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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC HSG TỈNH ANH 9

This document is the official exam paper for the 2023-2024 provincial selection exam for 9th-grade students in Tra Vinh, focusing on English. It includes sections on listening, phonetics, grammar, vocabulary, reading, and writing, with various questions and tasks for students to complete. The exam duration is 150 minutes and consists of 9 pages.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views9 pages

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC HSG TỈNH ANH 9

This document is the official exam paper for the 2023-2024 provincial selection exam for 9th-grade students in Tra Vinh, focusing on English. It includes sections on listening, phonetics, grammar, vocabulary, reading, and writing, with various questions and tasks for students to complete. The exam duration is 150 minutes and consists of 9 pages.

Uploaded by

dangkhoa652010
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP TỈNH

TỈNH TRÀ VINH NĂM HỌC: 2023 - 2024


MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 09 trang)

Điểm của toàn bài thi Họ tên và chữ ký Số phách

Bằng số Bằng chữ


Giám khảo 1:...........................................

Giám khảo 2:.............................................

Thí sinh làm trực tiếp trên đề thi

I. LISTENING. (4.0 points)


(Bài nghe gồm có hai phần, mỗi phần được nghe hai lần, mỗi phần cách nhau bằng
tín hiệu nhạc. Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc).
Part 1. QUESTIONS 1-5. (2.5 points)
Listen to Jan talking to Steve about getting a student travel card. Circle the
correct option A, B, C or D. You will hear the conversation twice.
Question 1: How much is a travel card?
A. £ 16 B. £ 6 C. £ 60 D. £ 40
Question 2: Jan will need ______________________________.
A. one photo B. two photos
C. four photos D. five photos
Question 3: Photos are less expensive _____________________.
A. in the photographer’s shop B. in the library
C. in the post office D. in the museum
Question 4: For the travel card, Jan must take _______________.
A. her driving licence B. her passport
C. a letter D. her mobile phone
Question 5: Jan can get a travel card from _________________.
A. her college B. the travel agent’s
C. her school D. the tourist office

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Part 2. QUESTIONS 1-3. (1.5 points)
You will hear each recording twice. Answer the questions.
Question 1: What time does the train to Rome leave?
……………………………………………………………………….………………
Question 2: What will Paul get at the shop?
…………………………………………………………………….…………………
Question 3: How were they told to do their homework?
………………………………………………………………………………………
II. PHONETICS. (2.0 points)
Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
the rest. Circle the correct option A, B, C or D. (1.0 point)
Question 1: A. access B. website C. internet D. violent
Question 2: A. cheer B. chemist C. church D. choose
Question 3: A. faced B. wicked C. fixed D. wrapped
Question 4: A. suggestion B. attraction C. generation D. tradition
Part 2. Pick out the word whose main stress is different from the rest. Circle the
correct option A, B, C or D. (1.0 point)
Question 1: A. village B. guidebook C. pleasure D. receive
Question 2: A. assistant B. collection C. uniform D. professor
Question 3: A. neighbor B. complain C. progress D. famous
Question 4: A. organization B. international C. entertainment D. individual
III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. (4.0 points)
Part 1. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.
Circle the correct option A, B, C or D. (2.5 points)
Question 1: Tom____________ with his girlfriend last month.
A. broke up B. broke into C. ended up D. put up
Question 2: Lan didn’t participate in the contest_______ her lack of confidence.
A. despite B. because C. since D. because of
Question 3: One of the men took his buffalo out to graze in the early morning,
__________?
A. didn’t they B. weren’t they C. wasn’t he D. didn’t he
Question 4: Though my grandmother is very old, she rarely forgets __________ all
the doors carefully before going to sleep.
A. to check B. to have checked C. checking D. check
Question 5: The party was awful. My brother wishes he __________ to it.
A. has not gone B. did not gone
C. had not gone D. would have not gone

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Question 6: - Sue: “Eddie, I’ve never heard you sing before. You’re a really great
singer”. - Eddie: “___________” .
A. That sounds silly B. I used to sing when I was young
C. Yes, that’s right D. Thanks. It’s nice of you to say so
Question 7: Which natural _________ usually occurs in the United States?
A. disaster B. pollution C. extinction D. hurricane
Question 8: The test was not very difficult, but it was_______ long.
A. too much B. so much C. much too D. very much
Question 9: The host asked Peter _______ tea or coffee.
A. whether he preferred B. that he preferred
C. if did he prefer D. if he prefers
Question 10: Why is Jack so naughty? - He is accustomed to___ whatever he wants.
A. have B. had C. having D. he has
Part 2. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word in brackets.
(1.5 points)
Question 1: I have always been (attraction) ______________ by the idea of studying
abroad.
Question 2: He distanced himself from the strictly (religion) ______________
aspects of the music.
Question 3: In (conclude) ________________, we really need to do something about
our neighborhood.
Question 4: Children’s lives are in (dangerous) _______________ every time they
cross this road.
Question 5: I like documentaries because they are non-violent and (education)
_________________.
Question 6: After taking an aspirin, her headache (appear)____________________.
IV. READING. (5.0 points)
Part 1. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for
each space. Circle the correct option A, B, C or D. (1.5 points)
Wool
Wool comes from sheep and certain other animals like goats and rabbits. Over a
million tonnes of wool is produced every year, of (1) ___________ 60% goes into
clothes. The wool that is used mostly comes from Australian Merino sheep. Their
wool is good for baby clothes, as it is soft, (2) ____________ babies warm, and can
protect their bodies.
When wool is first cut from the sheep, it (3) __________ a high level of a valuable
oil, so before the wool is used, it must be cleaned. The simplest way to do this by
putting the wool in warm water. The oil that is (4) _________ from the wool is
widely used in products like hand creams.
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Sheep were first used by humans several thousand years ago, but it is believed that
this was for meat (5) __________ than wool. When people developed a way of
cutting the wool from sheep it (6) ____________ a more important material.
Question 1: A. which B. that C. what D. whose
Question 2: A. helps B. keeps C. stays D. rests
Question 3: A. receives B. involves C. contains D. consists
Question 4: A. removed B. carried C. passed D. divided
Question 5: A. apart B. instead C. except D. rather
Question 6: A. arrived B. turned C. became D. grew
Part 2. Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (1.0 point)
Located between the Lake of the Restored Sword, the Long Bien Bridge, a former
city rampart, and a citadel wall, the Old Quarter started (1)__________________ a
snake and alligator-infested swamp. It later evolved into a cluster of villages made up
of houses on stilts, before being unified. Hanoi’s Old Quarter came into being at the
time King Ly Thai To (2)_______________________ Thang Long as the country’s
capital in 1010. What makes the streets unique is that many of them remain in their
very ancient architecture of the 15th century. Up to now, it has been the oldest
continuously developed area of Vietnam.
Due to their long-lasting age, they are called “Old Quarter” or “36 Old Streets” (as
consisting of 36 member streets). “Ha Noi’s 36 districts” is Vietnam’s version of the
guild concept. In the past, as artisans moved to the capital city to do
(3)____________________, they gathered together in this area to share the resources.
As a result, many of the streets (4)___________________ named after the crafts sold
at that individual street.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D.
(1.0 point)
American Black Ducks by Sam Prentice, wildlife biologist
I work at US university where may team and I are trying to learn more about water
birds, particulary one called the American black duck. And we’ve just started using
an exciting piece of equipment called a “night-vision scope”, which allows us to see
the ducks in the dark!
We’re worried about black ducks mainly because their numbers have fallen hugely
and we don’t know whether there’s enough food on the east coast for these animals.
There’s lots of information about their daytime activities, but nothing about what they
do at night, because we simply haven’t had the equipment. But this new “scope” will
produce really clear pictures, even on moonless nights, so we’ll be able to find out
more and make better decisions about looking after the area where they live based on
what we learn.

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It is very hard work. There are four of us, each working six hours daily. We’ve
studied ducks in different locations, and I’ve had to take a boat to some sites and
make notes on every duck I see. The weather hasn’t helped – some nights are mild,
but more often it’s wet. Oh, and it’s so quiet I’ve needed lots of coffee to stop me
falling asleep! We’re only missed one working day so far, because the snow was too
deep even for our special snow vehicles.
Still I like the challenge of it, especially compared to what the summer will bring –
hours in a laboratory, where we’ll look at our results together. It’ll be hard to be stuck
inside – but it’s essential to do this. And I wouldn’t change it for anything.
Question 1: What is Sam hoping to discover about American black ducks?
A. Which animals are responsible for the fall in their numbers.
B. Which kind of food they need to live on.
C. What their behaviour is like after dark.
D. What makes the east coast a suitable location of them.
Question 2: When Sam spends long periods watching duck, he __________.
A. sometimes finds it difficult to stay awake
B. finds there’s enough to do to maintain his interest
C. is glad of the chance to be in a quiet place
D. dislikes having to deal with low temperatures
Question 3: What does Sam say about woking inside a lab over the summer?
A. He’s glad he’ll be working with other people.
B. He feels pleased that he’ll avoid the hot weather.
C. He’s looking forward to studying his results.
D. He accepts that it’s a necessary part of this job.
Question 4: What might Sam say about his experiences of working outdoors?
A. Having the right vehicle for bad B. Sometimes the moon hasn’t been
weather has meant we’ve still very bright, but our equipment
carried on working, whatever it’s provides the amount of light we
been like outside. need to collect information.

C. D.
The other people in my team are We decided that we’d only go to
brilliant, but it’s been hard sites that were easy to get to, and
watching ducks in the same place I’m really glad we made that
every day. decision.

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Part 4. Read the following passage. Find out ONE mistake in each paragraph
and write the correct word in the correct column. (1.5 points)
(1) Maldives is known as “the tropical paradise” for reasons. Its beauty is none like
other. Maldives is a tropical country with separated islands, which are separated by
sea. Each island is surround by stunning white sandy beaches. It is a wonderful
experience to visit and explore the beauty of the islands.
(2) The sea covers about 99% of the Maldives and it is where most attractive things
lie in. There are over five thousand coral reefs and plenty of reef fish, corals, marine
mammals, and so much other marine lives. And that is the reason people say, diving
in Maldives is unforgettable.
(3) Almost all the islands in Maldives are surrounded by beautiful pure white
sandy beaches. Even if you have nothing else to do, I am sure you won’t get boring
walking in the soft white sandy beaches and leaving your foot prints on.
(4) When you look at an island for a distance, you can find green trees before
anything else, and specially the coconut palms. That brings more beauty to the
islands, plus you get amazing drink out of the coconut palms.
(5) Travelling in the sea plane and watching the beautifully islands from the
window is the most wonderful experience you could ever have. Islands are formed in
a way that makes a round which is called as an atoll. When you see them from the sea
plane view, it will look like a chain of pearls.
(6) With the natural and beautiful surrounding, you could have a memorable trip in
Maldives. It is also an ideal place to have a family holiday, which you can spend
lovely moments with fun and enjoyment in the beautiful pure white beaches.

Paragraph Mistakes Correction


(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)

V. WRITING. (5.0 points)


Part 1. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed before it. (2.5 points)
Question 1: It is such a boring book that nobody likes it.
The book ………………………….……………………………………….…………

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Question 2: Daisy spent 4 hours a day practicing French with her friends.
It took….…………………………………………………………………………...…
Question 3: Sue will stay on at school unless she finds a job before August.
If……………………………………………………………….….…...............................
Question 4: Mary was very disappointed, but she tried to keep calm.
Despite…………………………………………………………………………………..
Question 5: “How much do you think it will cost?” he said to me.
He asked me…………………………………………………………………….…........
Part 2. Write an essay about the following topic. (2.5 points)
Nowadays, many people believe that learning in groups is good for students in high
schools. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
(Write an essay about 180 words).
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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