LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024-25

MOCK AILET 05

Date of Exam : Candidate Name : _____________

Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _____________
Max. Marks : 150
Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

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1.

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No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.

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2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be answered in the
OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer ALL the Questions.
3.

4.
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answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.

a k
There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For every wrong

Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided,

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with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.

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Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).

(a) Kolkata

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The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :

Right Method
(b) Agra (c) Bhopal

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(d) Delhi
Wrong Methods

5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above shall be
considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
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7. The candidate shall nottr-5N
write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than the details
required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet along with
candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand over the original OMR
Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her
candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to
face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators etc. are strictly
not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
 BREAK-UP OF MARKS

Section Subject Q. No. Page No.

A English Language 01-50 3
Current Affairs and General
B 51-80 14
Knowledge
C Logical Reasoning 81-150 17

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Between 1939 and 1945 an estimated number of 3,00,000 mentally ill and handicapped
people – women, men and children – were murdered: They were gassed with carbon monoxide in specially
invented killing centers; they died in mental hospitals and asylums where they were deprived of food, neglected
or administered lethal doses of medication. In the occupied territories of Poland and the Soviet Union they were
shot by special units or task forces of the SS, gassed or murdered in another equally brutal way. Doctors, care
attendants, administrative staff and members of the SS participated in the extermination programs. Even though
there were differences regarding the organization and responsibilities of the murder campaigns, they all served
the same purpose: the more or less organized annihilation of humans considered “unworthy of life” under the
premise to relieve these allegedly incurably ill from their suffering and to “clean the racial corpus from
Ballastexistenzen (ballast existences)”.

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In the politically disrupted Weimar Republic at the wake of the Nazi takeover the ideas of the “destruction of
life unworthy of life” and the by then scientifically established eugenics put at stake the unconditional respect

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for life and individual dignity. The notion to sacrifice the weak to strengthen the healthy and strong, which was
inspired by racial hygienic and social Darwinist thoughts, became more attractive to doctors, politicians, lawyers,

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economists and scientists.
After the Nazi takeover in January 1933, racial hygiene became the dominant school of thought in the field of

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population and social policy. Subsidies and social benefits such as marriage loans for freshly wed couples were
to be assigned according to the racial value of humans and the quality of their hereditary disposition. At the same
time, the “Gesetz zur Verhütung erbkranken Nachwuchses” (“Law for the Prevention of Hereditarily Diseased

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Progeny”) determined which parts of the population would be excluded from reproduction by forced sterilization.

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Between 1934 and 1945, 3,50,000 to 4, 00,000 people were sterilized against their will because they suffered

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from one of eight diseases that were considered to be “Erbkrankheiten” (“hereditary diseases”): people with

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epilepsy, alcoholism, birth defects, hearing loss, mental illnesses etc.

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An elaborate racial hygienic propaganda was developed. Its aim was to legitimize the policy of sterilization in
the eyes of the population and along with it went a massive degradation of those humans who were considered
socially and genetically inferior. Even if terms such as “eradication” and the “cleansing of the racial corpus”
were used, the postulation of the “destruction of life unworthy of life” was rarely pronounced in the public
sphere. tr-5N7M9P1P7S
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[Source:https://www.sciencespo.fr/mass-violence-war-massacre-resistance/en/document/extermination-
mentally-ill-and-handicapped-people-under-national-socialist-rule.html]
1. What is the central thesis in the extract given above?
(a) Persons who were mentally and physically inferior were exterminated under an organized clandestine Nazi
design. 5P7L
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(b) The racial corpus was cleansed by a SS plan of public execution of scores of mentally and physically disabled
persons.
(c) The organized execution of the mentally and physically inferior among the world was carried on by the SS
design.
(d) There were many persons who were suffering from mental illnesses and physical disabilities who were
preserved by the SS design.
2. Which of these are the reasons that give strength to the Nazi idea of culling of the mentally and physically weak?
(a) The literature written by many scientific scholars.
(b) The corpus of eugenics which was stated in literature.
(c) The Darwinian experiments in the Galapagos Islands and social hygiene.
(d) Darwinian thoughts and racial hygiene.

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3. What was the course adopted by the SS operatives in the stoppage of any inferior progeny to ensure racial
hygiene?
(a) Involuntary Sterilisation. (b) Voluntary sterilization.
(c) Infanticide. (d) Extermination of the population through a fatal gas.
4. Which of these are reasons for which sterilization and gassing took effect?
(a) For hereditary diseases and any physical disability.
(b) For epilepsy, alcoholism, birth defects, hearing loss, mental illnesses and genetic diseases.
(c) For epilepsy, alcoholism, birth defects, hearing loss, mental illnesses and lifestyle diseases.
(d) For epilepsy, alcoholism, birth defects, hearing loss, mental illnesses and communicable diseases.
5. What does the word “annihilation” means in the context of the passage?
(a) Extermination. (b) Fortification. (c) Safeguarding. (d) Preservation.

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Passage (Q.6-Q.12): As the threat of another global recession looms large over the world economy, the crisis

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of capitalism has again come back to haunt us. With Marxist or communist economic models already dead in

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the post-Soviet era, the world economy, driven by the capitalist models, has been repeatedly rocked by one or

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the other economic crisis at regular intervals. This implores us to think about an alternative and novel economic
model that can go beyond communism and capitalism to provide sustainable economic growth and development
to all the countries in the world. The world may find the answer in ‘Hindu Economics’ or what might be

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alternatively called the ‘Third Way’. The term ‘Third Way’ was coined by Dattopant Thengadi while the most
authoritative treatise on ‘Hindu Economics’ has been propounded in recent times by Dr. MG Bokare. The West-

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educated economists, even within the Indian policy framework, have ensured that the works of home-grown

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economists Thengadi and Bokare didn’t get recognition as well as the attention of the policy makers that they

a
deserved. Thengadi outlined the framework of ‘Hindu Economics’ in ‘Third Way’ (Sahitya Sindhu Prakashan)

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and how it is fundamentally different from the Western framework of economics. “Holy Vedas have clear
references of market, supply and demand, price, trade, tr- interest
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7K5Gprofit, and tax. By interpolation we can
deduce lease-rent and wages also for people without property for income. Mercantile laws governing the
economy are codified.”

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“The history of economic thoughts flows from holy Vedas to Mahabharata, especially Shanti-Parva and Vidura-
Niti. Then follow the Smrutis of Yajnavalkya, Gautama, Manu, Shukracharya, Kautilya, etc. Smrutis are
codifications of economic activities with some measures
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of quantifications of the variables. Cost of production,
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market price, percentage of profit, percentage of tax, wage-rates, interest-rates etc. are stated in the
codified Smrutis. Competition and monopoly are clearly identified. Foreign trade has been explained. The
codification in Smrutis is the last phase. Kautilya’s Arthashastra is the last book on economics in ancient India.”
In explaining the crux of the Hindu economic system, all persons will have to seek their living by earning
incomes in the process of self-employment. This is the conclusion of the theory. Hindu-economics has a theory
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of inexorableness of self-employment after the disappearance of capitalism. The knowledge of this
phenomenology helps the rulers of Hindu economy to engineer a programme to give shape to enterprises for
self-employment. The state organised the funds to give loans to the self-employed people. All people, therefore,
become proprietors-owners and earn incomes. The society will not find proletariat in the economy. If there is no
proletariat, there cannot exist a capitalist system. An economy without proletariat is free from exploitation. It
consummates its ethos of socialism. Thus, theory and programme engender a decentralised economy. The theory
is universally valid. Hindu-economics in this sense is for mankind.
[Source: https://www.firstpost.com/opinion-news-expert-views-news-analysis-firstpost-viewpoint/right-word-
hindu-economics-third-way-is-only-way-to-permanently-avert-global-economic-crisis-11459741.html]
6. What is the main point being conveyed in the passage?
(a) There is a need to reform capitalistic economic model with insights from Indian scholars and Hindu
economics named as the third way.
(b) The Capitalistic and Marxist economic systems have to give way to a third way of Hindu economics which
is more sustainable.
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 (c) There is need for the capitalist system and western economists to give due scholarly recognition to Hindu
economists.
(d) The Capitalists need to be more accepting of the proletariat and the Marxists need to be more accepting of
capitalistic interests which can be done by them by rebuffing a third way named as Hindu economics.
7. What does the word “inexorableness” mean as stated in the context of the passage?
(a) Inevitability. (b) Avertible. (c) Eluctable. (d) Avoidable.
8. Which of these is an assumption made by the author prior to the passage?
(a) The Hindu economics will be extremely beneficial for the self-reliant vision of the nation and humankind.
(b) The world is seeking for a philosophy and roadmap of running trade and markets which will make economics
sustainable.
(c) There are no books written after the Arthshashtra in ancient India on the subject of economics.
(d) Marxism has proved to be acutely deadly for the world economy while capitalism has been durable.
9. Which of the following statements will weaken the main premise of the passage?

the capitalism model.

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(a) Hindu Economics has been tested in some states of the nation and it has proved itself to be triumphing over

unshakeable prosperity for the world.

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(b) Capitalism has proved to be the superlative system since the advent of industrial revolution which has led to

(c) The states where there is self-employment have been found to be more stable with less economic instability.

10. Which of these is not supported by the passage?

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(d) The Third way has been acclaimed by the eastern economists in their experiential knowledge.

economics.

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(a) The western economists hailed the two Indian economists who had made their contribution to Hindu

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(b) The main focus of the Hindu economics has been an emphasis on the self-generation of employment.

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(c) There has been a clear indication of trade with other countries in5G
tr-5I7J9C1D7K the Hindu scriptures.
(d) The world has been reeling under the recessive tendencies of capitalism which needs an alternative.
11.
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What can be the title for the passage?

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(a) "Rethinking Economic Models: Hindu Economics and the Third Way"
(b) "The Rise of Hindu Economics: A Solution Beyond Capitalism and Communism"
(c) "Challenges to Capitalism: Hindu Economics and the
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7LSearch for Alternatives"
(d) "Dattopant Thengadi and MG Bokare: Pioneers of Hindu Economics"
12. What is true as per the passage?
(a) The post-Soviet era has seen a resurgence of Marxist economic models.
(b) 'Hindu Economics' promotes self-employment as a fundamental principle.
(c) Western economists have widely embraced the concepts of 'Hindu Economics'.
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(d) The Arthashastra was the first book on economics in ancient India.
Passage (Q.13-Q.20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Cacio e pepe is a dish of only three ingredients, two of which are evident at first glance to anyone familiar with
Roman dialect. Cacio is Romanesco for sheep's milk cheese. Along with pepe, or black pepper, the cheese -
ideally Pecorino - unites with pasta (and a hefty dose of starchy cooking water) to form a rich, creamy sauce.
According to legend, the dish first appeared centuries ago among shepherds spending the spring and summer
months in the grazing meadows of the Apennine Mountains, which traverse the Italian peninsula. While keeping
watch over their flocks, shepherds would tap into personal stores of dried pasta and pepper; cheap, easy to
transport and resistant to spoilage, these two ingredients were combined with the cheese (made from milk of the
herders' flocks) to make a delicious, simple dish that kept them warm on cold evenings.
"Black pepper directly stimulates the heat receptors and helped the shepherds to protect themselves from the
cold," explained Alessandra Argiolas, marketing manager for Sardinian Pecorino producers Argiolas Formaggi.
"And the pasta guaranteed a lot of energy."
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 But according to Angelo Carotenuto, a native Roman and owner and manager of LivItaly Tours, cacio e pepe's
origin may be a bit less romantic. Carotenuto and local guide Dario Bartoli recently took to the internet with a
LivTalk, "sort of like a TedTalk gone late-night show" as described by Carotenuto, to profile this and other local
pasta dishes.
According to them, dishes like cacio e pepe, carbonara (a rich sauce made with a combination of beaten egg and
dry-cured guanciale or pork cheek) and amatriciana (made with guanciale, tomato and Pecorino cheese) likely
got their start, not in the mountains, but in the mines and factories that once surrounded the Lazio region
encompassing Rome, near where low-income families once lived.
Dried cheese, dried guanciale and dried pasta were filling, cheap and didn't spoil easily: perfect for a simple,
inexpensive meal. And while the first two ingredients would likely have been used locally for "literally
centuries," according to Carotenuto, the invention of these dishes, now perceived as Roman classics, probably

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dates to the 1800s, when pasta became popular in the Italian capital.

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"You're looking at the unification of Italy, so the ability to transfer flavours and recipes easily," he explained,

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noting that before unification, the poor would have been getting their carbohydrates from bread and polenta,

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rather than from pasta, which, Carotenuto explains, is said to have arrived in Italy through the Venetian ports.
However, cacio e pepe was invented, one thing is for sure: it has captured many hearts around the world,
including that of the late, great Anthony Bourdain. In one episode of No Reservations, Bourdain went so far as

cacio e pepe restaurant in Rome.

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to say the dish "could be the greatest thing in the history of the world" – and refused to disclose his favourite

13.
(a) Someone with knowledge of Roman dialect.
(b) Shepherds of Apenine mountains.

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According to the passage, who would easily be able to guess the two ingredients of cacio e pepe?

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(c) People working in the mines and factories that once surrounded

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(d) Both (b) and (c)
14. According to legend, why did cacio e pepe first appear among the Shepherds of the Apennine mountains
centuries ago?

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(a) It was cheap and easy to transport.
(b) It was resistant to spoilage. tr-5N7M9P1P7S
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(c) It was made from the easily available milk of the herders' flocks.
(d) All of the above
15. Before the unification of Italy, what were the dishes of the poor?
(a) Beaten egg and pork cheek
(b) Tomato and Pecorino cheese 5P7L
(c) Bread and polenta tr-5N7M9P1P7S

(d) Pasta
16. What is the story behind the 'less romantic' origin of cacio e pepe?
(a) It originated in Venetian ports.
(b) It originated among the shepherds of the Apennine mountains.
(c) It originated in an undisclosed restaurant.
(d) It originated among the people working in the mines and factories surrounding the Lazio region.
17. Which of these statements can be attributed to Angelo Carotenuto?
(a) You're looking at the unification of Italy, so the ability to transfer flavours and recipes easily
(b) The pasta guaranteed a lot of energy
(c) Cacio e pepe could be the greatest thing in the history of the world
(d) According to legend, the dish first appeared centuries ago among shepherds spending the spring and summer
months in the grazing meadows of the Apennine Mountains

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18. The passage states that 'one thing is for sure' about cacio e pepe. What is this one sure thing?
(a) It was invented by Anthony Bourdain.
(b) It has captured many hearts around the world.
(c) The late great Anthony Bourdain was a part of "No Reservations'.
(d) Cacio e pepe was the greatest thing in the history of the world.
19. A sentence is given below. It fits at the end of one of the paragraphs in the passage keeping intact the context
and overall flow of idea. Find out the said paragraph choosing from the options given below.
'It is as delicious as it is difficult to perfect'
(a) First paragraph (b) Third paragraph
(c) Fifth paragraph (d) Sixth paragraph
20. According to the passage, which of the following would be the perfect synonym of 'disclose'?

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(a) Closure (b) Quiet (c) Reveal (d) Shut

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Passage (Q.21-Q.32): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

c
Over the years, citizen scientists have provided vital data and contributed in invaluable ways to various scientific

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quests. But they're typically relegated to helping traditional scientists complete tasks the pros don't have the time
or resources to deal with on their own. Citizens are asked to count wildlife, for instance, or classify photos that
are of interest to the lead researchers. This type of top-down engagement has consigned citizen science to the

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fringes, where it fills a manpower gap but not much more. As a result, its full value has not been realised. (A)

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Marginalising the citizen mistake (P) and their potential contribution is a grave discovery (Q) - it scientists (R)
how far we can go in science and the speed and scope of limits (S). Instead, by harnessing globalisation's

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increased interconnectivity, citizen science should become an integral part of open innovation. Science agendas

a
can be set by citizens, data can be open, and opensource software and hardware can be shared to assist in the

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scientific process. And as the model proves itself, it can be expanded even further, into nonscience realms.

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(B) Citizen-powered science has been around for over 100 years, utilising the collective brainpower of regular,

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everyday people to collect, observe, input, identify and crossmatch data that contribute and expand scientific
discovery. And there have been some marked successes. eBird allows scores of citizen scientists to record bird

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abundance via field observation; those data have contributed to over 90 peer-reviewed research articles. Did You
Feel It? crowdsources information from people around that world who have experienced an earthquake. Snapshot
Serengeti uses volunteers to identify, classify and catalogue
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5P7L photos taken daily in this African ecosystem. FoldIt
is an online game where players are tasked with using the tools provided to virtually fold protein structures. The
goal is to help scientists figure out if these structures can be used in medical applications. (E) A set of user
determined the crystal structure (U) of an enzyme involved in the monkey version (V) of AIDS in just three
weeks - a problem that (W) had previously went unsolved for 15 years (X). Galaxy Zoo is perhaps the most well-
known online citizen science project. It uploads images from the Sloan Digital Sky Survey and allows users to
assist with the morphologicaltr-classification
5N7M9P1P7S of galaxies. The citizen astronomers discovered an entirely new class
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of galaxy - "green pea" galaxies - that have gone on to be the subject of over 20 academic articles.
These are all notable successes, with citizens contributing to the projects cut off by professional scientists. But
there's so much more potential in the model. What does the next generation of citizen science look like? The
time is right for citizen science to join forces with open innovation. This is a concept that describes partnering
with other people and sharing ideas to come up with something new. (C) when boundaries are lowered and
resources - (K) hardware - are opened and made freely available (L) the assumption is that more can be achieved
(M) including ideas, data, designs and software and (N). Open innovation is collaborative, distributed,
cumulative and it develops over time. Citizen science can be a critical element here because its professional-
amateurs can become another significant source of data, standards and best practices that could further the work
of scientific and lay communities.
Globalisation has spurred on this trend through the ubiquity of internet and wireless connections, affordable
devices to collect data (such as cameras, smartphones, smart sensors, wearable technologies), and the ability to
easily connect with others. Increased access to people, information and ideas points the way to unlock new
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 (Z)_______, new relationships and new forms of collaboration that transcend boundaries. And individuals can
focus their attention and spend their time on anything they want. We are seeing this emerge in what has been
termed the "solution economy" - (D)
___________________________
21. The sentence (E) is divided into four parts. You are required to identify the parts that are grammatically correct
and choose the option accordingly.
(a) XU (b) VXW (c) WV (d) XVU
22. Four words are highlighted in sentence (A). Rearrange these words in a logical order to form a meaningful
sentence.
(a) SQPR (b) RPSQ (c) PSQR (d) QPSR
23. According to the passage, which of the following does the author consider resounding success as far as the works

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by citizen scientists are concerned?
I. Galaxy Zoo
II. FoldIt
III. eBird
IV. Sloan Digital Sky Survey

.c o
rs
V. Did you feel it?
(a) Both II and III (b) Except I and IV

24.
(c) I IV and V (d) Except IV
Which of the following words should replace the blank (Z) in the fourth paragraph?

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I. Opportunities
II. Synergies
III. Liaisons

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(a) Both I and III (b) Only II (c) Excepttr-I5Iand II 7K5G7B
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25.

26.

27.
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As per the passage, which of the following options correctly describes the meaning of the word 'catalogue'?
(a) Inventor (b) Entrust

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(c) Archive (d) Litany
Which of the following correctly describes the meaning opposite to the word 'consigned'?
(a) Dreaded (b) Heirloom (c) Relegated (d) Accepted
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The sentence (C) is broken into four parts and jumbled in a random order. From the given options, mark the
order which gives out a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.
(a) MKNL (b) KNML (c) LMNK (d) KLNM
28. Which of the following is the meaning conveyed by the phrase 'spurred on' in the passage?
(a) Enabled (someone) to do something 5P7L
(b) Avenged (someone) to right their wrong
5N7M9P1P7S
(c) Goaded (someone) to do tr-
something (d) Briefed (someone) to do something
29. Identify the phrase that can replace the underlined phrase 'cut off by' in the third paragraph and make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct.
I. Set out by
II. Put out by
III. Put down by
(a) Only II (b) Except I (c) Only III (d) Except II and III
30. According to the passage, which of the following is the highlight of the next generations citizen science?
(a) Completing the projects abandoned by pro scientists in as less time as possible.
(b) Concept that promotes collaboration among people to come up with innovations.
(c) To solve the scientific problems that are deemed unsolvable by pro scientists.
(d) Citizens can set the scientific targets, access common public data for their research.

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31. Which of the following phrases can replace the blank (D) in the fourth paragraph?
(a) Where citizens find fixes to challenges that are traditionally managed by government.
(b) Due to street conditions, cracked or non-existent sidewalks, missing curb cuts, obstructions or only portions
of a building being accessible.
(c) But it also can be used by art enthusiasts, ethnographers, biographers, historians, rhetoricians, or authors of
historical fiction or filmmakers of period pieces who seek to create accurate settings.
(d) Implementing this version of citizen science in disenfranchised communities could be a means of access and
empowerment.
32. A sentence in the passage is highlighted in bold and italicised, which may or may not have grammatical error.
Find out the part which has error in it and mark it as the answer.
(a) Citizen-powered science has been around for over 100 years,
(b) utilising the collective brainpower of regular, everyday people
(c) to collect, observe, input, identify and crossmatch
(d) data that contribute and expand scientific discovery

c o m
Passage (Q.33-Q.37): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Paragraph 1

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Each deed seemed to demand a reciprocal gesture: every gift was met, at some point down the road, with a return
gift. Exchanges that appeared voluntary were also, at some level, obligatory. Seen this way, gift-giving started

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to look an awful lot like an economic transaction. And yet - and this is what struck Mauss, as it should strike us
- everything in our language and our laws would have us believe that the gift and the contract are of a different

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species. The former is motivated by goodness, and the latter by the utility.
Paragraph 2

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Close to a century ago, the French sociologist Marcel Mauss set out to answer just these questions. In his seminal
5G7B
tr-5I7J9C1D7Khe surveyed a range of gift-giving practices.
essay The Gift, a now classic text in the discipline of anthropology,
The starting point for the essay was an observation. Texts from around the world pointed to evidence of economic

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practices that resisted easy definition. These were practices that appeared, from one angle, to be inspired by the
generosity and selflessness that we associate with the gift exchange.
Paragraph 3
To receive from kings, the Mahabharata tells us, 'is at first
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7L honey, in the end, poison'. We all know because it is
written by our sages and scripted in our norms, that receiving a gift carries with it certain obligations: to say
thank you and to reciprocate with a gift in return. If someone invited us to their home, why can't we show up to
dinner empty-handed? What hidden law directs this custom? And why do we pretend that bringing gifts is
voluntary when so much of it is obligatory?
Paragraph 4
1P7S5P7L
The contract was the Solution to7Ma 9Pproblem unique to modern commercial society: we depend on strangers to
tr-5N

provide us with life's necessities. The caricature of self-sufficient Homo economicus obscures this basic feature
of Adam Smith's diagnosis. We have to trade because neither our labour nor our endowment alone can supply
us with everything we nee
33. The paragraphs of the given passage are jumbled. Choose the correct option that gives the correct order of the
paragraphs.
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
34. Which of the following best describes the idea behind "To receive from kings, the Mahabharata tells us, 'is at
first honey, in the end, poison'" as per the given passage?
(a) Our life will become more insecure if we possess any gifts from a king.
(b) There is no practical use of the gifts given by a king.
(c) Gifts from a king might be poisoned in some cases.
(d) We all want gifts from a king, but it is difficult to repay.

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35. According to the passage, which of the following is/are true?
I. One of the most influential texts in the field of anthropology is the essay "The Gift".
II. Mauss claimed that the giving and receiving of gifts are motivated by compassion and altruism.
III. The basic motivation of all gifts is life's necessities.
(a) All I, II and III (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Only III
36. Which of the following paragraphs gives the origin of the gift-giving practices?
(a) Paragraph 1 (b) Paragraph 4 (c) Paragraph 3 (d) Paragraph 2
37. The author may agree with which of the following conditions?
I. The exchange of gifts and contracts is different as it is motivated by different emotions.
II. Our good deeds and compassion can be expressed with a simple gift.
III. The modern condition is one of dependence, not independence.
(a) Both I and II
(b) All I, II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Both II and III

c o m
rs .
Passage (Q.38-Q.40): Read the following passages carefully and answer the following questions.
When I began my career in journalism - I was a reporter at a national magazine in those days - there was a man
I will call Claus Schmidt. He was in his mid-fifties, and to my impressionable eyes, he was the quintessential

k e
newsman: cynical at times, but unrelentingly curious and full of life, and often hilariously funny in a sandpaper-
dry kind of way. He churned out hard-hitting cover stories and features with a speed and elegance I could only

n
dream of. It always astounded me that he was never promoted to managing editor.

a
But people who knew Claus better than I did thought of him not just as a great newsman but as a quintessential

r
survivor, someone who had endured in an environment often hostile to talent. He had lived through at least three

p
major changes in the magazine's leadership, losing most oftr-5I
his 1D7K
best
7J9C 5G7B
friends and colleagues on the way. At home,
two of his children succumbed to incurable illnesses, and a third was killed in a traffic accident. Despite all this

To
– or maybe because of it - he milled around the newsroom day after day, mentoring the cub reporters, talking
about the novels he was writing – always looking forward to what the future held for him.
Why do some people suffer real hardships and not falter? Claus Schmidt could have reacted very differently. We
have all seen that happen: One person cannot seem to get
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
the confidence back after a layoff; another, persistently
5P7L
depressed, takes a few years off from life after her divorce. The question we would all like answered is, Why?
What exactly is that quality of resilience that carries people through life?
It is a question that has fascinated me ever since I first learned of the Holocaust survivors in elementary school.
In college, and later in my studies as an affiliate scholar at the Boston Psychoanalytic Society and Institute, I
returned to the subject. For the past several months, however, I have looked on it with a new urgency, for it
tr-5N 7M9P1P7S5P7L
seems to me that the terrorism, war, and recession of recent months have made understanding resilience more
important than ever. I have considered both the nature of individual resilience and what makes some
organizations as a whole more resilient than others. Why do some people and some companies buckle under
pressure? And what makes others bend and ultimately bounce back?
My exploration has taught me much about resilience, although it is a subject none of us will ever understand
fully. Indeed, resilience is one of the great puzzles of human nature, like creativity or the religious instinct. But
in sifting through psychological research and in reflecting on the many stories of resilience I have heard, I have
seen a little more deeply into the hearts and minds of people like Claus Schmidt and, in doing so, looked more
deeply into the human psyche as well. "More than education, more than experience, more than training, a person's
level of resilience will determine who succeeds and who fails. That is true in the cancer ward, it is true in the
Olympics, and it's true in the boardroom".

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38. Based on the above passage, all the following is/are true about Claus Schmidt EXCEPT
(a) His way of featuring the cover stories with so much grace was very unique.
(b) He had three children and his wife divorced him.
(c) He does not have many friends as he had lost many of his best friends on the way of life.
(d) He had faced many hardships in life which had made him a strong person.
39. Which of the following comes closest in meaning to the author's understanding of 'resilience'?
(a) It makes everyone a strong individual mentally.
(b) No one can ever understand the full meaning of resilience.
(c) You can learn resilience only when you go more deeply into the human psyche.
(d) Resilience is the capacity to recover quickly from difficulties, often acquired at times and the way one
respond to certain set of conditions.

m
40. Which of the primary reason for why the author is still fascinated by the story of Claus Schmidt?
(a) He was working so hard despite being promoted to managing editor.
(b) He was living all alone without his children and wife.

c o
(c) He was always an enthusiastic person, with full of life attitude and no negative thought had ever crossed his
mind.

.
rs
(d) Life has not treated him well still he was an optimistic person.

e
Passage (Q.41-Q.44): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

k
There are certain phrases that are central to the way the tech industry holds over our collective imagination: they
do not simply reflect our experience; they frame how we experience it in the first place. They sweep aside certain

n
parts of the status quo and leave other parts mysteriously untouched. They implicitly cast you as a stick-in-the-

a
mud if you ask how much revolution someone is capable of when that person represents billions in venture

r
capital investment. Among the most influential of these phrases is undoubtedly "disruption".

p
5G7B
tr-5I7J9C1D7K
The concept of disruption is a way for companies, the press or simply individuals to think about questions of

o
continuity and discontinuity - what lasts and what doesn't, what is genuinely new and what is just the next version
of something older. There is a lot at stake in how we think about these issues. Are the changes the tech industry

T
brings about or claims to bring about, fundamental transformations of how capitalism functions, or are they an
extension of how it has always functioned? The answers to such questions will determine what regulatory
oversight we believe is necessary or desirable, what role5Pwe
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
7L think the government or unions should play in a new
industry such as tech, and even how the industry and its titans ought to be discussed.
When we speak of disruption, we are usually thinking about the perils of continuity; we express the sense that
continuity works fine until it doesn't. To some extent, this sense that things staying the same for too long is
dangerous and makes us risk falling behind is characteristic of modernity - not in the sense of a specific time
period so much as the condition of being5Pmodern, living in a modern age. As the poet Charles Baudelaire wrote
tr-5N 7M9P1P7S 7L
in the 19th century, when the world around him was modernising at a breakneck pace: "The form of a
city/changes faster, alas, than a mortal's heart." Keep living the way you're living, and soon enough you'll find
yourself living in the past.
More specifically, though, disruption resonates with our experience of capitalism. Think of all the companies
and products that you remember treating as seemingly permanent, inextricable fixtures of your everyday life,
that nevertheless slid right out and disappeared with time. Recall, if you're of the right age, the act of re-spooling
a cassette tape with your pinkie finger, or the phrase "Be kind, please rewind". Or, for a slightly younger
generation, the whistles of a dial-up modem or the mastication of a floppy disk drive. Disruption tells a story
that explains how things that seem as if they will last forever nevertheless come to be short-lived. Neither those
who argue for continuity nor those who are in favour of discontinuity are disinterested parties - everyone has a
stake in these things. I have to include myself in this. I confess to being very wary of claims of disruption, but
then again, as a professor of literature, I'm in a profession that pretty much depends on the idea that the past
matters a lot and that messing with it in any meaningful sense entails spending a lot of time studying it.

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41. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Disruption is a buzzword famous in the tech industry.
(b) Disruption teaches us that even things we assumed would last forever ultimately don't.
(c) The author of the passage believes in disruption because his job requires him to work around technology.
(d) None of these
42. Which of the following is not true?
I. Modern world holds this belief that things staying the same for too long is dangerous.
II. Whether you speak for or against discontinuity, you will be affected by the changes in place.
III. Regulations should be strictly imposed and any oversight can lead to the companies gaming the system.
(a) Only I. (b) Only II. (c) Only III. (d) Both I and II.
43. Which of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the last paragraph of the passage?

m
(a) Disruption is an indication of how capitalism has transformed over the years.
(b) Disruption is inevitable as even the things that seem like they'll last forever would become obsolete one day.
(c) Disruption is a buzzword in the tech industry and everyone uses it in normal parlance.

c
(d) Things change so quickly that it is important to wait and enjoy some of these moments.

. o
rs
44. Which of the following can be the title of the passage?
(a) Disruption: Boon or Bane? (b) Disruption: Big Tech's next buzzword.

e
(c) Disruption: An offshoot of Capitalism. (d) Disruption: The necessary evil.

k
Passage (Q.45-Q.50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

n
Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives said Sunday that the United States deplores recent attacks by

a
Azerbaijan and called for a negotiated solution to the countries' conflict. The Speaker's visit to the Armenian

r
capital, Yerevan, with a congressional delegation came just a few days after two days of shelling by both sides
that killed more than 200 troops. It was the largest outbreak of hostilities in more than two years. The two

p
5G7B
tr-5I7J9C1D7K
exSoviet countries have been locked in a decades-old conflict over Nagorno-Karabakh, which is part of

o
Azerbaijan but was long under the control of ethnic Armenian forces backed by Armenia since a separatist war
there ended in 1994. During a six-week war in 2020, Azerbaijan reclaimed broad swaths of Nagorno-Karabakh

T
and adjacent territories held by Armenian forces. More than 6,700 people died in that fight. Armenia and
Azerbaijan each blamed the other for starting the shelling attacks last week. The Speaker on Sunday met with
the president of Armenia's parliament andtr-told reporters
5N7M9P1P7S
5P7L afterwards that "Our meeting again had particular
importance to us because the focus was on security following the illegal and deadly attacks by Azerbaijan on the
Armenian territory." "We strongly condemn those attacks - we in our delegation on behalf of Congress -
Which threaten prospects for a much-needed peace agreement," she said. "The United States has clearly and has
long stated that there can be no military solution to the conflict. We continue to watch the situation closely and
we continue supporting a negotiated, comprehensive and sustainable solution to all issues relating to the
tr-5N 7M9P1P7S5P7L
Nagorno-Karabakh conflict." The Azerbaijan Foreign Ministry sharply criticised her comments. "The Speaker's
baseless and unfair accusations against Azerbaijan are unacceptable," it said in a statement.
45. According to the passage, which of the following statements denote(s) the reaction of the Speaker of the US
about the recent attacks?
I. The Speaker was in support of the Azerbaijan government.
II. The Speaker censured the violence between the two countries.
III. The Speaker sceptically refused to speak about the issue.
(a) Only I (b) Only I and II (c) Only II (d) Only II and III
46. According to the passage, which of the following is/are the reaction/s of the official/s of Azerbaijan?
I. The Speaker of Azerbaijan vehemently opposed the statements about the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict.
II. The Chief of Azerbaijan strongly condemned the accusations and deemed them baseless.
III. The foreign ministry refused the comments and criticised them.
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III (c) Only III and I (d) Only III

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47. According to the passage, which of the following statements can be concluded as the immediate reason for
sudden shelling attacks?
I. Prolonged disparity between the two ex-soviet countries.
II. The immediate reason for the shelling attack is undetermined.
III. The murder of 200 Armenian troops by their counterpart.
(a) Only III (b) Only I and II (c) All I, II and III (d) Only II
48. According to the passage, which of the following statements can be concluded?
I. Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is not an instantaneous result of the sudden shelling of the two countries.
II. The United States is directly involved in aggravating the conflict between the two ex-Soviet countries.
III. Armenia bribed the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives to comment in its favour with respect to
the recent shelling.
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III (c) Only III and I (d) Only II
49.
of Representatives to Armenia?
I. To increase the brewing hostility between the two former Soviet nations.

c o m
According to the passage, which of the following is the actual purpose of the visit of the Speaker of the House

III. To discuss the security concerns with respect to sudden attacks.

(a) Only III (b) Only I and III (c) Only II (d) Only I

rs .
II. The reason for the visit of the Speaker of the House of Representatives is nowhere specified in the passage.

50.

k e
Which of the following is the antonym of the word 'baseless' that is highlighted in the passage?
(a) Bottomless (b) Unsubstantiated (c) Tranquil (d) Proven

r an
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To tr-5N7M9P1P7S
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tr-5N7M9P1P7S

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 SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

51. Who was the first Indian to win a 3-star Grand Prix in dressage, advancing their prospects for the Paris 2024
Olympics?
(a) Shruti Kumari (b) Aishwarya Bhatia
(c) Shruti Vora (d) Simran Agarwal
52. Every year the third Sunday in June is celebrated as Father's Day, The first ever official Father’s Day was
celebrated in which year?
(a) 1905 (b) 1910 (c) 1911 (d) 1912
53. Who was chosen to receive the V. Shantaram Lifetime Achievement Award in June 2024?
(a) Joel Coen (b) Martin Scorsese

m
(c) Subbiah Nallamuthu (d) Dibakar Banerjee

o
54. How many medals did the Armed Forces Medical Service (AFMS) officers from India win at the 43rd World

c
Medical and Health Games held in Saint-Tropez, France, in June 2024?

55.
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34

rs
Which state government approved the establishment of a Prime Minister College of Excellence in every
district in June 2024? .
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu

k e
56.

(a) Bahrain (b) Chile

r n
In June 2024, Egypt and which other country joined China as international partners to develop and deliver
scientific instruments for the Chang’e-7 mission?

a
(c) Philippines (d) Gabon

p
5G7B
tr-5I7J9C1D7K
57. In June 2024, Minda Corporation signed a joint venture agreement with HSIN Chong Machinery Works Co.

58.
(a) Thailand
o
(HCMF) based in which country?

T
(b) Taiwan (c) Vietnam (d) Philippines
World Elder Abuse Awareness Day (WEAAD) is observed every year on 15th June. What is the theme for the
World Elder Abuse Awareness Day: 2024?
(a) Lifting Up Voices tr-5N7M 9P1P7S5P7L
(b) Access to Justice for Elders
(c) Combating Elder Abuse (d) Spotlight on Older Persons in Emergencies
59. According to a report by the Global Carbon Project, which country is the highest emitter of nitrous oxide, with
India being the second-highest as of June 2024?
(a) Russia (b) China (c) Japan (d) United States of America
5P7L
5N7M9P1P7S
60. Which nation was the host oftr-the G7 summit that took place from June 13 to June 15, 2024?
(a) Italy (b) Iraq (c) Israel (d) Iran
61. In June 2024, which company or television channel did the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts
(IGNCA) sign an MoU with to enhance accessibility to Indian art and culture?
(a) Sun TV (b) Sansad TV (c) Prasar Bharati (d) STAR Pravah
62. In the World Bank’s Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2024, what position did the Visakhapatnam
Port Authority (VPA) secured?
(a) 16th (b) 17th (c) 18th (d) 13th
63. In June 2024, who was appointed as the new Director General of the Federation of Indian Chambers of
Commerce and Industry (FICCI)?
(a) Simachal Padhy (b) Jyoti Vij
(c) Jaya Tripathi (d) Sanjeev Nautiyal

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64. In June 2024, which state government announced the Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina (MMNM) scheme aimed at
promoting girls' education and eliminating child marriage?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam (d) Arunachal Pradesh
65. In June 2024, what is the name of the maritime exercise that began between India and Japan at Yokosuka,
Japan?
(a) Jimex 24 (b) Sea warriors 24 (c) Japnix 24 (d) Sea Shark 24
66. In June 2024, who became the first Indian mixed martial arts fighter to win a bout at the Ultimate Fighting
Championship (UFC)?
(a) Genelia D'Souza. (b) Hetal Dave
(c) Puja Tomar (d) Kalpana Devi Thoudam
67. In the Global Gender Gap Index released by the World Economic Forum in June 2024, what position did India
secure?
(a) 129th (b) 130 th (c) 131 th (d) 139 th

c o m
68. In June 2024, what is the name of the IoT-enabled system launched by the Indian Army for monitoring
generators?
(a) Vishal Rakshak (b) Pawan Rakshak

rs .
69.
(c) Akash Rakshak (d) Vidyut Rakshak

k e
In June 2024, which nation hosted the 112th annual International Labour Conference of the International
Labour Organization?
(a) United Arab Emirates
(c) Switzerland
an
(b) United Kingdom

r
(d) Germany

p
5G7B
tr-5I7J9C1D7K
70. In June 2024, who was sworn in as the new Defence Minister/Minister of Defence when Narendra Modi took

71.
(c) Jagdeep Dhankhar

To
the oath of office for his historic third term?
(a) Raj-Nath Singh (b) Atal Dulloo
(d) Revanth Reddy
In June 2024, the BRICS foreign ministers’ meeting, marking India's first foreign policy engagement under
7M9P1P7S5P7L term, took place in which country?
tr-5Nconsecutive
Prime Minister Narendra Modi's historic third
(a) India (b) Russia
(c) United Arab Emirates (d) France
72. In June 2024, which university did the Bharat 6G Alliance form a strategic partnership with the 6G IA of
Europe and 6G Flagship to advance 6G innovations?
(a) Oulu University 5P7L (b) Aalto University
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
(c) Tampere University (d) University of Cambridge
73. In June 2024, which digital payment service company collaborated with Invest India to enhance digital
financial inclusion and literacy?
(a) PhonePe (b) BharatPe (c) PayTm (d) PayZapp
74. Which state is home to Kozhikode, declared as India’s first ‘UNESCO City of Literature’ on June 23?
(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Kerala
75. In June 2024, which sport does Bajrang Punia represent India in, before being suspended by NADA for anti-
doping violations?
(a) Weightlifting (b) Wrestling (c) Archery (d) Javelin Throw
76. In July 2024, which Power Generation Company has Launched ‘Ghar Ghar Solar’ Initiative in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Adani Power (b) Reliance Power (c) Tata Power (d) Jaiprakash Power
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77. In July 2024, who was conferred with the "Chevalier de la Légion d’Honneur" (Knights of the Legion of
Honour), the highest civilian award of France?
(a) Narendra Modi (b) Srini Pallia (c) Droupadi Murmu (d) Roshni Nadar Malhotra
78. Who won both Men’s Doubles And Mixed Doubles Titles at the Asian Doubles Squash Championships 2024?
(a) Yuvraj Wadhwani (b) Tavneet Singh (c) Abhay Singh (d) Saurav Ghosal
79. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has joined hands with which ministry to develop an AI
Audit Tool aimed at overseeing corporate India in July 2024?
(a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(b) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
80. India ranks fifth in Generative AI (GenAI) innovations with 1,350 patents, according to report by UN body
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), which country topped the list as of July 2024?
(a) China (b) Japan (c) United States (d) France

c o m
rs .
k e
r an
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 SECTION – C: LOGICAL REASONING

81. 8 politicians A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are contesting the election in the Delhi constituency. Each person received
the different number of votes. A received more votes than exactly 2 other contestants. 3 contestants received
votes more than A but less than D. B received more votes than G and F. G received more votes than E, who
received more votes than F. F received more votes than H, who did not receive the least votes. Who received the
least and most votes respectively?
(a) C and B (b) C and G (c) G and C (d) A and G
82. In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given

m
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
No cap is a slap.
Some laps are slaps.
Conclusions:

.c o
rs
I. No cap is a lap.
II. All laps are caps.
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows

k e
(d) If neither conclusion I or II follows
83.

r
distance between school of Ram and medical store?
an
Ram started from his school and travelled 500m in East direction and then took left turn and walked 300m in
that direction and finally and took a left turn and walked 900 m before stopping at a medical store. What is the

p
(a) 350m (b) 500m (c) 400m tr-5I7J9C1D7K5G7B
(d) 600m
84.

o
In the question below are given some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

T
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some bags are zips.
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7L

All zips are hips.

Some hips are clips.
Conclusions:
I. Some clips are bags.
II. Some hips are bags. tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7L
(a) If only Conclusion I follows (b) If only Conclusion II follows
(c) If either Conclusion I or II follows (d) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
85. In the following questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives:
JBR : SDM :: UEH : ?
(a) IFW (b) IGX (c) IHX (d) IGW
86. RLFMXVAOQWIGJPBDYUZNECHKST
Using the given sequence find the missing term.
XVQ, RLX, YUE, FMA, ?
(a) BPV (b) BYZ (c) BDZ (d) BYN
87. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) OMNL (b) FEDC (c) ZXYW (d) SQRP

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88. If WATER = 65 and STORE = 75 then what will be the value of FORCE?
(a) 42 (b) 45 (c) 48 (d) 52
89. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All bows are pets.
All nuts are bows.
All rows are pets.
Conclusions:
I. Some nuts are not pets.
II. No row is a nut.
(a) If only the conclusion I follow
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

c o m
90.
the question.

rs .
Given question is followed by 2 statements I and II. Determine whether the statement/s are sufficient to answer

In certain code language "Man Of Steel" is coded as "ccc ddd aaa" then what is the code for the word "Man"?
I. "Man Of Words" is coded as "aaa ccc ggg"
II. "Bar Of Steel" is coded as "ccc ddd rrr".

k e
n
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

91.
p r a
(c) Both statements together are necessary to answer the question
(d) Both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question
9C1D7K5G7B tr-5I7J
Legal Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention

o
of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to

T
cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.
Factual Situation: Shakuni and Duryodhan do not like Arjun. Shakuni, who is a mastermind, decides to get rid
of Arjun. He goes to Duryodhan and tells him that Arjun has been planning secretly to take away Duryodhan’s
property. Duryodhan gets angry, takes a gun, tr-5N7M
goes 7S5P7L
9P1Pto Arjun’s house and shoots him. Will Shakuni be able to
escape liability as per the principle given?
(a) Yes, as it was not his act which caused the death of Arjun.
(b) Yes, as Duryodhan was the one who shot Arjun.
(c) No, as even inducement with the intention of causing death, is an act, constituting the offence of culpable
homicide.
5P7L
(d) None of the above. tr-5N7M9P1P7S

92. Legal Principle: All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-
President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.
Explanation: If the election of a person as President or Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court,
acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-
President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated
by reason of that declaration.
Factual Situation: Pal Singh wants to become President of India. To this end he needs the support of the Bhoos
party, the leader of which is Bhoosa Aam. Bhoosa Aam’s brother Musa Aam has been awarded death penalty.
Pal Singh promises Bhoosa Aam that if he becomes president he will pardon Musa Aam. Bhoos Party supports
Pal Singh and he wins the presidential election. Right after the election Musa Aam is pardoned and this deal
comes to light. A petition is filed in the Supreme Court and the SC finds that the presidential election had been
tainted. What will now happen to pardoning Musa Aam’s punishment of death penalty?
(a) His pardon will be cancelled as pardon was part of the election malpractice.
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 (b) His pardon will not be cancelled because it was a presidential act.
(c) His pardon being cancelled or not will depend upon when the order was signed.
(d) Pardon will not be cancelled because an appeal might lie within the Supreme Court.
93. Legal Principle: Every police officer or other person arresting any person without warrant shall forthwith
communicate to him full particulars of the offence for which he is arrested or other grounds for such arrest.
Explanation: Warrant is a document issued by a magistrate authorizing a police officer to arrest a person.
Factual Situation: Abhinav is having breakfast one day when police officers turn up at his house. They tell him
to come with them to the police station. When he asks why, they tell him we’ll tell you there. Police did not have
with themselves any arrest warrant. There, they lock him up. Later, when the court questions this behavior of
police, they say that it was necessary for investigation purpose.
(a) The action of the police officer is right. The lock up is necessary for investigation.
(b) The locking up of Abhinav by police is not an arrest. They need not give reasons.

m
(c) The locking up of Abhinav is an arrest. He has to be told why.
(d) The locking up of Abhinav might be in the interests of national security.
94.

. o
Legal Principle 1: Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person’s enjoyment of land.

c
Legal Principle 2: Acts interfering with health, safety, comfort may be some examples of it. The interference

rs
has to be indirect. If it is direct, it becomes trespass.
Factual Situation: Somnath Singh has started a plywood grinding unit on the first floor of his house. The ground

e
floor of his house has a slanting roof. His neighbor is Dr. Aditya. Dr. Aditya is adversely affected by this to a
great extent. This is because of several reasons. Firstly, the dust from the plywood grinding machine causes

k
respiratory problems for his family members and people who visit him. Secondly, the noise caused by the

n
machine is also unbearable. Though Somnath Singh had purchased his property earlier than Dr. Aditya. At the

a
time Dr. Aditya purchased the neighboring property, Somnath Singh hadn’t started this business.

(a) Yes, Somnath Singh is causing nuisance.

(b) No, Somnath Singh isn’t causing nuisance.
r
In this fact situation, is Somnath Singh causing nuisance to Dr. Aditya?

p
tr-5I7J9C1D7K
5G7B

95.
(d) None of the above.

To
(c) Somnath Singh would have been causing nuisance if he was the one who purchased the property later.

In the above fact situation, if Dr. Aditya had moved into the property after Somnath Singh had started the
Plywood Grinding Unit, would he be able to 5N sue Somnath
tr- 7M9P1P7S
5P7LSingh for creating nuisance?
(a) No, He should have anticipated these troubles while buying the property.
(b) Yes, he is still entitled to enjoyment of land.
(c) No, because Somnath Singh has first mover advantage.
(d) None of the above.
96. In the above fact situation if in addition to the troubles already mentioned, Somnath Singh ordered his servant to
5N 7M 9P1P7S5P7L
dump the debris from the plywood grinding machine into Dr. Aditya’s yard, would that constitute nuisance?
tr-
(a) Yes as that would add to the nuisance being caused.
(b) No as that would amount to trespass.
(c) It would amount to some tort not mentioned above.
(d) None of the above.
97. If pieces of plywood fell off the first floor, rolled over the ground floor roof and landed in Mr. Aditya’s yard,
would it amount to nuisance?
(a) It would amount to nuisance.
(b) It would amount to trespass.
(c) It would amount to some tort not mentioned above.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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98. Legal Principle 1: Defamation is reducing the worth of a person in the eyes of right thinking members of society.
Legal Principle 2: Defamation can be either through verbal or written words or transient gestures or any other
means.
Legal Principle 3: A statement is defamatory only if it is communicated to a person other than the one about
whom the statement is made.
Legal Principle 4: Truth is a defence to defamation.
Factual Situation: Nelesh Dutt (ND) is a big politician and holds the distinction of being the only person to
have been the Chief Minister of two Indian states. A tabloid called Midnight Masala Times publishes a
photograph of him, where though it is an innocent situation, the photo is taken at such an angle such that it
suggests that ND’s lips are close to that of a lady, maybe even touching hers. Both have closed their eyes and
the lady has puckered up, maybe in speech thereby adding to the confusion. The photo carries the caption “Tharki
Mantri” (minister who enjoys the good things in life) ND sues the tabloid. His reputation suffers significant after

m
the publication of the article.
Has the tabloid defamed ND?

(b) They have not written anything defamatory and hence are not liable.
(c) The photograph is unaltered and true, so they can claim truth as a defence.

. o
(a) Yes, they have caused his worth to go down in the minds of the right thinking members of society.

c
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(d) It is not the tabloid which has said anything. They have put up a photo and left it up to the readers to decide
for themselves.
99.
secret”, have the tabloid defamed him?

k e
If the photographs were not published but rather sent directly to the minister in a sealed envelope that said “Top

n
(a) Yes, they have caused his worth to go down in the minds of the right thinking members of society.

a
(b) They have not written anything defamatory and hence are not liable.

r
(c) The photograph is unaltered and true, so they can claim truth as a defence.

p
(d) No the tabloid have not defamed him as they have not tr-5Itold 7K5G7B other than the person about whom the
anyone
7J9C1D
statement is made.
100. Legal Principles:

To
1. No person shall be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in
force at the time of the commission of the offence.
2. No person shall be convicted of any offence
of the act charged as an offence.
except for
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7Lviolation of law in force at the time of the commission

3. Retrospective law is made to affect acts or facts occurring, or rights occurring before it came into force.
4. Retrospective effect is not allowed in criminal law.
Factual Situation: X was a person who was trying continuously to clear a competitive exam. Even after trying
for several times he was not able to clear the exams. So, in the end, he resorted to the method of cheating during
the exams and it took adversetr-effect
5N7M9Pon his
1P7S reputation. Even he got accused of cheating and one day he was even
5P7L
caught in the action. Before he was arrested and committed to trial for it, the law relating to cheating was changed
and the punishment for it was increased to life imprisonment. The person was found guilty and put on trial
according to the changed laws and at the end of the trial, the court sentenced him to life imprisonment. The
punishment according to the old laws was only imprisonment of 3 years and fine but after the change of this law,
the punishment increased drastically. He consulted some people and came to know about how punishment was
given in criminal law. So, he felt aggrieved and decided to challenge his sentence of life imprisonment. On the
basis of the given Principles and Facts decide.
He will:
(a) Fail because the punishment for cheating was increased to life imprisonment before his trial began.
(b) Succeed because the punishment for cheating was not life imprisonment when he committed it.
(c) Fail because the law does not provide for such leniency to guilty persons.
(d) Succeed only if he is able to prove his innocence.

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101. In the question below there are some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
Statements:
Some sheets are claws.
Some claws are coins.
All coins are tails.
Conclusions:
I. Some tails are claws.
II. Some tails are sheets
(a) If only Conclusion I follows

m
(b) If only Conclusion II follows
(c) If either Conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows

.c o
Directions (Q.102-Q.104): In an embassy, seven flags, each of different countries are placed from left to right

rs
in a linear row. (Consider the directions as per your left and right).
• Two flags are placed between India's flag and Canada's flag.

e
• USA's flag is placed immediately right to UK's flag.
• England's flag is placed towards left of only China's flag and Canada's flag.
• France's flag is placed second to the left of Canada's flag.

n
102. What is the position of England's flag with respect to Canada's flag?

a k
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(a) Second to left (b) Third to left (c) Immediate left (d) Third to left

p
103. Which country's flag is second to left of the France's flag?tr-5I7J9C1D7K5G7B
(a) USA (b) India (c) UK (d) China

(a) None

unmarried.
(b) One

To
104. How many flags are placed between China's and India's flag?
(c) Three

tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7L
(d) More than three
Directions (Q.105-Q.108): In the family of 8 persons viz P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W, it is known that no one is

P is the mother of S. U and S are sisters. Q is the nephew of T, who is son-in- law of P. T is not married to U. R
is the father-in-law of V. W is not female.
105. W is __ of T.
(a) Father. (b) Father-in-law (c) Grandfather (d) Mother
5P7L
106. Who is the husband of P? tr-5N7M9P1P7S

(a) R (b) S (c) U (d) W

107. How S is related to R?
(a) Brother (b) Brother-in-law (c) Sister-in-law (d) Mother
108. If in a certain language 'CHARGE' is coded as 'FHSBID' then how will 'FRUIT' be coded as?
(a) UYGJV (b) VSRTY (c) USGJV (d) UJVSG
Directions (Q.109-Q.111): Kamla starts from her house in the north direction and walks 7km to reach grocery
store. Then she turns in left direction and walks 12 km to reach stationary shop. Then she turns in left direction
and walks 6km to reach bakery shop. Then she turns in her left direction and walks 4km to reach cinema hall.
109. What is the shortest distance between Kamla's house and cinema hall?
(a) √180 km (b) 8km (c) √65 km (d) √113 km

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110. What is the shortest distance between grocery shop and cinema hall?
(a) 22 km (b) 10 km (c) √113 km (d) √114 km
111. What is the shortest distance between Kamla's house and stationary shop?
(a) √95 km (b) √145 km (c) √193 km (d) √293 km
112. In the question below there are some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some hips are whales.
Some whales are clips.

m
Some clips are wires.

o
All wires are apples.
Conclusions:
I. Some wires are hips.
II. Some apples are clips.
III. Some clips are hips.

rs .c
e
IV. Some apples are whales.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows

k
113. In the question below there are some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given

n
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions

a
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Statements:

p r tr-5I7J9C1D7K
5G7B

o
All tents are hens.
Some hens are heels.
Some heels are maps.
All maps are mugs.
Conclusions:
I. Some heels are mugs.
II. Some maps are hens.
III. Some hens are tents.
T tr-5N7M9P1P7S
5P7L

IV. No tent is a mug.

(a) Only II follows (b) Only I and III follows
(c) Only III follows 7M9P1P7S5P7L
(d) Only either I or II follows
tr-5N
114. In the question below there are some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some stones are brakes.
All brakes are bars.
All bars are locks.
Some locks are usbs.
Conclusions:
I. Some stones are usbs.
II. Some brakes are usbs.
III. All brakes are locks.
IV. Some stones are bars.
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 (a) Only I & III follow (b) Only either I or II and III follow
(c) Only III & IV follow (d) Only II & III follow
Directions (Q.115-Q.118): A group of seven friends: A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture
Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N, P, Q, R
and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk.
E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one
who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator.
F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.
115. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer?
(a) C (b) B (c) F (d) D
116. What is the profession of C?

m
(a) Terminal Operator (b) Agriculture Officer
(c) Economist (d) Cannot be determined
117. For which bank does B work?
(a) M (b) S (c) L

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(d) Either M or S

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118. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S?
(a) Clerk (b) Agriculture Officer
(c) Terminal Operator (d) Forex Officer

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119. When the time is 5:40, then what is the angle b/w the hour hand & the minute hand of a clock?
(a) 70° (b) 60° (c) 74°

r an (d) 80°
120. If all the letters in I, II and III given below are arranged in alphabetical order within the word, then in which of
the given words, the third and the eighth letters (taken from5Ithe left end)
5G7B will remain unchanged?

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tr- 7J9C1D7K
I. T P H U E V O L
II. I U E C A M K W
III. J F D N Z U V P
(a) I ONLY

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(b) II ONLY (c) III ONLY
121. A meaningful word is formed using 2nd, 3rd, 7th, 10th, 12th and
nd 5N 7M 9P1P7S5P7L
(d) ALL THREE
13th letter of the word "GLOBALIZATION". What
is the 2 letter of that meaningful word? Mark X if no meaningful word is possible. Mark Y, if more than 1
tr-
words are possible.
(a) O (b) Y (c) I (d) T
Directions (Q.122 and Q.123): 6 bottles of the same capacity A, B, C, D, E and F are filled with different
amount of water in it. The bottle with most water has the least empty space and the bottle with least water has
highest empty space. 5P7L
tr-5N7M9P1P7S

Bottle B has more water than bottle D but has more empty space than bottle F. Bottle A has more empty space
than bottle E. Only 2 bottles have less empty space than bottle C. Bottle E has more empty space than bottle C.
Bottle D has more empty space than bottle E but doesn't have the least water.
122. Which of the following bottles have more empty space than bottle C?
(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) Both option (A) and option (C)
123. Which of the following bottle have less water than bottle E?
(a) C (b) D
(c) B (d) More than one of the above
Directions (Q.124 and Q.125): Complete the following series.
124. 3,6, 12, 24, 48, 96, ______
(a) 129 (b) 152 (c) 192 (d) 623

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125. 3, 9, 29, 61, 185, 373, ______.
(a) 743 (b) 117 (c) 749 (d) 1121
126. If chalk is called duster, duster is called pen, pen is called eraser, eraser is called scale, scale is called sharpener,
sharpener is called pencil, pencil is called paper and paper is called ink, then what should you use to sharpen
your pencil?
(a) Scale (b) Eraser (c) Pencil (d) Paper
Directions (Q.127): Choose the number which will replace the question mark.
127. FILM : 10 : : HOTEL : ?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 30
128. Which among i, ii, iii and iv is/are valid for the statement “if A is selected, then B must be selected”?

m
(i) A is selected without B.
(ii) B is selected without A.
(iii) Both A and B are selected.
(iv) Neither A nor B is selected.
(a) Only (i) and (iii) (b) Only (ii) and (iii)

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rs
(c) Only (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(i) A is selected without B.

(ii) B is selected without A.

k e
129. Which among i, ii, iii and iv is/are valid for the statement “Only if A is selected, then B can be selected”?

(iii) Both A and B are selected.

(iv) Neither A nor B is selected.
(a) Only (i) and (iii)

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(b) Only (ii) and (iii)

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9C1D 7K5G 7B
(c) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (ii), (iii)
tr-5I7J and (iv)

(a) Four

To
130. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PUNCTUAL which have as many letters between them in
the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
(b) Three
131. 4 S * ! + & T H F 3 1 2 D ? J C # F 5 A 8 < 9 >
In the above sequence, which is the seventh
(c) Two

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element
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7M9P1P7Sto
(d) Five

the right of the fifth element to the left of the fourth

element to the right of the third element to the right of the second element to the left of the sixth element from
the left end?
(a) F (b) J (c) D (d) #
132. How many 1’s are there which are immediately followed by 5 and immediately preceded by 7 in the following
sequence? 5P7L
tr-5N7M9P1P7S
1115771515171557151151771511
(a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three
133. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sit around a circular table, facing the centre, but not necessarily in that order. Q
sits to the immediate left of R, who is opposite T. U sits second to the left of P.
Then who sits opposite S?
(a) Q (b) P (c) U (d) P or Q
134. A clock takes 13.2 seconds to strike 12. How long does it take to strike 11?
(a) 13 sec (b) 11 sec (c) 14 sec (d) 12 sec
135. If it is Wednesday on 17 March, 2005, then which day would come on 12 September, 2005?
(a) Monday (b) Friday (c) Sunday (d) Saturday.

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 Directions (Q.136-Q.139): These questions are based on the following information.
Mr. Ravi, the Secretary of the Students’ Association, is assigned with the job of selecting a team from a group
of ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. The team selection is subjected to the following restrictions.
(i) If any one among D, F and G is selected, then the other two must also be selected.
(ii) At most one among H, A and G can be selected.
(iii) If J is selected, then neither B nor D is selected.
(iv) Exactly one among I and C must be selected.
(v) If E is selected, then B must be selected.
(vi) Either both, E and H, must be selected or both should not be selected.
Size of the team is the number of persons in the team.
136. What is the size of the largest team that can be selected?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Six
137. If H is one of the members of the team what is the size of the team?
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three

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(d) Ten

o
(d) Either three or four

(a) I (b) F (c) H (d) C

rs
138. If E is one of the team members, who among the following cannot be a member of that team?
.
139. Which of the following is a valid team?
(a) IDA (b) CBJA (c) IBAH

k e (d) IJA

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140. In a certain code language, 'children of sky' is coded as '712', 'sky is blue' is coded as '205' and 'of blue syrup' is

a
coded as '154'. Which phrase would the code '407' represent in the same code language?
(a) syrup is children

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(b) children blue syrup

p
(c) sky blue syrup (d) syrup of 7J9C1D7K5G7B
tr-5Ichildren

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Directions (Q.141-Q.143): Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a straight line facing the north, not necessarily in the same

T
order. T sits fourth to the left of V. Neither T nor V sits at the extreme ends. P sits third to the right of S. R sits
fourth to the left of U. R does not sit at any of the extreme ends.
9P1P
tr-5N7Mat
141. Which of the following pair of friends are sitting
7S5P7L
extreme ends of the line?
(a) Q, P (b) R, S (c) T, U (d) S, U
142. Who sits exactly in the middle of the row?
(a) R (b) T (c) P (d) U
143. Four of the following five are alike in 7S
a 5P
certain
7L way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement
tr-5N7M9P1P
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a) U and V (b) Q and P (c) R and P (d) T and S
Directions (Q.144-Q.147): Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born on 12th March but in different
years 1983, 1986, 1988, 1994, 1995, 1999, 2006 and 2009 not necessarily in the same order. Make all the age
calculations as on 12th March 2018.
• B was 7 years elder to E.
• E and G were born consecutively i.e. nobody was born between them.
• 2 persons were born between D and H. D was elder to H.
• Number of persons born after C was equal to the number of persons born before F. F was elder to C.
• A and F were not born consecutively.
144. In which of the following years was A born?
(a) 2006 (b) 1983 (c) 1986 (d) 2009

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145. Who among the following was born in a leap year?
(a) D (b) F (c) A (d) B
146. Who was born just after H?
(a) E (b) B (c) F (d) A
147. How many persons were born between F and H?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
148. Given question is followed by 2 statements numbered A and B. You must decide whether the data provided in
the statements is sufficient to answer the question.
Who among Richa, Suraj, Mukesh, Reema, Mahima and Rimjhim topped the IIT-JEE exam?
(A) Richa ranked lower than Mukesh and Mahima, who in turn is ranked better than exactly four.
(B) Suraj is two ranks higher than Reema who in turn is ranked higher than at least three.

m
(a) If the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using statement B alone.

o
(b) If the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using statement A alone.
(c) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

c
alone.

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(d) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements

149. Given question is followed by 2 statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

k e
6 books A, B, C, D, E and F are stacked one above another. Which book is placed 2nd from the bottom of the

n
stack?

a
I. 2 books are placed between book C and book D. Book D is placed immediately above B and book C is placed

r
immediately below book A. neither C nor D is placed at the end of the stack.
II. Book A is placed immediately above book C and is placed immediately below book B. book B is placed

p
5G7B
tr-5I7J9C1D7K
below book D, which is not placed at the top of the stack. Either book E or book F is placed at the bottom of
the stack.

o
(a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II alone is not sufficient
to answer the question

T
(b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I alone is not sufficient
to answer the question. tr-5N7M9P1P7S
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(c) The data either in statement I or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(d) The data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
150. In a ground, 89 persons are lined up in a linear row from left to right all facing in north direction. Sana is standing
76th from the right end and Mani is standing 24th from the left end. How many persons stand between Sana and
Mani?
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(a) 15 (b) 10tr-5N7M9P (c) 9 (d) 11

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 NOTES:

c o m
rs .
k e
r an
p
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To tr-5N7M9P1P7S
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 SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-3 in the box):
English Language General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Logical Reasoning

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

c o m
English Language

.
General Knowledge and Current Affairs

rs
Logical Reasoning

k e
3. I:

r an
p
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◻ was too distracted during the Mock today
◻
◻

 To
think I used the wrong sequence
wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
spent insufficient time on _______________________________________
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section.
 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

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That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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