Unit 2 Cell Biology

Test: USABO Quiz 2 Name: ___________ Score: ___________

1. DNP is used as a dangerous weight loss drug due to its ability to increase metabolic activity. The chemical
disrupts the proton gradient by binding H+ and diffusing across the inner mitochondrial membrane. Given
these constraints, which of the following molecules is DNP？

A C

B E

2. Consider the pathway below showing the degradation of toluene!a colorless liquid with a low to moderate
water solubility. Toluene affects the central nervous system, but animals exposed to moderate to high
levels of toluene also show harmful effects in their liver, kidneys, lungs and impaired immune function。

Considering the general principles of energy metabolism, which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding the pathway shown above？

A. #1 in the pathway is an ATP generating step.

B. # 1 in the pathway is a redox reaction; toluene is reduced.
C. The product of the toluene degradation at #2 is further degraded using glycolysis.
D. The product of the toluene degradation pathway #2 is further degtaded using beta-oxidation.
E. The microorganism capable of utilizing this pathway cannot be used for bioremediation due to anabolism of
toxic chemicals using toluenes as monomers.

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3. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding cell junctions in animals and plants?

I. Desmosomes are made of sturdy keratin proteins, which attach myocytes to each other.
II. Plasmodesmata are different from gap junctions because of their unique ability to transport proteins.
III. Gap junctions are different from plasmodesmata because gap junction pores are lined with the
membrane.
IV. Plasmodesmata are different from gap junctions because of their unique ability to transport nucleic
acid, such as RNA and viruses.
V. If there is a polypeptide chain that makes up a tight junction that weaves back and forth through the
membrane four times, with two extracellular loops, and one loop plus short C-tetminal and N-terminal
tails in the cytoplasm, you would predict that polat amino acids in the four regions that go through the
membrane between the tails and loops.

A. I, II, IV.
B. I, III, V.
C. I,III, IV.
D. II, IIL, V.
E. II, IV, V.

4. Isoxazolidinones are hetbicides. When plants are exposed to the weed killer, the chloroplasts have a high
level of ADP and the leaves are translucent (nearly see-through). Based on this information, what
concentration of other molecules might you expect to find？

A. Low levels of oxaloacetate.

B. Low levels of rubisco.
C. High levels of NAD+.
D. High levels of NADP+.
E. High levels of RuBP.

5. Assuming that the NaCl is completely ionized, calculate how much it will lower the solute potential of the
soil at 20°C using the solute potential equation: ѰS = –iCRT where i is the ionization constant (2 for
NaCl), C is the molar concentration (in mol/L), R is the pressure constant [R = 0.00831 L • MPa/(mol • K)],
and T is the temperature in Kelvin (273 + °C).

A. +243.483 MPa.
B. -243.483 MPa.
C. -0.243 MPa.
D. -0.122 MPa.
E. -0.017 MPa.

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6. An epinephrine-mediated increase in heart rate is primarily mediated through which of the following
receptor/second-messenger pairs?

A. ß-1, Ca2+.
B. ß -1, cAMP.
C. ß -2, Ca2+.
D. ß -2, cAMP.
E. ß -2, cGMP.

7. In the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system, the Cas9 endonuclease must recognize a protospacer-adjacent
motif (PAM) in order for it to cleave its target. The PAM sequence of the most commonly used Cas9,
which is derived from Streptococcus progcnes, is NGG (where N is any nucleotide）. The adjacent guanines
in the PAM scquence are recognized by hydrogen bonding at the sites indicated below by adjacent,
identical amino acids in Cas9. Which of the following amino acids is MOST LIKELY used by Cas9 to
identify the adjacent guanines？

A. Threonine.
B. Cysteine.
C. Glutamate.
D. Leucine.
E. Arginine.

8. You are furiously working on a research project and have booked your laboratory’s only Transmission
Electron Microscope for the next few weeks. When apologizing to your hard-wotking colleaguc, they
assure you that this is no problem-they can just use the scanning electron microscope. Which of the
following organelles do you expect them to study？

A. Nuclear pore.
B. Flagellum.
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Chloroplast.
E. Lysosome.

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9. If you functionally remove the gene encoding for stator in ATP synthase, which of the following function
will be directly impacted？

A. The abiity of ATP synthase to rotate.

B. The ability of synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate group.
C. The ability of ATP synthase to generate protons by shutting clectrons from electron carriers.
D. The ability to serve as a half channel for hydrogen ions from intermembrane space to mitochondrial matrix.
E. The ability to allow the movement of oxygen molecules ttom intermembrane space to mitochondrial matrix.

10. phororespiration is a process by which oxygen (instead of carbon dioxide) is incorporated into ribulose 1,
5-bisphosphate by Rubisco, forming 2-phosphoglyeofate. 2-phosphoglycolate cannot be used for the Calvin
cycle, and can interfere with the plant’s normal metabolism, so it must be converted to a usable
intermediate through the glycolate cycle. In order to circumvent this wasteful process, some plants have
evolved diffetent metabolic pathways of carbon fixation. For example, C4 Plants utiize PEP carboxylase
instead of rubisco to incorporate carbon dioxide. In addition, the leaves of C4 plants have aiso evolved to
facilitate this alternate pathway. Which of the following are anatomical adaptations of C4 plants？

I. Bundle-sheath cells and mesophyli cells are arranged in two concentric rings around the vein, with
mesophyll in the interior.
II. Thick, fleshy leaves that store large amounts of water
III. Mesophyll are not differentiated into palisade and spongy tissue.
IV. Greatly elevated carotenoid levels.
V. Reduced interveinal distance.

A. I, II, V.
B. II, ILL, IV.
C. IL, IIL.
D. IL, IL, V.
E. I,I,III,IV, V.

11. In the electron transport chain, the degree of reduction of each carrier is determined by internal
mitochondrial conditions. The cultured cells are subjected to various conditions and predicts the state of
oxidation of cytochrome c compared to the normal resting state. Cytochrome c transfers electrons from
Complex III to Complex IV in the electron transport chain. Which of the following predictions are
consistent with the structure of the electron transport chain?

I. When the cells are subjected to the addition of potassium cyanide (a Complex IV inhibitor), cytochrome
c will become more oxidized.
II. When the cells are subjected to increased O2 levels and decreased NADH levels, cytochrome c will
become more oxidized.
III. When the cells are subjected to the addition of oligomycin (an ATP synthase inhibitor), cytochrome c
will become more oxidized.

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 A. I and II.
B. I and III.
C. Il only.
D. II and III.
E. III only.

12. Mouse white blood cells were allowed to equilibrate to an extracellular solution with an osmolarity of 300
mOsm/L. The cells are then moved to an extracellular solution with osmolarity 600 mOsm/L and allowed
to equilibrate to the new environment. What is closest to the ratio of the final cell volume to the original
cell volume? Assume that the membrane is impermeable to solutes.

A. 4.
B. 2.
C. 1.
D. 0.5.
E. 0.25.

13. Phenylurea is an herbicide used on corn fields to injure and kill dicot weeds after the seeds germinate.
This herbicide functions by irreversibly binding to the D1 quinone-binding protein of photosystem II
(PSII) and inhibiting the movement of electrons to plastoquinone, thereby shutting off the linear
photosynthesis pathway. How will the pH of the stroma and the thylakoid space change immediately after
a leaf cell takes up phenylurea?

A. The stromal pH and the pH of the thylakoid space will both increase.
B. The stromal pH and the pli of the thylakoid space will both decrease.
C. The stromal pH will increase, and the pH of the thylakoid space will decrease.
D. The stromal pH will decreasc, and the pH of the thylakoid space will increase.
E. The stromal pHl will remain unchanged, and the pH of the thylakoid space will decrease.

14. Which of the following plants are most likely to flower?

I. A shortday plant that receives a 660-nm light flash in the middle of its dark period.
I1. A short-day plant that receives a 750-nm light flash in the middle of its datk period.
III. A long-day plant that receives a 660-nm light flash in the middle of its dark period.
IV. A long-day plant that receives a 750-nm light flash in the middle of its datk period.

A. I and III.
B. I and IV.
C. II and III.
D. II and IV.
E. III and IV.

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15. The following curve represents the affinity of human hemoglobin for oxygen. Refer to the curve as needed
when answering the following four questions about a hospitalized patient in septic shock. The monitor
shows the following vitals: heart rate 112, oxygen saturation 82%, blood pressure 88/54 mmHg,
temperature 38.6 degrees Celsius (101.5 °F).

The patient’s organs are not receiving adequate oxygen to perform aerobic cellular respiration, and
lactate production rises. What cellular process is resulting in lactate production?

A. Glycolysis.
B. Oxidative phosphorylation.
C. Krebs cycle.
D. Lipolysis.
E. Pentose Phosphate Pathway.

16. Which of the following is TRUE about osmosis?

A. A solution of CaCl2 will have a lower water potential than a solution of NaCl with the same concentration.
B. Isosmotic solutions can be hypotonic if the solute cannot pass through the cell membrane freely.
C. Raising the temperature of a solution increases its water potential.
D. Smaller cells are more vulnerable to plasmolysis because they have a higher surface area to volume ratio
which lets more water leak out.
E. Water moves from higher to lower pressure and higher to lower solute concentration.

17. Which of the following chemical species does NOT function as a final electron acceptor in either aerobic
respiration, anaerobic respiration, or fermentation?

A. Pyruvate.
B. Oxygen.
C. Acetaldehyde.
D. Lactate.
E. Sulfate.

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18. Which of the following molecules is NOT directly formed by any of the steps of the Citric Acid Cycle?

A. ATP.
B. CO2.
C. NADH.
D. FADH2.
E. Coenzyme A.

19.

The hydrocarbon chain in the top triglyceride above has ________ ; the hydrocarbon chain in the bottom
triglyceride has ________

A. Double bonds and saturated; no double bonds and is unsaturated.

B. No double bonds and is saturated; double bonds and is unsaturated.
C. No double bonds and is unsaturated; double bonds and is saturated.
D. Double bonds and is unsaturated; double bonds and is unsaturated.
E. Double bonds and is unsaturated; no double bonds and is saturated.

20. For your Intel Science Talent Search project, you sequence the nuclear genome of Euglena and find the
nearest match for each gene sequence in other organisms. You find that 85% of the genome matches with
single-celled heterotrophs like amoeba, dictyostelium, and yeast. The other 15% of the genome matches
with autotrophs like maize, Arabidopsis, and cyanobacteria. Which of the following could explain your
results? There has been a transfer of genes from the euglena:

A. Mitochondria to the nucleus, resulting in a match with autotrophs for those ggenes.
B. Golgi apparatus to the nucleus, resulting in a better match with autotrophs for those genes.
C. Chloroplast to the nucleus, resulting in a match with autotrophs for those genes.
D. Lysosome to the nucleus, resulting in a match with autotrophs for those genes.
E. Paramylon granules to the nucleus, resulting in a match with autotrophs for those genes.

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21. The ability of a cell to oxidize and reduce compounds is of the utmost importance for cell survival. Which
of the following is true about NAD+, NADP+, and their reduced forms NADH and NADPH in the cell?

I. NADH and NADPH can be used interchangeably by many biological processes as reducing agents.
II. NAD+ is primarily used in catabolic cellular activities.
III. NADPH is primarily used in catabolic cellular activities.
IV. The cell aims to maintain a high NADH tO NAD + ratio.
V. The cell aims to maintain a high NADPH to NADP+ ratio.
VI. Most enzymes that use NADH are unable to use NADPH and vice vetsa.

A. Iand Il only.
B. I, II, and V only.
C. I, III, and VI only.
D. II, V, and VI only.
E. II, IV, and VI only.

22. Select ALL that are FALSE regarding the ribosomes

A. The catalytic site is protein.

B. Catalytic activity is still relatively functioning after removing protein portions of ribosomes using proteases.
C. Ribosome catalyzed protein synthesis occurs in N to C direction.
D. The catalytic site is RNA and thus a ribozyme.
E. Catalytic activity is still relatively functional after removing RNA portions of ribosomes using RNAases.