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Eklavya-JEE-2025-JMMT-07 - (Morning) - Q+A+S

The document contains a series of chemistry and mathematics questions, primarily multiple-choice format, covering topics such as chemical reactions, ionization energy, glycosidic linkages, and geometric series. Each question presents options for answers, requiring knowledge in various scientific principles and mathematical concepts. The questions are aimed at evaluating the understanding of students preparing for the JEE-2025 examination.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
34 views44 pages

Eklavya-JEE-2025-JMMT-07 - (Morning) - Q+A+S

The document contains a series of chemistry and mathematics questions, primarily multiple-choice format, covering topics such as chemical reactions, ionization energy, glycosidic linkages, and geometric series. Each question presents options for answers, requiring knowledge in various scientific principles and mathematical concepts. The questions are aimed at evaluating the understanding of students preparing for the JEE-2025 examination.

Uploaded by

mukeshmine20
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 44

Eklavya-JEE-2025-JMMT-07-(Morning)

Questions

1. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?


Slightly heat

(a) [Al(OH)4]- (aq) + NH4+ (aq) −−−−−−−→ White precipitate and liberation of ammonia

(b) Pb2+(aq) + 2Br-(aq) → black precipitate


Δ

(c) Bil3(black precipitate) + H2O(ℓ) −


→ Orange precipitate

(d) Ca2+(aq) + K4[Fe(CN)6(aq) → White precipitate.


2.
In the following reaction sequence,

The major product B is:


(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
3. The pair of lanthanides in which both elements have high third - ionization energy is:

(a) Dy, Gd

(b) Eu, Yb

(c) Eu, Gd

(d) Lu, Yb

4. Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and glucose is present in lactose?

(a) C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose

(b) C-1 of galactose and C-6 of glucose

(c) C-1 of glucose and C-4 of galactose

(d) C-1 of glucose and C-6 of galactose

5. The products formed in the reaction of cumene with O2 followed by treatment with

dil. HCI are:


(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
6.
The IUPAC name for the following compound is :

(a) 2,5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal

(b) 2,5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid

(c) 6-formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid

(d) 2,5-dimethyl-6-carboxy-hex-3-enal

7. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively.

The pH of their salt (AB) solution is :

(a) 7.0

(b) 1.0

(c) 7.2

(d) 6.9
8.
Match List – I and List – II.
List I List II

(i) Br2/KOH
(a)

(ii) H2/Pd–BaSO4
(b)

(iii) Zn(Hg)/Conc. HCl


(c)

(iv) Cl2/Red P, H2O


(d)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

9. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous

Ba(OH)2 is (Assume complete neutralization)

(a) 10.0 mL

(b) 7.5 mL

(c) 5.0 mL

(d) 2.5 mL
10.
The product is:

(a)

(b)

A dye

(c)

An organic acid

(d) All of these


11.
Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective
mechanism.
(A)

(B)
(C) Electrophilic substitution

(D) Nucleophilic substitution


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only

(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

(c) (A), (C) and (D) only

(d) (B), (C) and (D) only


12.
Identify correct 2-D representation of following molecule.

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)

13. The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species
3−
and respectively:
2− 2−
[F eCl4 ] , [Co(C2 O4 ) ] M nO
3 4

(a) 4.90, 0 and 1.73 BM

(b) 5.82, 0 and 0 BM

(c) 5.92, 4.90 and 0 BM

(d) 4.90, 0 and 2.83 BM


14.

The structure of X is:


(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)

15. Which of the following compounds/complex ions would not show geometrical

isomerism?

(a) [Cr (gly)3]

(b) [Pt (en)2 Cl Br]2+

(c) [Co (en) (SCN)4]-

(d) [Pt (gly)2 Cl2]

16. Match-I with List-II.

List-1 List-2

Electronic configuration of elements Ionization energy (kJ mol–1)

(a) 1s2 2s2 (i) 801

(b) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (ii) 899

(c) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (iii) 1314

(d) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (iv) 1402

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(a) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)

(b) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (ii)

(c) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii)


(d) (a) → (i), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (ii)

17. Consider the following statements and arrange in the order of true/false as given in

the codes.

S1 : Vapour pressure is a colligative property.

S2 : Boiling point of a solution is always higher than that of the pure solvent.

S3 : Acetic acid undergoes dissociation in benzene. The molar mass of acetic acid,

determined by elevation of boiling point is always lower than its normal molar mass.

S4 : Entropy of solution is more than entropy of pure solvent.

(a) FFFF

(b) FFFT

(c) TTTT

(d) TFTF

18. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction ?

(a) XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF

(b) XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF

(c) XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2

(d) XeF2 + PF5 → [XeF]+PF


19. The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbitals to

orbital of radius 211.6 pm. This transition is associated with :

(a) Lyman series

(b) Balmer series

(c) Paschen series

(d) Brackett series


20.
For the given reaction:

What is 'A'?
(a) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(b)
(c)

(d)

21. A solution of sugar is obtained by mixing 200g of its 25% solution and 500g of its

40% solution (both by mass). The mass percentage of the resulting sugar solution is

____ (Nearest integer)

22.2NO(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2NOCl

This reaction was studied at – 10ºC and the following data was obtained

run [NO]0 [Cl2]0 r0

1 0.10 0.10 0.18

2 0.10 0.20 0.35

3 0.20 0.20 1.40

[NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations and r0 is the initial reaction rate.

The overall order of the reaction is .................. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

23. The number of species from the following which have square pyramidal structure is

_______ P F5 , BrF

4
, I F5 , BrF5 , XeOF4 , I Cl

24. For a chemical reaction A + B ⇌ C+D

(Δr H
Θ
= 80 kJ mol
−1
) the entropy change Δr S
Θ
depends on the temperature

T (in K) as Δr S
Θ
= 2T (J K
−1
mol
−1
) .

Minimum temperature above which it will become spontaneous is ____________K.

(Integer)

25. A proton and a Li3+ nucleus is accelerated by the same potential. If λLi and λp

λLi
denote the de Broglie wavelengths of Li3+ and proton respectively, then the value
λp
is x × 10-1. The value of x is _______. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Mass of Li3+ = 8.3 mass of proton]

26. Let f (x) be a differentiable function defined on [0,2] such that f



(x) = f

(2 − x)

for all x ∈ (0, 2) , f (0) = 1 and f (2) = e .


2
Then the value of ∫ f (x) dx is
0

(a) 2(1 – e2)

(b) 1 – e2

(c) 2(1 + e2)

(d) 1 + e2
√63
27. A possible value of tan(
1

4
sin
−1

8
) is :

(a) 2 √2 − 1

(b) 1

√7

(c) 1

2√ 2

(d) √7 − 1

28. Let a,b,c be in arithmetic progression. Let the centroid of the triangle with vertices

(a, c) , (2, b) and (a, b) be (


10

3
,
7

3
) . If α, β are the roots of the equation

ax
2
+ bx + 1 = 0, the value of α
2
+ β
2
− αβ is

(a) −
71

256

(b) 69

256

(c) −
69

256

(d) 71

256

29. If the coefficients of the three successive terms in the binomial expansion of

are in the ratio 1 : 7 : 42, then the first of these terms in the expansion is :
n
(1 + x)

(a) 6th term of binomial expansion of (1 + x)n

(b) 7th term of binomial expansion of (1 + x)n

(c) 8th term of binomial expansion of (1 + x)n

(d) 9th term of binomial expansion of (1 + x)n


30. If tanA and tanB are the roots of the quadratic equation, 3x
2
− 10x − 25 = 0 , then

the value of 3sin


2
(A + B) − 10 sin(A + B) ⋅ cos(A + B) − 25cos
2
(A + B) is :

(a) – 10

(b) 10

(c) – 25

(d) 25

31. For the system of linear equations:

x − 2y = 1, x − y + kz = −2, ky + 4z = 6, k ∈ R

consider the following statements :

(A) The system has unique solution if k ≠ 2, k ≠ −2.

(B) The system has unique solution if k = –2.

(C) The system has unique solution if k = 2.

(D) The system has no-solution if k = 2.

(E) The system has infinite number of solutions if k ≠ –2.

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) (B) and (E) only

(b) (A) and (E) only

(c) (A) and (D) only

(d) (C) and (D) only

32. The intersection of three lines x − y = 0, x + 2y = 3 and 2x + y = 6 is a:

(a) Equilateral triangle

(b) Right angled triangle

(c) Isosceles triangle

(d) None of the above

33. The number of integral values of m for which the equation

(1 + m ) x
2 2
− 2 (1 + 3m) x + (1 + 8m) = 0 has no real root is:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) infinitely many


(d) 3

34. The number of seven digit integers with sum of the digits equal to 10 and formed

by using the digits 1, 2 and 3 only is :

(a) 35

(b) 82

(c) 77

(d) 42

35. If (1, 5, 35) , (7, 5, 5) , (1, λ, 7) and (2λ, 1, 2) are coplanar, then the sum of all possible

values of λ is :

(a) 44

(b) 39

(c) −
44

(d) −
39

36. Let R = {(P , Q) |P and Q are at the same distance from the origin} be a relation,

then the equivalence class of (1, –1) is the set :

(a) S = {(x, y) |x
2
+ y
2
= 4}

(b) S = {(x, y) |x
2
+ y
2
= 1}

(c) S = {(x, y) |x
2
+ y
2
= 2}

(d) S = {(x, y) |x
2
+ y
2
= √2}

37. In an increasing geometric series, the sum of the second and the sixth term is 25

and the product of the third and fifth term is 25. Then, the sum of 4
th
,6
th
and 8
th
terms

is equal to :

(a) 26

(b) 30

(c) 32

(d) 35
2
t
38. Let x = 2t, y = be conic. Let S be the focus and B be the point on the axis of
3
2

the conic such that SA ⊥ BA, where A (2t,


t

3
) is any point on the conic. If k is the

ordinate of the centroid of ΔSAB, then lim k is equal to


t → 1
17
(a)
18
19
(b)
18
11
(c)
18
13
(d)
18

39. The distance of the point having position vector ^ ^ ^


− i + 2 j + 6k from the straight line

passing through the point (2, 3, −4) and parallel to the vector, ^ ^ ^
6 i + 3 j − 4k is:

(a) 7

(b) 4 √3

(c) 6

(d) 2√13

π π
√3 sin( +h)−cos( +h)
6 6

40. The value of lim 2 { } is :


√3h(√3 cos h−sin h)
h→0

(a) 2

√3

(b) 2

(c) 4

(d) 3

41. The range of a ∈ R for which the function

f (x) = (4a − 3) (x + log 5) + 2 (a − 7) cot(


e
x

2
)sin
2
(
x

2
), x ≠ 2nπ, n ∈ N has critical

points is:

(a) (−∞, −1]

(b) (−3, 1)

(c) [−
4

3
, 2]

(d) [1, ∞)

2
sin x
√3e
42. If the local maximum value of the function is ,
π k
f (x) = ( ) , x ∈ (0, )
2 sin x 2 e

8
8

then is equal to
k k 8
( ) + + k
e e 5

(a) e
3
+ e
6
+ e
11

(b) e
3
+ e
6
+ e
10

(c) e
5
+ e
6
+ e
11

(d) e
3
+ e
5
+ e
11
43. Let a, b, c be three distinct real numbers, none equal to one. If the vectors

a i
^ ^
+ j + k,
^ ^ ^
i + bj + k and ^ ^ ^
i + j + ck are coplanar, then 1−a
1
+
1−b
1
+
1−c
1
is equal to

(a) 2

(b) –2

(c) –1

(d) 1
2√ 3
44. Let P( ,
6
), Q, R and S be four points on the ellipse 9x
2
+ 4y
2
= 36 . Let PQ
√7 √7

p
and RS be mutually perpendicular and pass through the origin. If 1
2
+
1
2
=
q
,
(P Q) (RS)

where p and q are coprime, then p + q is equal to

(a) 137

(b) 157

(c) 143

(d) 147
6
1
1

45. If the fourth term in the binomial expansion of ( x
1+log
10
x
+ x 12 ) is equal to 200,

and x > 1, then the value of x is:

(a) 100

(b) 10

(c) 103

(d) 104

46. The total number of 3 × 3 matrices A having entries from the set {0, 1, 2, 3} such

that the sum of all the diagonal entries of AA


T
is 9, is equal to _______.
2

k
47. If the integral ∫ ||x − 1| − x| dx = then k is equal to :
2
0

48. Let a point P be such that its distance from the point (5, 0) is thrice the distance

of P from the point (–5, 0). If the locus of the point P is a circle of radius r, then 4r2 is

equal to _____.

(Round off the answer to nearest integer)


21 21
(−1+i√3) (1+i√3)
49. Let i = √−1. If 24
+ 24
= k, and n = [|k|] be the greatest integral part
(1−i) (1+i)

n+5 n+5

of Then is equal to _____.


2
|k| . ∑ (j + 5) − ∑ (j + 5)
j=0 j=0

β
50. If a + α = 1, b + β = 2 and af (x) + αf (
1

x
) = bx +
x
, x ≠ 0, then the value of the
1
f (x)+f ( )
x

expression 1
is _____.
x+
x

51.
A hairpin like shape as shown in figure is made by bending a long current carrying wire.
What is the magnitude of a magnetic field at point P which lies on the centre of the
semicircle?

μ0 I
(a) (2 − π)
4πr
μ0 I
(b) (2 + π)
4πr
μ0 I
(c) (2 + π)
2πr
μ0 I
(d) (2 − π)
2πr
52.
The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have resistances as shown in the figure. A
galvanometer of 15 Ω resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the current through
the galvanometer when a potential difference of 10 V is maintained across AC.

(a) 2.44μA

(b) 2.44mA

(c) 4.87mA
(d) 4.87μA

53.
Two identical blocks A and B each of mass m resting on the smooth horizontal floor
are connected by a light spring of natural length L and spring constant K. A third block
C of mass m moving with a speed v along the line joining A and B collides elastically
with A. The maximum compression in the spring is:

m
(a) v√
2K

mv
(b) √
2K

mv
(c) √
K

m
(d) √
2K

54. Two identical photocathodes receive the light of frequencies f1 and f2 respectively.

If the velocities of the maximum energetic photo electrons coming out are v1 and v2

respectively, then
2h
(a) v
2

1
− v
2

2
= [f1 − f2 ]
m
2h
(b) v
2

1
+ v
2

2
= [f1 + f2 ]
m
1

2h 2

(c) v1 + v2 = [ (f1 + f2 )]
m
1

2h 2

(d) v1 − v2 = [ (f1 − f2 )]
m

55. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If E be the total energy of a satellite moving around the earth, then its
E
potential energy will be .
2

Statement II: The kinetic energy of a satellite revolving in an orbit is equal to the half

the magnitude of total energy E.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below

(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct


(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
56.
A sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling with an initial speed of 1m/s goes up
an inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal plane, without
0

slipping. How long will the sphere take to return to the starting point A? (Take
g = 10 ms ) −2

(a) 0.60 s

(b) 0.52 s

(c) 0.56 s

(d) 0.80 s

57. In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of equal

amplitude A and wavelength λ . In another experiment with the same set up the two

slits are sources of equal amplitude A and wavelengthλbut are incoherent. The ratio of

the intensity of light at the mid-point of the screen in the first case to that in the

second case is

(a) 4: 1

(b) 1: 1

(c) 2: 1

(d) 1: 4

58. An air bubble of volume 1 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep to the

surface at a temperature of 12°C. The atmospheric pressure is 1×105 Pa, the density of

water is 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2. There is no difference of the temperature of

water at the depth of 40 m and on the surface. The volume of air bubble when it

reaches the surface will be:

(a) 3cm
3

(b) 4cm
3

(c) 2cm
3
(d) 5cm
3

59. 1 kg of water at 100°C is converted into steam at 100°C by boiling at atmospheric

pressure. The volume of water changes from 1.00 × 10–3 m3 as a liquid to 1.671m3 as

steam. The change in internal energy of the system during the process will be

(Given latent heat of vaporisation = 2257 kJ/kg, Atmospheric pressure = 1 × 105 Pa)

(a) – 2090 kJ

(b) + 2090 kJ

(c) – 2426 kJ

(d) + 2476 kJ

60. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The equivalent resistance of resistors in a series combination is smaller

than least resistance used in the combination.

Statement II: The resistivity of the material is independent of temperature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given

below:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

61. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is

labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: A spherical body of radius (5 ± 0.1) mm having a particular density is falling

through a liquid of constant density. The percentage error in the calculation of its

terminal velocity is 4%.

Reason R: The terminal velocity of the spherical body falling through the liquid is

inversely proportional to its radius.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given

below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A


(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(c) A is false but R is true

(d) A is true but R is false

62. The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio

of collision frequency of air molecules before and after the increase in number

respectively is:

(a) 1.25

(b) 0.75

(c) 0.25

(d) 0.50

63. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: An AC circuit undergoes electrical resonance if it contains either a

capacitor or an inductor.

Statement II: An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor or a pure inductor consumes

high power due to its non-zero power factor.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given

below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true


64.
A p-n junction Diode (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating
current source (V) is connected in the circuit. Select the output across R.

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

65. A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 5 minutes. The temperature of the surrounding

is 20°C. The time it takes to cool from 60°C to 40°C is:

(a) 500 s
25
(b) s
3

(c) 420 s

(d) 450 s

66. A coil of 200 Ω resistance and 1.0 H inductance is connected to an A.C. source of

frequency 200/2π Hz. Phase angle between potential and current will be

(a) 30°

(b) 90°

(c) 45°

(d) 0°

67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is

labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is

switched off.

Reason R: Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion.

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below.

(a) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(b) A is not correct but R is correct

(c) Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation of A


(d) A is correct but R is not correct

68. An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed from one side the apparent distance

of the bubble is 12 cm. When viewed from the opposite side, the apparent distance of

the bubble is observed as 4 cm. If the side of the ice cube is 24 cm, the refractive

index of the ice cube is


6
(a)
5
3
(b)
2
4
(c)
3
2
(d)
3

69. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room

temperature. The number of spectral lines emitted will be:

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 1

(d) 3

70. Two electrons each are fixed at a distance ‘2d’. A third charge proton placed at the

midpoint is displaced slightly by a distance x (x << d) perpendicular to the line joining

the two fixed charges. Proton will execute simple harmonic motion having angular

frequency : (m = mass of charged particle) (q = magnitude of charge on electron)


1

2 2
q
(a) (
3
)
2πε0 md
1

3 2
2πε0 md
(b) ( )
2
q
1

2 2
2q
(c) (
3
)
πε0 md
1

3 2
πε0 md
(d) ( )
2
2q

71. The length of a wire becomes l1 and l2 when 100 N and 120 N tensions are applied
1
respectively. If 10 l2 = 11 l1, the natural length of wire will be l1 . Here the value of x is
x

_____
72. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per

centimetre and carries a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5A and angular

frequency 700 rad s–1. The central axes of the loop and solenoid coincide. The

amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is x × 10–4 V. The value of x is ________.
22
(take, π = )
7

73. An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360

ms–1. The frequency of the second harmonic is ________ Hz.

74. 64 identical drops each charged upto potential of 10 mV are combined to form a

bigger drop. The potential of the bigger drop will be _____ mV.

75. Glycerin of density 1.25×103kg m–3 is flowing through the conical section of a

horizontal pipe. The area of cross-section of the pipe at its ends are 10 cm2 and 5 cm2

and pressure drop across its length is 3 Nm-2. The rate of flow of glycerin through the

pipe is x×10-5 m3s-1. The value of x is ______.


Answer Key

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B
7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C
13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. C
19. B 20. C 21. 36.00 22. 3.00 23. 3.00 24. 200.00
25. 2.00 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. C
31. C 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. C
37. D 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. A
43. D 44. B 45. B 46. 766.00 47. 3.00 48. 56.00
49. 310.00 50. 2.00 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. A
55. B 56. C 57. C 58. D 59. B 60. D
61. D 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. C
67. C 68. B 69. D 70. A 71. 2 72. 44
73. 900 74. 160 75. 4
Solutions

1. (B) .
2. (A)
During trisubstitution, the acetanilide group attached to the benzene ring is more
electron donating than the methyl group attached, owing to +M effect, and therefore,
the incoming electrophile would prefer ortho w.r.t the acetanilide group.

3. (B)

4. (A)

β-D(+) Glucose + β-D(+) galactose (β-1,4- glycosidic linkage)


5. (C)
Reaction involved:

6. (B)

2,5-Dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid
1
pH = 7 + (pKa − pKb )
2

7. (D) 1
= 7 + (3.2 − 3.4)
2

= 6.9

8. (B)
(A)

Rosenmund reaction
(B)

Clemmensen reaction
(C)

HVZ reaction
(D)

Hoffmann bromamide reaction


9. (A) N1v1 = N2v2

⇒ 0.02v1 = 0.02 × 10

⇒ v1 = 10ml

10. (D)

11. (B) All are correct

(A) SN2 reaction decreases with increase in steric crowding.

(B) SN1 reaction increases with stability of carbocation.

(C) EAS reaction decreases with decrease in electron density.

(D) Presence of electron withdrawing group at ortho and para-position to a halogen in

haloarene increase nucleophilic aryl substitution.


12. (C)
13. (A) Complex
2− 2+ 6 2, 1 1, 1, 1
(i) [F eCl4 ] = Fe = 3d , eg t2 g , μ = 4.9 BM

3−
3+ 6 2, 2, 2 0, 0
(ii) [Co(C2 O4 ) ] = Co = 3d , t2 g , eg μ = 0 BM
3

2− +6 1 1, 0 0, 0, 0
(iii) M nO = Mn = 3d , eg t2 g , μ = 1.73 BM
4

14. (D)

15. (C)

Exist in only one form


16. (A) Order of IE is B < Be < O < N

17. (B) S1 : ΔP

P
is a colligative property.

S2 : Boiling point of a solution is always higher than that of the pure solvent incase of

non volatile solute.

S3 : Due to association molar mass increases.

S4 : True

18. (C) Xe is oxidised from +4(in XeF4) to +6(in XeF6)

Oxygen is reduced from +1 (in O2F2) to zero (in O2)

19. (B) R = 211.6 pm = 2.11 Å


o
2

R = 0.529 × n

Z
= 2.11A
2
n = 4 ⇒ n = 2

20. (C)

21. (36.00) Total mass of sugar in mixture of 25% of 200 and 40% of 500 g

Sugar solution = 0.25 × 200 + 0.40 × 500

= 50 + 200 = 250 g

Total mass of solution = 200 + 500 = 700 g


250
Mass of sugar in solution = × 100 = 35.7% ≈ 36%
700

22. (3.00) Exp. (I) 0.18 = K(0.1)x(0.1)y….(1)

Exp. (II) 0.35 = K(0.1)x(0.2)y….(2)

Exp. (III) 1.40 = K(0.2)x(0.2)y….(3)

(2) ÷ (3)
x y
0.35 K × (0.1) (0.2)
= x y
1.40 K(0.2) (0.2)
x
1 1
= ( ) ⇒ x = 2
4 2

(1) ÷ (2)
y
1 1
= ( ) ⇒ y = 1
2 2

23. (3.00)
PF5
sp3d (0 lone pair)
Trigonal bipyramidal

BrF4– ,
sp3d2 (2 lone pair)
square planar
IF5
sp3d2 (1 lone pair)

square pyramidal
BrF5
sp3d2 (1 lone pair)

square pyramidal
XeOF4
sp3d2 (1 lone pair)

square pyramidal
ICl4 –

sp3d2 (2 lone pair)

square planar
24. (200.00) For a reaction to be spontaneous

ΔG = (ΔH − T ΔS) < 0

As ΔH = +ve & ΔS = +ve

So reaction will be spontaneous above equilibrium temperature.


At equilibrium ΔH − T ΔS = 0

T [2T ]
80 − = 0
1000
2
2T
80 =
1000
2 3
T = 40 × 10

T = 200K

25. (2.00)
1
λDB ∝
√2mK. E.

λLi3+ mp × e p V
= √
λP 8.3mp × 3ep V

1 1
= √ = = 0.2 = 2 × 10
−1

25 5

26. (D) f

(x) = f

(2 − x)

On integrating both side f (x) = −f (2 − x) + c

Put x = 0
2
f (0) + f (2) = c ⇒ c = 1 + e

2
⇒ f (x) + f (2 − x) = 1 + e . . . (i)

2 1
2
I = ∫ f (x) dx = ∫ {f (x) + f (2 − x)} dx = (1 + e )

0 0

27. (B)
−1 √63 √63
Let sin
8
= θ ⇒ sin θ =
8

1+cos θ
θ 3
1−cos 1−√ 1−
1 −1 √63 θ 2 2 4 1
tan( sin ) = tan( ) = = = =
8 θ
4 4 sin 1−cos θ √7
√7
2

2 4

28. (A) 2b = a + c

2a+2 10 2b+c 7
= and =
3 3 3 3

2b + c = 7
⇒ a = 4 } solving,
2b − c = 4

11 3
b = c =
4 2

∴ Quadratic Equation is 4x
2
+
11

4
x + 1 = 0

The value of
2 121 3 71
∴ (α + β) − 3αβ = − = −
256 4 256
29. (B) Let three successive terms are th th th
r , (r + 1) and (r + 2)

n n n
Cr−1 : Cr : Cr+1 = 1 : 7 : 42

n
Cr n − r + 1 7
⇒ = =
n
Cr−1 r 1

⇒ 8r = n + 1

n
Cr+1 n − r 42
Also, n
= = = 6
Cr r + 1 7

⇒ 7r = n − 6

⇒ r = 7

Hence, 7th term is the first of these terms in the expansion.


tan A+ tan B
30. (C) tan(A+B)=
1− tan A tan B

Using the fact that tanA and tan B are the roots of 3x
2
− 10x − 25 = 0 , we get
10

3 5
tan(A+B)= =
28 14
3

5
∴ sin(A + B) =
√221

14
cos(A + B) =
√221

2 2
∴ 3sin (A + B) − 10 sin(A + B) cos(A + B) − 25cos (A + B)

25 70 196
= 3 × − 10 × − 25 ×
221 221 221
75 − 700 − 4900
=
221

= −25

∣1 −2 0∣
∣ ∣ 2
D = 1 −1 k = 4 − k
∣ ∣
∣0 k 4∣
31. (C)
∣ 1 −2 0∣
∣ ∣
D1 = −2 −1 k = − (k + 10) (k + 2)
∣ ∣
∣ 6 k 4∣

For unique solution D ≠ 0 ⇒ k ≠ ±2

For no solution, D = 0, D1 ≠ 0

⇒ k = 2

At k = −2, D1 = D2 = D3 = D = 0

So system has infinite solution.


32. (C)

L1 : x − y = 0

L2 : x + 2y = 3

L3 : 2x + y = 6

A (2, 2)

B (1, 1)

C (3, 0)

⇒ AB = √2, BC = √5, AC = √5

∴ Triangle is isosceles
33. (C) Given equation is
2 2
(1 + m ) x − 2 (1 + 3m) x + (1 + 8m) = 0

∵ equation has no real solution

∴ D < 0
2 2
⇒ 4(1 + 3m) < 4 (1 + m ) (1 + 8m)

2 2 3
⇒ 1 + 9m + 6m < 1 + 8m + m + 8m
3 2
⇒ 8m − 8m + 2m > 0

2 2
⇒ 2m (4m − 4m + 1) > 0 ⇒ 2m(2m − 1) > 0

1 1
⇒ m > 0 and m ≠ [∵ is not an integer]
2 2

⇒ number of integral values of m are infinitely many.

34. (C) Case 1: 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 3


7!
ways = = 42
5!

Case 2:1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2
7!
ways = = 35
4!.3!

Total ways = 42 + 35 = 77

35. (A) If points are coplanar then


∣ 6 0 −30 ∣
∣ ∣
0 λ − 5 −28 = 0
∣ ∣
∣ 2λ − 1 −4 −33 ∣

2
6 [−33λ + 165 − 112] + 30 [2λ − 10λ − λ + 5] = 0

2
−198λ + 318 + 60λ − 330λ + 150 = 0
2
60λ − 528λ + 468 = 0

528 44
Sum of all value of λ = =
60 5

36. (C) As the distance from origin of the point (1, −1) is √2 so the locus of all the

points at √2 distance is x
2
+ y
2
= 2 .

Hence the equivalence class containing (1, −1) for the relation x
2
+ y
2
= 2

25
37. (D) ar + ar
4
= and ar .
5
ar
4
= 25 ⇒ ar
3
= 5
2
2
r + r 5
∴ =
3
r 2

4 2
⇒ 2 + 2r = 5r

4 2
⇒ 2r − 5r + 2 = 0

1
⇒ r
2
= 2 or r
2
= Reject
2

Now, ar
3
+ ar
5
+ ar
7
= 5 + ar
5 2
(1 + r ) = 5 + 5.2 (1 + 2) = 35

38. (D)

parabola x
2
= 12y

SA ⊥ SB

so, mAS ⋅ mAB = − 1


2 2
t t
(3 − ) (α − )
3 3

⋅ = −1
(0 − 2t) (0 − 2t)

by solving
2 4
27t + t
3α =
2
t − 9
2
t
α + + 3
3
ordinate of centroid of ΔSAB = K =
3
2
9 + 3α + t
k =
9
2 4
1 27t + t 13
2
lim k = lim (9 + t + ) =
9 2 18
t → 1 t → 1 (t − 9)
39. (A)
y−3 z+4
Equation of the line is
x−2
= =
6 3 −4

Let the point M on the line l is (6λ + 2, 3λ + 3, −4λ − 4)


Direction ratio’s of PM is (6λ + 3, 3λ + 1, −4λ − 10)
⇒ (6λ + 3) (6) + (3λ + 1) (3) + (−4λ − 10) (−4) = 0

⇒ λ = −1 ⇒ M ≡ (−4, 0, 0)

∴ P M = √9 + 4 + 36 = 7
√3 π 1 π
( sin(h+ )− cos(h+ ))

40. (C)
2 6 2 6

lim 2 ⋅
√3 1
h→0 √3h( cosh − sinh)
2 2

π π π π
(cos sin(h+ )−sin cos(h+ ))
6 6 6 6

lim 2 ⋅
π π
h→0 √3h(sin cos h−cos sin h)
3 3

π π
sin(h+ − )
6 6

lim 2 ⋅
π
h→0 √3h⋅sin( −h)
3

2⋅1 2 4
lim π
= ⋅ 2 =
√3 sin 3 3
h→0 3

41. (C) We have,


x x
2
f (x) = (4a − 3) (x + log 5) + 2 (a − 7) cot( )sin ( )
e
2 2

= (4a − 3) (x + log 5) + (a − 7) sin x


e


f (x) = (4a − 3) + (a − 7) cos x

If f (x) does not have critical points, then f



(x) = 0 does not have any solution in R .

Now, f

(x) = 0

4a − 3
cos x =
7 − a

∣ 4a − 3 ∣
⇒ ∣ ∣ ⩽ 1 (∵ |cos x| ⩽ 1)
∣ 7 − a ∣

4a − 3
⇒ −1 ⩽ ⩽ 1
7 − a

⇒ a − 7 ⩽ 4a − 3 ⩽ 7 − a

4
⇒ a ⩾ − and a ⩽ 2
3
4
Thus, f

(x) = 0 has solution in R , If − ⩽ a ⩽ 2
3
4
∴ a ∈ [− , 2]
3
2
sin x
√3e
42. (A) Let y = (
2 sin x
)

2 √3e
ln y = sin x. ln( )
2 sin x

1 √3e 2 2 sin x √3e



y = ln( )2 sin x cos x + sin x (−cosec x cot x)
y 2 sin x 2
√3e

dy √3e
= 0 ⇒ ln( )2 sin x cos x − sin x cos x = 0
dx 2 sin x

√3e
⇒ sin x cos x [2 ln( ) − 1] = 0
2 sin x

3e
⇒ ln( ) = 1
2
4sin x

3e
⇒ = e
2
4sin x

2 3
⇒ sin x =
4

√3 π
⇒ sin x = (as x ∈ (0, ))
2 2

√3e 4 3 dy
⇒ local max. value = ( ) = e8 =
k

e
[Also change sign from + to – at
√3 dx
π
x = ]
3

8 11
⇒ k = e

8
8
k k 8 3 6 11
⇒ ( ) + + k = e + e + e
e e
5

43. (D)
∣a 1 1∣
∣ ∣
1 b 1 = 0
∣ ∣
∣1 1 c ∣

C2 → C2 − C1 , C3 → C3 − C1

∣a 1 − a 1 − a∣
∣ ∣
1 b − 1 0 = 0
∣ ∣
∣1 0 c − 1 ∣

a (b − 1) (c − 1) − (1 − a) (c − 1) + (1 − a) (1 − b) = 0

a (1 − b) (1 − c) + (1 − a) (1 − c) + (1 − a) (1 − b) = 0

a 1 1
+ + = 0
1−a 1−b 1−c

1 1 1
⇒ −1 + + + = 0
1−a 1−b 1−c

1 1 1
⇒ + + = 1
1−a 1−b 1−c

44. (B)

Let R (2 cos θ, 3 sin θ)


As OP ⊥OR

So 3 sin θ √7
× = −1
2 cos θ 2√ 3

√7

−2
⇒ tan θ =
3√ 3

−6√3 6√ 3
or
6 −6
⇒ R( , ) R( , )
√31 √31 √31 √31

Now =
1
2
+
1
2
=
1

4
(
1
2
+
1
2
)
(P Q) (RS) (OP ) (OR)

1 1 1 1 7 31
= ( + ) = ( + )
48 144 48
4 4 144
7 31

13
=
144

⇒ p + q = 157

45. (B) ∴ Fourth term is equal to 200


3
1
1
3
( )
6 √ 1+log x
T4 = C3 ( x 10
) (x 12 ) = 200

3
1
2(1+log x)
⇒ 20x 10
. x 4 = 200
1 3
+
4 2(1+log x)
⇒ x 10
= 10

Taking log10 on both sides and putting log10 x = t


1 3
2
( + )t = 1 ⇒ t + 3t − 4 = 0
4 2 (1 + t)

2
⇒ t + 4t − t − 4 = 0 ⇒ t (t + 4) − 1 (t + 4) = 0

⇒ t = 1 or t = −4

log x = 1 ⇒ x = 10
10

−4
or log x = −4 ⇒ x = 10
10

According to the question x > 1, ∴ x = 10.


x y z x a d
⎡ ⎤⎡ ⎤

46. (766.00) AA
T
= ⎢a b c ⎥⎢ y b e ⎥

⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦
d e f z c f
2 2 2
x + y + z ax + by + cz dx + ey + f z
⎡ ⎤
2 2 2
= ⎢ ax + by + cz a + b + c ad + be + cf ⎥

⎣ 2 2 2 ⎦
dx + ey + f z ad + be + cf d + e + f

T 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
T r (AA ) = x + y + z + a + b + c + d + e + f = 9

All → 1 1
9!
One 3, rest = 0 = 9
8!
9!
Two 2, one 1 and rest 0 = 63 × 4 = 252
2!6!
9!
= 63 × 8 = 504
One 2, five1, rest 0 5!3!

= 766
2

47. (3.00) ∫ ||x − 1| − x| dx

1 2

= ∫ |1 − x − x| dx + ∫ |x − 1 − x| dx

0 1

1 2

= ∫ |2x − 1| dx + ∫ 1 dx

0 1

2 1 2

= ∫ (1 − 2x) dx + ∫ (2x − 1) dx + ∫ 1 dx

1
0 1
2

1 1 1 1
= [( − 0) − ( − 0)] + (1 − ) − (1 − ) + 1
2 4 4 2

1 1 3 1 3
= − + − + 1 =
2 4 4 2 2

48. (56.00) Internal point which divides (5, 0) and (−5, 0) in the ratio 3 : 1 is
−5
( , 0)
2

And external point which divides (5, 0) and (−5, 0) in the ratio 3 : 1 is (−10, 0)

−5 15
2r = ( + 10) = = 7.5
2 2

2
(2r) = 56.25 ≈ 56
21 21

(−1 + i√3) (1 + i√3)

49. (310.00) 12
+
12
= k
(−2i) (2i)

1 21 21
⇒ [(1 + i√3) − (1 − i√3) ] = k
12
2

1 21 21
π π π π
21 21
⇒ [2 (cos + i sin ) − 2 (cos − i sin ) ] = k
12 3 3 3 3
2

21π
9
⇒ i2 (2 sin ) = k
3

⇒ k = 0

Now n = [|x|] = 0
5 5 5

Then
2 2
∑ (j + 5) − ∑ (j + 5) = ∑ (j + 5) − (j + 5)

J =0 j=0 J =0

5 5 5 5

2 2
∑ (j + 9j + 20) = (∑ j + 9 ∑ j + 20 ∑ 1)

J =0 J =1 J =1 J =1

= 310

1 β
50. (2.00) af (x) + αf ( ) = bx + . . . (i)
x x

1
x →
x
1 b
af ( ) + αf (x) = + βx . . . (ii)
x x

(i) + (ii)
1 1
(a + α) [f (x) + f ( )] = (x + ) (b + β)
x x

1
f (x) + f ( )
x 2
= = 2
1 1
x +
x

51. (B) B = 2 × Bst.wire + Bloop

μ0 i μ0 i π
B = 2 × + ( )
4πr 2r 2π
μ0 i
B = (2 + π)
4πr
52. (C)

x − 10 x − y x − 0
+ + = 0
100 15 10
53x − 20y = 30 ……(1)
y − 10 y − x y − 0
+ + = 0
60 15 5
17y − 4x = 10 …….(2)
On solving (1) & (2)
x = 0.865 V
y = 0.792 V
ΔV = 0.073V &R = 15Ω

i = 4.87mA
V
53. (A) C comes to rest and Vcm of A & B =
2

Maximum compression occurs when velocities of A and B are equal.

By using energy conservation:


1 2 1 2 1 2
mv − mv = Kx
2 4 2

m
v√ = x
2K

1
54. (A) mv
2

1
= hf1 − ϕ
2
1
2
mv = hf2 − ϕ
2
2
2h
2 2
v − v = (f1 − f2 )
1 2
m
−GM m
55. (B) Energy of satellite in orbit E = .
2R
−GM m
PE of satellite in orbit U =
R

⇒ U = 2E

KE of satellite in orbit K = E – U
GM m
K = = (−E)
2R
g sin θ 5 10 25
56. (C) a = = × = m/s
2

I 7 2 7
1 +
mR2

2v0 2 × 1 × 7
t = =
a 25

= 0.56s

57. (C)

Resultant Intensity

I = (√ I 1 + √ I 2 )

⇒ I = (I + I + 2√(I1 I2 ))
⇒ I = 2I + 2I

⇒ I = 4I . . . (1)

For calculating the intensity of the Young's double slit experiment with the incoherent

sources, another formula is used

I = I1 + I2

⇒ I = I + I

⇒ I = 2I . . . (2)

The ratio of the intensity,

4I : 2I = 2 : 1

58. (D) 5
P = P0 + ρgh = 10 P a + 10
3 5
× 10 × 40 = 5 × 10 P a

At T is constant

P V = P0 V 0

5 3 5 3
⇒ 5 × 10 P a × 1cm = 10 P a × V0 ⇒ V0 = 5cm

59. (B) ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW

∴ ΔU = ΔQ − ΔW

= mLv − P ΔV

3
= (1Kg) (2257 × 10 J /kg)

5 3 −3 3
− (1 × 10 P a) (1.671m − 1 × 10 m )
3 3
= 2257 × 10 J − 167 × 10 J

= 2090 KJ

60. (D) Req = R1 + R2 + R3 So St–1 False

Resistivity depends on temperature. St–2 False

61. (D) Terminal velocity of a spherical body in liquid


2
⇒ Vt ∝ r

ΔVt Δr
⇒ = 2.
Vt r

ΔVt (0.1)
⇒ × 100% = 2 × 100 = 4%
Vt 5

Also Vt ∝ r
2

Reason R is false

62. (C) Collision frequency,


V V
2
f = = = √2πd vnv
λ 1
( )
√2πd 2 n
v

∴f ∝ nv, nv is number density


19
f1 nv 3 × 10
1
= = = 0.25
−19
f2 n v2 12 × 10

63. (A) For resonance, φ = 0, hence both inductor & capacitor must be present. Also

power factor is zero for pure inductor or pure capacitor hence both the component

consume zero average power.

64. (B) It’s a half wave rectifier. Only positive half cycles are conducted across the

diode.

65. (A) Rate of cooling α Temperature difference


80 − 60
= k {70 − 20} . . . (1)
5
60 − 40
= k [50 − 20] . . . (2)
t
4t 50
=
20 30
25
t = min = 500 sec
3

⇒ t = 500 seconds
66. (C) A coil of 200 Ω resistance and 1.0H inductance
ωL
tan ϕ =
R

tan ϕ = 1

tan ϕ = tan 45

ϕ = 45

67. (C) Fact


dactual
68. (B) dapparent =
μrel
x
12 = ... (1)
μ

24 − x
4 = ... (2)
μ

On solving we get μ = 1.5

69. (D) According to Bohr’s postulates, an electron makes jump to higher energy orbital

if it absorbs a photon of energy equal to difference between the energies of an excited

state and the ground state. Assuming that collided electron takes energy equal to

10.2eV or 12.0 eV from incoming electron beam (some part lost due to collision). The
3(3−1)
maximum excited state is n = 3. So, number of spectral lines is 2
= 3

70. (A)

Fnetq = − [2Fq/q cos θ]

2
1 q x
Fnetq = −2. . .
2
4πε0 √d 2 + x2
2 2
( √d + x )

2
q x
= −
2πε0 3/2
2 2
(d + x )

For x << d,
2
q
Fnet q = − x
3
2πε0 d
2
q
∴ a = − x
3
2πε0 . md
Comparing with equation of SHM 2
(a = −ω x)

2
q
∴ ω = √
3
2πε0 md

71. (2) Let the original length be 'l0'

When T1 = 100 N, Extension = l1 – l0

When T2 = 120 N, Extension = l2 – l0

Then 100 = K (l1 – l0) ... (1)

And 120 = K (l2 – l0) ... (2)


1 5 ℓ1 − ℓ0
⇒ =
2 6 ℓ2 − ℓ0

5ℓ2 − 5ℓ0 = 6ℓ1 − 6ℓ0

ℓ0 = 6ℓ1 − 5ℓ2

11ℓ1
ℓ0 = 6ℓ1 − 5 ( )
10

11ℓ1
ℓ0 = 6ℓ1 −
2
ℓ1
ℓ0 =
2

∴x=2
72. (44)

Bdue to solenoid = μ0 nI

Φthrough square = μ0 nI × A (A = Area)

dI
Emf = μ0 nA ×
dt
= μ0 nA × I0 ω cos ωt

Emf amplitude = μ0 nA × I0 ω

50
−7 −4
= 4π × 10 × × 4 × 10 × 2.5 × 700
−2
10
−4
= 44 × 10 V

73. (900)

For second harmonic of open organ pipe


L=λ
V
So frequency of vibration is f =
λ
V V 360
f = = = = 900H z
L 40
λ
100

74. (160)

Let q = charge on each drop


Kq
V = . . . (1)
r
Now for combination of 64 drop
4 4
3 3
64 × πr = πR
3 3
R = 4r
And Q = 64 q
Potential of bigger drop
KQ K64q Kq
= = = 16
R 4r r
= 16 × 10 mV = 160 mV .

Correct answer is 160.


75. (4)

2
ΔP = P1 − P2 = 3 N /m (given)

By continuity eqn
A1 v 1 = A2 v 2
A2
∴ v1 = v2 . . . (1)
A1

By Bernoulli's eqn
1 1
2 2
P1 + ρv = P2 + ρv
1 2
2 2
1
2 2
P1 − P2 = ρ (v − v )
2 1
2
2
1 A
2 2 2
ΔP = ρ (v − v )
2 2 2
2 A
1

2
1 A2
2
ΔP = ρ [1 − ( ) ] v
2
2 A1
2
1 5
3 2
3 = × 1.25 × 10 [1 − ( ) ] v
2
2 10

1 1
3 2
3 = × 1.25 × 10 [1 − ]v
2
2 4

1 3
3 2
3 = × 1.25 × 10 × v
2
2 4
−2
∴ v2 = 8 × 10 m/s

So discharge rate = A2v2


−4 −2
= 5 × 10 × 8 × 10
−5 3
= 4 × 10 m /s

Correct ans is x = 4.

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