(3) +, +, –, +, –, – (4) –, +, +, –, +, – 48. Assertion (A): Mass of ion is slightly different
45. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field. The from its element form.
Column-I gives the description of electric field and Reason (R): Ion is formed, when some electrons
the angle between the dipole moment and the are removed or added so mass changes
electric field intensity and the Column-II gives the (1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
effect of the electric field on the dipole. Match the Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
description in Column-I with the statements in Assertion (A)
Column-II and indicate your answer by darkening
(2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
appropriate bubbles in the 4  4 matrix given in
the ORS. Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
Column-I Column-II Assertion (A)
(A) Uniform electric field, (p) Force = 0 (3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False.
=0 (4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True.
(B) Electric field due to a (q) Torque = 0
point charge,  = 0 49. Assertion (A): In a series combination of
(C) Electric field between (r) Torque  0 capacitors, change on each capacitor is same
the two oppositely
Reason (R): In such a combination, charge can
charged large plates,
 = 90 move only along one route.
(D) Dipole moment (s) Force  0 (1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
parallel to uniformly Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
charged long wire Assertion (A)
(1) A-(p, q); B-(q, s); C-(p, r); D-(p, r) (2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
(2) A-(p, r, s); B-(p, s); C-(r, s); D-(q, s) Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
(3) A-(p, q); B-(t); C-(t, q); D-(s)
Assertion (A)
(4) A-(r, s); B-(s); C-(r, p); D-(q)
(3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False.
46. Assertion (A): Work done in moving a charge (4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True.
between any two points in an electric field is
independent of the path followed by the charge, 50. Assertion (A): Charge is invariant with speed.
between these points. Reason (R): Charge does not depend on speed or
Reason (R): Electrostatics forces are non frame of reference.
conservative.
(1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
(1) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
Reason (R) is a correct explanation for Reason (R) is a correct explanation for
Assertion (A) Assertion (A)
(2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True; (2) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is True;
Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for Reason (R) is not a correct explanation for
Assertion (A) Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False. (3) Assertion (A) is True, Reason (R) is False.
(4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True.
(4) Assertion (A) is False, Reason (R) is True.

[6]
 (Section-II) CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 58. In a compound atoms of element Y form CCP
1
lattice and those of element X occupy rd of
51. The co-ordination number in 3D-hexagonal close 3
packing is tetrahedral void. The formula of compound will be
(1) 8 (2) 12
(1) X2Y3 (2) X4Y3
(3) 6 (4) 9
(3) X2Y (4) X3Y4

52. Octahedral void at edge center in ccp arrangement 59. In a hexagonal close packed (hcp) structure of
is equally distributed amongst spheres, the fraction of the volume occupied by the
(1) 8 unit cells (2) 6 unit cells sphere is A. In a cubic close packed structure, the
(3) 4 unit cells (4) 2 unit cells fraction is B. The relation for A and B is
(1) A =B
53. The efficiency of packing in simple cubic unit cell (2) A<B
is (3) A>B
 3 (4) A is equal to the fraction in a simple cubic lattice
(1) (2)
6 8
2  60. A crystal lattice with alternate + ve and –ve ions
(3) (4) has radius ratio of 0.524. Its coordination number
6 16
is
(1) 4 (2) 3
54. The correct relation for radius of atom and edge-
(3) 6 (4) 12
length in case of fcc arrangement is
a 3a
(1) r = (2) r = 61. Calculate the mass of cane sugar required to
2 4 prepare 250 g of 25% cane sugar solution with
a 4a water.
(3) r = (4) r =
2 2 3 (1) 6.25 g (2) 187.5 g
(3) 18.75 g (4) 62.5 g
55. What should be the mass by volume % of a
solution which is 20% mass by mass? 62. First three nearest neighbour distances for simple
(density of the solution is 1.02 g/ml) cubic lattice are respectively (edge length of unit
(1) 13.2% (2) 10.2% cell = a ):
(3) 12.4% (4) 20.4% (1) a, 2a, 3a (2) 3a, 2a,a
(3) a, 2a,2a (4) a, 3a,2a
56. The ionic solid which shows both Frenkel as well
as Schottky defects is 63. If 3.0 mg of Cr+6 is dissolved in 3 L of water, find
(1) AgBr (2) NaCl the concentration of Cr+6 in ppm.
(3) CsCl (4) ZnS (1) 2 ppm (2) 1 ppm
(3) 3 ppm (4) 9 ppm
57. Order of packing efficiency is-
(1) HCP > FCC > BCC > SC 64. Schottky defect is-
(2) HCP = FCC > SC > BCC (1) Vacancy of Ions
(3) BCC > HCP > SC > FCC (2) Delocalization of Ions
(4) HCP = FCC > BCC > SC (3) Interstitial vacancy of Ions
(4) Vacancy of only cation

[7]
65. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to 71. If 'a' is the length of unit cell, then which one is
have copper constituting the ccp lattice. If silver correct relationship?
atoms occupy the edge centres and gold is present a
(1) For simple cubic lattice, Radius of metal atom =
at body centre, the alloy has a formula 2
(1) Cu4Ag2Au 3a
(2) For bcc lattice.Radius of metal atom =
(2) Cu4Ag4Au 4
(3) Cu4Ag3Au a
(3) For fcc lattice,Radius of metal atom =
(4) CuAgAu 2 2
(4) All of these
66. In any ionic crystal A has formed cubical close
packing and B atoms are present at every 72. A crystalline solid AB adopts sodium chloride type
tetrahedral voids. If any sample of crystal contain structure with edge length of the unit cell as 745
'N' number of B atoms then number of A atoms in pm and formula mass of 74.5 a.m.u. The density of
that sample is the crystalline compound is
N (1) 2.16 g cm–3 (2) 0.99 g cm–3
(1) N (2)
2 (3) 1.88 g cm–3 (4) 1.197 g cm–3
(3) 2N (4) 2N
73. Gases with their Henry’s constant values are given.
The gas having maximum solubility will be
67. In a crystalline solid anions B are arranged in cubic Gas A KH = 21.2 k bar
close packing. Cation A are equally distributed Gas B KH = 11.2 k bar
between octahedral and tetrahedral voids. If all the
Gas C KH = 5.6 k bar
octahedral voids are occupied, the formula for the
Gas D KH = 2.4 k bar
solid is
(1) A (2) B
(1) AB (2) AB2
(3) C (4) D
(3) A2B (4) A2B3

74. The vapour pressure of ethanol is 115 torr at

68. What is the number of ppm of methanol dissolved
34.9°C. if Hvap of ethanol is 38.6 kJ/mol.
in 68g of water (Taking mass of methanol 32gm)
Calculate the temp. (°C) when then vapour
(1) 160000 (2) 480000
pressure is 760 torr.
(3) 320000 (4) 520000
(1) 69°C (2) 89°C
(3) 99°C (4) 79°C
69. O2 is bubbled through water at 293K. Assume that
O2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.98 bar, find the
solubility of O2 in g L–1. The value of Henry’s law 75. The correct expression for vapour pressure of a
constant KH for O2 is 34.84 k bar. solution contain volatile Solute A and Solvent B is
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.08 (1) P = PAo XA − PBo XB
(3) 0.07 (4) 0.01 (2) P = PAo + (PBo  PAo )XB
(3) P = PBo + (PAo − PBo )XA
70. In certain solid, the oxide ions are arranged in ccp.
(4) None of the above
1
Cations A occupy of the tetrahedral voids and
6
cations B occupy one third of the octahedral 76. The radius of the Na+ is 95 pm and that of Cl– ion
voids. The probable formula of the compound is is 181 pm. The co-ordination number of Na+ will
(1) ABO3 (2) AB2O3 be
(3) A2BO3 (4) A2B2O3 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) Unpredictable

[8]
77. A container contains component A with PAo = 200 85. If 1 mole of NaCl is doped with 10–3 mole of
SrCl2. What is the number of cationic vacancies
mm and component B of PBo = 500 mm. If moles
per mole of NaCl ?
of A = 2 and moles of B = 3, find vapour pressure (1) 10–3 mole–1 (2) 6.02 × 1018 mole–1
of solution if solute is volatile. 50
(3) 10 mole –1
(4) 6.02 × 1020 mole–1
(1) 120 mm (2) 520 mm
(3) 380 mm (4) 420 mm
SECTION – B
78. Number of formula units in unit cell of MgO (rock
86. CsCl crystallises in BCC lattice. If a is the edge
salt), ZnS (zinc blende) and Pt (fcc) respectively
length then which of the following expression is
(1) 4, 3, 2 (2) 4, 3, 4 correct?
(3) 4, 4, 4 (4) 4, 3, 1 3a
(1) rCs+ + rCl− = 3a (2) rCs+ + rCl− =
79. The total number of elements of symmetry in a 2
cubic crystal is 3a
(3) rCs+ + rCl− = (4) rCs+ + rCl− = 3a
(1) 9 (2) 23 2
(3) 10 (4) 14
80. The vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 18 mm. 87. Calculate the relative lowering in vapour pressure
When 20 g of a non-ionic substance is dissolved in (RLVP) if 100 g of a non-volatile solute of molar
100 g of water the vapour pressure is lowered by 6 mass 100 g/mol is dissolved in 432 g of water.
mm. What is the molar mass of the non-ionic (1) 0.04 (2) 0.07
substance? (3) 0.06 (4) 0.09
(1) 10.8 g (2) 7.2 g
(3) 4.4 g (4) 6.4 g 88. In a ccp type structure, if half of the face-centred
atoms are removed, then percentage void in unit
81. The C–C and Si–C interatomic distances are 154 cell is approximately
pm and 188 pm. The atomic radius of Si is (1) 54% (2) 46.25%
(1) 77 pm (2) 94 pm (3) 63% (4) 37%
(3) 114 pm (4) 111 pm
89. The packing efficiency of the 2D square unit cell
shown below is
82. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) On increasing temperature the coordination
number of solid remains unchanged
(2) On increasing pressure the coordination
number of solid increases
(3) On increasing temperature the coordination (1) 39.27% (2) 68.02%
number of solid increases (3) 74.05% (4) 78.54%
(4) On increasing pressure the coordination
number of solid decreases 90. In a BCC unit cell, if half of the atoms per unit cell
are removed, then percentage void is
83. In which of the crystal lattice systems a primitive (1) 68 % (2) 32 %
unit cell does not have a  b  c? (3) 34 % (4) 66 %
(1) Orthorhombic (2) Monoclinic
(3) Triclinic (4) Hexagonal 91. Number of unit cells in 10 gNaCl -
1.5 2.5
84. The mass percentage of Fe3+ ion present in (1) 1024 (2) 1023
58.5 58.5
Fe0.93O1.00 is 5.6 5.6
(1) 15 % (2) 5.5 % (3) 1020 (4) 1021
58.5 58.5
(3) 10.0 % (4) 11.5 %

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92. Find the osmotic pressure of 12% solution of cane (3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
sugar (mol. wt. 342) at 27°C (d = 1 g/ml) (4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(1) 9.2 atm (2) 5.62 atm
(3) 7.32 atm (4) 8.64 atm 97. Frenkel defect is generally observed in-
(1) AgBr (2) Agl
93. The osmotic pressure of a M/5 solution of glucose (3) ZnS (4) All of these
at 47°C is
(1) 1.25 atm (2) 2.25 atm 98. A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX is
(3) 5.25 atm (4) 7.25 atm 20% ionized. The freezing point of this solution is
(Kf = 1.86 K kg/mole)
94. The osmotic pressure of 5% (w/v) solution of urea (1) –0.45°C (2) –0.34°C
at 27°C is (3) –0.54°C (4) –0.24°C
(1) 20.5 atm (2) 10.5 atm
(3) 12.5 atm (4) 15.5 atm 99. K2[PtCl4] is 30% ionized in aqueous solution. The
95. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an value of its Vant Hoff factor is
ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the (1) 1.2 (2) 1.4
cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is :- (3) 1.6 (4) 1.8
(1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm
(3) 398 pm (4) 618 pm 100. The osmotic pressure of decimolar K4[Fe(CN)6] at
227°C is (assuming  = 75%)
96. Which of the following pairs of solutions are (1) 12.2 atm (2) 13.4 atm
expected to be isotonic at same temperature? (3) 15.9 atm (4) 16.4 atm
(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2

(Section-III) BOTANY
SECTION – A 104. The process of formation of microspores from a
pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is called
101. The diversity of structures of the inflorescence, (1) Microgametogenesis
flowers and floral parts, shown an amazing range (2) Megasporogenesis
of adaptations to ensure formation of the end (3) Microsporogenesis
products of sexual reproduction, the (4) Megagametogenesis
(1) Spores and gametes
(2) Ovary and ovules 105. In pollen grain, The hard outer layer called the
(3) Fruits and seeds exine is made up of …..(i)…. Which is one of the
(4) Nucellus and endosperm most resistant ….(ii)…. known, Here (i) and (ii)
are respectively
102. Flowers are objects of (1) i – phospholipid, ii – organic material
(a) Aesthetic ornamental value (2) i – Protein, ii – Inorganic material
(b) Social, religious value (3) i – Sporopollenin, ii – Organic material
(c) Cultural value (4) i – Sporopollenin – Inorganic material
(1) only (a) (2) only (a), (b)
(3) only (a), (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) All 106. In most angiosperms, pollen grains are shed in
(1) 1 – celled stage (2) 4 – celled stage
103. Select the wrong pair (3) 3 – celled stage (4) 2 – celled stage
(1) Ovule – Megasporangium
(2) Tapetum – Provides nutrition to developing 107. Select the wrong pair
microspores (1) Intine – Composed of cellulose and pectin
(3) Hilum – Point of attachment of placenta and (2) Microspore mother cell – Sporogenous tissue
Funicle (3) Pollen grain – Male gametophyte
(4) Middle layers – Short lived (4) Germpore–Exine is well developed in pollen grain

[
10
]
108. Male gametes are formed by 117. On the basis of above diagram, select the correct
(1) Generative cell through meiosis option that has correct labelling a, b, c, d, e.
(2) Vegetative cell through mitosis
(3) Generative cell through mitosis
(4) Vegetative cell through meiosis

109. Which of the following came in India alongwith

imported wheat and causes pollen allergy
(1) Eicchornia crispes
(2) Parthenium hysterophorus
(3) Lantana camara
(4) Eupatorium odotarum

110. In which plants pollen grains loss viability with in

30 minutes. (1) a – Nucellus, b – Inner integument, c – chalaza,
(1) Rice and wheat d – Hilum, e – Embryo sac
(2) Members of Rosaceae (2) a – Female gametophyte, b – Inner integument,
(3) Members of Leguminosae c – chalaza, d – Placenta, e – Nucellus.
(4) Members of solanaceae (3) a – Nucellus, b – Inner integument, c – chalaza,
d – Hilum, e – Microspore.
111. Sporopollenin provides protection to the pollen (4) a – Embryo sac, b – Outer integument,
grains from c – Nucellus, d – Placenta, e – Megaspore
(a) High temperature (b) Strong acids
(c) Strong alkali 118. How many mitosis are required for the development
(1) only (a) (2) only (a), (b) of monosporic embryo sac from a megaspore.
(3) only (a), (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) All (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
112. Multi carpellary, apocarpous ovary present in
(1) Chinarose (2) Opium 119. Which is not a feature of cleistogamy.
(3) Michelia (4) Mustard (1) It represents true autogamy
(2) Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set
113. More than one ovules present in the ovary in even in the absence of pollinators.
(1) Orchids (2) Wheat (3) Inbreeding depression will decrease in further
(3) Paddy (4) Mango generations.
(4) Pollen grains are usually not wasted
114. Which is not found in ovule
(1) Nucellus (2) Vegetative cell 120. Pollination between two flowers of a plant is called
(3) Embryo Sac (4) Funicle (1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Cleistogamy
115. The method of embryo sac formation from a single
megaspore is termed. 121. Which feature is not related with wind pollination?
(1) Monosporic development (1) Presence of one ovule in ovary
(2) Bisporic development (2) Light and non-sticky pollen grains
(3) Tetrasporic development (3) Well coated stamens
(4) Microgametogenesis (4) Feathery stigma

116. The ploidy levels of Endothecium, Megaspore, 122. Both water & wind pollinated flowers
Nucellus, embryo sac, Microspore mother cell are (1) Are very colorful
respectively. (2) Produce nectar
(1) 2n, n, n, n, 2n (2) n, n, 2n, n, 2n (3) Do not have mucilaginous covering
(3) 2n, n; n, n, n (4) 2n, n, 2n, n, 2n (4) Have scent & nectar

[11]
123. Both male flowers and female flowers present on the 131. In embryo of monocotyledons, radicle and root cap
same plant it is called monoecious and found in enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called.
(1) Papaya, Castor (2) Maize, Date palm (1) Coleorrhiza (2) Coleoptile
(3) Maize, Castor (4) Date palm, Papaya (3) Caruncle (4) Epiblast

124. Double fertilization involves 132. Majority of insect pollinated flowers are
(1) Syngamy (1) Small, Colourful (2) Absence of fragrance
(3) Non sticky pollen (4) Rich in nectar
(2) Autogamy
(3) Triple fusion
133. Which does not show pollination by water
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
(1) Zostera (2) Hydrilla
(3) Vallisneria (4) Water hyacinth
125. Perisperm is
(1) Remain of endosperm 134. Removal of anthers from the flower bud is called
(2) Remain of nucellus ….(i)…. this flower have to be covered with a bag of
(3) Remain of embryo sac suitable size, generally made up of ….(ii)…. to
(4) Remain of pollen grain prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted
pollen. Here (i) and (ii) are respectively.
126. Endospermic seed is found in (1) (i) Emasculation, (ii) Bagging
(1) Mustard (2) Calotropis (2) (i) Etiolation, (ii) Polythene bag
(3) Orchid (4) Castor (3) (i) Emasculation, (ii) Butter paper
(4) (i) Emasculation, (ii) Polythene bag
127. The shield shaped cotyledon of monocot embryo is
called 135. Tender coconut has
(1) Helobial endosperm
(1) Epiblast (2) Scutellum
(2) Free nuclear endosperm
(3) Epicotyle (4) Hypocotyle
(3) Cellular endosperm
(4) Both 2 & 3
128. The first mitotic division in zygote of dicot plants is
(1) Longitudinal and equal
SECTION – B
(2) Transverse and unequal
(3) Transverse and equal 136. Match the column I & II
(4) Longitudinal & unequal Column I Column II
(a) Perisperm (i) Asteraceae
129. Papaya plant. (b) Adventive (ii) Vegetative cell
(1) allows both xenogamy & geitonogamy embryony
(2) Prevents Geitonogamy but allows autogamy and (c) Pollen tube (iii) Mango
xenogamy (d) Apomixis (iv) Black Pepper
(3) Prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy but (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-I
allows xenogamy (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) Allows autogamy and geitonogamy but prevents (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
xenogamy. (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

130. How many meiosis and mitosis are required for the 137. Select the incorrect statement
development of one male gametop hyte from one (1) Filiform apparatus guides the entry of pollen
pollen mother cell/microspore mother cell ? tube in synergid.
(1) 1 meiosis, 3 mitosis (2) Parthenocarpic fruit is found in Banana.
(2) 1 meiosis, 2 mitosis (3) Pollination by insect is observed in grasses
(3) 1 meiosis, 1 mitosis (4) Dry fruits are found in mustard and groundnut.
(4) 2 meiosis, 2 mitosis

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138. Development of fruit from ovary with out
145. Select the wrong pair
fertilization is called
(1) Strawberry – Edible part is thalamus
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Parthenocarpy
(2) Coleoptile – Caplike covering at plumule of
(3) Apomixis (4) Adventive embryony
monocot seed.
139. ….(i)…. years old viable seeds of ….(ii)…. (3) Epiblast – vestigeal cotyledon in dicot seed.
discovered during the archeological excavation at (4) Pollen-pistil interaction – Dynamic process
….(iii)…. near the dead sea. Here (i), (ii) and (iii) are
146. The function of germ pore is
respectively
(1) Formation of pollen grains
(1) i – 10000, ii – Lupin, iii – Arctic tundra
(2) Initiation of pollen tube
(2) i – 2000, ii – Date palm, iii – King Herad’s
(3) Growth of pollen tube
palace.
(4) Inhibition of pollen tube
(3) i – 2000, ii – Lupinus arcticus, iii – Arctic tundra
(4) i – 10000, ii – Phoenix dactylifera, iii – King
147. In Yucca, pollination takes place through
Harod’s place.
(1) A wasp (2) A moth
(3) Wind (4) Bird
140. Which of the following is not a false fruit?
(1) Cashew nut (2) Banana
148. Pollen grains of a flower are unable to germinate on
(3) Strawberry (4) Apple
the stigma of same flower due to genetic factors. It is
141. If the 2n = 24 chromosomes present in nucellus then called.
the number of chromosomes in aleurone layer is (1) Self incompatibility
(1) 36 (2) 24 (2) Infertility
(3) 12 (4) 8 (3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Homogamy
142. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the
performance of athletes and Race horses due to
149. How many maximum male gametes can be formed
(1) Pollen kit (2) Sporopollenin
by one pollen mother cell ?
(3) Fragrance (4) Presence of nutrients
(1) 4 (2) 8
143. Development of megaspore tetrad from megaspore (3) 2 (4) 16
mother cell by meiosis is called megasporogenesis &
the shape of megaspore tetrad is 150. Which separate Embryo & endosperm in maize seed.
(1) Linear (2) Tetra hedral (1) Scutellum (2) Aleurone layer
(3) Isobilateral (4) Decussate (3) Embryonal axis (4) Seed coat

144. Pollen grains of large no. of species are stored in

liquid nitrogen at the temperature.
(1) 72ºc (2) –196ºc
(3) –184ºc (4) –145ºc

[13]
 (Section-IV) ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A 154. The function of the seminal vesicle is to
(1) produce a solution of fructose to provide energy
151. Identify the correct match from the columns and for the mitochondria of the sperm.
find out correct answer :- (2) secrete acidic fluids that neutralize the alkalinity
Column I of the female’s reproductive tract.
A. Leydig cell (3) initiate the muscular contractions leading to
B. Primordial germ cell emission.
(4) produce prostaglandins that stimulate
C. Spermatogonia
contractions of the male reproductive organs
D. Sertoli cell
Column II 155. The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of:
(1) An acrosome
a. Extra embryonic mesoderm
(2) Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome
b. Interstitial space (3) Two centrioles and an axial filament
c. Germ cell of testis (4) Nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm and
d. Nurse cell of testis mitochondrial sheath

Column III
156. The fertilization in human occurs at the junction of
i. ABP (1) Infundibulum and ampulla
ii. Upto puberty no development (2) Isthmus and fundus
(3) Ampulla and isthmus
iii. During embryonic life
(4) Cervix and fundus
iv. Testosterone
(1) A–b–iv, B–a–iii, C–c–ii, D–d–i 157. Which part of sperm provides energy it to fertilize
(2) A–d–iv, B–a–iii, C–b–ii, D–c–i the egg?
(3) A–b–i, B–c–ii, C–d–iii, D–a–iv (1) Sperm head (2) Acrosome
(4) A–b–iv, B–c–ii, C–a–i, D–d–iii (3) Sperm tail (4) Middle piece

152. During embryonic development the heart beat 158. Mature mammalian sperm are stored in the ____
begins at the end of prior to their release during ejaculation.
(1) 1st trimester (2) 2nd trimester (1) seminiferous tubules (2) scrotum
(3) 1st month (4) 2nd month (3) vas deferens (4) epididymis

153. Given below are two statements: 159. Secretions from which one of the following are
Statement I: The release of sperms from rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes?
seminiferous tubules to (1) Male accessory glands (2) Liver
Epididymis is called spermiation. (3) Pancreas (4) Salivary glands
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of
160. ‘Spermiogenesis’ refers to :
formation of sperms from
(1) Formation of spermatids
spermatid.
(2) Metamorphosis of spermatids into sperms
In the light of the above statements, Choose the
(3) Phase of multiplication of spermatogenesis
most appropriate answer from the option given
(4) Growth phase of spermatogenesis
below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 161. Assume 2n =12 in a hypothetical species. In
correct gametogenesis, the number of chromosomes in a
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. spermatid would be __________ and in a first
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are polar body would be __________.
incorrect. (1) 3, 6 (2) 3, 3
(4) Statement I is Correct but Statement II is (3) 6, 3 (4) 6, 6
incorrect.
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162. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in 168. Identify the wrong statement from the following.
(1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in (1) High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory
calcium surge.
(2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes (2) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to
(3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme functional ova in regular cycle from puberty
(4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no onwards.
calcium. (3) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are
poorly motile/non-motile.
163. The tightly convoluted tubule that lies along the (4) Progesterone level is high during the post
posterior surface of the testis is ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
(1) the seminiferous tubule
(2) the rete testis 169. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is
(3) the epididymis contributed by
(4) the ductus deferens I. Seminal vesicle II. Prostate
III. Urethra IV. Bulbourethral gland
164. In human males, at the end of the first meiotic (1) I and II (2) I, II and IV
division, the structure formed is (3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV
(1) primary spermatocytes
(2) secondary spermatocytes 170. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the
(3) spermatids ovary of a healthy human female around
(4) spermatogonia (1) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
(2) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
165. The first movements of the foetus and appearance (3) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
of hair on its head are usually observed during (4) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle
which month of pregnancy? 171. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to
(1) Fourth month (2) Fifth month (1) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(3) Sixth month (4) Third month (2) reactions within the uterine environment of
the female
166. Which of the following actions causes Ejaculation? (3) reactions within the epididymal environment of
(1) Stimulated Parasympathetic system , the male
Constriction of muscles (4) androgens produced in the uterus
(2) Stimulated Parasympathetic system,
Relaxation of muscles 172. Which one of the following is not a male accessory
(3) Stimulated sympathetic system, Constriction gland?
of muscles (1) Seminal vesicle
(4) Stimulated Sympathetic system, Relaxation (2) Ampulla
of muscles (3) Prostate
(4) Bulbourethral gland
167. Which one of the following statements about
human sperm is correct? 173. Which of the following hormones is not secreted
(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used by human placenta?
for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in (1) hCG
fertilisation (2) Estrogens
(2) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the (3) Progesterone
egg envelope facilitating fertilisation (4) LH
(3) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading
the sperm towards the ovum 174. Morula is a developmental stage
(4) Acrosome serves no particular function (1) between the zygote and blastocyst
(2) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(3) after the implantation
(4) between implantation and parturition

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 181. Whenever an egg is ovulated, the body will
175. The difference between spermiogenesis and prepare the endometrial lining for implantation just
spermiation is in case the egg is fertilized. In order to prepare for
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, potential pregnancy , the ____________ releases
while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed. __________
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, (1) Corpus luteum, progesterone
while in spermiation spermatids are formed. (2) Corpus callosum, estrogen
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli (3) Ovary, luteinizing hormone
cells are released into the cavity of (4) Ovary, progesterone
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
182. FSH hormone-
spermatozoa are formed.
I. Acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
synthesis and secretion of androgens.
while in spermiation spermatozoa are released
II. Acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates
into from Sertoli cells into the cavity of
secretion of some factors which help in the
seminiferous tubules.
process of spermiogenesis.
(1) Only I is correct
176. The _____ ligament anchors the ovary to the
(2) Only II is correct
uterine wall.
(3) Both I and II are correct
(1) Round (2) Ovarian
(4) Both I and II are incorrect
(3) Suspensory (4) Longitudinal

183. This usually occurs between days 13 and 15 of the

177. After an egg is fertilized, it will implant in the
menstrual cycle :
____ for further development.
(1) The lining of the uterus builds up.
(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium
(2) The lining of the uterus remains in place in
(3) Perimetrium (4) Cervix
preparation for the possible arrival of an early
embryo.
178. Assertion (A): In human males, 50 percent of
(3) Shedding of the lining of the uterus.
sperms carry the X chromosome while the other 50
(4) Ovulation.
percent carry the Y.
Reason (R): Human males have XY sex 184. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion
chromosomes. of human male reproductive system. Select the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B,
correct explanation of (A). C, D.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) Is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

179. When the myoepithelial cells contract, milk is

forced from the alveoli to the nipple. Which of the
following hormones causes the myoepithelial cells (1) Ureter – Prostate – Seminal vesicle –
to contract? Bulbourethral gland
(1) Estrogen (2) Oxytocin (2) Vas deferens – Seminal Vesicle – Prostate –
(3) Progesterone (4) Insulin Bulbourethral gland
(3) Vas deferens – Seminal vesicle trial gland –
180. After an egg is ovulated, the remaining follicular Bulbourethral gland – Prostate
mass is called as __________ . (4) Ureter – Seminal vesicle – Prostate –
(1) Theca folliculi (2) Corpus luteum Bulbourethral gland
(3) Vesicular follicle (4) Theca interna

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185. Which is correct about myometrium? 191. Which of the following is not the function of
(1) Thin layer progesterone?
(2) Made up of smooth muscles (1) Inhibition of estrogen production
(3) Glandular (2) Inhibition of LH and FSH production
(4) All (3) Inhibition of the secretory phase of the
endometrium
SECTION – B (4) Increase in basal body temperature

186. Part of uterus undergoes cyclical changes during 192. Match the items given in Column I with those in
menstrual cycle : Column II and select the correct option given
(1) Endometrium (2) Perimetrium below:-
(3) Myometrium (4) Peritoneum Column-I Column-II
(a) Proliferative Phase (i) Breakdown of the
187. In the given diagram, identify A, B, C and D
endometrial lining
respectively:
(b) Secretory Phase (ii) Follicular Phase
(c) Menstruation (iii) Luteal Phase

a b c
(1) iii ii i
(2) i iii ii
(3) ii iii i
(4) iii i ii

193. What structure gets implanted on the wall of the

uterus during embryonic development?
(1) LH, FSH, Progesterone and Estrogen
(2) FSH, LH, Estrogen and Progesterone
(3) Estrogen, Progesterone, LH and FSH (1) (2)
(4) Progesterone, Estrogen, FSH and LH

188. Extrusion of the first polar body from the egg

nucleus occurs:
(1) Simultaneously with the first cleavage (3) (4)
(2) After entry of sperm but before fertilization
(3) After fertilization
(4) Before entry of sperm into the ovum
194. Ovulation does not occur during pregnancy in the
189. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
human female because :
(1) Ectoderm and mesoderm
(1) The follicles are not influenced by the level of
(2) Endoderm and mesoderm
progesterone in the blood
(3) Mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) The corpus luteum and later the placenta
(4) Ectoderm and endoderm
produce large amounts of progesterone
(3) The corpus luteum generates as luteinizing
190. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle
hormone is no longer produced
stimulating hormone produced (FSH)?
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Anterior pituitary (4) The embryo produces hormones which retard
the production of maternal follicle stimulating
(3) Posterior pituitary (4) Adrenal glands
hormones

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195. The seven-day blastocyst has except : 199. Ootid is formed along with
(1) Has a single layer of trophoblast at the (1) Ovum (2) Second polar body
embryonic pole (3) Secondary oocyte (4) Primary oocyte
(2) Has an amniotic cavity
(3) Is attached to the endometrial epithelium 200. Assertion (A): Implantation is the process of
(4) Is surrounded by a degenerating zona attachment of blastocyst on uterine endometrium.
pellucida Reason (R): Implantation is controlled by
196. Which of the following are classified as trophoblast and occurs by decidual cell reaction.
gonadotropin hormones? (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(1) FSH and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) GnRH assertion
(3) Estradiol or estrogen (2) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(4) Progesterone but the reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion
197. Implantation of the embryo in the lower uterus can (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
cause what medical condition that may lead to (4) If both the assertion and reason are false
hemorrhage, fetal insufficiency , and even death
for both mother and baby due to obstruction of the
birth canal?
(1) Placenta abortio (2) Placenta previa
(3) Placenta divisum (4) Placenta increta

198. At the 32-cell stage of division , the embryo is

known as blastula that contains inner cell mass and
outer cell mass. What do the inner and outer cell
masses eventually become respectively:
(1) Placenta/ embryo and foetus
(2) Embryo and foetus/ Placenta
(3) Chorionic membrane / Amniotic membrane
(4) Amniotic membrane / chorionic membrane

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