BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately
C. given a lift D. treated with sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
Question 12. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. valuable B. worthy C. costly D. beneficial
Question 13. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 14. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried
Question 15. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 16. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 17. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display
Question 18. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. stand for B. take over C. catch on D. hold on
Question 19. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. visited B. visit C. am visiting D. have visited
Question 20. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 21. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mightn't B. mustn't C. oughtn't D. needn't
Question 22. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. demand B. requisite C. claim D. request

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on
etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both
the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times
before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 23. A. positions B. conditions C. situations D. locations
Question 24. A. who B. which C. where D. whose
Question 25. A. differences B. different C. differently D. differ
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise
Question 27. A. show B. get C. feel D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to
tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for
the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of
throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece
of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Presents for young children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Customs concerning children's new teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. roofs' C. children's D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia
C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth

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Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. early in the evening B. soon after midnight
C. late in the morning D. long before bedtime

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another
for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction
that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For
example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there
may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the
survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple
effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that
prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have
been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value.
Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals
with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species
to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The
combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates
has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without
human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful
species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is
extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are
some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction
C. Humans and endangered species D. Measures to protect endangered species
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable
Question 37. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
B. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
C. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates
C. some species D. human-related effects
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a harmful factor to the environment
C. a kind of useful plants D. a kind of harmless animals
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disappear B. complete C. remain D. develop
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
C. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
D. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
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Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 402

Số báo danh: .............................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. must B. need C. ought D. might
Question 2. They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. potential B. prospect C. possibility D. ability
Question 3. Thanks to her father's encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.
A. standard B. development C. contribution D. progress
Question 4. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. finished
Question 5. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 6. Jim didn't break the vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. occasion B. chance C. intention D. purpose
Question 7. Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made ______ life
much easier.
A. the B. a C. Ø D. an
Question 8. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. differ B. difference C. differently D. different
Question 9. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. take on B. get over C. go through D. come over
Question 10. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. installed B. serviced C. developed D. repaired
Question 11. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. nice Italian new B. nice new Italian C. new Italian nice D. new nice Italian
Question 12. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more fluently you can speak it B. the more fluent you can speak it
C. the more you can speak it fluent D. the more you can speak it fluently

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. You can say that again B. Thank you for looking for it
C. I like reading books D. I'm glad you like it

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Question 14. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm busy now B. I'm fine. Thank you
C. I'm going home D. I'm having a class now
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A. possible B. cultural C. confident D. supportive
Question 16. A. office B. nature C. result D. farmer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. dressed B. dropped C. matched D. joined
Question 18. A. walk B. call C. take D. talk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their
parents and teachers.
A. nervousness B. emotion C. stress D. relaxation
Question 20. Don't tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can't eat a lot B. hates parties C. talks too much D. can keep secrets

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. developed B. generated C. created D. increased
Question 22. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. exciting B. informative C. attractive D. boring

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue.
In this world of diversity, (23)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning
areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor,
engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to a
financially successful life. (24)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (25)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (27)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and
computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 23. A. making B. taking C. giving D. having
Question 24. A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore
Question 25. A. when B. that C. what D. where
Question 26. A. competition B. competitively C. competitive D. compete
Question 27. A. apply B. study C. decide D. employ

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so
popular. People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan
and translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and
publishers all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic
book industry. Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books are
still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and stores
will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-readers
and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The need for digital comic books
B. Children's most favourite type of books
C. Problems in the book industry
D. The manga industry in Japan
Question 29. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. children B. comic books C. publishers D. things
Question 30. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. a TV programme B. a comic book C. an electronic device D. a child
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. selling translated manga books
B. scanning and translating manga books
C. scanning uploaded manga books
D. translating uploaded manga books

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Question 32. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese
translated manga because ______.
A. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
B. they wanted to make a name for themselves
C. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
D. they wanted to read manga for free
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Readers B. Publishers C. Writers D. Artists
Question 34. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. controlling the production of a book B. hurting the sale of illegal comic books
C. copying and using a book illegally D. advertising a book without permission
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible.
Proponents of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers, and
groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients can
spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no marine
life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships at
sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals. In
certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished for
miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and even
from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and reproduction
patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Marine pollution and its many forms
B. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
C. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
D. The end of the "dilution" era
Question 36. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. serious B. insignificant C. unpredictable D. positive
Question 37. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. dealing with the problems of water pollution
B. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
C. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
D. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. ocean's depths B. man-made pollutants
C. marine organisms D. the oceans
Question 39. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. appear B. prevent C. produce D. limit
Question 40. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. are created by massive blooms of algae
B. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
C. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
D. cannot be found inland
Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage?
A. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
B. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
C. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
D. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
Question 42. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. can communicate with each other via sound waves
B. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies
C. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea
D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.

Question 44. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D
Question 45. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years. B. He hasn't visited London for three years.
C. He didn't visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years.
Question 47. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.
B. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.
C. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
D. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.
Question 48. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
B. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
C. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.
D. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
B. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some wildlife
reserves.
C. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
D. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect endangered
species.
Question 50. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 001

Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. legal B. diverse C. polite D. complete
Question 2. A. interview B. compliment C. sacrifice D. represent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. mood B. flood C. spoon D. moon
Question 4. A. listens B. reviews C. protects D. enjoys
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. If he were younger, he ______ a professional running competition now.
A. will join B. had joined C. would have joined D. would join
Question 6. The children ______ to bed before their parents came home from work.
A. were all going B. had all gone
C. had all been going D. have all gone
Question 7. Linda refused ______ in the musical performance because she was sick.
A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating
Question 8. There has been little rain in this area for months, ______?
A. has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there
Question 9. David was deported on account of his expired visa. He ______ it renewed.
A. must have had B. should have had
C. needn’t have had D. mightn’t have had
Question 10. The proposal ______ by the environmentalists to grow more trees has received
approval from the council.
A. which suggested B. be suggested C. suggested D. was suggested
Question 11. Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their
______.
A. creative B. creativity C. create D. creatively
Question 12. Violent films may have a negative ______ on children.
A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision
Question 13. A good leader should not be conservative, but rather ______ to new ideas.
A. receptive B. acceptable C. permissive D. applicable
Question 14. ______ individuals are those who share the same hobbies, interests, or points of view.
A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded
Question 15. The child has no problem reciting the poem; he has ______ it to memory.
A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted
Question 16. After several injuries and failures, things have eventually ______ for Todd when he
reached the final round of the tournament.
A. looked up B. gone on C. taken up D. turned on
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and
positive attitude, freshmen will soon fit in with the new environment.
A. interesting B. memorable C. serious D. depressing
Question 18. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.
A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes.
A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged
Question 20. After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury
the hatchet.
A. become enemies B. become friends
C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. John and Mary are talking about what to do after class.
John: “______”
Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.”
A. Do you often have time for a drink after class? B. Would you like to have a drink after class?
C. Do you often go out for a drink after class? D. Would you like tea or coffee after class?
Question 22. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
GOOD FRIENDS
Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to
mental well-being. A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help
to (23) ______ our lives. The study concentrated (24) ______ the social environment, general
health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked how much
contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances.
Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (25) ______ to a far
greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even
after these friends had moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socio-
economic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships
with people to (26) ______ one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health.
Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health,
such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. (27) _______, our support networks, in times

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of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies
for dealing with difficult personal challenges.
(Source: Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O’Dell)
Question 23. A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand
Question 24. A. in B. with C. on D. at
Question 25. A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance
Question 26. A. who B. whom C. what D. that
Question 27. A. Otherwise B. For example C. Moreover D. However

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will
find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very
difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is
not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an
adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise.
The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different
types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading.
Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of
escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live
a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure.
Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of
places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as
wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us
knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of
great men we have only heard of.
Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more
fascinating than a favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in
his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books
for recreation and refreshment.
(Source: http://www.importantindia.com)
Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading
C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity
Question 29. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult.
B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician.
C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure.
D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading.
Question 30. The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained
Question 31. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of pleasure

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Question 32. The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. great B. limited C. personal D. controlled
Question 33. According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs ______.
A. are wonderful novels B. tell stories of well-known places
C. are less popular than novels D. are more valuable than novels
Question 34. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to book-
lovers?
A. A daily occupation B. An ordinary educated man
C. The wonderland D. A favorite book

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The system of higher education had its origin in Europe in the Middle Ages, when the first
universities were established. In modern times, the nature of higher education around the world, to
some extent, has been determined by the models of influential countries such as France and
Germany.
Both France and Germany have systems of higher education that are basically administered
by state agencies. Entrance requirements for students are also similar in both countries. In France,
an examination called the baccalauréat is given at the end of secondary education. Higher
education in France is free and open to all students who have passed this baccalauréat. Success in
this examination allows students to continue their higher education for another three or four years
until they have attained the first university degree called a licence in France.
Basic differences, however, distinguish these two countries’ systems. French educational
districts, called académies, are under the direction of a rector, an appointee of the national
government who is also in charge of universities in each district. The uniformity in curriculum
throughout the country leaves each university with little to distinguish itself. Hence, many students
prefer to go to Paris, where there are better accommodations and more cultural amenities for them.
Another difference is the existence in France of prestigious higher educational institutions known as
grandes écoles, which provide advanced professional and technical training. Most of these schools
are not affiliated with the universities, although they too recruit their students by giving
competitive examinations to candidates. The grandes écoles provide rigorous training in all
branches of applied science and technology, and their diplomas have a somewhat higher standing
than the ordinary licence.
In Germany, the regional universities have autonomy in determining their curriculum under
the direction of rectors elected from within. Students in Germany change universities according to
their interests and the strengths of each university. In fact, it is a custom for students to attend two,
three, or even four different universities in the course of their undergraduate studies, and the
majority of professors at a particular university may have taught in four or five others. This high
degree of mobility means that schemes of study and examination are marked by a freedom and
individuality unknown in France.
France and Germany have greatly influenced higher education systems around the world.
The French, either through colonial influence or the work of missionaries, introduced many aspects
of their system in other countries. The German were the first to stress the importance of universities
as research facilities, and they also created a sense of them as emblems of a national mind.
(Source: https://britannicalearn.com)
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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The nature of education around the world in modern times
B. Systems of higher education in France and Germany
C. The origin of higher education system in Europe
D. The influence of France and Germany on educational systems of other countries
Question 36. The word “uniformity” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. proximity B. discrepancy C. similarity D. uniqueness
Question 37. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. schools B. universities C. examinations D. branches
Question 38. Which of the following about grandes écoles in France is NOT stated in paragraph 3?
A. Most of them have no connection with universities.
B. They have a reputation for advanced professional and technical training.
C. Their degrees are better recognized than those provided by universities.
D. They offer better accommodations and facilities than universities.
Question 39. According to the passage, a regional university rector in Germany is elected by
______.
A. the staff of the university B. the national government officials
C. the regional government officials D. the staff of other universities
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what makes it possible for students in Germany to attend
different universities during their undergraduate studies?
A. The university staff have become far more mobile and occupied.
B. The university’s training programs offer greater flexibility and freedom of choice.
C. University tuition fees are kept at an affordable level for all students.
D. Entry requirements to universities in Germany are made less demanding.
Question 41. The word “emblems” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. representatives B. directions C. structures D. delegates
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Studying in France and Germany is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities.
B. It normally takes longer to complete a university course in France than in Germany.
C. Universities in Germany can govern themselves more effectively than those in France.
D. The level of decentralization of higher education is greater in Germany than in France.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Every member of the class were invited to the party by the form teacher.
A B C D
rd
Question 44. Historically, it was the 3 Asian Games in Japan that tennis, volleyball, table tennis
A B C
and hockey were added.
D
Question 45. Though formally close friends, they have now been estranged from each other due to
A B C
some regrettable misunderstandings.
D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Harry no longer smokes a lot.
A. Harry now smokes a lot. B. Harry used to smoke a lot.
C. Harry didn’t use to smoke a lot. D. Harry rarely smoked a lot.
Question 47. “I’ll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me.
A. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
B. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
C. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport.
D. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport.
Question 48. People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing
number of private cars.
A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.
B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the
downtown area.
C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.
D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of
private cars.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The young girl has great experience of nursing. She has worked as a hospital
volunteer for years.
A. Before she worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of
nursing.
B. Much as she has worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience
of nursing.
C. Having worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of
nursing.
D. With great experience of nursing, the young girl has worked as a hospital volunteer for years.
Question 50. Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting.
C. Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. You can say that again B. I can't agree with you more
C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so
Question 2: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. B. I've passed the exam with an A.
C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. accessible B. confusing C. effective D. advanced
Question 4: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. classifying B. distributing C. adopting D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear of
getting into financial difficulties.
A. dress in loose clothes B. spend money freely
C. save on daily expenses D. put on tighter belts
Question 6: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. varying C. decreasing D. rising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. delays B. begins C. attracts D. believes
Question 8: A. head B. bean C. meal D. team
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character
Question 10: A. intend B. install C. follow D. decide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. comes B. gets C. stands D. lays
Question 12: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 13: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treated B. having treated C. treating D. who treated

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Question 14: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. had recovered D. was recovering
Question 15: Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create
Question 16: There is no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. mightn't have finished B. should have finished
C. needn't have finished D. must have finished
Question 17: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted
Question 18: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. permissive B. noticeable C. acceptable D. observant
Question 19: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 20: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impress B. impressively C. impression D. impressive
Question 21: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help B. helps C. will help D. has helped
Question 22: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 24: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C
their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Question 25: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
C. I used to join the sports club. D. I never like joining the sports club.
Question 27: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 28: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family
meant to her.
D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her.
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Question 30: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been
noticed that the difference (31)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open
green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain
heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to
thunderstorms (32)______ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (33)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore,
the government has (34)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One
outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one
is a vertical freestanding garden and is (35)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar
panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 31: A. on B. with C. in D. out

Question 32: A. when B. which C. what D. where
Question 33: A. or B. for C. and D. but
Question 34: A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required
Question 35: A. home B. house C. land D. place
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant you an
interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want
from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate
your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional
care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is
your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the
specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should
demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest.
It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It
should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid
discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement
requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable."
However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this
reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want
to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Advice on how to find a good job
B. Things to avoid during a job interview
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
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Question 37: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview
B. get further information about the company
C. advertise a product to attract more customers
D. present what he/she wants from the job
Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the letter of application B. an opportunity
C. your work D. the résumé
Question 39: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application?
A. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
Question 41: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand
Question 42: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions
C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of
other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has
hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public
adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him.
The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and
encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming
about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he
falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps
that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed
buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively
affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets
has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after
surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a
handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school
for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for
three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons.
Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about
mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him,"
says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional
love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris
Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a
positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a
bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry
remains as popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

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Question 43: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 44: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation
Question 45: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore
C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand
Question 46: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness
C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct
Question 47: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a school dog B. a craze
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka
at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
Question 49: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 50: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit
their students.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message
across to young people.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 402

Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. I'm afraid so B. Absolutely C. That's nonsense D. I doubt it
Question 2: John and Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that."
A. Where did you buy your car? B. What a nice car!
C. Your car is new, isn't it? D. My car is very expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apartment B. benefit C. argument D. vacancy
Question 4: A. explain B. involve C. borrow D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. great B. cheap C. clean D. mean
Question 6: A. improves B. destroys C. suggests D. reminds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. exactness B. inaccuracy C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 8: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time just
before the check-in counter closed.
A. with all our luggage B. in a terrible condition
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning to
digitalised reading materials.
A. scarcity B. deficiency C. popularity D. intensity
Question 10: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. polluted B. pure C. cleaned D. deadly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. will take B. takes C. would take D. has taken
Question 12: Only after the bus ______ for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. had run C. has run D. runs

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Question 13: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. extension B. expansion C. extent D. expanse
Question 14: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. knowledgeable B. knowledgeably C. knowledge D. know
Question 15: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap year.
A. to continue B. to continuing C. continue D. continuing
Question 16: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. spread B. rub C. apply D. put
Question 17: Despacito, ______ over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite
songs among teenagers worldwide.
A. is viewed B. which viewed C. viewing D. viewed
Question 18: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. turning up B. making off C. putting on D. bringing down
Question 19: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. light-hearted B. warm-hearted C. big-hearted D. whole-hearted
Question 20: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. gather B. collect C. master D. achieve
Question 21: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. would have revised B. needn't have revised C. can't have revised D. must have revised
Question 22: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. doesn't she B. does she C. is she D. isn't she
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work
helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously,
thus teaching people how to (23)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people
into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to
impart to others that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and
enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit (25)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is
(26)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 23: A. take B. work C. put D. give
Question 24: A. but B. so C. or D. for
Question 25: A. under B. of C. on D. out
Question 26: A. impassable B. unattainable C. undetectable D. immeasurable
Question 27: A. which B. what C. whose D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known. They
are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and dancing.
Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the teenage boys of
the Masai become men.
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 Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near
the border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors."
This is a traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.
At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build
a place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders
from different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them.
Later in the day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before
the ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a
baby grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai
wedding, the hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage
boy's mother cuts his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now
you are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and
lands. The teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and
have children. Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
B. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
C. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
D. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. dancers B. fighters C. musicians D. travellers
Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. different tribes B. their mothers C. the boys D. the senior elders
Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. the Masai senior elders B. Masai teenagers
C. the Masai teenage boys' mothers D. Masai men
Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. differ B. change C. maintain D. distinguish
Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names
C. Changing their clothes D. Fighting with other tribes
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
B. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
C. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
D. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on
camera, especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The
available evidence suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it
would be harder to get away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into the
hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies would
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no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to privacy and
freedom of choice?
Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of
police footage have already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they
didn't happen. Alternatively, footage could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing
to fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We
are natural gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the
wheels of our social interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a
critical threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near
that point yet – but we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The current public obsession with modern technology
B. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
C. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
D. Data overload experienced by social network users
Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. embrace B. fantasise C. reject D. visualise
Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2, misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. know that they may be subjected to criticism
C. realise that they may be publicly punished D. are employed in the public sector
Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both advantages and disadvantages
D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn, raises
public concern.
B. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of their
privacy and anonymity.
C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take care of
their users' body-cam data.
D. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
B. could be manipulated to charge innocent people
C. should be kept open to interpretation
D. could provoke legal disputes among media companies
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully online?
A. Because they regret doing something illegal.
B. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
C. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
D. Because they wish to protect their image.
Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. wheels B. social interactions
C. desirable behaviours D. people
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
B. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
C. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
D. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
Question 44: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her savings to
the children there.
A. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit to the
local orphanage.
B. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the children that she paid a visit to the
local orphanage.
C. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there.
D. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 45: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend sometimes eats fast food. B. My friend doesn't like eating fast food.
C. My friend no longer eats fast food. D. My friend has never eaten fast food.
Question 46: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
Question 47: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
B. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
C. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
D. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C
of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 49: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Question 50: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A B C D

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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 BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi
Câu hỏi
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424
1 D B B B B B C A B D A A B C D A D D B C A D C A
2 B B A C C D D B A A C A C B A D B A A D A C A A
3 D A C D D D C A A C A C C B C B D B A A A B B C
4 B C A C C B A C A A B B C B C B D C A A C D A A
5 B A D A B C A C C B A C A C C A B D D B C B B D
6 C C B D C D C D C B D B D A B C B D A B C D A A
7 C B D C C A B D D B B B A A C C B B D C D C D C
8 A D A D D C B D B A B C D B A A D D B C A B B B
9 C C B A A D D C C C D C C C B D B C C A A B D B
10 C A C B A B A A B D C C C C A C C A C A B D D C
11 C C B B B C B D B C A A C C C C C B A B C B B B
12 B B B D C D C D C A C B D A B A A B B B A C A B
13 A D D D D D D D D B B D D A D D A A A A A C B D
14 C C C C D C B A A B D A B D C C A C C A A C C C
15 C A A B A C D B D A D D B A C D B C C C C A A D
16 B B B A B D A B D C C D C A D B A A A D A D C C
17 B D B D D C B A B D A A C D B A D D B D B B B D
18 D C C D A A A D B A D B D A C D B A B D C D B A
19 B D B B B A C C A C B A D C D C C B A C B B B D
20 C D A D C A B A A D C A D A B C A C A C C B A B
21 A D A A D B A C C A B A C D B D B B D C D C A C
22 B B C D A B A C A A C B C A D C D C B D A A A C
23 B B B B B B C C D D C D D B D A B D C A D A B A
24 A A D D C B C B D C C B B C C C D A B C D C B C
25 A B B B C B A A B C B B B D B A B B D C C C D B
26 B D A A D A B C A B D A D C C A C B A D D A B A
27 A D A D B B A D C B B B B D C C A D B A B A D B
28 D A D D B B C A B A C D D C D A A B B A D C C A
29 C B B B B B B B C B D A D A C A C C A A B C C A
30 C D B A D D D B B B B B B D D C B C C C D A C A
31 C C B B A C B D A C A A D A D C C D D D B B A B
32 B B D A D A A D A A D D C C B D C D B C C C C B
33 C A D D A B B C B C A D B A D A D A D C D B C C
34 A B A A C A B B D C C A B D B A C B B A D B A B
35 A B D B A B D B B A A B C D D A C C D D C C A C
36 C D B A B D C A C B C D D D D D C A C A D D D A
37 A A D A B C C A A D B B D C D A A A C D C A A A
38 A C D C A A C C D D C B B D B D D D C D B D D A
39 A C A C D A D D C D B D D D B C D C D A B A D B
40 D A D B C D C A B B C B B C C D C A D A D D D B
41 C D D A C D C A D C B D D D D D C C C C B D C C
42 C D A A D A D B C D D A B C B C C A C D B A C B
43 C C A B A A D C C C A B B D A D B B C C D A C C
44 A D A B A A D D C C D D B D B C A A D C B A D B
45 A C D B A D B C B B A D C D A A A B A D B D D A
46 B D A C D A A B A B A B C A D A D C A D D D A C
47 A C A C C B A B A A A D C B B B C A A D B A B C
48 B B A C D A D D D D B A A C C B D D C B A B A A
49 B A D B C C D B D D D D A C B D D A C A A A C B
50 B B D B C C C B D C D D A C B D D C D D A D C A
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 001

Số báo danh: ..........................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. washed B. formed C. turned D. boiled
Question 2: A. house B. mouth C. could D. found

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. inform B. explore C. prevent D. cancel
Question 4: A. attitude B. manager C. invention D. company

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: My parents hope to travel around ______ world next summer.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 6: If you watch this film, you ______ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries.
A. learned B. were learning C. will learn D. would learn
Question 7: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he ______ along the street.
A. was walking B. would walk C. walked D. had walked
Question 8: Solar energy is not widely used ______ it is friendly to the environment.
A. since B. although C. in spite of D. because of
Question 9: The sign warns people ______ the dangers of swimming in this river.
A. about B. from C. with D. to
Question 10: ______, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there.
A. On arrival at the party B. To have attended the party
C. They had arrived at the party D. Just attended the party
Question 11: Once ______ in large quantities, these products will be more affordably priced.
A. are produced B. having produced C. produced D. producing
Question 12: Jane would never forget ______ first prize in such a prestigious competition.
A. to be awarded B. being awarded C. to have awarded D. having awarded
Question 13: You should turn off the lights before going out to save ______.
A. electricity B. electrify C. electric D. electrically
Question 14: ______ school fees may discourage many students from attending university.
A. Gaining B. Receiving C. Improving D. Raising
Question 15: Drinking too much alcohol is said to ______ harm to our health.
A. make B. do C. lead D. take
Question 16: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a ______ of
completion.
A. degree B. certificate C. diploma D. qualification
Question 17: The ______ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great
concern to the government.
A. redundantly B. intensively C. marginally D. excessively
Question 18: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to ______.
A. possibility B. mistake C. opportunity D. chance

Trang 1/5 – Mã đề thi 001

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in
astronomy.
A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused
Question 20: Mary has finally managed to get round her strict parents to let her go on a three-
day excursion with her classmates.
A. permit B. persuade C. offer D. support

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Traffic congestion in big cities deters many people from using their private cars at
peak hours.
A. prohibits B. protects C. encourages D. limits
Question 22: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they tend
to access information online.
A. regularly B. attentively C. occasionally D. selectively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Jack is inviting Mary to his party.
- Jack: ''Would you like to come to my party this weekend?''
- Mary: ''______.''
A. Yes, I'd love to B. No, don't worry C. You're welcome D. I'm afraid so
Question 24: Laura and Mitchell are talking about their school curriculum.
- Laura: ''I think Art should be a compulsory subject.''
- Mitchell: ''______. Art helps develop creativity.''
A. I quite agree B. You must be kidding
C. I'm of the opposite opinion D. I don't think that's a good idea

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Advances in mobile technology and social networking websites mean we spend more time
online than ever before. If Facebook were a country, it would be the third largest in the world by
population (The Economist, 2010). It is (25) ______ not surprising that so many psychologists,
sociologists, and others are eager to give their thoughts on how this is impacting negatively on our
society.
The biggest criticism levelled at social networking is that young people are losing their
offline friends to online friends (26) ______ are unable to provide the same deep connection and
emotional support. However, a lot of research shows these criticisms are generally (27) ______.
Allen et al. (2010) discovered that it is socially adjusted adolescents who are more likely to have a
networking profile than those who are not. One study by the Pew Internet and American Life
Project (2009) found that people are not (28) ______ offline friends with online companions but
are using them to support their offline relationships. The study also found that social networks
allow us to have discussions with a much more diverse set of people than in the real world, so we
share knowledge with people from a wide (29) ______ of backgrounds.
(Adapted from ''Skillful Reading & Writing 4''by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)

Question 25: A. while B. however C. despite D. therefore

Question 26: A. what B. who C. which D. whom
Question 27: A. uninvolved B. unequalled C. unsettled D. unfounded
Question 28: A. making B. providing C. combining D. substituting
Question 29: A. vary B. variety C. various D. variously
Trang 2/5 – Mã đề thi 001
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Visitors to London are struck by the proud splendour and glamour of one of the world's
oldest capitals, admiring iconic sites like Big Ben, the Palace of Westminster and Buckingham
Palace. However, visitors seeking a glimpse into the city's everyday life should not miss
Portobello Market, which is the most-visited market in London.
This vibrant market has been featured in a number of films, documentaries and best-
selling books, the most famous being the film ''Notting Hill'' starring Hugh Grant and Julia
Roberts, which brought Portobello Market to the attention of audiences all over the world.
Portobello Market is divided into different sections selling second-hand items, clothing,
jewellery, souvenirs and vegetables. The most sought-after area is devoted to antiques. Visitors
may feel overwhelmed as there are over 1,000 booths manned by antique dealers from throughout
England. It's a great fun to browse through antique cameras, watches, pottery and paintings that
date back 300 years. They are sold at different prices, so it's possible to find a few good bargains.
It seems that both buyers and sellers look forward to the weekends when they can meet and
escape the city's fast pace at Portobello Market.
When tired from exploring the market, visitors can drop into the nearby food courts to
savour an Indian curry, Italian pizza or sandwiches from Europe. It's a great pleasure to drink a
cappuccino while listening to street performers. These represent the lively fun of Portobello
Market, offering exciting experiences that keep people coming back.
(Adapted from ''Heritage'' - Vietnam Airlines in-flight magazine)
Question 30: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The film ''Notting Hill'' B. The city of London
C. Portobello Market D. European cuisine
Question 31: According to the passage, Portobello Market has been featured in all of the
following EXCEPT ______.
A. films B. documentaries C. books D. songs
Question 32: The word ''they'' in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. prices B. bargains C. buyers and sellers D. weekends
Question 33: Visitors to the antique area may feel overwhelmed because ______.
A. they can meet all sorts of people from England
B. all the antiques are sold at the same price
C. there are a large number of antique shops there
D. all the antiques are more than 300 years old
Question 34: The word ''savour'' in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. see B. prepare C. enjoy D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Cambridge University is considering axing compulsory written exams, allowing students
to use laptops or iPads instead, after tutors complained that students' handwriting is becoming
illegible. Academics say the move, which would bring an end to over 800 years of tradition, has
come about because students rely too heavily on laptops in lectures, and are losing the ability to
write by hand.
Dr Sarah Pearsall, a senior lecturer at Cambridge University, said handwriting is becoming
a ''lost art'' among the current generation of students. She added, ''It's increasingly hard for our
examiners to read students' scripts. Those with illegible writing are forced to come back to their
college during the summer holidays to read their answers aloud in the presence of two university
administrators. It's extraordinarily commendable that the University is considering reforms to its
examination practices.''
Sir Anthony Seldon, Vice-Chancellor of the University of Buckingham, said it is
inevitable that universities will move to computers as handwriting deteriorates in the coming

Trang 3/5 – Mã đề thi 001

years. ''We have to accept the reality. Handwriting has now become an optional, not a necessary,
part of education. There simply isn't the same time in the curriculum for learning elegant,
beautiful handwriting. Life is so quick now. Everybody writes as if they were a doctor writing a
prescription,'' he said. ''Handwriting is not necessary for great thought, great English, or great
intelligence. Some of our finest wordsmiths today write using laptops, and we have to fight to
preserve what is really important, such as the use of great English or great sentence structures.''
Others, however, were not very positive about the move. Tracey Trussell, a handwriting
expert, urged Cambridge to ensure that students continue to write by hand. She said, ''It's vital that
people continue to write by hand. Writing by hand improves memory and equates to a higher rate of
comprehension and information retention.'' There is also concern that schools could follow
Cambridge's example by moving away from handwriting. Dr Jane Medwell, Associate Professor of
Education at the University of Nottingham, is concerned that scrapping handwritten exams in
universities could prompt ''downward curriculum pressure'' on primary and secondary schools to
follow suit.
(Adapted from http://www.telegraph.co.uk)

Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Cambridge University in an Attempt to Improve Students' Handwriting
B. Cambridge University Pondering Changes to its Exam Practices
C. Cambridge University Attacked again for Abolishing Written Exams
D. Cambridge University to Replace Written with Oral Exams
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, Cambridge University has a long-standing tradition of
______.
A. offering academic tutorials B. organising handwritten exams
C. relying heavily on technology D. training students in legible handwriting
Question 37: The word ''Those'' in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. examiners B. students C. scripts D. administrators
Question 38: The word "deteriorates'' in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. remains unchanged B. becomes more important
C. improves gradually D. gets worse and worse
Question 39: It can be inferred from what Sir Anthony Seldon said in paragraph 3 that ______.
A. schools in the country used to have more time for handwriting practice
B. schools in the country have failed to preserve the beauty of English
C. people's handwriting generally reflects their intelligence and linguistic competence
D. the majority of doctors these days no longer write prescriptions by hand
Question 40: The word ''scrapping'' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reconsidering B. eliminating C. introducing D. discouraging
Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 4, writing by hand can ______.
A. enhance the ability to remember information
B. guarantee desirable academic performance
C. facilitate the process of information exchange
D. relieve students of unnecessary pressure
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Cambridge University’s move away from handwriting has already set an
unprecedented example for other schools to follow.
B. Sarah Pearsall acknowledged handwriting as an art form to be preserved among the
current generation of students at Cambridge University.
C. Sir Anthony Seldon claimed that learning to use great English was more important than
learning to write by hand beautifully.
D. Most of the tutors at Cambridge are skeptical of the university's decision regarding
handwritten exams.
Trang 4/5 – Mã đề thi 001
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: My friends and I go usually to the park on the weekend.
A B C D
Question 44: Information on the Romans can find not only in these books but also on the Internet.
A B C D
Question 45: There are a number of updated entrances in the latest edition of the encyclopedia.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 47: ''What are you going to do after school, Anne?'' Kevin asked.
A. Kevin asked Anne what was she going to do after school.
B. Kevin asked Anne what she was going to do after school.
C. Kevin wanted to know what Anne would do after school.
D. Kevin wanted to know what would Anne do after school.
Question 48: Sally paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary.
A. Sally needn't have paid for her travel in advance.
B. Sally might not have paid for her travel in advance.
C. Sally may not have paid for her travel in advance.
D. Sally couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Jenifer rejected the job offer. She now regrets it.
A. Jenifer regrets not having rejected the job offer.
B. If only Jenifer didn’t reject the job offer.
C. Jenifer wishes she hadn’t rejected the job offer.
D. Jenifer regrets to reject the job offer.
Question 50: Mike became a father. He felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents.
A. Were Mike to become a father himself, he would feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
B. Only after Mike had become a father himself did he feel a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
C. Had Mike become a father himself, he would have felt a strong sense of responsibility
towards his parents.
D. Not until he felt a strong sense of responsibility towards his parents did Mike become a
father himself.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

Trang 5/5 – Mã đề thi 001

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KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 412
Thời gian làm bài:60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. article B. addition C. exercise D. energy
Question 2: A. travel B. return C. connect D. deny
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3 : A. count B. doubt C. group D. sound
Question 4: A. happened B. reduced C. survived D. bothered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 5 : David is apologising to his teacher for being late.
- David: " Sorry I'm late! The traffic is so heavy."
- Teacher:"______. Come in and sit down.''
A. You’re so kind B. Me neither C. It's alright D. Thank you
Question 6: Peter and Mary are talking about social netwworks.
- Peter: "Using soccial networks may have negative effects on students."
- Mary: “______”. It distracts them from their studies."
A. I'm not sure about that B. You're wrong
C. I don’t quite agree D. That's quite true
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7 : Despite sharing viewpoints on many issues, Nina and her husband are at odds when it comes
to child rearing.
A. at library B. in conflict C. in agreement D. under pressure
Question 8: Such terrible acts of child abuse were not ignored thanks to the continuing protests of the
online community.
A. unsolved B. noticed C. witnessed D. disregarded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 9: I have tried hard, but it is too difficult to find the solution to this maths problem.
A. relation B. answer C. link D. reply
Question 10: Though considered the king sport in many parts of the world, soccer has never really caught
on in the United States.
A. been active B. become popular C. remained silent D. been consolidated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: I will never forget______to the Royal Garden Party, where superb cuisines were served amid
luxurious surroundings.
A. to be invited B. to invite C. inviting D. being invited
Question 12: ______, they got on well with each other.
A. To quarrel a lot like siblings at their age B. But most siblings at their age quarrel a lot
C. While most siblings at their age quarrel a lot D. For most siblings to quarrel a lot at their age
Question 13: If we are not busy this weekend, we______the new fruit farm in the countryside.
A. will visit B. would visit C. would have visited D. visited
Question 14: We all wish to create a friendly and supportive environment______to learning.
A. liable B. conducive C. detrimental D. accomodating
Question 15: In spite of their disabilities, the children at Spring School manage to______an active social
life.
A. take B. gather C. lead D. save
Question 16: My sister really enjoys acting as a hobby, but she doesn't want to do it for a(n) ______.
A. occupation B. existence C. living D. survival
Question 17: Nicholas had never chaired a meeting before, but he rose to the______ yesterday when he
presided over a forum.
A. incident B. issue C. difficulty D. occasion
Question 18: Children are encouraged to read books ______ they are a wonderful source of knowledge.
A. because of B. in spite of C. because D. although
Question 19: It was so noisy outside that she couldn't concentrate ______ her work.
A. in B. at C. with D. on
Question 20: If ______ with pictures and diagrams, a lesson will be more interesting and comprehensible.
A. have illustrated B. illustrated C. was illustrated D. illustrating
Question 21: She hurt herself while she______hide-and-seek with her friends.
A. is playing B. had played C. played D. was playing
Question 22: This is______most interesting book I've ever read.
A. the B. an C. 0 D. a

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Question 23: The students were worried that they wouldn't be able to______the deadline for the assignment.
A. need B. match C. answer D. beat
Question 24:1 think mobile phones are______for people of all ages.
A. usage B. use C. usefully D. useful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: Her parents didn’t attend her graduation ceremony. They regret it now.
A. Her parents regret having attended her graduation ceremony.
B. Her parents wish they had attended her graduation ceremony.
C. If her parents attended her graduation ceremony, they would regret it
D. If only her parents could attend her fraduation ceremony.
Question 26: The coach changed his tactics in the second half. His football team won the match.
A. But for the coach's change of tactics in the second half, his football team could have won the match.
B. Not until his football team had won the match did the coach change his tactics in the second half.
C. Only if the coach had changed the tactics in the second half could his football team have won the match.
D. Had it not been for the coach’s change of tactics in the second half, the football team wouldn't have won
the match.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 27: The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing their
A B C
houses after the devastating storm.
D
Question 28: Reading books has been always my hobby since I was very young.
A B C D
Question 29: Household chores should share among members of the family.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 30: I thought it was not necessary to book tickets for the film in advance, but I was wrong.
A. I needn’t have booked tickets for the film in advance.
B. I couldn't have booked tickets for the film in advance.
C. I should have booked tickets for the film in advance.
D. I must have booked tickets for the film in advance.

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Question 31: Paul likes reading comic books more than watching cartoons.
A. Paul doesn’t like watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
B. Paul likes watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
C. Paul likes watching cartoons more than reading comic books.
D. Paul doesn;t like reading comic books as much as watching cartoons.
Question 32: "When did you start practising yoga?” asked Tom.
A. Tom wanted to know when I had started practising yoga.
B. Tom wanted to know when had I started practising yoga.
C. Tom wanted to know when did I start practising yoga.
D. Tom wanted to know when 1 was starting practising yoga.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37
THE IMPORTANCE OF FAIRY TALES FOR CHILDREN
Fairy tales are the stories that adults, especially parents, tell young children. In view of their name, it
is surprising that hardly any of them are actually about fairies. (33)________most fairy tales have happy
endings, the stories usually deal with very (34) ________ situations - children abandoned in the forest,
terrifying giants, cruel stepmothers. However, despite being scared when they are told the stories, children
will often ask to hear them over and over again.
Many psychologists believe that what fary tales do, in addition to (35) ________children's
imagination, is to show that there are problems in the world and they can be overcome. Just like adults,
children have fears and worries: theirs are of things such as abandonment, loss, injuries, witches. Fairy tales
present real problems in a fantasy form (36) ________ childrean are able to understand. This, it is claimed,
allow them to (37) ________ thir fears and to realise, if ever in their unconscious mind, that no matter how
difficult the circumstances, there are always ways of coping.
Question 33: A. Although B. Therefore C. Despite D. Because
Question 34: A. frighten B. frighteningly C. fright D. frightening
Question 35: A. inciting B. motivating C. stimulating D. speculating
Question 36: A. that B. why C. where D. who
Question 37: A. confront B. alter C. nurture D. suffer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42
Norwich is the capital of East Anglia, an area on the east coast of England which is famous for its
natural beauty and impressive architecture. Norwich is a wonderful city to explore and is popular with
tourists all year round.

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Norwich is not a city of luxurious hotels, but it has a good selection of reasonably priced places to
stay in, both in the city centre and further out. The Beeches Hotel, for example, next to the cathedral, has a
beautiful Victorian garden. Comfortable accomodations costs £65 for two nights' bed and breakfast per
person. Norwich is famous for its magnificent cathedral. The cathedral has a summer programme of music
and events which is open to the general public. One event, "Fire from heaven", is a drama and musical
performance with fireworks, a laser light show and a carnival with local people dressed in colourful
costumes.
Norwich is also home to the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts, a world-class collection of
international art in a building at the University of East Anglia. This is well worth a visit and there is a lovely
canteen with an excellent selection of hot and cold snacks. It also specializes in vegetarian food. In addition,
the city has a new professional theatre, the Playhouse, on the River Wensum. The city' annual international
arts festival is from 10 to 20 October.
Finally, if you fancy a complete break from the stresses of everyday life,you could hire a boat and
spend a few days cruising along the river of the famous Norfolk Broads National Park. In our
environmentally friendly age, the emphasis has moved forwards the quiet enjoyment of nature and wildlife.
You can buy hire a boat, big or small, for an hour or two or even up to a week or two. This makes a perfect
day out or holiday for people of all ages.
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Holidays in Norwich B. A Destination Guide to England
C. England's Famous Cities D. Daily Life in Norwich
Question 39: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to_______.
A. selection B. the Beeches Hotel C. the city centre D. Norwich
Question 40: According to paragraph 2. which is NOT part of "Fire from Heaven"?
A. fireworks display B. A laser light show C. A campfire D. A carnival
Question 41: The word "cruishing" in paragraph 4 mostly means_______.
A. travelling by boat B. surfing C. swimming D. moving on land
Question 42: According to the passage, where is the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts located?
A. In a new professional theatre on the River Wensum
B. In the Norfolk Broads National Park
C. In an intertional art museum
D. In a building at the University of East Anglia
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

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The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion
people would face severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates. Today, an
estimated 1.2 billion people drink unclean water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste disposal
systems. More than five million people die each year from diseases related to unclean water. Humans are
pumping water out of the ground faster than it can be replenished. In this difficult situation, a water
conservatiionist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found innovative ways to improve his local water
situation.
Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found
was a catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who
lived in poverty just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty
plumbing whereby 42 percent of the region's water was simply being wasted.
MacLeod's crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on residences,
replaced eight-litter toilets with four-litter models, and changed wasteful showers and water taps. To ensure
that the poor would receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes and apartments to
provide 190 liters of water a day free to each household. Water consumption in Durban is now less than it
was in 1996, even as 800,000 more people have received service. Through sensible water use, Durban's
conservation measures paid for themselves within a year. No new reservoirs will be needed in the coming
decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000 inhabitants.
MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned into
clean water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city drinking
water and the treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes.
Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the world's
water problems. "But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made," says Sandra
Postel of the Global Water Policy Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil MacLeod
offer inspiration for implementing timely and lasting solutions to the world's water concern.
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. South Africa to Succesfully Desalinate Seawater
B. Drinkable Seawater - A Dream Turning Sour?
C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations
D. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa
Question 44: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide?
A. Around 1.2 billion B. 2.5 billion C. 2.7 billion D. 5 billion
Question 45: The word "catastrophe" in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is________.
A. disastrous B. unlikely C. local D. familiar

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Question 46: The word "it” in paragraph 3 refers to________,

A. Durban B. service C. household D. water consumption
Question 47: The word "discern" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. recognize B. examine C. emphasize D. appreciate
Question 48: What is the essence of Neil MacLeod's solutions to the water problems in Durban?
A. Reliance on foreign aid B. Exploitation of fround water
C. Conservation of water D. Construction of new reservoirs
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Money saved from seasible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban.
B. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world's water problems.
C. Over forty percent of Durban's water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts.
D. In Durban, treated waste water is provided free of charge to meet the residents’ daily needs. Question
Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities.
B. It used to take about half a day to convert wasewater into drinkable water.
C. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day.
D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs.

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KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2020

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Mã đề 402
Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the corect answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1 : My mother is often _______ last person to go to bed in my family.
A. a B. Ø (no article) C. the D. an
Question 2: The air quality in this area has improved a lot since that factory________.
A. was closing B. would close C. close D. will close
Question 3: The stricker had already celebrated the goal, but the __________ decided that he had been
offside.
A. examiner B. judge C. referee D. inspector
Question 4: An accomplished chef himself, Ronald is__________ about his use of ingredients and
spices, especially when preparing feasts
A. creditable B. receptive C. feasible D. particular
Question 5: I’m planning ________ my children to the new amusement park this weekend.
A. taking B. take C. to take D. to taking
Question 6: My aunt excitedly ________ a compliment on the scarf I knitted for her as a birthday
present.
A. took B. passed C. paid D. caught
Question 7: Hoi An iss famous ________ its ancient architecture.
A. to B. up C. with D. for
Question 8: You will not know who your true friend is______.
A. after you had had B. when you were C. until you have D. as soon as you had
trouble and need help. having trouble and trouble and need trouble and needed
needing help. help. help.
Question 9: Mrs Carter feels happy ________ her daughter has made good progress in her studies
recently.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
Question 10: I can’t give chapter and ________, but to the best of my knowledge, it’s a line from a
sonnet by William Shakespeare.
A. verse B. rhyme C. note D. scene
Question 11: The data ________ from the survey allowed the researchers to gain insights into young
people’s attitudes to marriage.
A. obtains B. obtaining C. is obtained D. obtained
Question 12: The job gives you lots of chances to travel abroad; it’s certainly a very ______offer.

A. attract B. attractively C. attractive D. attraction

Question 13: If I _______ you, I wouldn’t stay up this late.
A. am B. will be C. were D. would be
Question 14: The Covid-19 pandemic reminds us to respect doctors and nurses, who _______ others in
our society
A. go on B. call back C. pick up D. care for
Question 15: You often play sports, _________ ?
A. didn’t you B. haven’t you C.don’t you D. won’t you

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the positions of primary stress in each of the following questions..
Question 16: A. promise B. destroy C. support D. believe
Question 17: A. habitat B. capital C. calendar D. attraction

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 18: A. mails B. wraps C. paints D. packs
Question 19: A. push B. cut C. hunt D. run
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underline word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Having to work to a deadline can be a stressful experience for students.
A. paintful B. practical C. relaxing D. tense
Question 21: Everyone was secretly rehearsing a surprise performance for Petrer’s proposal, but
annoyingly James let the est out of the bag at the last minute
A. disclosed the plan B.concealed the plan C.revised the plan D. abandoned the plan

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underline word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The author mostly writes novels, and he also published some books of poetry
A. rarely B. mainly C. partly D. only
Question 23: I invited John to my wedding but he declined, saying that he would be busy.
A. confirmed B. refused C. criticised D. accepted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Joe and Linda are planning a night out
- Joe : ‘ Let’s go out for dinner tonight ‘
- Linda : ‘________’
A. That’s a good idea B. Good luck ! C. Don’t worry D. You’re welcome
Question 25: David and Tim are talking about films.
-David : ‘ In my opinion, action films are really exciting.’
-Tim : ‘__They always give me thrills’
A. That’s wrong B. I couldn’t agree C. What nonsense! D. You shouldn’t say
anymore that.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26: The team’s spirits were really low after the first loss, but their morality was improved
A B
remarkably by the next three consecutive victories.
C D

Question 27: In some areas, solar energy is used to light, heat, and cooling houses and buildings.
A B C D
Question 28: My house look more beautiful in spring when the front garden is full of flowers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 29: It is compulsory for all the students to obey the class rules.
A. All the students must obe the class rules. B. All the students may obey the class rules.
C.All the students needn’t obey the class rules. D.All the students can’t obey the class rules.

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Question 30: “I’m going to participate in a volunteer program this summer,” said Martha.
A. Martha said that she was going to participate in a volunteer program that summer.
B. Martha said that I was going to participate in a volunteer program this summer.
C. Martha said that I am going to participate in a volunteer program this summer.
D. Martha said that she is going to participate in a volunteer program that summer.
Question 31: Mary is more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
B. Mary is less intelligent than her brother
C. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother.
D. Mary’s brother isn’t as intelligent as she is.
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The Internet connection was not stable. The teacher couldn’t conduct the online lesson
successfully.
A. Suppose that the Internet connection hadn’t been stable, the teacher could conduct the online lesson
successfully.
B. Without the stable Internet connection, the teacher could conduct the online lesson successfully.
C. If the Interet connection had been unstable, the teacher could have conducted the online lesson
successfully.
D. But for the unstable Internet connection, the teacher could have conducted the online lesson
successfully.
Question 33:Body shaming is hurtful. Many people enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
A. Such is many people’s enjoyment in making fun of others’ appearance that body shaming is less
hurtful.
B. Hurtful though body shaming is, many people enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
C. Body shaming is hurtful in order that many peole enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.
D. Were body shaming hurtful, many people wouldn’t enjoy making fun of others’ appearance.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 34 to 38
YOUR ONLINE IDENTITY
Presenting yourself in the best possible light to a prospective employer is what job applicationa are all
about.(34)______ when you put together a compelling CV, write your concise covering letter and check
your Linkedln profile you might also want to ‘Google’ yourself and see what comes up, because
increasingly that’s what employers are doing. Your online identity, in (35)______ your Facebook
profile, could in fact be considered the ultimate CV-a personal, honest and spontaneous description of
how you see yourself and how those (36)______know you see you.
That’s not to say that a potential employer is necessarily going to disapprove of your silly behaviors
on a night out with friends; indeed, they might be looking for an extrovert character. But it does mean
they will be examining your real interests and motivations and mining (37)______ sites for clues to your
true character. So if you say in your CV that’s probably not going to to (38)______. Try Googling
yourself and then ask: “Would you hire you?”
( Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
Question 34: A.Till B.Or C.Nor D. So
Question 35: A.particular B.short C.all D. general
Question 36: A.what B.who C.which D. where
Question 37: A.every B.each C.much D. such
Question 38: A.unchanged B.unjustified C.unnoticed D. unattended

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Most of us have taken a selfie at one time or another, be it a photo of ourselves in a beautiful place,
durig a performance by our favourite band, or on a memorable night out with friends But today, more
and more people are putting their lives at risk in an attempt to get the most shocking pictures to share on
social media. In several cases, this action has had disastrous consequences.
Take, for example, the Spaniard who was killed by a bull while ha was taking a selfie during the
annual bull run in a village near his hometown, or the Singaporean tourist who died when he fell from
cliffs on the coast of bali. Such incidents have led to the death toll from selfie-related incidents reaching
double figures for the first time in 2015, overtaking the number of victims of shark attacks.
Despite the risks, social media is full of pictures featuringnear misses that could have been fatal
stadium can be seen narrowly avoiding being hit in the head by a baseball approaching her. Yet the
photo has received thousands of ‘likes’, and the comments below it suggest that this behaviour is
something to be admired.
In respose to the increasing threat posed by the selfie, the authorities have started to take action. The
Russian Interior Ministry, for instance, has launched a public education campaign advising selfie-takers
against balancing on dangerous surfaces or posing with their pets, among other things. But if
instructions like this are really necessary, then perhaps it is about time we asked ourselves which is
more important, a ‘like’ or a life?
Question 39: What ccould be the best title for the passage?
A.Posing with Animals B.Dying for a Selfie
C.A Ban on Selfie-taking D.Positive Trends in Photography
Question 40: According to paragraph 1, selfie-takers try to get shocking pictures mainly to______
A.upset other people B.share them with others
C.have lovely memories with friends D.show off their beautiful lives
Question 41: The word “overtaking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______
A.dealing with B.becoming greater than
C.competing with D.becoming better than
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to______
A.the photo B.the head C.a baseball D. a stadium
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the oassage?
A.Taking a selfie with pets is considered the most dangerous.
B.Pictures of near misses are popular on social media.
C.Action has been taken to warn selfie-takers against dangerous situations.
D.There was an increase in the number of selfie-ralated deaths in 2015.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
One day, a middle-aged man asked a taxi to take him to see Chelsea play Arsenal at football. He told
the driver “Stamford Bridge", the name of Chelsea’s stadium, but he was delivered instead to the village
of Stamford Bridge in Yorkshire. Of course, he missed the match.
What had happened? With tile Sat-Nav system in place, the driver in this story felt he did not need
to know where he was going. He confidently outsourced the job of knowing this information to lite Sat-
Nav. Using an Internet search engine takes a broadband user less than a second. And with smartphones
at hand, people will be online almost all of the time.
The same could be true of university education. Today, the average student seems not to value
general knowledge. If asked a factual question, they will usually click on a search engine without a
second thought. Actually knowing the fact and committing it to memory does not seem to be an issue,
it’s the ease with which we can look it up.

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However, general knowledge has never been something that you acquire formally. Instead, we pick
it up from all sorts of sources as we go along, often absorbing facts without realising. The question
remains, then: is die Internet threatening general knowledge? When I put that to Moira Jones, expert in
designing IQ tests, she referred me to the story of the Egyptian god Tholh. It goes like this: Tholh offers
writing as a gift to the king of Egypt, declaring it an “elixir of memory and wisdom." But the king is
horrified, and tells him: “This invention will induce forgetfulness in the souls of those who have learned
it, because they will not need to exercise their memories, being able to rely on what is written.”
Who wants to be a millionaire finalist David Swift, responding to the same question, recognises
that there was a problem of young people saying: “1 don’t need to know that", but he is far more excited
about the educational potential of the Internet. “There is so much more information out there, giving
people opportunities to boost their general knowledge.”
After all, the Internet might just help us to forget more and more. But meanwhile, the continuing
popularity of quizzes and game-shows shows us that general knowledge is strong enough to remain.
( Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
Question 44: Which the best serves as the title for the passage ?
A. The Age of the Robot
B. Novel Applications of the Sat-Nav System
C. The End of General Knowledge?
D. New Perspectives on Tertiary education
Question 45: Why did the middle-aged man miss the football match?
A.Because the search engine in the taxi failed to work
B.Bacause the taxi driver was over-dependent on technology
C.Because he did not remember the directions to the stadium
D.Because the Sat-Nav in his car was out of order
Question 46: The word “outsoureed” in paragraph 2 mostly means______.
A.exchanged B.submitted C.imposed D.assigned
Question 47: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A.the Internet B.the question C.the story D.general knowledge
Question 48: The word “induce” in paragraph 4 mostly means______.
A.limit B.ease C.promote D.cause
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE,according to the passage?
A. Young people do not seem to bother themselves with memorising factual imformation.
B. The majority of undergraduates are reluctant to look for answers to factual questions online
C. General knowledge tends to have been mainly acquired through formal schooling.
D. On being offered the gift of writing, the king of Egypt was hopeful about its potential.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Many universities worldwide have switched to virtual platforms for learning and teaching.
B Moira Jones is not positive about the potential of the Internet in general knowledge acquisition
C. When it comes to IQ tests, the ability to recall factual information is of little importance.
D. David Swift believes that informal acquisition of knowledge has been overrated these days.

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KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC – MÃ ĐỀ 404
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; 50 câu trắc nghiệm

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: They are going to visit their grandparents_______the afternoon.
A. on B. at C. up D. in
Question 2: When I arrived at her house, she_______ photos in the garden.
A. was taking B. takes C. is taking D. has taken
Question 3: Nam_______a good mark for his speaking test yesterday.
A. has given B. was given C. was giving D. gives
Question 4: _______information you get, the better you will understand the problem.
A. Most B. More C. The more D. Most of
Question 5: Tom is on his_______to his grandparents’ house.
A. road B. path C. track D. way
Question 6: The little girl is happy with her_______doll.
A. pink Japanese new B. new Japanese pink C. new pink Japanese D. Japanese new pink
Question 7: She didn’t do well in the exams_______she was lazy.
A. because of B. because C. despite D. although
Question 8: Lily loves kitchen work. She often helps her mom_______the dishes.
A. wash through B. wash up C. wash over D. wash away
Question 9: Mary was very_______ when moving the mirror into her room.
A. care B. carefulness C. careful D. carefully
Question 10: _______, the garden will look much more beautiful.
A. When spring had come B. When spring was coming
C. When spring came D. When spring comes
Question 11: When the tourist saw with his own eyes the beach covered with a mountain of plastic rubbish
washed up from around the world, a chill went down his_______.
A. mind B. spine C. brain D. bone
Question 12: Huyen has been trying to solve this problem all week, but she still hasn’t been able to
_______ it.
A. break B. crash C. crack D. shatter
Question 13: _______about environmental problems, they decided to adopt a green lifestyle.
A. Have been learning B. Have learnt C. Having learnt D. Have been learnt
Question 14: The film is interesting, _______?
A. was it B. isn’t it C. has it D. wasn’t it
Question 15: There are many ways to_______ goodbye to someone.
A. speak B. talk C. tell D. say

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 16: Minh and Nam are talking about Nam’s room.
- Minh: “You’ve got a lovely room, Nam.”
- Nam: “_______”
A. Me too. B. Congratulations! C. No problem. D. Thank you.
Question 17: Mai is late for Nam’s birthday party.
- Mai: “Sorry I’m late, Nam.”
- Nam: “_______”
A. Never mind. B. Same to you. C. Good idea. D. Thanks a lot.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18: It’s high time you pulled your socks up and started working seriously. Your final exams
are coming.
A. lost confidence B. became lazy C. studied harder D. got furious
Question 19: There was something wrong with my bike, so I asked my father to fix it.
A. repair B. mend C. break D. correct

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Bill was so pleased when he won first prize in the race.
A. sad B. happy C. worried D. upset
Question 21: At first, not so many people realised the danger of Covid-19, so they did not do much to
protect themselves.
A. affected B. understood C. forgot D. caused

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 22: A. hand B. face C. save D. take
Question 23: A. cried B. rained C. planted D. seemed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A. customer B festival C. pollution D. capital
Question 25: A. happy B. afraid C. careful D. hervous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room. There is no exception
whatsoever.
A. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
B. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.

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Question 27: Jane doesn’t have a computer. She can’t work from home.
A. If only Jane had had a computer, she couldn’t have worked from home.
B. If Jane had had a computer, she couldn’t have worked from home.
C. Jane wishes she had a computer so that she could work from home.
D. Provided that Jane has a computer, she can’t work from home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 28: She gives her little sister a lovely doll for her birthday yesterday.
A B C D
Question 29: The spokesman had an uphill struggle to find an explanation that was readily intelligent
A B C
to the layman.
D
Question 30: All the students must hand his essays by the end of the week.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 31: It is not necessary for you to wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
A. You needn’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
B. You can’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
C. You must wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
D. You would wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
Question 32: She last phoned home two weeks ago.
A. She didn’t phone home two weeks ago. B. She has phoned home for two weeks.
C. She hasn’t phoned home for two weeks. D. She has two weeks to phone home.
Question 33: “I have a lot of assignments to do,” Ly said.
A. Ly said that he had a lot of assignments to do.
B. Ly said that I had a lot of assignments to do.
C. Ly said that he has had a lot of assignments to do.
D. Ly said that I have a lot of assignments to do.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Teenagers having exams may feel stressed for different reasons. Their future may depend on their
exam results. And many of them will probably be afraid that their performances will not be as good as
their friends’ and may feel worried about being (34) _______negatively to them. They may feel so (35)
_______by the amount of studying which they need to do. To obtain a good result, they may have to give
up (36) _______leisure activities such as doing sports and listening to music. Teenagers (37)
_______suffer from exam stress may show a variety of symptoms including loss of appetite, being unable
to sleep and a lack of motivation to study. (38) _______, it is important for teachers and parents to watch
out for these signs and to be as supportive and encouraging as possible.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Brook-Han, Hutchison, Passmore and Uddin)

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Question 34: A. agreed B. compared C. closed D. suggested

Question 35: A. relaxed B. exhausted C. excited D. embarrassed
Question 36: A. each B. many C. much D. every
Question 37: A. which B. where C. who D. when
Question 38: A. Therefore B. However C. Although D. Moreover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Many children have music classes when they attend school. And it is thought that music can help them
learn other subjects better. Research has shown that it can improve children’s performances in certain
subjects.
Some studies have shown that music training can help you understand your own language better. It
could also help you with learning a second one. Moreover, young people who have studied music also
seem to get higher scores in other subjects like maths. So it could be that these school subjects are
connected in some way.
Music also helps you think of new ideas, and believe more in yourself. If you are learning the guitar,
for example, it can be really exciting when you are able to start composing your own pieces of music.
One of the biggest benefits, of course, is that listening to music can reduce your stress. And composing
music can make you feel the same way. Maybe your musical knowledge will even open up a great career
path for you ỉn the future!
(Adapted from Preliminary for Schools Trainer)
Question 39: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Benefits of learning music B. New ideas in music
C. Ways to write a piece of music D. Ways to teach music
Question 40: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. research B. child C. music D. school
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, students who learn music seem to_______.
A. got higher marks in maths B. know only one language
C. dislike learning other subjects D. dislike learning a second language
Question 42: The word composing in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. learning B. sharing C. writing D. copying
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of music?
A. It helps you make more friends. B. It helps you believe more in yourself.
C. It helps you reduce stress. D. It helps you think of new ideas.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
When it comes to ambition, no two people are alike. Every class has its outstanding students, every
company has its wonderful employees, and every family has its successful members. Then there is
someone who is happy with whatever life brings. So what makes us different?
A person’s desire to succeed depends on so many factors. He or she may have goals, but without the
ambition to get started, they never take the first steps to achieve them. Similarly, those with an ambition
but no clear goals tend to begin many projects, but do not ever follow them till the end.

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Although there are not any strict rules about how to ‘teach’ ambition or what decides it, many successful
people do share some things. Most scientists agree that it helps to have parents who encourage their
children to try new experiences, praise their successes, and accept their failures. In those families, kids
often have much higher confidence levels. They know how to set goals and keep trying until they achieve
them. Money also plays an important role. Those who are not very rich often want to earn money. It
forces them to work hard all the time to improve their life.
However, the desire for success can create its own stress. Working too hard to achieve success can
lead to illnesses. These days, even teens and young adults are feeling the stress. Trying to get into good
colleges and find good jobs has forced high school students to study harder than ever. For many, it is
difficult to find the balance. One solution may be to get together with family and friends, and do the things
we enjoy. Most would agree that those values are far more important than any wealth or success.
(Adapted from Skillful Reading & Writing by Bixby and Scanlon)
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. An Interesting Life Story B. Ways to Teach Ambition
C. The Desire for Success D. A Life without Stress
Question 45: The word outstanding in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. honest B. terrible C. excellent D. pleasant
Question 46: According to paragraph 1, ambition_______.
A. differs from person to person B. is achieved by all people
C. is the same for all people D. is shared by different people
Question 47: The word them in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. families B. goals C. kids D. levels
Question 48: The word illnesses in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. money problems B. health problems C. good feelings D. wonderful results
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Money doesn not play a role in people’s success
B. Some people are pleased with whatever life brings
C. The desire to succeed can badly affect people’s health
D. A person’s desire for success depends on so many factors
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The combination of ambition and clear goals is essential to success.
B. Teenagers in the past had to work harder to enter colleges.
C. People in modern society do not care about the values of family.
D. Poor people do not work hard enough to improve their life.

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KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC – MÃ 422
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; 50 câu trắc nghiệm

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. equipment B. customer C. relative D. document
Question 2: A. village B. hotel C. worker D. student

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. wrap B. blame C. take D. wave
Question 4: A. played B. cycled C. pointed D. occurred

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 5: Fiona and Lan are talking about hunting wild animals.
- Fiona: “I think hunting wild animals should be banned.”
- Lan: “________. Many wild animals are in danger of extinction.”
A. No problem B. I disagree completely
C. You're wrong D. That's for sure
Question 6: Tony is in a café.
- Tony: “Can I have a cup of coffee with ice?”
- Waiter: “_________.”
A. Don't mention it, please B. Sorry for saying that
C. Sure. Wait a minute, please D. It's too hard

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The arguments Prof. Parker made were controversial and some scholars were taking issue
with him.
A. showing agreement B. getting annoyed
C. becoming aware D. expressing doubt
Question 8: If you want to become a famous music composer, you need to have talent and determination.
A. unknown B. outstanding C. public D. well-known

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Vietnamese women are expected to maintain traditional key values from young ages.
A. amazing B. clear C. careful D. important

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Question 10: I would be grateful if you could tell me how to download this file from the website.
A. amazed B. fortunate C. interested D. thankful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: The teacher tries her best to _______ sure that her students can understand her explanations.
A. get B. go C. make D. keep
Question 12: A new restaurant in our district _______ two days ago.
A. open B. was opened C. opens D. have opened
Question 13: ________ you practise speaking English, the more fluent your English becomes.
A. The more B. The better than C. More than D. The more than
Question 14: He lives in a small house _______ the city.
A. on B. from C. at D. in
Question 15: Most of the houses in the neighbourhood ______ terrible damage in the fire.
A. persevered B. perceived C. sustained D. conceived
Question 16: My mom really loves the ______ handbag I gave her on her birthday.
A. red American big B. red big American
C. American red big D. big red American
Question 17: You should _______ the form and hand it in as soon as possible.
A. give up B. fill in C. go on D. put up
Question 18: ______ she studied hard, she couldn't get a high score.
A. Despite B. Although C. In spite of D. Because of
Question 19: They have been living here since they ______ married.
A. get B. is getting C. got D. will get
Question 20: The ______ in the theatre gave the singer a long applause for her excellent performance.
A. viewers B. audiences C. spectators D. watchers
Question 21: We could tolerate your noisy parties time and again, but throwing bottles out of the window
was beyond the ________.
A. pale B. sick C. faint D. dull
Question 22: The party will begin _________.
A. after all the guests had arrived B. as soon as all the guests arrive
C. by the time all the guests arrived D. when all the guests were arriving
Question 23: I picked up some holiday brochures ________ around the table at the travel agency.
A. lain B. were lying C. lied D. lying
Question 24: He will apply for a new job, _______?
A. does he B. won't he C. doesn't he D. will he
Question 25: In order to _______ soft skills, my brother has decided to attend a training course.
A. sharpness B. sharp C. sharply D. sharpen

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Imagine you are buying an apple in a supermarket. Which do you choose, one with a small brown
mark, or one without? Be honest - you'd go for the apple (26) ______ looks perfect. Supermarkets do this
too, but on a much larger scale when buying fruit and vegetables from farmers. And what (27) _______
of the ones with marks on them? They are thrown away. So are the ones that are a funny shape or size.
(28) ________ reason for waste is that people buy more food than they can eat and supermarkets do
everything they can to encourage this, for example with offers like “Buy one, get one free'. Developed
countries waste about 650 million tons of food each year and so do developing countries. (29) ________
, the waste happens for very different reasons. As the world's population grows, this problem will only
(30) _______, so we need to take action urgently.
(Adapted from Navigate)
Question 26: A. who B. when C. whose D. which
Question 27: A. happens B. applies C. becomes D. depends
Question 28: A. Many B. Other C. Another D. Few
Question 29: A. However B. For example C. As a result D. Although
Question 30: A. worsen B. postpone C. improve D. adjust

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The concept of traffic-free shopping areas goes back a long time. During the Middle Ages, traffic-free
shopping areas were built in Middle Eastern countries to allow people to shop in comfort and, more
importantly, safety. As far back as 2000 years ago, road traffic was banned from central Rome during the
day to allow for the free movement of pedestrians.
The modern, traffic-free shopping street was born in Europe in the 1960s, when both city populations
and car ownership increased rapidly. Dirty exhaust from cars and the risks involved in crossing the road
were beginning to make shopping an unpleasant and dangerous experience. Many believed the time was
right for experimenting with car-free streets, and shopping areas seemed the best place to start.
At first, there was resistance from shopkeepers. They argued that people would avoid streets if they
were unable to get to them in their cars. When the first streets in Europe were closed to traffic, there were
even noisy demonstrations, as many shopkeepers predicted they would lose customers.
With the arrival of the traffic-free shopping street, many shops, especially those selling things like
clothes, food and smaller luxury items, prospered. Unfortunately, shops selling furniture and larger
electrical appliances actually saw their sales drop. Many of these were forced to move elsewhere, away
from the city centre.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS)
Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. A Need for Street Shopping B. Pedestrians Only
C. Shopkeepers Only D. A Need for Cashless Shopping
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, shopping became an unpleasant and unsafe experience due to
pollution and ________.
A. the appearance of car-free shopping areas
B. the decrease in car ownership
C. the risks involved in crossing roads
D. the experiment of car-free streets

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Question 33: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.

A. cars B. streets C. shopkeepers D. demonstrations
Question 34: The word prospered in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. widened B. constructed C. succeeded D. enriched
Question 35: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. 2000 years ago, central Rome banned road traffic during the day to allow for the free movement of
pedestrians.
B. Shopkeepers were not happy with the construction of traffic-free shopping areas at first.
C. The idea of constructing traffic-free shopping areas is not a new one.
D. The modern, traffic-free shopping street was first built in the Middle East in the 1960s.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Machines already perform a lot of tasks that were usually done by humans, such as building cars, doing
complex calculations, and even marking exam papers. But now it seems that ever more intelligent
machines are straying into areas where we never envisaged they would go. We have always taken pride
in having a unique kind of intelligence that machines could never match, one which allows us to think of
new ideas and produce creative and artistic works. But it seems that even here, computers are lining up to
compete with us.
Machines can easily be trained to do the physical work of producing art. About ten years ago, a painting
robot known as e-David was created at a university in Germany. And recently in New York, the painting
‘Portrait of Edmond de Belamy’ has been auctioned for nearly half a million dollars. What made it a bit
unusual was that the idea, and the image itself, was produced entirely by a computer. A group of young
French artists gave instructions to the computer, aiming simply to show that computers can be creative.
Some artists are now working with computers to produce a new kind of art. Computer-generated works
of art are certainly interesting, and make us think about the limits of what machines can and cannot do.
But not everyone would accept that they qualify as art. Some enthusiasts would argue they do, and the
collectors willing to pay high prices for these works would suggest there is definitely a market for
computer art. Others, however, would disagree.
Many ‘real’ artists would claim that art is an expression of human intelligence and human emotions.
More importantly, it is about a desire to communicate with other people. These things, they argue, are
part of being human and can never be produced by a machine.
(Adapted from Formula – Exam Trainer)
Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. World Famous Computer Artists
B. Artworks by Prominent Artists
C. Can Human Brains Work like Machines?
D. Can Computers Become Artists?
Question 37: The word envisaged in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. prepared B. encouraged C. experienced D. imagined
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, the painting ‘Portrait of Edmond de Belamy’ ________.
A. was created by e-David B. was painted ten years ago
C. was created by a computer D. was painted by some French artists

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Question 39: The word unusual in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. strange B. uneasy C. simple D. complicated
Question 40: The word they in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. 'real' artists B. these things C. other people D. human emotions
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The physical work of producing art can be learned by the computer with ease.
B. Computers have been competing with humans in the creation of a new kind of art.
C. Humans are proud of possessing a unique kind of intelligence that enables them to be creative.
D. People's opinions are divided on whether computer-generated artworks qualify as genuine art.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Artworks generated by computers are regarded by some as incapable of conveying human feelings.
B. Works of art created by computers have gradually satisfied humans' desire to communicate with one
another.
C. The market for computer art proves to be more competitive and profitable than that for human art.
D. It is a matter of time before human artists can outperform their computer counterparts.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: It's impossible for Laura to finish the report. You should help her.
A. Laura will be able to finish the report if you don't help her.
B. But for your help, Laura would be able to finish the report.
C. Provided you help her, Laura wouldn't have been able to finish the report.
D. Unless you help her, Laura won't be able to finish the report.
Question 44: The newly advertised product had just been on sale. Customers realised that it had lots of
defects.
A. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when producers realised that it had lots of
defects.
B. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when customers realised that it had lots of
detects.
C. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when did customers realise that it had lots of
defects.
D. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when customers wouldn't realise that it had lots
of defects.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 45: The principle of comprehensive inputs states that the language provided for
A B
students should go only a little beyond their current experience and understanding.
C D
Question 46: The new exhibition centre in our town has attracted many visitors because of
A B
their unique collections of visual arts.
C D

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Question 47: The Tale of Tam and Cam use to be one of her favourite stories when she was
A B C
at school.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: She last wrote to her pen pal 6 months ago.
A. She won't write to her pen pal for 6 months.
B. She didn't write to her pen pal for 6 months.
C. She has written to her pen pal for 6 months.
D. She hasn't written to her pen pal for 6 months.
Question 49: It is possible that he will not attend the meeting.
A. He shouldn't attend the meeting. B. He may not attend the meeting.
C. He needn't attend the meeting. D. He must attend the meeting.
Question 50: "My mum gave me some pocket money,” said Jerry.
A. Jerry said that his mum had given him some pocket money.
B. Jerry said that my mum gives me some pocket money.
C. Jerry said that his mum gives him some pocket money.
D. Jerry said that my mum gave me some pocket money.

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