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VIBRANT CEE BASED MODEL EXAMINATION

Marks distribution Pattern: - Date: - 2081  11 17
Physics: - 50 Time: - 3 hr.
Chemistry: - 50 Full Mark: - 200
Zoology: - 40 Negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong tick mark.
Botany:- 40
MAT:- 20
PHYSICS a. √19.6 b.2 √9.6 c.7 √2 d. 7
1. The dimensional formula for modulus of rigidity is 10. As depth of a river increases, the velocity of flow
a. ML-1T b. MLT-2
3 -2 a. increases
c. ML T d. ML-1T-2
2. A force of 20N acts on a particle of mass 2Kg and b. decreases
displaces it by 5m at an angle 30°. What is the work c. remains unchanged
done. d. increases in summer and decreases in winter
a. 40J b.50J c.100J d.50√3J 11. Two thermometers are constructed in such a way
3. The area of the acceleration displacement graph for a that one has a spherical bulb and the other has
moving body gives elongated cylindrical bulb. Which one will respond
a. impulse more quickly to temperature changes?
b. change in momentum per unit mass a. with cylindrical bulb
c. change in KE per unit mass b. with spherical bulb
d. total change in energy c. both respond similarly
d. any one may respond quickly depending on the value
4. A plump line suspended from the roof a carriage of temperature
moving with an acceleration 'a' inclines at an angle 
12. A solid ball of metal has a concentric spherical cavity
with the vertical, then
within it. If the ball is heated, the volume of the cavity
 will :
a. Increase b. Decrease
c. Remains unaffected d. None of the above.
a. a = g tan  b. a = g sin  13. Assuming no heat losses, the heat released by the
c. a = g cot  d. a = g cos  condensation of x gm of steam at 100°C can be used
5. The least speed required to launch a missile for a to convert y gm of ice at 0°C into water at 100°C, the
horizontal range 16 km is ratio of x : y is:
a. 200m/s b.250km/s c.400m/s d. 1.6km/s a. 1 : 1 b. 1 :2 c. 1 : 3 d. 3 : 1
6. Before jumping in water from a height, a swimmer 14. Two waves having the intensity in the ratio of 9:1
bends his body to produce interference. The ratio of maximum to
a. Decrease angular velocity. minimum intensity
b. Decrease moment of inertia. a.10:8 b. 9:1 c.4:1 d. 2:1
c. Increase moment of inertia. 15. Air in a cylinder is suddenly compressed by a piston,
d. Decreases angular momentum. if the volume after compression is half the original
7. Two planets of equal masses have their radii R and volume, then final pressure after long time is
2R. Then ratio of escape velocities of particles on a. greater than twice the initial pressure
their surfaces be. b. equal to twice the initial pressure
1 2 2 2 1 c. equal to the initial pressure
a. b. c. d. d. half the initial pressure
2 1 1 1
16. A hot body will radiate heat most rapidly if its
8. A body executes S.H.M with an amplitude A. At surface is
what displacement from the mean position the total a. White and polished b. White and rough
energy of the body is half kinetic and the half c. Black and polished d. Black and rough
potential. 17. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length
A A A 3A 10 cm is half the size of the object. Then the distance
a. b. c. d.
4 2 2 4 of the object from the mirror is
9. A stone is tied at one end of a 2m long string. The a. 10 cm b. 5 cm c. 15 cm d. 30 cm
minimum speed at the bottom required to complete
the circle in (in m/s)

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18. A point source of light is placed at depth of 4m below 31. Two electric lamps of 40 watt each are connected in
the surface of a transparent liquid whose refractive parallel. The power consumed by the combination
index is 5/3. What will be the minimum radius of the will be
a. 20 watt b. 80 watt c. 40 watt d. 160 watt
disc which is to be placed symmetrically on the liquid
surface just above the point source to stop the 32. Two identical coils carrying equal currents have a
common centers and their planes are at right angles
emergence of any light from the liquid surface to each other. Then the ratio of the magnitudes of the
a. 3m b. 5m c. 4m d. 6m resultant magnetic field and the magnetic field due to
19. The formation of rainbow is a natural example of one coil alone the centre is
a. Interference b. Dispersion a. 2:1 b. 1:1 c. 1: 2 d. 2 :1
c. Diffraction d. Reflection 33. A wire has a resistance 10 Ώ. It is stretched by one-
20. If m1 and m2 are the magnifications corresponding to tenth of its original length. Then its resistance will be
two positions of convex lens between fixed object and a.10Ώ b. 12.1Ώ c. 9 Ώ d. 11 Ώ
screen; then 34. An ammeter whose resistance is 50 ohm can read
a. m1+m2 = 0 b. m1m2 = 1 upto 10 mA. In order to increase its range to 1A,
c. m1m2 = m1+m2 d. m1=m2 what should be the shunt resistance?
21. Two lenses in contact form an achromatic doublet. a. 0.5005 b. 5.005
Their focal lengths are in ratio2:3. Their dispersive c. 50.05 d. 500.5
power must be in the ratio 35. The wavelength of light coming from a star shift
a. 2:3 b. 1:3 c. 3:1 d. 3:2 towards the violet end of the spectrum. This shows
22. In a double slit experiment the fringe width will be that the star is
minimum for a. Approaching the earth
a. violet b. red b. Receding from earth
c. green d. yellow c. Stationary d. Spinning
23. Three capacitors each of capacitance 3𝝁F, are 36. There is an aerial 1m long in a car. It is moving from east
connected in parallel. The net capacitance is to west with a velocity 100 km/hr. If the horizontal
a.1/3 𝝁F b. 1 𝝁F component of earth's magnetic field is 0.18 gauss, the
c. 3 𝝁F d. 9 𝝁F induced emf is nearly
a. 0.5 mV b. 0.25 mV
24. The roaring of a thunder cloud is heard 6 seconds after
the lightning flash. The distance of the cloud (velocity of c. 0.75 mV d. 1 mV
sound in air = 330 m/s) is 37. At low frequencies, a condenser offers
a. 1.56 km b. 1.64 km a. High impedance
c. 1.98 km d. 2.16 km. b. Low impedance
c. Zero impedance
25. Deviation produced by a prism does not depend on
d. Impedance of condenser is independent of frequency
a. Angle of prism b. Material of prism
38. If an electron has no initial velocity in a direction
c. Angle of incidence d. Size of prism
different from that of an electric field, the path of
26. On charging a body negatively, its mass
electron is
a. gets increased.
a. a straight line b. a parabola
b. gets decreased.
c. a circle d. an ellipse
c. may increase or decrease.
d. remains unchanged. 39. The photoelectric current can be increased by
27. The magnitude of electric field strength E such that a. increasing frequency b. increasing intensity
an electron placed in it would experience an electrical c. decreasing intensity d. decreasing wavelength
force equal to its weight, is given by 40. If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third
a. mg b. mg/e c. mg/e2 d. e/mg orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted
28. A moving electron enter in long spread electric field radiation is given by
along the direction of electric lines of force, then its 36 5R 5 R
kinetic energy. a.  = b.  = c.  d.  =
5R 36 R 6
a. Increase b. Decrease
41. The colour of the positive column in a gas discharge
c. Remains unaffected tube depends on
d. First decrease become zero and then increases a. Type of glass used to construct the tube
29. At what temperature nitrogen molecules will have b. The gas in the tube
the same rms speed as oxygen molecules at 127℃. c. The applied voltage d. The material of the cathode
a. 77℃ b. 357℃ c. 273℃ d. 457℃ 42. Atomic mass number of an element is 232 and its
30. A wire of length L has resistance R. It is bent at mid atomic number is 90. The end products of this
point such that the two halves make an angle 90° with radioactive element is an isotope of lead (Atomic
each other. The new resistance would be mass 208 and atomic number 82), the number of 
a. R b. 2 R c. R/ 2 d. R/4 and  - particles emitted is
a.  = 3,  = 3 b.  = 6,  = 4
c.  = 6,  = 0 d.  = 4,  = 6

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43. The spectrum of a star is usually 56. The density of carbondioxide at NTP is 1.95 gm/lit.
a. Continuous emission spectrum The density of gas at 100°C and 800 mm Hg in gm/lit
b. Continuous absorption spectrum is:
c. Line absorption spectrum a. 1.50 b. 105 c. 2.05 d. 1.05
d. Line emission spectrum 57. Which of the following forces is strongest among the
44. At absolute zero temperature, a crystal of pure following?
germanium a. H-bonding b. Dipole- Dipole force
a. behaves as perfect conductor c. Vander -Waal's forces d. All equal
b. behaves as perfect insulator 58. The correct order of solubility in water for inert
c. contains no electron gases is:
d. none of above. a. Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
45. In an insulator the forbidden energy gap between a b. He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
valence band and a conduction band is of the order of c. Ne > Ar > Ar > Ne > He
a. 1 eV b. 5 eV c. 1 KeV d. 1 Me V d. He > Ar > Ne > Kr > Xe
59. As a fixing agent in photography, sodium
46. The electrical conductivity of semiconductor
increases, when electromagnetic radiation of thiosulphate is used for
wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. a. Dissolving out unreacted silver bromide
The band gap for the semiconductor is b. Converting silver halides to metallic silver
c. Reducing solubility AgBr
a. 0.9 eV b. 0.7 eV
d. Preventing overdeveloping and fogging
c. 0.5 eV d. 1.1 eV
60. Which of the following steels has negligible coefficient
47. A neutron has of expansion?
a. no charge and no spin b. no charge but has spin a. Nickel steel b. Tungsten steel
c. charge as well as spin d. charge and mass c. Invar d. All
48. The mother and daughter elements, with the emission 61. The process of converting hydrated alumina into
anhydrous alumina is called
of  - particles are
a. Roasting b. Smelting
a. isotopes b. isobars c. Dressing d. Calcination
c. isomers d. isodiapheres 62. During catalytic hydration of alkene, __________ is
49. The quark combination of proton is formed:
  a. Alkane b. Alkyne
a. udd b. uud c. u u d d. u d d c. Aldehyde d. Alcohol
50. Which of the following series lies in ultraviolet 63. The reaction between the esters having at least one -
region: hydrogen in the presence of strong base is called
a. Lyman series b. Balmer series _________ reaction:
c. Paschen series d. Bracket series a. Aldol condensation b. Cannizaro's reaction
CHEMISTRY c. Perkin condensation d. Claisen condensation
51. 0.6 g of a compound occupies 224cm3 of volume at 64. Tranquilisers are substance used for the treatment of
STP. It consists of 6.67% of hydrogen, 40% of carbon a. Cancer b. AIDS
and rest of oxygen. What is the molecular formula of c. Mental disease d. Physical disorder
the compound? 65. Which of the following is non reducing sugar?
a.CH2O b. C2H2O a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Fructose d. Maltose
c. CHO d. C2H4O2
66. Which one of the following is example of redox
52. A radioactive substance remains 1/8th of its original reaction?
mass after 96 days. What is the half-life period of the a. purification of metal from its ore
radioactive substance. b. neutralization reaction
a.16 b.44 c. respiration
c.32 d. 40 d. none
53. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 67. SO2(g)+1/2O2(g)⇔SO3(g) Kp= Kc(RT)X. Find x for the
N2+3H2⇔2NH3 is 4, then new equilibrium constant reaction
𝟔
for the reaction N2+ H2⇔2NH3 is a. 1/2 b.-1/2 c.3/2 d. 2/3
𝟐
a.4 b. 1/4 68. E° for the cell Zn/Zn2+//Cu2+/Cu is 1.1 V at 25°C. The
c.0 d. 16 equilibrium constant for the cell reaction:
54. Which of the following reacts with conc. H2SO4? Zn + Cu2+  Cu + Zn2+ is of the order of:
a. Au b. Ag c. Pt d. Pd a. 10-18 b. 10-37 c. 1018 d. 1037
55. 0.4 gm of a metal gave 136.8 ml of hydrogen at NTP 69. The second order rate constant is usually expressed
on treatment with dil.H2SO4. The equivalent weight as:
of metal is: a. mol-1 litre-1 sec-1 c. mol litre-1 sec-1
a. 22.11 b. 33.11 c. 44.11 d. 12.11 c. mol litre sec-1 d. mol-1 litre sec-1

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70. Which of the following is more paramagnetic? 86. Setting (hardening) of plaster of paris is:
a. Fe2+ b. Fe3+ c. Zn+2 d. Cu+ a. oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
71. A current of 2A passed for 5 hours through a molten b. combustion with atmospheric CO2
metal salt deposits 22.2 g of metal (At.wt=177). The c. dehydration
oxidation state of the metal in the metal salt is d. Hydration to yield another hydrate
a.+1 b.+2 c.+3 d. +4 87. Which of the following salts does no impart colour to
72. The molarity of an acid is 2 M. How many moles are the flame?
present in 1 litre of solution: a. LiCl b. KI c. MgCl2 d. CaCl2
a. 4 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 88. What is the stoichiometric coefficient of Ca in the
73. The IUPAC name of the compound reaction?
CH2 CH3
Ca + Al3+  Ca2+ + Al
|| |
CH3 - CH2 - C - CH2 - CHNH2 is: a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4
a. 2-Amino-4-ethylpent-4-ene 89. Which of the following is isostructural species?
b. 4-Amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene a. H3O+and NH4 b. BF3and CO3
c. 4-methylidencehexan-2-amine c. H2Oand OF2 d. Both b and c
d. 4-Ethylpent-4-en-2-amine 90. The correct order of boiling points for primary 1°
74. A H2NaOH B reduction C NOCl
secondary 2° and tertiary 3° alcohol is
CH3CH2Cl a. 1°>2°>3° b. 1°<2°<3° c. 2°>1°>3° d. 2°<3°<1°
A and C in the above sequence respectively are 91. C7H8O shows how many isomers?
a. Methanal, Methylamine b. Acetone, ethanamine a.2 b. 3 c.4 d. 5
c. Ethanal, Dimethylamine d. Acetaldehyde, ethylamine 92. The basicity of aniline is less than of cyclohexylamine.
75. The halogen that is most easily reduced is This is due to:
a.F2 b. Cl2 c. Br2 d. I2
a. +R effect of - NH2 group
76. Acetaldehyde is the rearrangement product of:
a. Methyl alcohol b. allyl alcohol b. -1 effect of - NH2 group
c. vinyl alcohol d. all are correct c. -R effect of - NH2 group
77. Hyper conjugation involves overlap of the following d. hyperconjugation effect
orbitals: 93. When Arsenic chloride is reacted with acetylene gas,
a.  -  b.  -  c.  -  d.  -  compound which is produced is used as an
78. Oxidation of ethyne by SeO2 gives:
antimalarial drug. It is:
a. Glyoxal b. Methyl glyoxal
c. Dimethyl glyoxal d. Ethyl glyoxal a. Westrosol b. Westron
79. The product formed by reaction of benzene with c. -chloro vinyldichloroarsine d. Marsh gas
methyl chloride in presence of AlCl3 is: 94. Among the following compounds the one that is most
a. Toluene b. o-xylene reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
c. Ethyl benzene d. All a. Toluene b. Benzene
80. Which substance doesn't give iodoform test with c. Benzoic Acid d. Nitrobenzene
NaOH/I2? 95. Ethyl benzene can not be prepared by ______.
a. Clemmensen reduction b. Wurtz reaction
a. C6H5COCH3 b. CH3CH2COCH3
c. Wurtz-Fittig reaction d. Friedel-Crafts reaction
c. CH3CHO d. CH3COCH2COCH3
96. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives
81. Which of the following molecules will have unequal
formaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms
lengths? the presence of
a.NF3 b. BF3 c. PF5 d. SF6 a. A vinyl group
82. The allotropic form of carbon which is used for b. Two ethylenic double bonds
making load pencil is: c. An acetylenic triple bond
a. Lamp black b. Charcoal d. An isopropyl group
c. Graphite d. Gas carbon 97. The reaction between a primary amine, chloroform
83. A compound of nitrogen which is explosive is: and a few drops of alcoholic KOH is known as
a. NCl3 b. N2O5 c. NH3 d. NF3 a. Frankland's reaction b. Cannizzaro's reaction
84. Oxygen is more electronegative than Sulphur. Yet H 2 c. Wurtz reaction d. Carbylamine reaction
S is acidic while H2O is neutral. This is because 98. Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a
a. Water is a highly associated compound final product
b. Molecular mass of H2S is more than H2O a. C6H5Cl b. C6Cl6
c. H2O is liquid while H2S is gas c. C6H6Cl6 d. CCl4
d. H-S bond is weaker then H-O bond 99. The reaction of aromatic acyl chloride and phenol in
85. Solder is an alloy of: the presence of a base NaOH or pyridine is called
a. lead and tin b. tin and copper a. Kolbe's reaction b. Perkin's reaction
c. copper and zinc d. zinc and tin c. Sandmeyer's reaction d. Schotten Baumann reaction
100. The general formula of a cycloalkene is
a. CnH2n+2 b. CnH2n-2 c. CnH2n d. CnHn

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ZOOLOGY 115. Which one of the following is a disease of kidney?
101. Broca's Area is associated with which lobe of the a. Parkinson's disease b. Graves disease
cerebral cortex? c. Addison's disease d. Bright's disease
a. Frontal b. Parietal 116. The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin tends to
c. Temporal d. Occipital release CO2. This is called
102. First jawed vertebrates are pisces. The "Age of fish" a. Bohr effect
is: b. Haldane effect
a. Devonian period b. Jurassic period c. Hamburger's phenomenon
c. Ordovician period d. Carboniferous period d. Bainbridge effect
103. The cavities of alveoli of lungs are lined by 117. The sponge differs from other animals in having
a. Cuboidal epithelium b. Columnar epithelium a. Hollow body b. Coelenteron cavity
c. Stratified cuboidal epithelium c. Only one mouth d. Collar cells
d. Squamous epithelium 118. Cleavage in frog's egg ends with the stage of
104. The uterine layer of human being that is sloughed off a. Gastrula b. Blastula
during each menstruation is the c. Morula d. Nerula
a. Stratum functionalis b. Stratum basalis 119. Doctor used the technique for the detection of anti-
c. Stratum corneum d. Stratum germinativum HIV antibodies in human blood is
105. All the spiny skinned animals which are exclusively a. Widal test b. Mantoux test
marine are placed in phylum c. DOTS d. ELISA
a. Annelida b. Arthropoda 120. Phaosome, present in earthworm is connected with
c. Mollusca d. Echinodermata a. Thigmoreceptor b. Photoreceptor
106. Hydra is c. Gustatoreceptor d. Olfactoreceptor
a. Freshwater, diploblastic and radially symmetrical 121. Many people eat pork meat and parasite cause
b. Marine, diploblastic and radially symmetrical aberrant migration in brain then they likely to
c. Freshwater, triploblastic and radially symmetrical suffer from
d. Marine, triploblastic and bilateral a. Neuropsycosis b. Neurocysticercosis
107. Digestion is a complex process involving different c. Fibrosis d. Cirosis
enzymes and organs. In the stomach, the enzyme 122. Which life history stage of malaria parasites are
pepsin plays a key role in breaking down proteins likely to be found in the mosquito gut immediately
into peptides. However, pepsin is initially produced in after it had drawn blood from the patient?
an inactive form called pepsinogen. To become active, a. Sporozoites, schizont and oocyst
it requires a specific condition in the stomach. What b. Trophozoites, merozoites and gametocytes
is responsible for converting pepsinogen into its c. Gametocytes, ookinetes and signet ring stage
active form? d. Merozoites, gametocytes and zygote
a. Amylase b. Bile salts 123. Wrinkles in old age is due to
c. HCl d. Trypsin a. Myosin fibres b. Actin fibres
108. Which of the following is also known as cuddle c. Collagen fibres d. Elastin fibres
hormone ? 124. In malarial infection, lysolecithin which destroy RBC
a. Progesterone b. Oxytocin is secreted by
c. Prolactin d. Androgen a. Plasmodium b. RBC
109. Chemical responsible for increasing blood Pressure c. Spleen d. Liver
due to renin - action is 125. Throwing out and retracting of tongue in frog to
a. Aldosterone b. Angiotensinogen capture the prey is due to
c. Angiotensin-I d. Angiotensin-II a. Hypoglossus muscle
110. The flying fish is capable of gliding several meter b. Flow of lymph from sinus to sinus
high in the air, as the fish leaps out of water. This is c. Muscular movement
possible because of d. All of the above
a. Large pectoral find b. Large pelvic fin 126. Development of male secondary sexual characters in
c. Large caudal fin d. Swim bladder female such as moustache is due to excessive secretion
111. Stage of Plasmodium infective to man and injected of
into human blood by mosquito is a. Thyroid gland b. Pituitary gland
a. Trophozoite b. Merozoite
c. Ovary d. Suprarenal gland
c. Sporozoite d. Cyst
112. The duct which carries sperms from testis and 127. What is common among scorpion, crab, honeybee
and silverfish?
epididymis to the penis is
a. Poison glands b. Jointed legs
a. Vasa efferentia b. Vas-deferens
c. Metamorphosis d. Compound eye
c. Ureter d. Seminiferous tubules
113. The nitrogenous metabolic wastes removed by the 128. You are riding a bicycle and take a sudden turn
septal nephridia of the earthworm are thrown out to around a sharp corner. The organ involved in the
the exterior through maintenance of balance is
a. Medulla oblongata b. Semicircular canal
a. Alimentary canal b. Nephridiopore
c. Cerebrum d. Optic chiasma
c. Nephrostome d. Coelomic fluid
129. Which of the following is the direct ancestor of Homo
114. Which of the following is formed in Stanley Miller's
classic experiment? sapiens
a. Microspheres b. Nucleic acids a. Cro-magnon man b. Neanderthalman
c. Amino acids d. UV-radiation c. Homo erectus d. Ramapithecus
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130. Layer of cells that secrete dentine of tooth is 146. Megasporophyll of Pteridophyte is comparable to
a. Dentoblast b. Ameloblast which structure of angiosperms?
c. Amyloblast d. Odontoblast a. Carpel b. Microsporophyll
131. A pregnant women who has done aminocentesis test c. Stamen d. Ovule
find a an extra Barr body in her embryo. The 147. Spirogyra differs from moss protonema in having:
syndrome which is likely to be associated with the a. Pyrenoid b. Branched filament
embryo is c. Discoid chloroplast d. Rhizoidal branches
a. Edward's syndrome b. Down's syndrome 148. Most primitive type of stele found in pteridophytes is:
c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. Patau's syndrome a. Siphonostele b. Protostele
132. Glisson's capsule is found in which mammalian
c. Solenostele d. Dictyostele
organ?
a. Kidney b. Liver 149. The hormone involved in metabolism of food
c. Pancreas d. Brain material in cereal grain during germination is :
133. Acetylocholine is secreted by a. Auxin b. CKN
a. Golgi bodies b. lysosome c. GA d. None of these
c. Mitochondria d. All of these 150. A man has enlarged breasts, sparse hairs on the body
134. Histamine and Heparin are secreted by and sex chromosomal formula XXY. He the suffers
a. Plasma cell b. Mast cell from
c. Lymphocyte d. Macrophages a. Down's syndrome
135. Liver of Frog consist of b. Edward's Syndrome
a. Single lobe b. Two lobe c. Turner's syndrome
c. Three lobe d. Four lobe d. Klinefelter's sundrome
136. Center of intelligence in brain lies in 151. Floridean starch occurs in
a. Diencephalon b. Cerebellum a. Myxophytes b. Rhodophyceae
c. Medulla oblongata d. Cerebrum c. Chlorphyceae d. Phaeophyceae
137. Positive geotaxis is shown by:
152. Cell recognition and adhesion are facilitated by
a. Earthworms b. Paramecium
c. Musca d. Drosophila components of plasma membrane. These components
138. In Annelida mostly larva is absent, if a larva is are generally:
present, it is called: a. Protein molecules alone
a. Trochophore b. Nauplius b. Lipids alone
c. Glochidium d. Tornaria c. Both lipids and proteins
139. Which one of these is the largest type of WBC? d. Glycolipids and glycoproteins
a. Acidophils b. Basophils 153. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are
c. Lymphocytes d. Monocytes related to:
140. Which is sequenced during study of phylogeny? a. Hot and humid environment
a. m-RNA b. r-RNA b. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
c. t-RNA d. DNA c. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
BOTANY d. Low temperature
141. Rod like elongated sclereids in the seed coats of 154. In a mature seed, an aril is:
pulses are called: a. A small outgrowth formed at the micropyle
a. Asterosclereids b. Macrosclereids b. An outgrowth of the funicle which grows up around
c. Trichosclereids d. Brachysclereids the ovule more or less completely enveloping the seed
142. The exotic species is— c. A persistent nucellus
a. A species of a selective region d. An outgrowth of the integuments
b. Local species 155. What is the reason of formation of embryoid from
c. Species with good characters pollen grain in tissue culture medium?
d. A species brought into an area from other region a. Cellular totipotency b. Organogenesis
143. Rotation of crops is essential for: c. Double fertilization d. Test tube culture
a. Increasing quality of protein 156. A heterogamous tall plants produces tall and dwarf
b. Increasing fertility of soil plants after selfing. This conforms the Mendel's law
c. Getting different kinds of crops called as
d. Increasing quality of minerals a. Law of dominance
144. The cambium in root originates from— b. Law of segregation
a. Pith c. Law of purity of gametes
b. Conjuctive tissue d. Law of independent assortment
c. Pericycle 157. In ATG ACC AGG ACC CCA ACA sequence, the
d. Conjuctive tissue and pericycle first base gets mutated. It will affect
145. System of classification of angiosperms or plants a. Change in types and sequence of amino acids
which is based on maximum number of phenotypic b. Change in first amino acid only
attributes is: c. No change
a. Artificial system b. Natural system d. One amino acid less
c. Phylogenetic system d. None of these

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158. What is the cause of cell division? d. True breeding homozygotes
a. Decrease in surface area/volume ratio due to growth of 171. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic
cell variation in the population of a sexually reproducing
b. Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio decreases due to increase in organism?
size of cell a. Genetic drift b. Recombination
c. Disturbance in DNA and RNA ratio c. Transduction d. Chromosomal aberrations
d. All of the above 172. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the
159. Movement of electrolytes through the roots is presence of:
generally a. Vasculature without cambium
a. Against electro chemical gradient and require energy b. Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem
b. Along electro chemical gradient and does not require along the radius
energy c. Open vascular bundles
c. A passive process d. Scattered vascular bundles
d. Dependent on aquaporins. 173. Bacteria useful in dairy and curdiling of milk is
160. Succession resulting from changes brought about by a. Monococcus b. Diplococcus
the organisms themselves, is called c. Streptococcus and Lactobacillus d. Streptomyces
a. Autogenic succession 174. Which plant hormone help in active absorption of
b. Primary succession water
c. Allogenic succession a. Auxin b. GA
d. Secondary succession c. Cytokinin d. ABA
161. Which is the most ancient division of plants to use 175. The sugar present in fruits, honey and nectar is
pollination as a means of reproduction? a. Mannose b. Glucose
a. Angiosperms b. Gymnosperms c. Fructose d. Lactose
c. Bryophytes d. Pteridophytes 176. When the pollen from one flower is deposited on the
162. Guttation occur through stigma of another flower borne on different plant, the
a. Stomata b. Lenticle type of pollination is known as
c. Hydathode d. Water a. Allogamy b. Autogamy
163. Glycolysis is turned off when ATP is present in c. Geitnogamy d. Xenogamy
adequate amounts, because ATP is an allosteric 177. Protein rich seeds swell more in water than starchy
inhibitor of an enzymes involved in one of the early seeds because
steps of the pathway, that enzymes is a. Protein seeds develop low imbibition pressure
a. Phosphofructo kinase b. Phosphogluco mutase b. Imbibing capacity of proteins is very high
c. Isomerase d. Phosphofructo aldolase c. Heat of wetting released by proteins is low
164. Numerous ovules are present in the ovary of the d. All of these
plants belonging to the family 178. Nitrifying bacteria Nitrosomonas and Nitrobactor
a. Solanaceae b. Crucifera converts
c. Leguminosae d. Compositae a. Ammonium compounds into nitrates
165. Which of the following plants exhibit independent b. Nitrates into N2
alteration of generation? c. N2 into NO3
a. Angiosperm b. Gymnosperm
d. NO3 into NH3
c. Pteridophytes d. Bryophytes
166. The organism which live in the bottom of lake are 179. Which group of three micronutrient elements affect
called both phtosynthetic and mitochondrial electron
a. Phytoplankton b. Zooplankton transport
c. Nekton d. Benthos a. Cu, Mn, Fe b. Co, Ni, Mo
167. Dolipore septum is a complex type of septum found in c. Ca, K, Na d. Mn, Co, Ca.
same members of class. 180. Two fusing gametes of Spirogyra are:
a. Oomycetes b. Zygomycetes a. Morphologically and physiologically dissimilar
c. Ascomycetes d. Basidiomycetes b. Morphologically similar and physiologically
168. What would be the number of chromatids in a dissimilar
chromosome after anaphase - I ? c. Morphologically similar
a. One b. Two c. Four d. Eight d. Morphologically dissimilar
169. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex M.A.T.
chromosomes was born due to: 181. Find the odd word.
a. Fusion of two ova and one sperm a. Slip b. Diamond
c. Googli d. Doorsa
b. Fusion of two sperms and one ovum
182. AB11CD, EF13GH, IJ17KL, ?
c. Formation of abnormal sperms in the father
a. MN18OP b. MN19OP
d. Formation of abnormal ova in the mother
c. MN21OP d. MN23OP
170. Alleles are: 183. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20 th. When
a. Different molecular forms of a gene two boy joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is
b. Heterozygotes his new rank from the end?
c. Different phenotype a. 25th b. 26th c. 27th d. 28th
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184. What is the angle between the hands of clock at 7:10? 194. Six children's A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a
a. 185o b. 155o c. 170o d. 165o row. B is between F and D. E is between A and C. A
185. At sunrise, Ram and Shyam are having a does not stand next to either F or D. C does not stand
conversations, standing in front of each other. If next to D. F is between which of the following pairs of
Ram's shadow is in right hand of Shyam. In which children?
direction Ram is facing? a. B and E b. B and C
a. East b. West c. North d. South c. B and D d. B and A
195. Magazine : Editor :: Drama : ?
186. a – bc – c – abb – bca – a. Director b. Player
a. abbba b. accba c. cccbc d. cbbac c. Manager d. Actor
187. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, 196. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
"If you give me three cards, you will have as many as
E has and if I give you three cards, you will have as
many as D has." A and B together have 10 cards
more than what D and E together have. If B has two
cards more than what C has and the total number of (X) (1) (2) (3)
cards be 133, how many cards does B have? (4)
a. 22 b. 23 c. 25 d. 35 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
197. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from
188. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg
the given sheet of paper (X).
when a new person comes in place of one of them
weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new
person?
a. 76 kg b. 76.5 kg c. 85 kg d. 85. 5 kg
189. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of
5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their
ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only
present age in years? c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 4 only
a. 24 b. 27 c. 40 d. 30 198. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions
190. An automobile financier claims to be lending money of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.
at simple interest, but he includes the interest every
six months for calculating the principal. If he is
charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of
interest becomes:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
a. 10% b. 10.25% c. 11% d. 11.5%
191. Which one will replace the question mark? 199. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that
would complete the figure matrix.

a. 75 b. 26 c. 25 d. 20
192. Statements: (i) Some papers are pens.
(ii) Angle is a paper.
Conclusions: (i) Angle is not a pen.
(ii) Angle is a pen
a. Only (i) follows b. Only (ii) follows
c. Both (i) and (ii) follows d. Either (i) or (ii) follows
193. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
sequence. 200. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime
4. Judge 5. Judgement
a. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 b. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
c. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 d. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

a. 11 b. 13 c. 15 d. 17

*** All the Best***

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