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com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

Previous Year Paper

RPF SI 09 Dec, 2024 Shift 1
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Test Center
Name
Test Date 09/12/2024
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 13, 6, 24 and 39 is:
Ans 1. 312

2. 359

3. 340

4. 243

Q.2 Shweta and Monika invest in a business in the ratio 2 : 1. If total profit is Rs. 1347, then
what is difference between the profit (in Rs.) of Shweta and Monika?
Ans 1. 399

2. 599

3. 549

4. 449

Q.3 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 777288 so that it is
completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 9

2. 5

3. 1

4. 7

Q.4 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds
of 97 km/h and 21 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 45 seconds. The
length of each train is:
Ans 1. 477 meters

2. 466 meters

3. 475 meters

4. 472 meters

Q.5 The expenditure of Sudha is 100% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 2% and savings increase by 10%, then by what percent does her income increase?
Ans 1. 0.06

2. 0.05

3. 0.02

4. 0.01

Q.6 What time (in seconds) is required for a 188 m long train to cross a 472 m long tunnel,
if the train travels at a speed of 27 km/h?
Ans 1. 98

2. 80

3. 79

4. 88

Q.7 A trader gives 5% discount on the marked price of an article and gives 4 articles free
for buying 14 articles and gains 33% in the entire transaction. Assuming a customer
pays for 14 articles, the marked price of an article is what per cent more than its cost
price?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 The area of a square plot is 29929 m 2 . The length of each side of the plot (in m) is:
Ans 1. 173

2. 163

3. 177

4. 197

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Q.9 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining
constant speed and thus takes a total time of 7 hours 15 minutes. He would have
gained 6 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk
both ways with same walking speed?
Ans 1. 14 hours 30 minutes

2. 13 hours 15 minutes

3. 13 hours 45 minutes

4. 12 hours 15 minutes

Q.10

Ans 1. 81 : 68

2. 45 : 34

3. 78 : 53

4. 38 : 29

Q.11 During sale, Raghav bought a notebook marked for ₹100 at 86% discount and a pen
marked for ₹95 at 40% discount. How much (in ₹) did he save due to sale?
Ans 1. 124

2. 121

3. 126

4. 123

Q.12 12 chefs can make 96 dishes in 4 hours. Find the average dishes that can be made by
each chef in an hour.
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 8

4. 4

Q.13 Find the surface area of a sphere whose diameter is equal to 8 cm.
Ans 1. 543 cm2

2. 87 cm2

3. 64 cm2

4. 786 cm2

Q.14 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 40, 16, 8 and 24 is:
Ans 1. 226

2. 270

3. 332

4. 240

Q.15 The average of 7 numbers is 55. If each number is increased by 6, what will the new
average be?
Ans 1. 67

2. 7

3. 55

4. 61

Q.16
If , where p/q is a simplest form, then find the sum of

the digits of q.
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 8

4. 5

Q.17 Lalit's average earning per month in the first three months of a year was ₹4184. In
April, his earning was 50% more than the average earning in the first three months. If
his average earning per month for the whole year is ₹17553, then what will be Lalit's
average earning (in ₹) per month from May to December?
Ans 1. 23979

2. 23978

3. 23976

4. 23973

Q.18 The average of eight numbers is 20. The average of five of these numbers is 18. The
average of the remaining three numbers is
Ans 1. 25.33

2. 22.33

3. 24.33

4. 23.33

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Q.19 The selling price of 32 books is equal to the cost price of 24 books. Find the loss or
gain percentage.
Ans
1.

2. 25 % loss

3. 25 % gain

4.

Q.20

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 A number when increased by 50 %', gives 3780. The number is:
Ans 1. 1260

2. 7560

3. 5040

4. 2520

Q.22 Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.23 A bank offers 3.8% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A
customer deposits ₹2710 each on 1 January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the
year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give your
answer correct to 2 decimal places.]
Ans 1. ₹175.44

2. ₹174.88

3. ₹155.44

4. ₹170.5

Q.24 Ruchi and Sheetal invest in a business in the ratio 9 : 6. If total profit is Rs. 2775, then
what is difference between the profit (in Rs.) of Ruchi and Sheetal?
Ans 1. 555

2. 405

3. 705

4. 605

Q.25 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹9360 after 3
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate in 1 year?
Ans 1. 720

2. 1440

3. 2880

4. 360

Q.26 Simplify the following:

Ans 1. 158.76

2. 155.76

3. 158

4. 155

Q.27 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 489483 so that it is
completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 5

2. 6

3. 3

4. 4

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Q.28 Chandu covers 245 km in a boat in 30 hours against the stream and he takes 21 hours
with the stream then find the speed of the stream?
Ans 1. 1.75 km/h

2. 5.75 km/h

3. 7.18 km/h

4. 10.88 km/h

Q.29 The sides of a triangle are 60 cm, 75 cm, and 45 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 1307

2. 1350

3. 1390

4. 1385

Q
.
3
0
A 1. ₹135 per kg
n
s
2. ₹120 per kg

3. ₹125 per kg

4. ₹130 per kg

Q
.
3
1
A 1. 8.544 inches
n
s
2. 8.454 inches

3. 8.455 inches

4. 8.545 inches

Q.32 A bank offers 2.6% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A
customer deposits ₹8565 each on 1 January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the
year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give your
answer correct to 2 decimal places.]
Ans 1. ₹335.48

2. ₹343.66

3. ₹325.48

4. ₹323.72

Q.33
Find the value of

Ans 1. 232

2. 228

3. 234

4. 233

Q
.
3
4
A 1. 20%
n
s
2. 30%

3. 10%

4. 35%

Q.35 If x varies inversely as y3 - 1 and is equal to 6 when y = 3, find x when y = 9.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.36 G, H, I, J, M, N and O are sitting around a square table facing the centre of the
table.
Only five people sit between H and G. O sits to the immediate left of G. Only one
person sits between O and I. J sits at some place to the left of N but at some
place to the right of M.
Who sits third from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. I

2. O

3. G

4. J

Q.37 S is the wife of D. D is the brother of F. F is the father of G. G is the mother of H. How is
S related to H?
Ans 1. Father's father's brother's wife

2. Mother's father's brother's wife

3. Father's mother's brother's wife

4. Mother's mother's brother's wife

Q.38 In a certain code language, ‘CROP’ is coded as ‘4317’ and ‘COIR’ is coded as ‘4237’.
What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 7

4. 3

Q.39 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group.
Which figure DOES NOT belong to that group?

Ans 1. E

2. C

3. A

4. D

Q.40 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical
operation(s) on the first number result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain
mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third number and so
on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given
sets?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding / subtracting / multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
3 - 4 - 5 - 10 ; 1 - 2 - 3 - 6
Ans 1. 8 - 9 - 10 - 20

2. 17 - 18 - 19 - 20

3. 7 - 8 - 9 - 10

4. 12 - 13 - 14 - 20

Q.41 86 is related to 298 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 105 is related to
317. To which of the following is 48 related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting
/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 280

2. 260

3. 270

4. 250

Q.42 Refer to the following letter, number and symbol series and answer the question that
follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) 7 J £ W € 2 Q £ K £ 6 1 D U & 1 4 M Y * V X (Right)
If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be eighth
from the left?
Ans 1. €

2. K

3. £

4. D

Q.43 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. DFC

2. YAX

3. OQN

4. HKG

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Q.44 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All peas are carrots.
All carrots are onions.
Some onions are brinjals.

Conclusions:
(I): Some peas are brinjals.
(II): Some carrots are brinjals.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

2. Both conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.45 Seven boxes K, L, M, N, O, P and T are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Only M is kept above O. Only P is kept between O and T. Only N is kept
below K. How many boxes are kept between L and M?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

Q.46 Refer to the following letter, number, symbol series and answer the question that
follows.
(Left) R % C & E 2 S 4 # 5 K & 7 G Y @ 3 6 T * D (Right)

How many such symbols are there, which are immediately preceded by a letter and
also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. None

Q.47 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

QRL : TTM
WVN : ZXO
Ans 1. SWV : WZX

2. CZP : FBQ

3. MBK : OGM

4. KUQ : MYS

Q.48 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark
(?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.49 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. S has an exam on Friday. Only 2
people have an exam between S and R. Q has an exam immediately before T and U has
an exam immediately after V. Only 2 people have an exam between P and T. How many
people have an exam before T?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Q.50 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
​
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. QRP

2. FGE

3. KLJ

4. AZX

Q.51 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two
people sit between A and D, when counted from the left of D. E sits third to the left of
B. C sits to the immediate right of B. C sits second to the left of A. G is an immediate
neighbour of E. How many people sit between B and E, when counted from the left of
B?
Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

Q.52 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and
relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as
that on the right side of ::?
# : LOU :: ADJ : %
Ans 1. # = HKO; % = EHN

2. # = HKQ; % = EHM

3. # = HKQ; % = FHN

4. # = HKQ; % = EHN

Q.53 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) Y # E S * £ B K Ω G C & T % Q & R D A @ U $ (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
symbol and also immediately followed by a letter?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 0

4. 3

Q.54 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NU-RX

2. BH-EK

3. FL-IO

4. JP-MS

Q.55 Mayank starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the South. He then takes a left
turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 12
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 2 km to the east

2. 2 km to the west

3. 1 km to the west

4. 1 km to the east

Q.56 This question is based on the following words.

WAR PIN AND FEW
If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no vowel?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4

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Q.57 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
5834671, which of the following digits will be first from the right in the new number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 2

4. 5

Q.58 Each of A, B, C, D, P, Q and R has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only two people have exam before
R. Only one person has exam after A. Only three people have exam between R and Q.
Only one person has exam between C and D. P has exam immediately before C. Who
among the following has exam on Friday?
Ans 1. A

2. B

3. P

4. Q

Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘5427’ and ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘6314’.
What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 7

3. 6

4. 4

Q.60 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
be come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?
31 C 25 B 32 A 40 D 32 = ?
Ans 1. 19

2. 20

3. 21

4. 17

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
EGB, FHF, GIJ, HJN, ?
Ans 1. KIR

2. IRK

3. IKR

4. RIK

Q.62 Z is the mother of S. P is the daughter of Q. G is the husband of Z. Q is the son of R. S

is the mother of P. How is G related to Q?
Ans 1. Brother’s son

2. Sister’s husband

3. Wife’s father

4. Mother’s brother

Q.63 Yangden starts from Point A and drives 14 km towards south. He then takes a right
turn, drives 13 km, turns right and drives 17 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
19 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 4 km to the west

2. 5 km to the west

3. 2 km to the west

4. 6 km to the west

Q.64 Each of the digits in the number 71248935 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. Which of the following digits will be fifth from the right?
Ans 1. 4

2. 7

3. 3

4. 5

Q.65 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark
(?) in the following series.

29 36 50 71 99 ?
Ans 1. 138

2. 134

3. 132

4. 136

Q.66 In a certain code language, ‘enjoy every moment’ is coded as ‘ut mb tk’ and ‘moment
of clarity’ is coded as ‘tk mo mt’. How is ‘moment’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mb

2. tk

3. mo

4. ut

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Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

IFM KHO MJQ OLS ?

Ans 1. QMU

2. QMV

3. QNU

4. QNV

Q.68 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.69 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

OK-RN-TW
MI-PL-RU
Ans 1. LG-NI-PR

2. KG-NJ-PS

3. KG-NJ-PR

4. LG-NJ-PR

Q.70 Six people, named W, X, Y, Z, T and U, each are of different ages. The age of T is 24.
The age of W is one-fourth times the age of U. The age of Z is half times the age of X.
The age of U is three times the age of Z. The age of T is two times the age of W. If The
age of X is four times the age of Y. What is the age of Y?
Ans 1. 15

2. 8

3. 12

4. 13

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 According to the Census of India 2011, from the given options, which state recorded
the lowest literacy rate?
Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Uttarakhand

Q.72 Who among the following wrote ‘The Palace of Illusions’?

Ans 1. Aravind Adiga

2. Rajiv Malhotra

3. Gayatri Sinha

4. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

Q.73 Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of stored fats into
sugars in plant cell?
Ans 1. Oxysome

2. Glyoxysome

3. Golgi body
4. Ribosome

Q.74 What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

Ans 1. Six years

2. Five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier

3. Six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

4. At the pleasure of the President

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Q.75 Where was the 0832 India Open Competition – Rifle and Pistol 2024 organised and
conducted by the National Rifle Association of India in August 2024?
Ans 1. Panipat

2. Delhi

3. Aligarh

4. Goa

Q.76 The kings of which among the following dynasties defeated the kings of Malaya, Java
and Sumatra?
Ans 1. Pandaya

2. Rashtrakuta

3. Chola

4. Chera

Q.77 What do you call the pattern of arrangement of leaves on a stem or branch?
Ans 1. Apotaxis

2. Thallotaxy

3. Phyllotaxy

4. Geotaxis

Q.78 In which of the following Articles are there provisions related to establishment of the
Election Commission?
Ans 1. Article 330

2. Article 343

3. Article 353

4. Article 324

Q.79 Who became the President of Mexico in June 2024 who was a climate scientist and
former mayor of Mexico City?
Ans 1. Enrique Pena Nieto

2. Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador

3. Felipe Calderon

4. Claudia Sheinbaum

Q.80 Who is the Minister of State for Defence as of August 2024 in India?
Ans 1. Amrendra Tiwari

2. Vijay Bhatt

3. Alok Tiwari

4. Sanjay Seth

Q.81 The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, introduced in Lok Sabha on 9 August 2024
seeks to replace the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, _____.
Ans 1. 1906

2. 1921

3. 1925

4. 1915

Q.82 Which country officially became the 100th full member of the International Solar
Alliance (ISA) in June 2024?
Ans 1. Paraguay

2. Nepal

3. Armenia

4. Spain

Q.83 The child sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in India from 1951 to 2011:
Ans 1. decreased

2. increased

3. increased and then decreased

4. was stable

Q.84 ISRO successfully tested a 100 W class Polymer Electrolyte Membrane Fuel Cell based
Power System (FCPS) in its orbital platform, POEM3, using which of the following two
gases?
Ans 1. Nitrogen and oxygen

2. Hydrogen and helium

3. Nitrogen and argon

4. Hydrogen and oxygen

Q.85 ‘The service of mankind is a means to salvation’. This slogan was propounded by
Gangadhar Chattopadhyay. He was associated with __________
Ans 1. Ramakrishna Mission

2. Prarthana Samaj

3. Brahmo Samaj

4. Arya Samaj

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Q.86 Who among the following Mughal Princes allied with Malik Ambar and revolted against
his father?
Ans 1. Shah Jahan

2. Jahangir

3. Akbar

4. Aurangzeb

Q.87 The Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Almora districts are part of which biosphere reserve?
Ans 1. Similipal

2. Cold Desert

3. Nanda Devi

4. Nokrek

Q.88 Onam festival is celebrated in which of the following states of India?

Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Kerela

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Gujarat

Q.89 How does the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) enhance investor
protection?
Ans 1. By providing insurance to investors

2. By directly investing in the stock market

3. By regulating stock exchanges and securities to prevent fraud

4. By setting monetary policies

Q.90 Who among the following religious and social reformers contributed in the abolition of
Sati in 1929?
Ans 1. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

2. Radhakant Deb

3. Raja Rammohan Roy

4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Q.91 _____ is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.
Ans 1. Fascism

2. Democracy

3. Oligopoly

4. Theocracy

Q.92 Which of the following bills was passed in Parliament to regulate the appointment,
conditions of service and term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner and other
Election Commissioners, the procedure for transaction of business by the Election
Commission and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto?
Ans 1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment
Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2024
2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Procedure for
Transaction of Business) Bill, 2024
3. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Procedure for
Transaction of Business) Bill, 2023
4. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment
Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023

Q.93 Which of the following conditions were NOT true for India’s first winter scientific arctic
expedition flagged off by Kiren Rijiju in 2023?
Ans 1. The exploration was carried out for the months of November and December only.

2. There was almost no sunlight for 24 hours.

3. Subzero temperatures.

4. The exploration was carried out for the months of November to March.

Q.94 Which of the following is NOT a class of sub phylum vertebrata?

Ans 1. Arachnida

2. Mammals

3. Reptilia

4. Aves

Q.95 What was the final bidding price of Tata Sons for Air India?
Ans 1. Rs.16,000 crores

2. Rs.22,000 crores

3. Rs.12,000 crores

4. Rs.18,000 crores

Q.96 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that it is the duty of
every citizen of India to safeguard public property and to abjure violence?
Ans 1. Article 51A (k)

2. Article 51A (i)

3. Article 51A (f)

4. Article 51A (d)

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Q.97 Who among the following is revered as 'Karnataka Sangita Pitamaha'?

Ans 1. Tyagaraja Dasa

2. Purandara Dasa

3. Muthuswami Dikshitar Dasa

4. Annamacharya Dasa

Q.98 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Ans 1. The green revolution enabled the government to procure a sufficient amount of food
grains to build a stock.
2. The spread of green revolution technology enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency in
food grains.
3. The use of High yielding variety seeds was restricted to the more affluent states.

4. The first phase of the green revolution was started around the mid-1950s.

Q.99 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to Agri-Clinics and
Agri-Business Centres (AC&ABC) Scheme in India?
Ans 1. NABARD is implementing subsidy component under the scheme on the behalf of
Government of India.
2. As of December 2022, about 83810 candidates have been trained under the scheme
so far.
3. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) is the
implementing agency for training component under the scheme.
4. The AC & ABC Scheme is under implementation since April 2008.

Q.100 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the Protection of
‘Life and Personal Liberty’?
Ans 1. Article 18

2. Article 25

3. Article 22

4. Article 21

Q.101 Which of the following compositions reflects the devotional form of Carnatic music?
Ans 1. Alha

2. Pandavani

3. Hori

4. Devara Nama

Q.102 Which government programme aims to provide employment to rural households

through works related to water conservation, land development, and rural
infrastructure?
Ans 1. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)

2. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

3. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)

4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

Q.103 Who among the following former RAW Chiefs has written the book titled ‘A Life in the
Shadows: A Memoir’?
Ans 1. Arvind Dave

2. AS Dulat

3. Alok Joshi

4. JS Bedi

Q.104 Who among the following formed the Ghadr (Gadar) Party to organise a rebellion
against the British government of India in the USA?
Ans 1. Lala Hardayal

2. Ram Prasad Bismil

3. Sachindra Nath Bakshi

4. Subhash Chandra Bose

Q.105 Which Article of the Indian Constitution provided power to the Supreme Court of India
to review its own judgements?
Ans 1. Article 137

2. Article 140

3. Article 150

4. Article 138

Q.106 Which of the following dams is not located in Uttarakhand?

Ans 1. Ramganga Dam

2. Lakhwar Dam

3. Tehri Dam

4. Nagi Dam

Q.107 When is the Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) of Y for X relevant?

Ans 1. When the consumer ready to give up both X and Y

2. When the consumer is ready to give up X for an additional unit of Y

3. When the consumer acquires additional units of both X and Y

4. When the consumer is ready to give up Y for an additional unit of X

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Q.108 Which of the following is NOT a criterion for the post of the Chief Justice of India?
Ans 1. Has been for at least five years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such
Courts in succession
2. He/She is a citizen of India

3. In the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist

4. Has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such
Courts in succession

Q.109 In which of the following years was the battle of Bannihatti fought?
Ans 1. 1558

2. 1556

3. 1565

4. 1560

Q.110 Field lines serve as a representation of a magnetic field. They represent a path along
which:
Ans 1. a free electron would tend to move

2. a hypothetical free north pole would tend to move

3. a hypothetical free south pole would tend to move

4. a free proton would tend to move

Q.111 Who among the following is an Indian-origin Satellite Industry Expert who was
appointed as Director of United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs in June 2023?
Ans 1. Michael Rao

2. Aarti Holla-Maini

3. Kaushik Basu

4. Behruz Sethna

Q.112 Select the correct group of crops that are grown in the ‘Rabi’ season in India.
Ans 1. Gram and Paddy

2. Barley and Jowar

3. Gram and Mustard

4. Urad and Groundnut

Q.113 Where are the Lakshadweep Islands located?

Ans 1. Close to the Malabar coast of Kerala

2. Close to the Konkan coast of Maharashtra

3. Close to the Coromandel coast of Andhra Pradesh

4. Close to the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu

Q.114 Which of the following rivers is NOT a part of the Deccan river system?
Ans 1. Krishna

2. Godavari

3. Cauvery

4. Sutlej

Q.115 Which of the following Neolithic sites yielded the remains of three species of deer (the
Barasingha, Gazelle, and Spotted Deer)?
Ans 1. Didwana

2. Bhimbetka

3. Kodekal

4. Patne

Q.116 As of February 2024, which year marked the highest number of prisoners on death row
in nearly 20 years in India?
Ans 1. 2020

2. 2019

3. 2023

4. 2021

Q.117
Which of the following pH values indicates neutrality in a
solution?
Ans 1. 7

2. −14

3. 14

4. 0

Q.118 Which of the following committees recommended the use of Mixed Reference Period
against Uniform Reference Period?
Ans 1. Tendulkar Expert Group

2. NITI Aayog

3. National Sample Survey Organisation

4. C Rangrajan Committee

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Q.119 Which former Indian shooter became the first Indian President of the Olympic Council
of Asia (OCA) in 2024?
Ans 1. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

2. Raja Randhir Singh

3. Joydeep Karmakar

4. Vijay Kumar

Q.120 On which of the following scientific principles does a steam engine work?
Ans 1. Superconductivity

2. Photoelectric effect

3. Laws of thermodynamics

4. Newton’s laws of motion

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