REVISION 2
Paper 2 recent recalls
Dr/Ahmed Gad
www.newpetc.com
1
Dr. Ahmed Gad
1- A woman taking rifampicin which is not advised?
a) This medicine might discolour your urine, faeces, sweat, tears, or other body
fluids.
b) Non-hormonal forms of contraception should be used during treatment and
for 4 weeks.
c) Take vitamin B6 to prevent neuropathy.
d) Soft contact lenses may be permanently stained.
2- If a patient has an allergy to penicillin, which is not recommended?
a) Cefaclor
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefdinir
d) Aztreonam
3- Sporicidal agent:
a) Glutaraldehyde
b) Benzalkonium chloride
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Resorcinol
4- Which is not used in Cockcroft gault Equation?
a) Age
b) Body weight
c) Body surface area
d) Serum creatinine
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
2
5- Shingles symptoms should be started up to how many hours?
a) Once rash happened
b) 72 hrs after itching
c) One week after itching
d) 10 days after itching
6- Which is safe in pregnancy?
a) Acyclovir
b) Lisinopril
c) Sulfonamides
d) Warfarin
7- Administration of Alendronate + calcium will cause:
a) Complexation
b) Increase absorption of calcium
c) Increase absorption of Alendronate
d) No interaction will happen.
8- Drug to be adjusted for patients who smoke :
a) Propranolol
b) Ibuprofen
c) Olanzapine
d) Omeprazole
9- Treatment of vertigo:
a) Prochlorperazine
b) Thioridazine
c) Fluphenazine
d) Ciprofloxacin
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
3
10- All can be happened in the interaction between Rifampin & warfarin
except:
a) Pour anticoagulant effect.
b) ↓ INR
c) High bleeding tendency
d) ↓ Effect of warfarin
11- Esomeprazole will cause:
a) ↑ Absorption of itraconazole
b) ↓ Absorption of itraconazole
c) ↑ Clearance of itraconazole
d) ↓ Clearance of itraconazole
12- If the patient Has epilepsy and Mythenia gravies, what is the anticonvulsant that
can be used?
a) Carbamazepine
b) Valproic acid
c) Lacosamide
d) Lamotrigine
13- Which is not used in angina
a) Diltiazem
b) Propranolol
c) Nitroglycerin
d) Perindopril
14- A patient having HTN and asthma, what is the treatment?
a) Propranolol
b) Ramipril
c) Carvedilol
d) Verapamil
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
4
15- To change the opioid dose regimen:
a) Use equianalgesic dose.
b) Cannot change the formula.
c) Use the same dose with other formula.
d) 10 mg morphine injection is equivalent to 10 mg morphine tablet.
16- When clean chemotherapeutic drugs, which is wrong?
a) Wear nitrile or rubber gloves all the time in dispensary.
b) Crushing of tablets should only be done by pharmacists.
c) Non touch techniques should be used to take out from container.
d) Separate designated containers should be used for dispensing.
17- Hypercalcemia is not due to:
a) Deficiency of vitamin D.
b) Increase of Parathyroid hormone
c) Deficiency of Phosphate.
d) Thiazide diuretics.
18- Which laxative cause dependence?
a) Psyllium
b) Mannitol
c) Bisacodyl
d) Docusate sodium
19- Liquid paraffin is:
a) Liquid saturated hydrocarbon.
b) Liquid unsaturated hydrocarbon.
c) Water soluble ointment base.
d) Causing Constipation when administered orally.
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
5
20- Perindopril is used in all the following except:
a) Hypertension.
b) Congestive heart failure.
c) Diabetic nephropathy
d) Angina.
21- Treatment of trichomonas vaginalis .
a) Metronidazole .
b) Amoxicillin .
c) Doxycycline.
d) Miconazole.
22-A prescription of Methotrexate with the dose of 2.5 mg/kg once every two weeks,
how many tablets are required for 20 kg patient for the next 6 months:(1 tablet
= 2.5mg)
a) 520 tabs
b) 240 tabs
c) 260 tabs
d) 120 tabs
23- If the conc. of a drug in the blood is 20mg after 2hrs of administration, and after
20 hrs become 2.5mg, calculate t½ :
a) 3hrs.
b) 6hrs.
c) 8hrs.
d) 10hrs.
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
6
24- We need to prepare 1L of 0.067M NaCl, and 0.9% NaCl is available,
what will we do? (Na= 23, Cl= 35.5)
a) Dilute it with 0.56 L of water.
b) Dilute it with 0.77 L of water.
c) Dilute it with 1L of water.
d) Use without dilution.
25- 12 years old child have the following prescription
Drug A : 25mg/5ml(300ml solution) 75mg at bedtime
Drug B : 120mg/5ml(300ml solution) 150mg bd
Calculate the volume of each drug dispensed for 4 weeks:
a) Drug A 420 ml, Drug B 350 ml
b) Drug A 420 ml, Drug B 175 ml
c) Drug A 840 ml, Drug B 350 ml
d) Drug A 1050 ml, Drug B 2100 ml
26- Drug infusion rate is 2mg/kg/hr. , infused for 12 hours , for 70kg patient. What is
total dose?
a) 24mg
b) 140mg
c) 1680mg
d) 840mg
27- How many grams of water are used to prepare 60 g of potassium acetate
solution have concentration 5% w/w:
a) 300 gm
b) 57 gm
c) 3 gm
d) 5.7 gm
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
7
28- After 5 half-lives the conc. of the drug will be :
a) 1/4
b) 1/8
c) 1/16
d) 1/32
29- You have 500 ml of a steroid solution containing 200mg of dopamine HCL. You
need to infuse this solution at an appropriate rate (ml/minute) to deliver a
dose of 5 mcg/kg/min for 70.5 kg patient. What is the flow rate?
a) 0.1ml/min
b) 0.88 ml/min
c) 0.98 ml/min
d) 8.9 ml/min
30- How many mg of pilocarpine is required to prepare 25ml of 0.5%w/v solution :
a) 0.5mg
b) 1.25mg
c) 12.5mg
d) 125mg
31- If 500 ml of 15%w/v methyl salicylate is diluted to 1750 ml, what is the final conc.:
a) 4.29%w/v
b) 2.14%w/v
c) 6.34%w/v
d) 8.57%w/v
32- Which one of the following antihypertensives cannot be used for a patient
having hypertension + depression?
a) Enalapril
b) Atenolol
c) Verapamil
d) Methyldopa
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
8
33- The interaction between verapamil and digoxin:
a) No interaction
b) Increase digoxin toxicity.
c) Increase excretion of digoxin
d) Increase absorption of verapamil
34- Oleic acid is used in pharmaceutical industry in all except:
a) Emulsifying agents.
b) Anionic surfactant.
c) Solubilizing agents in aerosol products.
d) Lubricating agents in tablet.
35- Which of the following statements is true about vancomycin in skin infections?
a) Vancomycin is the drug of choice for all skin infections caused by (MRSA).
b) Vancomycin is less effective than antistaphylococcal beta-lactams for
methicillin-susceptible S. aureus infections.
c) Vancomycin is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and does not
require parenteral administration.
d) Vancomycin has no risk of serious skin reactions and can be continued even if
signs or symptoms such as a rash or peeling occur.
36- How to dispose of ibuprofen that is expired, unwanted, or unused?
a) Flush it down the toilet
b) Mix it with an unappealing substance and put it in a sealed container or bag.
c) Return it to the pharmacy or a drug take-back program.
d) Throw it away in the original packaging.
37- What are the tophi?
a) Deposits of monosodium urate crystals in people with longstanding high levels
of uric acid in the blood
b) Deposits of calcium phosphate crystals in people with chronic kidney disease
c) Deposits of cholesterol crystals in people with high levels of lipids in the blood
d) Deposits of amyloid fibrils in people with systemic amyloidosis
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
9
38- Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mild dehydration in
children?
a) Dry mouth and tongue
b) No tears when crying.
c) Sunken eyes and cheeks
d) Rapid breathing
39- In Dehydration, which ion is more affected?
a) Sodium.
b) Potassium
c) Chloride
d) Magnesium
40- What does it mean if the volume of distribution is low?
a) The drug is highly concentrated in the bloodstream.
b) The drug is evenly distributed throughout the body.
c) The drug is primarily localized in specific tissues or compartments.
d) The drug is rapidly eliminated from the body.
41- What factor changes rectal absorption to be less?
a) Gastric emptying rate
b) Presence of food in the stomach
c) Drug solubility in water
d) Intestinal pH
42- What is the definition of passive diffusion?
a) Movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration.
b) Transport of molecules across a membrane with the help of carrier proteins.
c) Passage of molecules across a membrane driven by concentration gradients
without the use of energy.
d) Active transport of molecules against the concentration gradient.
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
10
43- Which of the following statements is correct when counselling a
patient who is prescribed chloramphenicol eye drops for bacterial
conjunctivitis?
a) The patient should use the eye drops every two hours initially, then reduce the
frequency as the infection improves.
b) The patient should stop using the eye drops as soon as the symptoms
disappear.
c) The patient should avoid wearing contact lenses while using the eye drops.
d) The patient should discard the eye drops after 14 days of opening.
44- Sodium ricinoleate is:
a) A bactericide that is used in making soap and toothpaste.
b) A sodium salt of ricinoleic acid, the principal fatty acid derived from olive oil.
c) Anionic surfactant that is not irritant to human skin and mucous membranes.
d) A polymorphic substance that exhibits several structural phases.
45- Antibiotic use for bacteroid fragilis:
a) Cefoxitin,
b) Moxifloxacin
c) Clindamycin
d) Metronidazole
46- What is the concentration of chlorhexidine in the eye drops used to treat
Acanthamoeba keratitis?
a) 0.01%
b) 0.02%
c) 0.05%
d) 0.1%
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
11
47- Tween 20 is:
a) Deflocculant
b) Lipophilic surfactant
c) Preservative
d) Hydrophilic surfactant
48- Mineral oil is soluble in:
a) ether
b) water
c) Alcohol
d) ethanol
49- Pseudo membranous colitis worst offenders are all except:
a) Clindamycin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Cephalosporin
50- Urea is used as
a) humectant
b) Emulsifying agent
c) surfactant
d) Ointment base
51- Salicylic acid is used primarily as an:
a) analgesic
b) antipyretic
c) uricosuric agent
d) keratolytic agent
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
12
52- Drugs that have different crystal structures so different in
a) Polymorphism
b) Solubility
c) Crystallites
d) drug form
53- Which of the following would be an appropriate counseling point for a female
purchasing intravaginal miconazole?
a) "Avoid sexual intercourse while using this medication.“
b) "Apply the medication directly to the affected area.“
c) "Stop using the medication if symptoms improve before completing the full
course.“
d) "Take this medication orally with a glass of water.“
e) "Apply the medication before bedtime for optimal effectiveness."
54- Time of disintegration of most uncoated tablet is:
a) 2 min
b) 30 min
c) 2 hrs
d) 4hrs
55- All the following are acceptable uses of magnesium hydroxide except
a) heartburn.
b) dyspepsia.
c) hemorrhoids.
d) constipation.
56- Within the pharmaceutical industry, the department which ensures that the
facilities and systems adopted are adequate is:
a) Analytical methods department
b) Production department
c) Quality assurance department
d) Quality control department
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
13
57- All the following are an appropriate counseling tip for administration
of otic drops except
a) "Warm the solution before administration to improve effectiveness.“
b) "Tilt your head backward while administering the drops.“
c) "Shake the bottle vigorously before each use.“
d) "Administer the drops immediately after swimming."
58- How many ml of 1:60 stock solution of Ephedrine sulphate would be needed to
make 30 ml of a product with conc. 0.25%w/v:
a) 2.5ml
b) 3.5ml
c) 4ml
d) 4.5ml
59- A pharmacist is required to produce a litter of sodium chloride solution of 4.5%
w/v, the only available sodium chloride is in the form of tablets each
containing 2.25 g and NaCl. the number of tablets required is:
a) 45 tabs
b) 20 tabs
c) 9 tabs
d) 2 tabs
60- How much Ichthammol would be required to be added to a 6%w/w Ichthammol
in WSP ointment to prepare 500 g of a 20% w/w Ichthammol in WSP ?
a) 14gm
b) 64.5gm
c) 74.5gm
d) 84.5gm
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
14
61- What is the amount of Magnesium chloride (MgCl2.6H2O; MW
=203.3) required to prepare 100 ml of solution such that 10 ml diluted to 1
litre yields a solution containing 0.30 mEq of Mgᶧ²/ml?
a) 305 g
b) 305 mg
c) 30.5 mg
d) 610 mg
62- How many mOsm are contained in the following solution?
Disodium Hydrogen Phosphate 2g (Na2HPO4.12H2O; MW=358.1)
Potassium Dihydrogen Phosphate 1g (KH2PO4; MW=136.1)
Purified water to 100 ml
a) 31.45
b) 16.7
c) 23.3
d) 3.67
63- The pka value for Acetic Acid is 4.8. A buffer solution containing 0.1 mol/L Acetic
Acid and 0.2 mol/L Sodium acetate would have a pH of:
a) 4.8
b) 4.9
c) 5.1
d) 5.8
64- A solution of an antibiotic compound was found to lose 50% of its potency within
5.5 days when stored in the refrigerator, assuming first order the degradation
what is the shelf life under these conditions?
a) 7 hrs
b) 12 hrs
c) 13.7 hrs
d) 20 hrs
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
15
65- A solution of a local anesthetic was found to lose 25% of its potency
within 12.5years of preparation when formulated as a solution and stored at
4°C What is the shelf life of this medication under these conditions? (assuming
the degradation follows first order kinetics)
a) 5.25 years
b) 5 months
c) 9 years
d) 3 months
66- A doctor orders a 2g vial of Amoxicillin Sodium to be added to 500L of
intravenous fluid. The intravenous administration rate is 125ml/hour. Assuming
a uniform rate of flow, how much Amoxicillin Sodium will the patient receive
per minute?
a) 833 mg
b) 83.3 mg
c) 8.33 mg
d) 300 mg
67- If Digoxin has a half-life of 35 hrs how long will it take for a toxic plasma
concentration of 8 ng/mL to decline to a therapeutic plasma concentration of
2 ng/mL?
a) 17.5 hrs
b) 35 hrs
c) 70 hrs
d) 105 hrs
68- An example of two products that are pharmaceutically equivalent are:
a) Diazepam 2 mg and Diazepam 5 mg tablets Clearance
b) A 300 mg extended-release theophylline tablet and a 300 mg extended-
release theophylline capsule.
c) Haloperidol decanoate injection and haloperidol lactate injection
d) A 100 mg Normadyne tablet and a 100 mg Trandate tablet
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
16
69- In most biotransformation reactions, the metabolite of a drug
a) It is more polar than the parent compound.
b) It is more lipid-soluble than the parent compound.
c) Has a longer t1/2 than the parent compound
d) All the above
70- To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine
a) t1/2
b) body clearance
c) fraction protein bound.
d) volume of distribution
71- The HLB system is used to classify
a) Flavors
b) Colors
c) Surfactants
d) Organic ring structures
72- All are true about sodium lauryl sulphate except:
a) Compatible with ichthammol and econazole nitrate
b) Anionic surfactant
c) Form o/w emulsion
d) Compatible with cetrimide
73- Polysorbate 80 is:
a) Anionic surfactant
b) Emulsifying agent in food and cosmetics
c) Used as sweetener.
d) Binder in tablet formulation
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
17
74- What is most appropriate about head lice:
a) Deposit their eggs on fibers of clothing.
b) Size about 2 – 3 mm don’t have wings.
c) Coming to the skin surface only to feed.
d) Are associated with improper hygiene and are often present in homeless
people.
75- All appropriate about Lice infestation except:
a) The lice can be identified by direct examination using wooden applicator sticks
or a comb to part the hair.
b) The most common symptoms are itching, which is commonly seen as vertical
excoriations on the trunk area.
c) Skin redness around the nape and above the ears is usually seen.
d) Shaving the head and pubic area to control the infestation.
76- All the following treatments for personal articles infested with head lice would be
effective except:
a) Placing woolen hats in a plastic bag for 2 weeks.
b) using an aerosol of pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide sprayed in the air of all
bathrooms.
c) machine-washing clothes in hot water and drying them using the hot setting on
the dryer.
d) dry-cleaning woolen scarves.
77- Which of the following is an incorrect statement about benzoyl peroxide?
a) Benzoyl peroxide can bleach hair and fabrics that encounter it.
b) Benzoyl peroxide can cause stinging or irritation if it gets into the eyes.
c) Benzoyl peroxide can be used in combination with other acne medications.
d) Benzoyl peroxide can be applied more than twice a day for better results.
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
18
78- To prepare tincture iodine:
a) Dissolve iodine and KI in alcohol then add water.
b) Dissolve KI with purified water then add iodine then alcohol.
c) Dissolve KI in alcohol then add iodine.
d) Mix iodine, KI, and water at the same time
79- Which of the following is the correct method for the preparation of clindamycin
cream in a pharmacy lab?
a) Mix clindamycin with water, then add alcohol.
b) Mix clindamycin with propylene glycol, then add alcohol and water.
c) Mix clindamycin with alcohol, then add water.
d) Mix clindamycin with water first, then add alcohol and propylene glycol.
80- When advising a patient on the correct use of eye drops, which one of the
following statements is incorrect?
a) Tilt your head back and pull down the lower lid of your eye with the index
finger.
b) Hold the tip of the dropper against the lower lid.
c) Gently squeeze the dropper so that the correct number of drops are released.
d) Close the eye for 2–3 minutes and wipe any excess liquid from your face with a
tissue.
81- Which one is not a side effect of aminoglycosides?
a) Nephrotoxicity
b) Ototoxicity
c) Anemia with increased iron in the blood
d) Vestibulotoxicity
82- Tablet hardness range is normally
a) 0.5 to 1.0 kg
b) 1 to 2.0 kg
c) 2.0 to 3.5 kg
d) 3.5 to 7.0 kg
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
19
83- Another name for polyethylene glycol polymers is
a) Sodium alginate
b) Silica gel
c) Carbowax
d) Friar paste
84- All the following statements are proper counseling points for a patient suffering
with dry skin except.
a) Avoid alcohol and caffeine, as these can exacerbate dry skin.
b) Following a bath or shower, pat the skin down with a towel, leaving bits of
moisture on the skin.
c) Soak in a tub two to three times per week for at least 20 mins to allow for
adequate water absorption into the skin.
d) Avoid extremely hot baths and showers.
85- Which laxative should not be used to treat acute
constipation because of its slow onset of action?
a) Glycerin
b) Bisacodyl suppository
c) Psyllium
d) Milk of magnesia
86- The most common cause of vaginal yeast infections is
a) Candida albicans.
b) Candida glabrata.
c) Trichomonas.
d) Anaerobic bacteria.
87- A class of plant alkaloids widely used to treat migraine is
a) Vinca alkaloids
b) Digitalis glycosides
c) Stramonium alkaloids
d) Ergot alkaloids
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
20
88- Which of the following drugs is used to rescue patients who have
received high dose methotrexate?
a) Allopurinol
b) Leucovorin
c) Methyldopa
d) Naloxone
89- Daunorubicin and doxorubicin have been commonly associated with
a) Ulcers
b) Cardiac toxicity
c) Colitis
d) Gout
90- Vincristine has been commonly associated with which of the following adverse
events?
a) Neurotoxicity
b) Gout
c) Duodenal ulcers
d) Blood clotting
91- Rasburicase is used to treat
a) Hay fever
b) Vertigo
c) Drug allergies
d) Hyperuricemia
92- Nitroglycerin has a relatively short half-life due to:
a) Its volatility
b) Its chemical instability
c) Its poor absorption
d) First-pass metabolism
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
21
93- Lyme disease is caused by which of the following organisms?
a) Shigella sp
b) Enterobacter aerogenes
c) Borrelia burgdorferi
d) Listeria monocytogenes
94- All the following are examples of type I immediate or allergic hypersensitivity
except:
a) Hay fever
b) Pollen allergy
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
d) Allergic asthma
95- Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to which of the following compounds?
a) Thiocyanate
b) Copper
c) Nitroglycerin
d) Depo-prusside
96-Capping of tablets is due to:
a) Air entrapment in a compact during compression
b) Static charges on powders.
c) Unequal color distribution.
d) Insufficient lubricants.
97- All are true about GTN except:
a) Cause vasodilatation
b) Used in treatment of hemorrhoids.
c) Used for chest pain of angina.
d) Available as enteric coated tablet and ointment
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
22
98- Otitis media is an ear infection may be best treated by:
a) Amoxicillin
b) Penicillin V
c) Ampicillin
d) Ampicillin + Clavulanic acid
99- All are true about Methotrexate except:
a) Interfere with thymidylate synthesis.
b) Increase of production of tetrahydrofolate
c) Its antidote is Leucovorin.
d) Used in autoimmune diseases.
100- What is not symptom of heart failure:
a) Edema
b) Chest pain
c) Short breath
d) Abdominal bloating
101- Rancidity is :
a) Oxidation of double bound of fatty acid.
b) Oxidation of amino acid
c) Bacterial contamination of creams and ointment
d) Cleavage of carboxylic group from fatty acid
102- Local anesthetics work by
a) Block calcium channel
b) Open potassium channel
c) Block sodium channel
d) Increase influx of sodium ions into the cell
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
23
103- All the following can cause hemolytic anemia except:
a) Methyl dopa
b) Cefotetan
c) G6PD deficiency
d) Beta blocker
104- All are used in treatment of cystic fibrosis except:
a) Dornase alpha
b) N-acetylcysteine
c) Antibiotics and bronchodilator
d) Antifungal
105- The adverse reaction with Bleomycin is:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Pulmonary toxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Hemorrhagic cystitis
106- In impetigo, which is wrong:
a) Is an infection caused by strains of staph or strep bacteria.
b) It can lead to endocarditis.
c) It can be treated by cephalosporin.
d) The first signs of impetigo are reddish sores on the skin.
107- Coal tar should not be used with some UV treatment.
a) Because it causes photosensitivity.
b) Because it is irritating the skin
c) It will stain skin.
d) Cause a rash or acne-like breakout.
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
24
108- Hirsutism is associated with the chronic administration of which anti-
seizure medication?
a) Phenytoin
b) Valproate
c) Carbamazepine
d) Clonazepam
109- Highest negative inotropic drug:
a) Amlodipine
b) Nifedipine
c) Verapamil
d) Diltiazem
110- Amino acid that is precursor of histamine
a) Tryptophan
b) Tyrosine
c) Histidine
d) Phenyl alanine
111- Drug used for absence seizure
a) Clonazepam
b) Ethosuximide
c) Phenytoin
d) Lamotrigine
112- Nicotinic acid used in treatment of
a) Pellagra
b) Agranulocytosis
c) Dermatitis
d) Hyperlipidemia
113- A dopamine agonist used to treat hyperprolactinemia:
a) Bromocriptine
b) Selegilin
c) Rasegilin
d) Imipramine
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
25
114- Which is true about lanolin:
a) It is a mixture of many different chemical polar compounds, including
carboxylic acids.
b) Lanolin contains more water than wool fat.
c) Derived from plant origin.
d) Contains less fat content than petroleum jelly.
115- When drug has first pass effect at in the liver that means:
a) It has long duration of action.
b) It has high systemic effect.
c) It has less systemic effect
d) It has rapid onset of action.
116- All are correct about cetrimide except:
a) Used for o/w emulsion.
b) It is a mixture of quaternary ammonium salts.
c) An antiseptic agent
d) It is anionic surfactant.
117- Which of the following have no active metabolite :
a) Codeine
b) Imipramine
c) Nifedipine
d) Clopidogrel
118-Which is not included in pharmacopeial tablet testing?
a) Dissolution test
b) Uniformity of content
c) Tablet uniformity
d) Disintegration time test
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
26
119- Which one is not a sunscreen ingredient?
a) Titanium dioxide
b) Salicylic acid
c) Zinc oxide
d) Octocrylene
120- Which most true regarding linear pharmacokinetics:
a) Rate of elimination depends on the conc.
b) t½ depends on conc.
c) As a dose increase the t½ decrease.
d) t½ is dose independent.
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
27
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
28
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
29
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
30
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
31
Answers
1 C 26 C 51 D 76 B 101 A
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 D 102 C
3 A 28 D 53 A 78 A 103 C
4 C 29 B 54 B 79 B 104 D
5 B 30 D 55 C 80 B 105 B
6 A 31 A 56 C 81 C 106 B
7 A 32 D 57 A 82 D 107 A
8 C 33 B 58 D 83 C 108 A
9 A 34 D 59 B 84 C 109 C
10 C 35 B 60 C 85 C 110 C
11 B 36 B 61 A 86 A 111 B
12 C 37 A 62 A 87 D 112 D
13 D 38 D 63 C 88 B 113 A
14 D 39 A 64 D 89 B 114 B
15 A 40 A 65 A 90 A 115 C
16 B 41 C 66 C 91 D 116 D
17 A 42 C 67 C 92 D 117 C
18 C 43 C 68 D 93 C 118 C
19 A 44 C 69 A 94 C 119 B
20 D 45 D 70 D 95 A 120 D
21 A 46 B 71 C 96 A
22 C 47 D 72 D 97 D
23 B 48 A 73 B 98 D
24 A 49 C 74 B 99 B
25 A 50 A 75 D 100 B
This Photo by Unknown Author is licensed under CC BY-NC
REVISION 2 DR/AHMED GAD
