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PHYSICS
2 μ0 ℓ
2√2μ0 L
1. 2.
πℓ 2√2πL

1 The figure shows a bar magnet and a metallic coil. 2√2μ0 ℓ

2 μ0 L
2

3. 4.
Consider four situations. πL 2√2πℓ

4 Two point charges, Q each, are placed at a distance d

apart. A third point charge q is placed at a distance x from the

(I) Moving the magnet away from the coil. mid-point on the perpendicular bisector. The value of x at
which charge q will experience the maximum Coulomb's force
(II) Moving the coil towards the magnet.
is:
(III) Rotating the coil about the vertical diameter. 1. x = d
(IV) Rotating the coil about its axis. d
2. x =
An EMF in the coil will be generated for the following 2

situations. d
3. x =
1. (I) and (II) only √2

2. (I), (II), and (IV) only d

4. x =
3. (I), (II), and (III) only 2√ 2

4. (I), (II), (III), and (IV)

5 A metallic rod of length 3 m rotates with an angular
2 The charge on the capacitor of capacitance 15 μ F in the speed of 4 rad/s in a uniform magnetic field. The field makes
figure given below is: an angle of 30 with the plane of rotation. The emf induced
∘

across the rod is 72 mV. The magnitude of the field is:

1. 4 × 10 T −3

2. 8 × 10 T −3

3. 16 × 10 T −3

4. 48 × 10 T −3

6 Given below are two statements:

A steady magnetic field can be produced by a
1. C 2. C Statement I:
60 μ 130 μ
steady current.
3. 260 μ C 4. 585 μ C A steady current can be produced in a circuit
Statement II:
by a changing magnetic field.
3 A small square loop of wire of side ℓ is placed inside a
large square loop of wire L (L ≫ l). Both loops are coplanar 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
and their centres coincide at point O as shown in the figure. 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
The mutual inductance of the system is: 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

7 The core of any transformer is laminated. By doing this

we are ensuring that:

1. transformer is light weighted.

2. the efficiency of transformer is low.
3. losses due to eddy currents are minimized.
4. transformer becomes robust and sturdy.

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8 A long solenoid has a square cross-section of side a. It 12 The current in the branch of a circuit shown below
has turn-density n (number of turns per unit axial length). A increases at a rate of 3 A/s. At the instant when the current in
current i is passed through this solenoid. The magnetic field at the wire is 2 A, the potential drop from a to b is:
the centre of the solenoid is B . Then, B is proportional to:
c c

(I) a
1
(II)
a

(III) n
(IV) i 1. 26 V
Choose the correct option from the given ones: 2. 14 V
1. I, III, IV 3. 16 V
2. II, III, IV 4. 6 V
3. III, IV
4. IV Only 13 Which, of the following, emits electromagnetic waves?
1. a charge moving with constant velocity
9 Two hundred cells of the same emf E and same internal
2. a charged particle falling freely under gravity
resistance r are connected in series in the same order without 3. a magnet moving with constant velocity
external resistance. The potential drop across 50 cells is found
4. a dipole at rest, in a uniform electric field
to be:
1. 50E
14 A point charge q is placed at the centre of the flat surface
2. 150E
3. 200E of a semi-infinite cylinder of radius r. The flux of its electric
4. zero field through the curved surface of the cylinder is:

10 An electromagnetic wave of frequency ν = 3.0 MHz

passes from a vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative
permittivity ε = 4.0. Then:
1. wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
2. wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
3. wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
4. wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged
q q

11 Two parallel infinite wires carry equal currents as shown. 1. 2.

ε0 2ε0

If both the currents are doubled and separation is halved, the 2q

force on a 10 cm section of one of the wires becomes: 3. 4. 0

ε0

15 Given below are two statements:

The electric field and hence electric field lines
Assertion (A): are everywhere at the right angle to an
equipotential surface.
Equipotential surfaces are closer together
Reason (R): where the electric field is stronger and farther
apart where the field is weaker.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
1 Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
1. 4 times 2. times 2.
4 explanation of (A).
1 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. 8 times 4. times
8 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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16 Alternating voltage V = V0 sin ωt is applied to a circuit 21 Two free charge particles of the same mass (m) and
containing some elements in series. charge (q), separated by a distance r, are released, when the
Match the values of current in Column I with the possible charged particles reach at infinite separation, then the potential
elements connected in the circuit in Column II. energy that is converted into kinetic energy will be: (consider
Column-I Column-II at infinity potential is zero)
(A) I = I sin ωt (P) only inductor circuit
2
1 q
0
1. ( )
(B) I = −I cos ωt 0 (Q) may be C -R circuit 2πε0 r

π
(C) I = I0 sin(ωt + ) (R) may be L-R circuit 1 q
2

4
2. ( )
4πε0 r
(D) (S) only resistance circuit
π
I = I0 sin(ωt − )
4
2
1 q
3. ( )
2
4πε0 r
1. A→S, B→Q, C→P, D→R
1 2q
2. A→P, B→S, C→R, D→Q 4. ( )
r
3. A→S, B→P, C→Q, D→R 4πε0

4. A→S, B→P, C→R, D→Q For the circuit shown in the figure, all the three batteries
22
An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field of are ideal. Match the column.
17
intensity A/m. The magnetic flux through the rod is
2000

6 × 10 Wb and area of cross-section is 3 cm2. The magnetic

−4

permeability of the rod in the SI unit is:

1. 10 −1

2. 10 −2

3. 10 −3

4. 10

18 A parallel capacitor with plate area A is carrying equal

and opposite charges ±2Q. If the medium is a vacuum, then
the magnitude of the force of attraction between the plates is: Column-I Column-II
Q
2
The value of R such that current
1. A. P. 1 Ω

2ε0 A
through 3 V battery is zero.
2 The value of R such that current
2.
2Q
B. Q. 2 Ω
through 1 V battery is zero.
ε0 A
2 The value of R such that current
3.
Q
C. R. 3 Ω
through 2 V battery is zero.
ε0 A
2 The value of R for which current Not possible for
Q
D. S.
4. through 3 V battery is 5/8 A. any value of R.
4ε0 A
Codes:
An inductor coil of self-inductance 10 H carries a current A B C D
19
1. P P Q S
of 1 A. The magnetic field energy stored in the coil is:
1. 10 J 2. Q Q P S
2. 2.5 J 3. S S S P
3. 20 J 4. S S P Q
4. 5 J

20 A long thin wire of length L carrying a current i, is

wrapped uniformly around a long solenoid of volume V . The
radius of the solenoid is r. The magnetic field at its centre is:
μ0 L r i μ0 L r i
1. 2.
V 2π V

μ0 L r i μ0 L r i
3. 4.
2V 4π V

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23 Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are connected 26 If a semicircular conducting loop ACB is rotating in the
in series. If σ and σ are the conductivities of these wires
1 2 plane of paper with constant angular velocity ω about O, then
respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is: which of the following graphs shows the variation of induced
1.
σ1 σ2
current (I ) with time (t)? The magnetic field is perpendicular
σ1 + σ2
to the plane of the loop as shown in the figure.
2σ1 σ2
2.
σ1 + σ2
σ1 + σ2
3.
2σ1 σ2
σ1 + σ2
4.
σ1 σ2

24 A long straight wire of length 2 m and mass 250 g is

suspended horizontally in a uniform horizontal magnetic field
of 0.7 T. The amount of current flowing through the wire will
be:
(g = 9.8 ms )
−2

1. 2.45 A
2. 2.25 A
3. 2.75 A 1. 2.
4. 1.75 A

25 A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J/T lies aligned

with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.22 T. What
is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn
the magnet so as to align its magnetic moment normal to the
field direction? 3. 4.
1. 0.66 J
2. 0.33 J
3. 0
4. 0.44 J

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27 In the circuit shown, each light bulb has a resistance 2 Ω, 29 An electric dipole is place at an angle of 30
∘
with an
and the potential source has an EMF of 6 V. electric field intensity 2 × 10 N/C. It experiences a torque
5

​ equal to 4 N-m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length

is 2 cm, is:
1. 8 mC
2. 2 mC
3. 5 mC
4. 7 μC

30 The graph showing the variation of the electric field (E)

with the distance (r) from the centre of a conducting
spherical shell is: (where R is the radius of spherical shell)

Which graph best shows the power dissipated by the light bulb 1. 2.
(3) as a function of time?

1. 2.
3. 4.

3. 4.
31 The primary to secondary turns-ratio
N
P
= 10, for a
N
S

transformer. If a primary AC voltage of 100 V RMS is applied

at the primary, the AC output voltage at secondary will be
28 A beam of electrons emitted from the electron gun G is (RMS):
accelerated by an electric field E. The area of cross-section of
the beam remains constant. As the beam moves away from G,

(A) the speed of the electrons increases

(B) the current constituted by the beam increases
the number of electrons per unit volume in the beam 1. 100 V
(C)
increases 2. 1000 V
the number of electrons per unit volume in the beam 3. 10 V
(D)
decreases 4. 10 V
4

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A) and (D) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

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32 The tangent at any point of an equipotential surface 35 Column I gives certain situations involving two thing
makes an angle θ with the electric intensity vector at that point conducting shells connected by a conducting wire via a key
such that: K. In all situation, one sphere has net charge +q and other

1. θ = 0∘
sphere has no net charge. After the key K is pressed, Column
2. θ = 90 ∘
II gives some resulting effects. Match the figures in Column I
3. θ = 120 ∘
with the statements in Column II.
4. θ = 180 ∘
Column I Column II

33 A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are

Charge flows through
acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an A. p.
connecting wire
electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is
pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron:
1. will turn towards right of direction of motion
2. will turn towards left of direction of motion Potential energy of system
B. q.
3. speed will decrease of spheres decreases.
4. speed will increase

34 Given below are two statements:

A paramagnetic sample displays greater
Assertion (A): magnetization (for the same magnetizing
C. r. No heat is produced.
field) when cooled.
The magnetisation does not depend on
Reason (R):
temperature.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. The shell I has no charge
explanation of (A).
D. s. after equilibrium is
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
reached.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Codes:
A B C D
1. p, q p, q p, q, s r, s
2. s, q r, q p, q, s r, s
3. p, s p, r q, s r, s
4. p, q, s p, r p, s r, s

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36 The impedance (Z) of three electrical components e 1, e2

40 A battery gives a current of 0.5 A when connected across
and e has frequency
3 (f ) dependence as shown by the an external resistor of resistance 12 Ω and a current of
following three curves: 0.25 A when connected across an external resistor of
resistance 30 Ω . What will be the emf of the battery?
1. 4.5 V
2. 9.0 V
3. 13.5 V
4. 18.0 V

Based on the information provided below, answer the

questions (41-43).

The three components, e 1, e2 and e are respectively:

3

1. R, L, C
2. R, C, L
3. L, R, C
4. C, R, L

37 A galvanometer G (having very small resistance), when

connected with a resistance of 10 kΩ in series, can function as In a metre bridge, there is an error due to excess resistance at
a voltmeter measuring a maximum voltage of 20 V. The the ends A & B. Due to this, the correct expression to be used
current required to give a full scale deflection on the is:
galvanometer is: P θA + l

1. 0.1 mA = ,
Q (100 − l) + θB
2. 0.2 mA
where l is the measured balance length & θ , θ are the
3. 1 mA A B

respective "end corrections". In the metre bridge shown in the

4. 2 mA
figure, the following data was collected.

38 An electric dipole consisting of two opposite charges of P Q l

100 Ω 100 Ω 50 cm
2 × 10 C each, separated by a distance of 0.03 m, is placed
−6

42 Ω 60 Ω cm 41
in an electric field of 2 × 10 N/C. The maximum torque on
5

the dipole is: 240 Ω x Ω cm 79

1. 12 × 10 N-m−1
θ ,θ
A Bare to be determined from the first two sets of data &
2. 12 × 10 N-m−3 then it has to be used to find the unknown resistance x (Ω).
3. 24 × 10 N-m−1

41 From the data, it can be concluded that:

4. 24 × 10 N-m−3

1. θ A = θB

39 Two small current-carrying loops carrying currents in the 2. θ A = 2θB

clockwise direction are placed in the same plane, separated by 3. θ B = 2θA

a distance d (which is much larger than the size of the loops). 4. θ A

= −θB

The two loops:

42 The value of θ , from the data, is:
1. attract each other. A

2. repel each other. 1. 1 cm

3. exert no force on each other, but exert a torque. 2. 0.5 cm
3. 2 cm
4. neither exert any force nor any torque on each other.
4. −1 cm

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43 The value of the unknown resistance (x) is: 48 X: No. of Bridge Bonds present in compound
1. 63 Ω Mn2(CO)10.
2. 66 Ω Y: No. of Bridge Bonds present in compound W(CO)6.
3. 60 Ω The sum of (X+Y) is:
4. 64 Ω 1. 1
2. 4
44 Which of the following statements is correct? 3. 0
4. 2
Charges were named as positive and negative by the
1.
American scientist Benjamin Franklin.
49 Consider the given statements:
Gold leaf electroscope can be used to detect charge on a
2. Both carbon and silicon atoms belong to group
body.
Charge can be created on any substance by the process of Statement I: 14. Both CO2 and SiO2 are gases and linear
3. molecules.
induction.
4. Both (1) and (2) are correct. Being electron deficient due to an incomplete
Statement II: octet of the central atom, both BCl3 and AlCl3
The unit of magnetic moment is: behave as Lewis acids.
45
1. A/m 2. Am
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
3. Am2 4. tesla
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
CHEMISTRY 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.

46
50 What will be the emf of the cell in which the following
Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent in
Assertion (A): reaction takes place? Given E
comparison to O2. ∘
cell
= 1. 05 V

Reason (R): Ozone is diamagnetic but O2 is paramagnetic. Ni(s) + 2 Ag

+
(0. 002 M) → Ni
2+
(0. 160 M) + 2 Ag(s)

1. 0.80 V
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation 2. 0.91 V
1.
of (A). 3. 0.45 V
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 4. 0.36 V
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 51 How many species have zero electron in t ? 2

4. Both (A) and (R) are false. TiCl4 , MnO

−

4
, [FeO4 ]
2−
, [FeCl4 ]
−
, [CoCl4 ]
−

1. Three
47 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 2. Four
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): 3. Two
4. One
Assertion (A): A reaction can have zero activation energy.
The minimum extra amount of energy
absorbed by reactant molecules so that their
Reason (R):
energy becomes equal to threshold value, is
called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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52 The activation energies of two reactions are E1 and E2 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(E1 > E2 ) . If the temperature of the system is increased
from T to T , the rate constant changes from k to k in the ′

A saltwater solution contains 23% and 19.5%

1 2

first reaction and k to k in the second reaction. Predict ′

1 1
56 NaCl

2
by weight, with both salts fully dissociated (100%
2
MgCl2
which of the following expressions is/are incorrect?
k
′
k
′ dissociation). Calculate the normal boiling point of the
(a)
1 2

k1
=
k2 saltwater(in ºC) (Nearest integer).
(Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1)
′ ′
k k

(b)
1 2
>

1. 116 oC
k1 k2
′ ′
k k

(c)
1 2

k1
<
k2 2. 121 oC
3. 113 oC
′ ′
k k

(d)
1 2
= = 1

4. 100 oC
k1 k2

1. (a) and (c) only

2. (a), (c), and (d)
57 Columns I and II represent metal ions and the number of
3. (a) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c), and (d) electrons in the outermost shell.
Column -I Column -II
53 Which molecule exhibits sp 3
d
2
hybridization? (Metal ion) (no. of e⁻s in the outermost shell)
1. SF 4 A. Mn 3+
I. 3
2. XeOF 4
B. V
3+
II. 4
3. PF
C. III. 1
5 3+
Cr
4. BrF 3

D. Ti 3+
IV. 2
54 Consider the reaction, 2A + B → Products. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
When concentration of B alone was doubled, the half-life did
not change. When the concentration of A alone was doubled, Options: A B C D
the rate increased by two times. The unit of rate constant for 1. I III II IV
this reaction is: 2. III II I IV
1. L mol–1 s–1 3. II I IV III
2. no unit 4. II IV I III
3. mol L–1s–1
4. s–1 58 Why is HCl not used to make the medium acidic in
oxidation reactions of KM nO in acidic medium?
55 Match the complex ions in Column I with their 4

1. Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidising agents

corresponding electronic configurations in Column II.
KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2, which is also an oxidising
Column I (Complex Column II (Electronic 2.
agent
ion) configuration)
3. KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent than HCl
(a) [Cr(H (i)
+3 2 ∘
t eg
2 O)6 ] 2 g
4. KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl
(b) [Fe(H (ii)
+3 3 ∘
t eg
2 O) ] 6 2g

+2
59 Which of the following lanthanide have half-filled and
(c) [Ni(H (iii)
3 2
t eg
2 O) ] 2g
6

fully filled f-orbital respectively?

(d) [V(H (iv) t
+3 6 2
eg
2 O)6 ]
1. Eu2+, Tb3+
2g

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 2. Yb3+, Tb2+
3. Gd3+, Yb2+
4. Sm2+, Dy2+

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60 Identify the change in Mn's oxidation state during the 66 Which reagent is used to distinguish between saturated
cell reaction in a dry cell while powering a clock. and unsaturated hydrocarbons?
1. +3 → +4 1. Bromine water (Br2)
2. +2 → +7 2. Silver nitrate (AgNO3)
3. +4 → +3 3. Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
4. +7 → +2 4. Potassium permanganate (KMnO4)

61 67 Pure ethanol and water cannot be separated completely

Normal Boiling by fractional distillation because they:
Compound Formula
Point, K (a) Form maximum boiling azeotropes.
Ethane CH CH 3 3
185 (b) Show negative deviation from Raoult's law.
Ethanal CH COH 294 (c) Form minimum boiling azeotropes.
(d) Show positive deviation from Raoult's law.
3 3

Ethanol CH CH OH 348
3 2
Correct options:
Ethanoic acid CH CO H
3 2
391 1. (a) and (b)
Based on the data in the table above, which of the following 2. (a) and (d)
substances has lowest vapor pressure at any given 3. (c) and (d)
temperature? 4. (b) and (c)
1. Ethane
2. Ethanal 68 3 g of acetic acid is dissolved in 500 g of water. The
3. Ethanol depression in the freezing point of the solution is given as
4. Ethanoic acid x × 10 K. Calculate the value of x to the nearest integer.
−1

[ Given : K of CH COOH = 1.8 × 10 and K of water −5

62 What is the IUPAC name of the complex compound a 3 f

= 1.86 K/molal
[Pt(Br)2 (PPh3 ) ]
2
? Density of water = 1 g/mL ]
1. Dibromido di(triphenyl phosphine) platinum(II) 1. 4
2. Dibromido bis(triphenyl phosphine) platinum(II) 2. 6
3. bis(triphenyl phosphine) dibromide platinum(II) 3. 2
4. bis(triphenyl phosphine) dibromide platinate(II) 4. 1

63 Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy Given two first-order reactions, with the ratio of their
69
because of: half-lives:
1. High basic character 2. Small size t
1

1/2

=
2
. Calculate the ratio of their fractional half-lives:
3. High exchange enthalpy 4. High electronegativity t
2

1/2
5

1
t

Type of isomerism which exist between

2/3

64 2
= ?
t
4/5

[P d(C6 H5 )2 (SCN )2 ]and [P d(C 6 H5 )2 (N CS)2 ] is : 1. 0.273

1. Linkage isomerism 2. 0.468
2. Coordination isomerism 3. 0.318
3. Ionisation isomerism 4. 2.55
4. Solvate isomerism
70 Consider the given two statements:
65 Which 0.10 M aqueous solution exhibits the lowest
Assertion(A): [F e(H O) N O]SO is paramagnetic.
2 5 4
electrical conductivity?
1. NH4Cl The F e in [F e(H O) N O]SO has three
Reason(R):
2 5 4

2. CuBr2 unpaired electrons.

3. Na2CO3
4. C2H5OH Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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71 Which ion is most commonly identified as a white 74 Give below are some atomic numbers:
precipitate that dissolves in ammonia? 29, 59, 74, 95, 102, 104
1. Sodium ion The atomic numbers of the inner transition elements among
2. Silver ion the above are :
3. Bromide ion 1. 29, 59, 74 2. 59, 95, 102
4. Sulfide ion 3. 95, 102, 104 4. 59, 74, 95

72 75 Consider the given two statements:

A standard hydrogen electrode is also called If red blood cells are removed from the body
Assertion(A):
reversible electrode. Assertion(A): and placed in pure water, the pressure inside
It can act on both as anode as well as cathode the cells rises.
Reason(R) :
in an electrochemical cell. The concentration of the salt content in the
Reason(R):
cells increases.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 1.
2. explanation of (A).
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2.
explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
73 Which of the following plots is correct for the given
reaction?
([P]0 is the initial concentration of P)
76 The reaction 2X + Y → 3Z was studied and the
following data were obtained:
Experiment X Y Rate (mole/liter.sec)
1 3.0 1.5 1.8
2 1.5 3.0 0.90
3 1.5 1.5 0.45

What is the proper rate expression?

1. 2. 1. rate = k[X][Y]
2. rate = k[Y]2

3. rate = k[X]
4. rate = k[X] [Y]
2

77 What is the coordination number of cobalt (Co) in the

complex [Co(en) ?
3+
3]

1. 3
3. 4. 2. 6
3. 4
4. 5

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78
⊖ ⊖
81 Given below are two statements:
Arrange the ligands CO, CN, Cl, and H 2O in decreasing
order of their field strength: Statement Cr2+ is oxidising agent and Mn3+ is a reducing
I:
⊖

1. CO >CN> H2 O > Cl
− agent in nature.
⊖
Statement Sc3+ compounds are repelled by the applied
2. CO >CN> Cl −
> H2 O
⊖
II: magnetic field.
3. CN> CO > H2 O > Cl
−
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
⊖
answer from the options given below:
4. CN> CO > Cl −
> H2 O
1. Both I and II are correct.
79 Which metal is present in Wilkinson's catalyst, used as a 2. Both I and II are incorrect.
homogeneous catalyst in the hydrogenation of alkenes? 3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
1. Iron 4. I is incorrect but II is correct.
2. Aluminium
3. Rhodium 82 Match each coordination compound in List-I with an
4. Cobalt appropriate pair of characteristics from List-II.
{ en = H N CH CH N H ; atomic numbers :
When (aq.) is gradually added to an aqueous
2 2 2 2

80 AgNO3
T i = 22; Cr = 24; Co = 27; P t = 78}

KCl solution, and the conductivity of the solution is measured, List-I (Coordinationcompound) List-II (Characteristic)
what does the plot of conductance (Λ) versus the volume of Paramagnetic and
AgNO (aq.) show?
3
(A) [Cr(N H3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl (p) exhibits ionisation
isomerism
Diamagnetic and
(B) [T i(H2 O)5 Cl](N O3 )2 (q) exhibits cis-trans
isomerism
1. 2.
Paramagnetic and
(C) [P t(en)(N H3 )Cl]N O3 (r) exhibits cis-trans
isomerism
Diamagnetic and
(D) [Co(N H3 )4 (N O3 )2 ]N O3 (s) exhibits ionisation
isomerism

Code:
3. 4. A B C D
1. (s) (q) (r) (p)
2. (r) (p) (s) (q)
3. (q) (p) (r) (s)
4. (p) (r) (s) (q)

83 If the density of an x M solution of NaOH is 1.12 g/mL

and its molality is 3 m, determine the value of x.
1. 3.0
2. 2.3
3. 4.0
4. 5.2

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84 Which statement among the following is incorrect? 90 The rate of reaction will be fast if:
The inert pair effect is due to the poor shielding of the ns² 1. ΔG is a large negative number
∘

1. 2. ΔS is a large negative number

electrons by d- and f-electrons.
∘

Allotropy is the existence of an element in more than one 3. ΔH is a large negative number
∘

2. 4. None of the above can be used to estimate reaction rates.

form.
Catenation is the bonding of atoms of the same element
3.
into a series called a chain.
4. None of the above.
BIOLOGY
91 During double fertilisation in angiosperms:
85 BaCl2 solution gives a white ppt. with a solution of an
One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and
I:
acid radical which dissolves in dil. HCl with the evolution of a fuses with its nucleus thus completing the syngamy.
colourless, pungent-smelling gas. The acid radical may be: The other male gamete moves towards the two polar
II: nuclei located in the central cell thus completing the triple
fusion.
2−
1. SO 4

2. HSO
−

3. SO
2− 1. Only I is True
3
2−
2. Only II is True
4. CO 3 3. Both I and II are True
4. Both I and II are False
86 Consider a reaction: aG + bH → Products. When the
concentration of both the reactants G and H are doubled, the 92 The only type of pollination which during pollination
rate increases by eight times. However, when the brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma
concentration of G is doubled while keeping the concentration is:
of H constant, the rate of reaction doubles. What is the overall 1. Cleistogamy
order of the reaction? 2. Chasmogamy
1. Zero 3. Geitonogamy
2. First 4. Xenogamy
3. Second
4. Third In 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick, proposed a
93
When chromite ore is heated with N a and O then very simple but famous Double Helix model for the structure
87 2 CO3 2

of DNA, based on the X-ray diffraction data produced by:

the compound of chromium formed and its colour, 1. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
respectively, are:
2. Beadle and Tatum
1. N a CrO , yellow
2 4

2. N a Cr O , yellow
2 2 7
3. Temin and Baltimore
3. N a CrO , orange
2 4
4. Avery–MacLeod–McCarty
4. N a Cr O , orange
2 2 7

94 In angiosperms, during seed germination, the micropyle:

88 Which of the following is NOT a property of interstitial
1. provides an entry point for pollen tubes
compounds? 2. allows oxygen and water to enter the seed
3. facilitates the attachment of the seed to the pericarp
1. Retains metallic conductivity.
4. protects the embryo from desiccation
2. Very hard.
3. High melting point, lower than those of pure metals. Consider the given two statements:
95
4. Chemically inert.
I: Cleistogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
At room temperature, ClF exist in: II: Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
89 5

1. Only I is correct
1. Gaseous state, square pyramidal shape, and colourless.
2. Only II is correct
2. Liquid state, trigonal bipyramidal, and colourless.
3. Both I and II are correct
3. Gaseous state, trigonal bipyramidal, and colourless.
4. Both I and II are incorrect
4. Liquid state, square pyramidal, and colourless.

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96 In plant-animal pollinator mutualistic relationships: 101 A pea plant shows the dominant phenotype. You
Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their conduct a single gene test cross to determine the genotype of
I: this pea plant (T = tall, t = short). All progeny of the test cross
flowers and dispersing their seeds.
Plants offer rewards or fees in the form of pollen and show the dominant phenotype. The genotype of the plant in
II: nectar for pollinators and juicy and nutritious fruits for question is most likely:
seed dispersers. 1. TT.
2. TTtt.
3. Tt.
1. Only I is correct
4. tt.
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct 102 All the following regarding the characteristic
4. Both I and II are incorrect distribution of the cells within the embryo sac of an
angiosperm will be true except:
97 In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and
1.
angiosperm consists of: constitute the egg apparatus.
One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and
1. 2.
Polar nuclei one egg cell.
One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, three Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the
2. 3.
Polar nuclei antipodals.
One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal cells, two 4. The large central cell has a diploid polar nucleus.
3.
Polar nuclei

4.
One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar 103 The need for a test cross and its function is to:
nuclei 1. Determine the phenotypic ratios in the offspring
2. Establish the dominance of traits
98 All the following regarding a typical angiosperm anther
Identify the genotype of an organism exhibiting a dominant
is correct except: 3.
trait
1. it is bilobed 4. Confirm the true-breeding nature of plants
2. each lobe has two theca
3. a transverse groove runs diametrically separating the theca 104 Identify the correct chronological sequence in the stages
it is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four of embryonic development in a dicot:
4.
microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe.

99 Sickle cell anaemia:

a: can be treated with iron supplements
b: is a molecular disease
c: confers resistance to acquiring malaria
1. Only a and b are correct
2. Only a and c are correct
3. Only b and c are correct
4. a, b, and c are correct
1. A→B→C 2. C→A→B
100 Consider the given two statements: 3. B→A→C 4. C→B→A
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with
Statement I: each lobe having two theca, i.e., they are
dithecous.
The anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure
Statement II: consisting of four microsporangia located at
the corners, two in each lobe.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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105 Consider the given two statements: 109 How many of the given statements are correct?
Only the central cell in the embryo sac of
Assertion(A):
angiosperms is diploid.
It is formed from an unreduced diploid mother
Reason (R):
cell.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

106 In which of the following seeds is the residual nucellus

persistent, forming the perisperm?
1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Castor I: A is the chalazal end
4. Black pepper II: B is the micropylar end
III: C are synergids
107 What percent of F2 progeny of a typical Mendelian
IV: D are antipodals
monohybrid cross are expected to be true-breeding? 1. I and II
1. 25 2. 50 2. III and IV
3. 75 4. 100 3. II and IV
4. I and III
108 Which one of the following plants shows a very close
110 The embryo sac in flowering plants typically consists of
relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can
complete its life cycle without the other? how many nuclei at maturity?
1. Hydrilla 2. Yucca 1. 4-nucleate
2. 7-nucleate
3. Banana 4. Viola
3. 8-nucleate
4. 10-nucleate

111 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
In Avery, Macleod, and McCarty's
experiment, digestion of heat-killed lysate
Assertion (A):
with proteases and RNases did not affect
transformation but digestion with DNase did.
DNase will hydrolyse all biomolecules in the
Reason (R):
lysate except DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
3.
explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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112 In a monoecious angiosperm: 118 Among the two nucleic acids, the DNA is a better
1. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are impossible genetic material because:
2. Only xenogamy is possible 1. It is able to generate its replica (Replication).
3. Self-incompatibility mechanisms are unnecessary 2. It is more stable chemically and structurally.
4. Autogamy is prevented, but geitonogamy is possible 3. It provides the scope for rapid changes (mutation).
It is able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian
4.
113 A typical dicotyledonous embryo, consists of an Characters’.
embryonal axis and two cotyledons and where:
119 Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
The portion of embryonal axis above the level
Statement I:
of cotyledons is the coleoptiles.
The cylindrical portion below the level of Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating
1.
Statement II: cotyledons is the coleorhiza. agents among insects
2. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic
3.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct pollination
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 4.
get pollinated

114 The mRNA codon GAG codes for the amino acid: 120 Consider the given two statements:
1. Tryptophan 2. Arginine Statement Pollination plays a critical role in the sexual
3. Glutamic acid 4. Valine I: reproduction in flowering plants.
As both types of gametes are non-motile, they
Apomixis is: Statement
115 have to be brought together for fertilisation to
II:
I: production of seeds without fertilization occur.
II: production of fruits without fertilization
a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
III: 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
reproduction
1. Only I and II are correct 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Only I is correct 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Only III is correct
4. Only I and III are correct 121 Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:

Consider the given two statements: 1. Tegmen 2. Chalaza

116
3. Perisperm 4. Hilum
Assertion In incomplete dominance, segregation of unit
(A): factors does not take place. The coconut water from tender coconut represents?
Reason (R): Incomplete dominance is blending inheritance.
122
1. fleshy mesocarp
2. free - nuclear proembryo
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3. free - nuclear endosperm
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 4. endocarp
2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

117 Tightly linked genes located on the same chromosome

will show:
1. Very high recombination
2. Independent assortment
3. 50% recombinant frequency
4. Very low recombination

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123 How many of the given statements are correct: 128 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and
I: Endosperm development precedes embryo development. select the correct match from the codes given [assume
The coconut water from tender coconut is cellular independent assortment wherever applicable]:
II: Column I Column II
endosperm.
III: The white kernel in coconut is free nuclear endosperm. Number of types of genotypes in F2 progeny
A P4
Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing of a dihybrid cross
IV: Number of types of phenotypes in a dihybrid
embryo in pea. B Q9
V: Endosperm persists in the mature seed of castor. test cross
1. 2 Number of types of phenotypes in F2
C R7
2. 3 progeny in three polygenes
3. 4 S8
4. 5 Codes:
A B C
124 The number of correct statements from the given
1. Q P S
statements is: 2. Q P R
Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on 3. P Q R
I: garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed
4. P Q S
the laws of inheritance in living organisms.
During Mendel’s investigations into inheritance patterns Pollination by water:
II: it was for the first time that statistical analysis and 129
mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology. is very common in flowering plants but is limited mostly to
1.
His experiments had a large sampling size, which gave monocotyledons.
III:
greater credibility to the data that he collected. is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited mostly to
2.
Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant dicotyledons.
IV:
that were manifested as two opposing traits. is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited mostly to
3.
1. 1 monocotyledons.
2. 2 is very common in flowering plants but is limited mostly to
4.
3. 3 dicotyledons.
4. 4
130 Consider the given two statements:
125 During the formation of the female gametophyte in
Assertion The lac operon in E. coli is a negative
angiosperms, cell walls are laid when the developing female (A): inducible operon.
gametophyte reaches:
Lactose is the inducer of the lac operon in E.
1. 2 nucleate stage Reason (R):
coli.
2. 4 nucleate stage
3. 6 nucleate stage
4. 8 nucleate stage 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
126 The discontinuously synthesised fragments on the explain (A)
lagging strand of DNA are later joined by the enzyme: 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
1. DNA ligase 2. DNA polymerase 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
3. Primase 4. RNA polymerase
131 In seagrasses:

127 Pollens that cause pollinosis [nasal allergy due to female flowers remain submerged in water and pollen
1.
pollen] are expected to belong to flowers that are pollinated grains are released inside the water
by: pollen grains are released on the surface of the water,
1. Water 2. Wind 2. which are passively carried away by water currents; some
3. Insects 4. Bats of them eventually reach the female flower
3. pollination is by wind
4. pollination is by bats

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132 Xenogamy: 137 A childless couple can be assisted to have a child

is transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this
I: technique is?
different plant.
is the only type of pollination which during pollination 1. Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
II: brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the 2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
stigma. 3. Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
4. Germ Cell Internal Transfer
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct The hormone that is primarily responsible for the
138
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
development of the corpus luteum after ovulation is:
1. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
133 The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles: 2. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
1. are large in size and always white in colour 3. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
2. secrete foul odours to attract these animals 4 Progesterone
3. produce winged pollens
4. are invariably pollinated by abiotic agents as well 139 Consider the given statements:

A flower produces light and non-sticky pollens and has In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin
134 I:
is also secreted by the ovary.
well exposed stamens. This flower is most likely pollinated
hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during
by: II:
pregnancy.
1. Air 2. Water
3. Bees 4. Birds 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
135 At maturity, the female gametophyte in angiosperms
has: 140 Consider the given two statements
Three cells grouped together at the micropylar end
I: Dark melanic peppered moth survive better in
constituting the egg apparatus Assertion (A):
polluted environments.
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the
II: In polluted areas, dark melanic moths are able
antipodals Reason (R):
to camouflage themselves.

1. Only I is correct
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Only II is correct
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
3. Both I and II are correct 2. explain
4. Both I and II are incorrect (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
136 What would not be true for the structure of a
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
polynucleotide chain?
141 Panspermia theory suggests that:
5’-end of polynucleotide chain has a free phosphate moiety
1. Life originated independently at multiple locations on
at 5'-end of sugar. 1.
Earth.
3’-end of polynucleotide chain has a free OH group 3'-C of
2. 2. Life on Earth was seeded by meteorites and comets.
sugar.
Life evolved from simple to complex forms solely through
The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed due to 3.
3. natural selection.
sugar and phosphates.
Life exists only on Earth, and all life forms have a common
The nitrogenous bases linked to phosphate moiety project 4.
4. origin.
from the backbone.

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142 Which of the following hormones is NOT directly 147 All the following measures will be helpful for building
involved in maintaining pregnancy? up a reproductively healthy society except:
1. Estrogen 1. Introduction of sex education in schools
2. Progesterone Educating people, especially fertile couples and those in
3. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) 2. marriageable age group, about available birth control
4. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) options
Pouched mammals of Australia survived because: Promoting the use of pre-natal sex determination
143 3.
techniques like amniocentesis
1. they all are top predators in a food chain Encouragement and support by governmental and non-
they are all herbivores and hence get to feed on large 4. governmental agencies to research various reproduction-
2.
amounts of available primary production related areas
3. of lack of competition from any other mammals
the Australian environment is not conducive for the 148 The glycoprotein layer surrounding the secondary
4.
survival of true placental mammals oocyte is known as:
1. corona radiata 2. oolemma
144 Consider the given two statements:
3. zona pellucida 4. chorion
The primary oocyte completes its first meiotic
Statement During pregnancy:
I:
division to form a secondary oocyte just before 149
ovulation.
I: menstrual flow does not occur.
Statement The secondary oocyte completes meiosis II only
the levels of gonadotropins are very high in the blood of
II: after fertilization by a sperm. II:
pregnant females.
1. Only I is correct
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 2. Only II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 3. Both I and II are correct
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
150 Which of the following statements about safe sex

145 Consider the given two statements: practices are correct?

The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian Using a condom during sexual intercourse can help
I:
Assertion(A): disorders can be traced in a family by the prevent STIs and unwanted pregnancies.
pedigree analysis. Abstinence from sexual activity is the most reliable
II:
Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by method of preventing STIs and unwanted pregnancies.
Reason(R): alteration or mutation in a single gene with Spermicides are highly effective in preventing pregnancy
III:
complete dominance. as well as STIs.
1. I and II only
1. (A) is False but (R) is True. 2. II and III only
3. I and III only
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2. 4. I, II and III
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
3.
explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.

146 Identify the correct lineage in human evolution

Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens →
1.
Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo
3.
sapiens
Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus →
4.
Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.

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151 Consider the given two statements: 156 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and
The blastocyst undergoes implantation in the select the correct match from the codes given:
Assertion (A):
endometrium shortly after reaching the uterus. Column I Column II
Implantation triggers the release of relaxin, [Ancestors of Home sapiens] [Cranial capacity]
Reason (R): which softens the cervix in preparation for A Homo erectus P 1400 cc
childbirth. B Homo habilis Q 450 cc
C Australopithecus R 650-800 cc
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct D Neanderthal man S 900 cc
1.
explanation of (A)
Codes:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct A B C D
2.
explanation of (A).
1. Q P S R
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. R P Q S
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. P Q R S
Consider the given two statements: 4. S R Q P
152
Down syndrome or Down's syndrome, also known as Consider the given two statements:
157
I: trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of
all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21. Assertion
Heart in vertebrates is an example of analogy.
(A):
The parents of the affected individual are usually
II: Vertebrate hearts are a result of convergent
genetically normal. Reason (R):
1. Only I is correct evolution.
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
4. Both I and II are incorrect Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A)
153 Consider the given two statements: 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
The part of the oviducts (fallopian tubes) 4. (A) is False, (R) is False
Statement I: closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped
infundibulum. 158 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder caused
The last part of the oviduct, isthmus, has a by the mutation of a gene coding for the enzyme that converts
Statement II:
narrow lumen and it joins the uterus. phenylalanine into:
1. Tyrosine 2. Glycine
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 3. Cysteine 4. Valine
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect 159 All the following can be logical conclusions of Griffith
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct experiment except:

154 The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNAs and is The R strain bacteria had somehow been transformed by
1.
referred to as: the heat-killed S strain bacteria.
1. Micro satellite 2. Mini-satellite Some ‘transforming principle’, transferred from the heat-
3. STRs 4. SNPs killed S strain, had enabled the R strain
2.
to synthesise a smooth polysaccharide coat and become
A functional mammary gland is a characteristic feature virulent.
155
The transformation must be due to the transfer of the
of: 3.
genetic material.
1. all mammals
2. all female mammals The biochemical nature of genetic material must be the
4.
3. only primate female mammals protein
4. all female vertebrates

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160 In the hormonal regulation of the male reproductive 164 Consider the given two statements:
system: Assertion Evolution can occur if there is genetic variation
Spermatogenesis starts due to a significant decrease in the (A): within a population.
1.
secretion of GnRH Reason The meaning of EVOLUTION is descent with
LH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of (R): modification from preexisting species.
2.
some factors required for effective spermiogenesis
FSH acts on Leydig cells and stimulates the synthesis and Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not correctly
3. 1.
secretion of androgens explain (A).
4. Androgens stimulate the process of spermatogenesis 2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains
Consider the given two statements: 3.
161 (A).
Assertion 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Not all copulations lead to pregnancy.
(A):
Fertilization can only occur if the ovum and 165 Identify the set of hormones secreted by placenta that
Reason
sperm are transported simultaneously to the are essential to maintain pregnancy:
(R):
ampullary isthmic junction. 1. hCG, hPL, progesterone, prolactin
2. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) 3. hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogens
4. hCG, progesterone, estrogens, glucocorticoids
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A) Consider the given two statements:
166
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
Similarities in proteins and genes performing a
4. (A) is False, (R) is True Assertion
given function among diverse organisms give
(A):
clues to common ancestry.
162 Secretion of androgens by Leydig cells in the human
Reason The more recent the common ancestor between
testis is primarily regulated by: (R): organisms the less related are they to each other.
1. FSH
2. Testosterone
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
3. DHEA 1.
explain (A).
4. LH
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
163 The molecule shown in the given figure: 3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

167 Consider the given two statements:

There has to be a mechanism to read the
Assertion (A): genetic code and also to link it to the amino
acids.
The rRNA acts as an adapter molecule
Reason (R): between transcription and translation in the
central dogma of molecular biology.
I: serve as substrate for DNA replication
II: provide energy for polymerisation reaction Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
1.
explain (A).
1. Only I 2. Only II 2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).

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168 Identify the pair where the expanded form is incorrect 173 Consider the given two statements:
for the abbreviation given: Assertion The testes are situated outside the abdominal
1. ICSI Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (A): cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
2. ZIFT Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer The scrotum helps in maintaining the low
Reason
3. ART Artificial Reproductive Technologies temperature of the testes necessary for
(R):
4. IUI Intra-Uterine Insemination spermatogenesis.

Consider the given two statements: 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
169
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) inhibit
Assertion (A): 3. (A) is True but (R) is False
ovulation.
OCPs contain synthetic estrogen and/or 4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Reason (R): progestin, which suppress the release of FSH
and LH necessary for ovulation. 174 In the schematic representation of gametogenesis in
humans, what will be the correct description for A- E?
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

170
The genetic sex of an individual with
Assertion (A):
Klinefelter's syndrome is female
Only X-chromosome is present in their A B C D E
Reason (R):
genotype 1. First meiotic Second 23 First Second
division Meiotic polar polar
1.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct division body body
explanation of (A) 2. Mitosis and First 23 First Secondary
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct differentiation meiotic polar polar
2.
explanation of (A) division body body
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 3. First meiotic Second 46 First Second
4. Both (A) and (R) are False division Meiotic polar polar
division body body
171 Natural selection acts only on the traits that are:
4. Mitosis and First 46 First Secondary
1. Dominant differentiation meiotic polar polar
2. Recessive division body body
3. Acquired during the lifetime of an individual
4. Inherited Which of the following conditions is not required for a
175
population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
172 The mature follicle in the ovary is called as:
No net movement of genes into or out of the population (no
1. Atretic follicle 1.
migration)
2. Graafian follicle
3. Antral follicle 2. Random mating within the population
4. Tertiary follicle 3. Absence of mutations
4. A small population size

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176 Which letter in the given figure represents the 180 Which of the following will directly support the
lactiferous duct? conclusion derived by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and
Maclyn McCarty that DNA caused the bacterial
transformation in Griffith’s experiment?
Protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting
I:
enzymes (RNases) did not affect transformation
II: Digestion with DNase inhibited transformation.

1. Only I 2. Only II
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

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177 Which event occurs during the secretory phase of the

menstrual cycle?
1. Regeneration of the endometrium
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2. Development of the corpus luteum
3. Rapid growth of the ovarian follicles
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4. Shedding of the endometrial lining
days of ANY
178 Consider the given two statements:
NEETprep course
The acrosome reaction is essential for
Assertion (A):
fertilization in humans.
The acrosome contains digestive enzymes that
Reason (R): help the sperm penetrate the corona radiata
and zona pellucida to reach the oocyte.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

179 What maintains the functions of male sex accessory

ducts and glands in humans?
1. Releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.
2. Pituitary gonadotropins.
3. Steroids from adrenal cortex.
4. Testicular androgens.

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