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ĐỀ 21

Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG

Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 1. After a momentary of concentration, Simon managed to regain his
focus and completed the test.
A. failure. B. lapse. C. fault. D. error.
Question 2. Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _ ?
A. doesn’t he. B. hasn’t he. C. does he. D. has he.
Question 3. If you didn’t have to leave today, I you around the city.
A. have shown. B. will show. C. would show. D. showed.
Question 4. The prices of property in big cities may deter people on low
incomes from owning a house there.
A. competitive. B. forbidding. C. prohibitive. D. inflatable.
Question 5. The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to
environmental consequences.
A. far-reaching. B. far-gone. C. far-flung. D. far-off.
Question 6. He promised his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. to buying. B. buying. C. buy. D. to buy.
Question 7. Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that
good education will enable them to in the future.
A. get on. B. turn up. C. turn away. D. get out.
Question 8. I’ve been waiting for hours. You to tell me you would come late.
A. needn’t have phoned. B. must have phoned.
C. oughtn’t to have phoned. D. should have phoned.
Question 9. Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems child abuse.
A. are involving. B. to involve. C. involving. D. involved.
Question 10. You must not any step in the process; otherwise,
you would not be able to cook the dish properly.
A. leave. B. quit. C. skip. D. hide.
Question 11. Only after he the job as a computer programmer did he realise
how much he loved it.
A. would leave. B. was leaving. C. had left. D. has left.
Question 12. Susan has achieved great in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. successfully. B. successful. C. succeed. D. success.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13. A. charity. B. agency. C. origin. D. disaster.
Question 14. A. behave. B. enter. C. allow. D. relax.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A. fingers. B. attacks. C. medals. D. concerns.
Question 16. A. mean. B. treat. C. wear. D. dream.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 17. Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: “Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum.”
- Kate: “ . It is an essential life skill.”
A. Not at all. B. You can make it.
C. I can’t agree with you more. D. Oh, that’s a problem.
Question 18. Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: “ ”
- Mike: “It’s my pleasure.”
A. It’s too heavy. B. It’s not my duty. C. Welcome back.D. Thanks a lot, indeed.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims
in the disaster-stricken areas.
A. awareness. B. uncertainty. C. reluctance. D. willingness.
Question 20. Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in
the country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. obviously delighted. B. extremely panicked.
C. incredibly optimistic. D. desperately sad.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy
snowstorm.
A. cancelled. B. changed. C. delayed. D. continued.
Question 22. The chairman’s thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. defined. B. hosted. C. triggered. D. arose.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations,
among which the financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics
can (23) tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even
triple. In addition to the direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening and closing
ceremonies, athletes’ village, security, etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues
(24) lesser- known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25) concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider.
For one, an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist
spending, corporate sponsorship, and television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and
Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games they hosted. (26) , hosting the
Olympic Games confers prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade
and tourism. The Olympics are also an opportunity to invest in projects (27) improve
the city’s quality of life, such as new transportation systems.
(Adapted from “Skillful Reading & Writing 4” by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23. A. surmount. B. outnumber. C. overcharge. D. exceed.
Question 24. A. on. B. for. C. at. D. in.
Question 25. A. influential. B. primary. C. supplementary. D. instrumental.
Question 26. A. Otherwise. B. However. C. For example. D. In addition.
Question 27. A. what. B. which. C. whom. D. who.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body languages varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In
the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In
other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance.
In North America people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America.
Two North Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet
between them, whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet
apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a
confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm –
or move any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not
mean that people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings.
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we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country.
An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many
cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the
language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to
communicate successfully.
(Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah
Feingold)
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Misunderstandings in communication.
B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures.
C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America.
D. Non-verbal communication across cultures.
Question 29. According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, and
American child is expected to .
stand close to the person. B. raise his/her eyebrows.
C. point a finger at the person. D. look directly at the person.
Question 30. The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. enjoyment. B. closeness. C. strength. D. agreement.
Question 31. The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. mispronounced. B. misbehaved. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood.
Question 32. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. the country. B. an example. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood.
Question 33. As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person .
A. to use the body language of the people from that culture.
B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture.
C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture.
D. to travel to as many countries as possible.
Question 34. Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. distance. B. posture. C. gesture. D. eye movement.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental
destruction, is changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders
were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were
considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have been able to
take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also,
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they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way
is to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is
possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at
no cost and with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs.
To reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the
walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and
building had to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees
and the need to lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials
were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by
32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according
to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the
site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent
less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are
also equipped with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for
400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a
second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese
government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly,
green buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 35. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings.
B. Successful green building projects all over the world.
C. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings.
D. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings.
Question 36. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because .
A. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings.
B. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century.
C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time.
D. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were
not recognised then.

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Question 37. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. recycled materials. B. green builders. C. rays of the sun. D. solar panels.
Question 38. The word “insulation” in paragraph 3 mostly means .
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun’s rays.
B. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption.
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity.
D. devices that monitor changes in temperature.
Question 39. What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
B. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
D. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
Question 40. The phrase “under way” in paragraph 6 mostly means .
A. being notified. B. being launched. C. being inspected. D. being
certified. Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of
green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions. B. Proving more economical eventually.
C. Being friendly to the environment. D. Increasing work productivity.
Question 42. According to the passage, which of the following statements about
green buildings is TRUE?
A. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.
B. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.
C. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
D. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the
competition.
B. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well
in the competition.
C. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the
competition.
D. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well
in the competition.
Question 44. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue
worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid
course.
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B. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
D. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45. “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Thursday,” said the teacher to the
students.
A. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 46. They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country’s education.
A. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of
the country’s education.
B. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country’s education.
C. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country’s education.
D. The quality of the country’s education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
Question 47. She wasn’t early enough to catch the bus.
A. She didn’t arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus.
C. She was too late to catch the bus. D. She wasn’t late for the bus.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48. It is the night of 5th November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
fireworks as a
A B C
national tradition.
D
Question 49. They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren’s behaviour and their academic performance.
C D
Question 50. Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D

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ĐỀ 22

Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG

Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 1. The costal city is extra buses during the summer because of a
considerable increase in the number of tourists.
A. turning out. B. making up. C. taking off. D. putting on.
Question 2. Although she had been told quite sternly to herself together, she simply
couldn’t stop the tears from flowing.
A. bring. B. force. C. pull. D. push.
Question 3. If our teacher were here now, he us with this difficult exercise.
A. will help. B. would help. C. has helped. D. helps.
Question 4. They were at the stadium with us last night, so they at the threatre then.
A. needn’t have been. B. might have been. C. should have been. D. can’t have been.
Question 5. to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children’s
psychological development.
A. Approaching. B. Rising. C. Going. D. Reaching.
Question 6. Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ?
A. doesn’t she. B. don’t they. C. does she. D. do they.
Question 7. Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their skills.
A. socially. B. socialize. C. social. D. society.
Question 8. The boy denied the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eating. B. eating. C. to eat. D. eat.
Question 9. In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher’s permission
is clearly a copyright .
A. infliction. B. infringement. C. interference. D. interpretation.
Question 10. These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in
regions.
A. far-sighted. B. far-fetched. C. far-reaching. D. far-flung.
Question 11. The children by social networks are likely to suffer from depression
and other health problems.
A. obsessing. B. obsessed. C. who obsessed. D. are obsessed.
Question 12. Only after the teacher the procedure clearly were the students allowed to
go ahead with the experiment.
A. was explaining. B. would explain. C. had explained. D. has explained.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13. Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a
challenging question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. got nervous. B. became aggressive. C. stayed confident. D. had a
fever. Question 14. Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the
highest achievement he got when he was at school.
A. comprehension. B. success. C. failure. D. completion.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound
advice from their coach.
A. sensible. B. tentative. C. audible. D. sensitive.
Question 16. It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered
species all over the world.
A. adapted. B. improved. C. rebuilt. D. introduced.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 17. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: “I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life.”
- Jimmy: “ . There were successful people without a degree.”
A. That’s all right. B. I don’t quite agree. C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s life.
Question 18. Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: “ ”
- Janet: “Yes, please.”
A. It’s a bit hot in here, isn’t it? B. Do you mind if I sit here?
C. Can you pass me the salt, please? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. affect. B. happen. C. perform. D. obtain.
Question 20. A. assistant. B. president. C. companion. D. opponent.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. mountains. B. problems. C. moments. D. wonders.
Question 22. A. threat. B. seat. C. meat. D. beat.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific
math skills of elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23) were
published in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical
training to the development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24)
a pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as
well as time playing (25) newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher
on math and fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain’s “hard wiring” for spatial-temporal
reasoning, or the ability to visualize and transform objects in space and time, says Professor
Gordon Shaw, who led the study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to
solve geometric and math puzzles that boost their ability to (26) shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27) a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a
prerequisite to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math
cannot understand move advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from “Eye on Editing 2” by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23. A. which. B. whose. C. who. D. that.
Question 24. A. composing. B. concerning. C. conducting. D. carrying.
Question 25. A. at. B. for. C. with. D. of.
Question 26. A. manipulate. B. accumulate. C. accommodate. D. stimulate.
Question 27. A. because. B. unless. C. before. D. although.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it’s
what’s inside that’s important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a
negative reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you’re
likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are
likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to
different sorts of activity and this will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there’s no
need to abandon your individual taste completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody
else’s idea of what looks good, you may end up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when
you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and
uncomfortable. You know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to
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cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only
need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian’s book Silent Messages, which showed that the
impact we make on each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on
how we speak, and only seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapter from “Expert First” by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)
Question 28. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
B. Making Judgements about People’s Appearance
C. Making Your Image Work for You
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 29. According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from other by
A. talking about other people’s behaviours. B. sending out right signals.
C. wearing inappropriate clothes. D. expressing too strong emotions.
Question 30. The word “outfits” in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. sets of clothes. B. types of signals. C. types of gestures. D. sets of
equipment. Question 31. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor
to be considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in. B. Other people’s views on beauty.
C. Kinds of tasks you perform. D. People you meet.
Question 32. The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. neutral tones. B. taste boundaries. C. colours. D. means.
Question 33. The word “Reappraising” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. reapplying. B. reconsidering. C. reminding. D. recalling.
Question 34. According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on .
A. how we speak. B. how we look and behave.
C. what we read. D. what we actually say.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating,
having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that children will
be aware of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their
performance. The danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that
counts and you should win at all costs. Good behavior and fair play aren’t the message that
comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior are reasonable ways of getting
what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople
acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded
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either

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despite or because of their bad behavior.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to
discuss attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents
see a player swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and
discuss whether a player’s skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child
thinks the player’s contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on
their own, so it’s important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from
players, think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If they
let players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right
and what effect it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they
accept losing with good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk
about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents
should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the
high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with
spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a
game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out
to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don’t gloat when they win or sulk when they lose.
And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and
the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get their
children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but
often more publicized players.
(Adapter from “New English File – Advanced” by Will Maddox)
Question 35. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of team spirit in sport
B. The influence of model sportspeople on children
C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
D. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport
Question 36. The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. inspired. B. represented. C. energized. D. reinforced.
Question 37. According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to
think that .
A. it is an acceptable way to win the game. B. it is necessary in almost any game.
C. it brings about undesirable results. D. it is disadvantagesous to all
concerned. Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children
through watching sports?
A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.
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D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success.
Question 39. The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by .
A. highlight. B. embolden. C. consolidate. D. actualize.
Question 40. The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. children. B. spectators. C. teammates. D. parents.
Question 41. Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the
media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of
educational value.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople’s wrongdoings than on their
good deeds.
B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams’ budgets than others.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. “I’m sorry I haven’t finished the assignment,” Fiona said.
A. Fiona apoligised for not finishing the assignment.
B. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
C. Fiona refused to finish the assignment.
D. Fiona denied having finished the assignment.
Question 44. Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less
energy.
A. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
B. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
C. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
D. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
Question 45. It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work.
B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn’t usually drive to work in an hour.
D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
a volatile
A B
character with dramtic alternatives of mood.
C D
Question 47. It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
World Heritage
A B C
Site by UNESCO.
D
Question 48. My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in
the
A B C D
community.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle
down.
A. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
B. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and
settle down.
C. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and
settle down.
D. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn’t fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
Question 50. She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic
talent.
A. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at
the festival.
B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don’t know she
has artistic talent.
C. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don’t know about her great performance at the festival.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn’t know about her artistic
talent now.

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ĐỀ 23
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. meal. B. bean. C. head. D. team.
Question 2. A. attracts. B. delays. C. believes. D. begins.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. intend. B. follow. C. decide. D. install.
Question 4. A. equipment. B. sympathy. C. poverty. D. character.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has
created favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking. B. decreasing. C. varying. D. rising.
Question 6. With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt
for fear of getting into financial difficulties.
A. spend money freely. B. save on daily expenses.
C. dress in loose clothes. D. put on tighter belts.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. confusing. B. accessible. C. effective. D. advanced.
Question 8. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge
and information.
A. inventing. B. distributing. C. classifying. D. adapting.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 9. The patients with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than
those receiving conventional medicine.
A. treating. B. having treated. C. who treated. D. treated.
Question 10. It to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on
account of his working hard during the term.
A. lays. B. comes. C. gets. D. stands.
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Question 11. Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good on job interviewers
A. impressive. B. impression. C. impress. D. impressively.
Question 12. You shouldn’t lose heart; success often comes to those who are not by
failure.s
A. put off. B. turned on. C. left out. D. switched off.
Question 13. Mary rarely uses social networks, ?
A. isn’t she. B. does she. C. doesn’t she. D. is she.
Question 14. The presenter started his speech with a few jokes to build rapport
with the audience.
A. kind-hearted. B. soft-hearted. C. light-hearted. D. whole-hearted.
Question 15. If Martin were here now, he us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help. B. will help. C. has helped. D. helps.
Question 16. There is no excuse for your late submission! You the report by last Friday.
A. must have finished. B. needn’t have finished.
C. should have finished. D. mightn’t have finished.
Question 17. Only after she from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good
health.
A. would recover. B. had recovered. C. has recovered. D. was recovering.
Question 18. Our father suggested to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. go. B. going. C. to going. D. to go.
Question 19. Several measures have been proposed to the problem of unemployment
among university graduates.
A. create. B. address. C. pose. D. admit.
Question 20. It is advisable that the apprentice should be to learn the ins and outs of
the new job.
A. observant. B. acceptable. C. noticeable. D. permissive.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?”
- Salah: “ . We can’t afford such a big event.”
A. No, I don’t think so. B. You can say that again.
C. I can’t agree with your more. D. Yes, you’re right.
Question 22. Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: “ ”
- Bob: “That’s great. Congratulations!”
A. I’ve passed the exam with an A. B. I’ll get the exam results tomorrow.
C. I hope I’ll pass the exam tomorrow. D. I didn’t do well in the exam.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct wordor phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has
been noticed that the difference (23) temperature is usually greater at night and the
phenomenon occurs in both winner and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban
development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete
buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In
Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24) occur in the morning rather than,
as is more common, in the afternoon. Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to
combat this issue (25) it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or
down the walls or large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (26) to transform it into
a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries
to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18
“Supertrees”
– metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (27) to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at
night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self- sufficient.

Question 23. A. with. B. in. C. on. D. out.

Question 24. A. where. B. which. C. what. D. when.
Question 25. A. but. B. for. C. or. D. and.
Question 26. A. committed. B. pledged. C. confessed. D. required.
Question 27. A. land. B. house. C. place. D. home.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer’s attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than
what you want from the job.
Like a resume, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to
demonstrate your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared
with prefessional care, it is likely to be very effective. While the resume must be factual,
objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly
how your background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and
most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the
company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask
for sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer.
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you should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement

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requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them
“negotiable.” However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a
salary range. For this reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the
particular company. You don’t want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable.
(Adapted from “Select Readings – Intermediate” by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Things to avoid during a job interview.
B. Advice on how to find a good job.
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application.
D. Differences between a resume and a letter of application
Question 29. According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to….. .
A. advertise a product to attract more customers.
B. present what he/she wants from the job.
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview.
D. get further information about the company.
Question 30. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. the resume. B. an opportunity.
C. the letter of application. D. your work.
Question 31. The word “explicitly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. clearly. B. slightly. C. quickly. D. shortly.
Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of
application?
A. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
B. It should refer to the applicant’s reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant’s resume.
D. It should express the applicant’s dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
Question 33. The word “broach” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. investigate. B. understand. C. introduce. D. avoid.
Question 34. According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to .
A. mention their expected salary range. B. talk about the company’s budget.
C. negotiate working conditions. D. accept and salary offered.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of
other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair,
who has hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the
public adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they
all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved
students’ behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement.
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Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and
calming about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school’s catch-up classes,
and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been
won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also
had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew’s teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed
buying a school dog. “Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively
affect children’s conduct,” says Brown. “We did some research and discovered that the presence
of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve
recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings.
Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible
problems.” Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a
primary school for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they
already have one. Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden
retriever, Muskoka, into school for three years. Apart from being a calming influence,
Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at
the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. “Their anxiety about
mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to
him,” says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer
unconditional love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But
traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, “I don’t see why a
teacher cannot create a positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their
personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity stunt. It’s the kind of sentimental story
journalists love.” Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as popular as ever.
(Adapted from “Ready for Advanced” by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)
Question 35. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants.
B. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons.
C. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School.
D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend.
Question 36. The word “adulation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. unrealistic expectation. B. deserved attention.
C. considerable controversy. D. excessive admiration.
Question 37. The phrase “a handful” in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is
A. difficult to control. B. inclined to disagree.
C. reluctant to explore. D. impossible to understand.
Question 38. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of
keeping a pet?
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A. A stronger tendency to misbehave. B. A greater desire to influence others.
C. Long-term chances in conduct. D. Better recovery from illness.
Question 39. The word “one” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. a craze B. a Mulberry staff member
C. a primary school D. a school dog
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
B. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
Q41. Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting
C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 42. Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get
their message across to young people.
C. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students’ learning motivation at Dronfield School.
D. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. “Would you like to go to the show with me?” Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 44. I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. I never like joining the sports club.
B. I used to join the sports club.
C. Joining the sports club is not useful for me.
D. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
Question 45. It is believed that modem farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modem farming
methods.
B. Modem farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
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C. Modem farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modem farming methods.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
their talents
A B C
and efforts recognised.
D
Question 47. It concerns many socialogists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an
increase in the
A B C
number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 48. Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her
higher education.
B. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting
a job.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her
higher education.
Question 50. Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family
meant to her.
A. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family
meant to her.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an
independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family
meant to her.
D. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an
independent life.

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ĐỀ 24
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following question.
Question 1: Your drink cost $40, you gave me a $50 note and here is your .
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 2: People can become very when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.
A. single-minded B. bad-tempered C. even-tempered D. even-handed
Question 3: Jasmine, , grows only in warm places.
A. is a vine plant with fragrant flowers B. a vine plant with fragrant flowers
C. that is a vine plant with fragrant flowers D. a vine plant with fragrant flowers it is
Question 4: Our car because it’s not where it’s normally parked in the parking lot.
A. should have been stolen B. would have been stolen
C. must have been stolen D. need have been stolen
Question 5: Though we were after hard-working days, we tried to help our parents
redecorate the house to welcome Tet.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 6: At the 2015 Women in the World Summit, Hillary Clinton asserted that “cultural
codes, religious beliefs and structural biases have to be changed”.
A. deep-seated B. deep-seating C. seated-deep D. seating -deep
Question 7: It’s important that we this message to young people.
A. go /over B. get/down C. get/over D. go/for
Question 8: Miss Diligent did nine hour’s studying a day for her exam.
A. heavy B. solid C. powerful D. big
Question 9: “At the start of the 19th century, the highest- newspaper in the United
Kingdom was The Morning Post, which sold around 4,000 copies per day.”
A. distribution B. coverage C. circulation D. sales
Question 10: Marketing this new product will be expensive, but it will be worth
the money we spend on it.
A. at long last B. down the years C. in the event D. in the long run
Question 11: Laura starts a conversation with Maya- Jane’s sister. Laura: “You must be Jane's
sister. Glad to meet you.”
Maya: “ ”
A. I am, either. B. So I am. I'm glad. C. What do you do? D. Me too.
Question 12: The boys that they had broken the window, but I’m sure they did.
A. refused B. denied C. objected D. reject
Question 13: Lien was walking her dogs in the park, she met Lan accidentally. Lan: “How
lovely your pets are!”
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Lien: “ .”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are
C. Can you say that again D. I love them, too
Question 14: If our team U23 Uzbekistan in the final match, we the champion now.
A. have defeated/ would be B. defeats/ will be
C. defeated/ would be D. had defeated/ would be

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 15: Transplanting organs such (A) hearts and kidneys had proved (B) easier (C) than
transplanting muscles (D).
Question 16: On (A) the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of (B) flat-tipped mountains
more than (C) a mile beneath sea level (D) .
Question 17: Paint must (A) bestirred (B) and sometimes dilution (C) before it is applied (D) .

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 18 to 25.
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms' bodies that are used
grown larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when
you exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used dimish. By examining a
man's body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he doesn't. We may even be able to
guess his profession or his reaction. Enthusiasts of the "body- building" cult make use of the
principle of use and disuse to "build" their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into
whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are
not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you
acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at
their hands alone. The farmer's hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work.
The teller’s hands are relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving
in their world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world.
Humans, through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips
them better to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are
susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency
and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight,
makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If
a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able
to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle
of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is "used", and fades to white when it is not.

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Question 18: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 19: The phrase “wither away” in bold is closest in meaning to .
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 20: The word “Those” in bold refers to .
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 21: According to the passage, men who body build .
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 22: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building .
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefit
Question 23: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and disuse enables
organisms to .
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
Question 24: The author suggests that melanin .
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climates
C. helps protect fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
Question 25: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of .
A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse conditions
C. humans using the principle of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer

Mark the letter on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that differs
from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 27: A. attained B. resolved C. disused D. decreased
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A. flourish B. season C. product D. today
Question 29: A. attitude B. infamously C. geneticist D. socialist

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
THE HISTORY OF WRITING
The development of writing (30) a huge difference to the world and might see
it as the beginning of the media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers
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have!!!

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been discovered in China (31) date from around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms
of "picture writing" developed in the area around Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the
ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first
(32) alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters
and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called "aleph" and
"beth", which in Greek became "alpha" and "beta", which gave us the modern word "alphabet".
The modern European alphabet is based on the Greek and spread (33) other European
countries under the Romans. A number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans
added
the letter G, and the letter J and V were unknown to people in Shakespeare's time.
If we (34) the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts. The
Romans used to write quaesto at the end of a sentence in order to show that it was a Question.
They started to write Qo in place of the whole word, and then put the Q above the o. In the
end, that became the question mark "?"
Question 30: A. did B. had C. made D. took
Question 31: A. where B. that C. who D. when
Question 32: A. true B. accurate C. exact D. precise
Question 33: A. to B. in C. with D. for
Question 34: A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
ENGLISH SEVENTH MEETING “SAN ANDREAS FAULT”
The San Andreas Fault line is a fracture at the congruence of two major plates of the
Earth’s crust, one of which support most of the North American continent, and the other of
which underlies the coast of California and part of the ocean floor of the Pacific Ocean. The
fault originates about six hundred miles south of the Gulf of California, runs north in an
irregular line along the western coast to San Francisco, and continues north for about two
hundred more miles before angling off into the ocean. In places, the trace of the fault is marked
by a trench, or, in geological terms, a rift, and a small ponds dot the landscape. Its western side
always move north in relation to its eastern side. The total net slip along the San Andreas Fault
and the length of time it has been active are matters of conjecture, but it has been estimated
that, during the past fifteen million years, coastal California along the San Andreas Fault has
moved about 190 miles in a northwesterly direction with respect to the North American plate.
Although the movement along the fault averages only a few inches a year, it is intermittent and
variable. Some segments of the fault do not have move at all for long periods of time, building
up tremendous pressure that must be released. For this reason, tremors are not unusual along
the San Andreas Fault, some of which are classified as major earthquakes. Also for this reason,
small tremors are interpreted as safe, since they are understood to be pressure that releases
without causing much damage.
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!!!It is worth noting that the San Andreas Fault passes uncomfortably close to several major
metropolitan areas, including Los Angeles and San Francisco. In addition, the San Andreas
Fault

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has created smaller fault systems, many of which underlie the smaller towns and cities along
the California coast. For this reason, Californians have long anticipated the recurrence of what
they refer to as “the Big One”, a chain reaction of destructive earthquakes that would measure
near 8 on the Richter scale, similar in intensity to those that occurred in 1857 and 1906. Such a
quake would wreak devastating effects on the life and property in the region. Unfortunately, as
pressure continues to build along the fault, the likelihood of such an earthquake increases
substantially. Question 35: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To describe the San Andreas Fault.
B. To give a definition of a fault.
C. To explain the reason for tremors and earthquakes.
D. To classify different kinds of faults.
Question 36: How does the author define the San Andreas Fault?
A. A plate that underlies the North American continent.
B. A crack in the Earth’s crust between two plates.
C. Occasional tremors and earthquakes.
D. Intense pressure that builds up.
Question 37: The word originates in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .
A. gets wider B. changes direction C. begins D. disappears
Question 38: In which direction does the western side of the fault move?
A. West B. East C. North D. South
Question 39: The word its in the paragraph 1 refers to .
A. San Francisco B. ocean C. coast D. fault
Question 40: Along the San Andreas Fault, tremors are .
A. small and insignificant B. rare, but disastrous
C. frequent events D. very unpredictable
Question 41: The phrase “the Big One” refers to which of the following?
A. A serious earthquake B. The San Andreas Fault
C. The river scale D. California

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: The Chernobyl disaster occurred on 26 April 1986 when the Chernobyl Nuclear
Power Plant near Pripyat, a town in northern Ukraine, went off.
A. demolished B. ran C. developed D. exploded
Question 43: Prior to its evacuation Chernobyl was inhabited by 16,000 people but is now
populated only by Zone administrative personnel and a number of residents who refused to
leave their homes or subsequently returned.
A. after B. while C. when D. before

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: The Democratic Party now have 59.9% of the votes, so they’re home and dry.
A. returning home B. safe and successful C. disappointed D. at risk of losing
Question 45: Having served in the White House for 34 years and assisted 8 presidents, Eugene
Allen experienced crucial moments in American history during his time here.
A. unimportant B. special C. diverse D. complex

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays don’t have time to relax. They
don’t have time to meet up with their families.
A. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax nor to
meet up with their families.
B. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time neither to relax or to meet up
with their families.
C. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time either to relax or to meet
up with their families.
D. Many doctors and nurses on duty during holidays have time not only to relax but also
to meet up with their families.
Question 47: The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are
operating on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because
of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because
of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because
of firecrackers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Father said “Albert, if you break your promise, nobody will respect you.”
A. Father said that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
B. Father warned Albert that if he broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
C. Father told that if Albert broke his promise, nobody would respect him.
D. Father said to Albert if he breaks his promise, nobody will respect him.
Question 49: People say that products are sold in this market at suitable prices.
A. Products are said to be selling in this market at suitable prices.
B. Products are said to have sold in this market at suitable prices.
C. This market is said to have sold products at suitable prices.
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D. This market is said to sell products at suitable prices.
Question 50: We couldn’t have been able to go to the final match without the coach’s flexible
strategies.
A. We could have been able to go to the final match with the coach’s flexible strategies.
B. If we could be able to go to the final match, the coach would have flexible strategies.
C. If we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match, we would have had the coach’s
flexible strategies.
D. Had it not been for the coach’s flexible strategies, we couldn’t have been able to go to the
final match.

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ĐỀ 25
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. assert B. allege C. flatter D. appear
Question 2. A. mumbled B. murdered C. confided D. confirmed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3. A. disclose B. convey C. matter D. design
Question 4. A. contribution B. intelligence C. minority D. participant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5. The newspaper story was based on an interview which had been done off the
.
A. script B. record C. key D. tape
Question 6. The two men caught the virus they were injected with the latest vaccine.
A. because B. due to C. despite D. though
Question 7. My flat was not furnished, because I never had any money to furnish it
any other way.
A. expensively B. expense C. inexpensive D. expensive
Question 8. Liam tried to _ his enthusiasm for the project to the investors.
A. transform B. transport C. transmit D. transfer
Question 9. His devoted fans follow him .
A. until he was performing B. as soon as he had performed
C. after he has been performed D. whenever he performs
Question 10. The more time you spend on social media, _ you feel.
A. the most isolated B. more isolated C. the more isolated D. as isolated as
Question 11. By the time he finishes his speech, I for over one hour.
A. will have slept B. have slept C. am sleeping D. sleep
Question 12. My mother told me to carry a very _ suitcase for my first field trip.
A. leather small black B. black small leather
C. small leather black D. small black leather
Question 13. to catch the train, I dropped my ticket onto the platform.
A. Having being run B. Running C. Ran D. Run
Question 14. Wallets _ to keep money and some important documents, such as identity
card or bank cards.
A. are used B. use C. have used D. will use
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Question 15. Stephen was caught copying his fellow student’s test paper and was
expelled.
A. with B. from C. of D. for
Question 16. She hated her father for leaving, for to the disease when he should have
fought it.
A. putting off B. calling off C. giving in D. cutting in
Question 17. Most people agree that the older of the movie is better than the newer one.
A. masterpiece B. critic C. screen D. version
Question 18. I’ve never heard of the director, ?
A. have I B. didn’t I C. haven’t I D. did I
Question 19. A special committee was formed to _ between the two sides involved in
the conflict.
A. cooperate B. compromise C. confront D. conciliate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. You may well have a PhD in philosophy, but to my mind you are both bigoted
and racist.
A. tolerant B. open-minded C. biased D. modest
Question 21. Although the chemist’s initial experiment failed, she stumbled upon a strong
new material in the process.
A. deliberately found out B. unexpectedly discovered
C. seriously suffered from D. surprisingly exploded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I’m afraid cycling is off the menu until the weather improves.
A. likely to happen B. not my cup of tea C. inclined to succeed D. subject to a fine
Question 23. Arguing with Rick is futile; he’ll never accept that he was wrong.
A. pointless B. modern C. fruitful D. stupid

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tim and Falla are talking about their country’s education system.
Tim: “I think our education system needs more radical changes.”
Falla: “ . There should be fewer examinations and more improvement in teaching
methods.”
A. Precisely B. Sorry to hear that
C. I doubt it D. I’m afraid I go along with you

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Question 25. Woodley and Leonard are at the airport.
Woodley: “Thank you for giving me a lift to their airport.”
Leonard: “Don’t mention it. ”
A. You’re better now B. Be confident
C. It’s the least I can do D. Have you heard their story?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
VOLUNTEER TOURISM
It is hard to argue that the actual contribution to development amounts to a great deal
directly. Whilst volunteer tourists can get involved in building homes or schools, they have
usually paid a(n) (26) _ fee for the opportunity to be involved in this work: money that,
if donated to a local community directly, could potentially pay for a greater (27) _ of
labour than the individual volunteer could ever hope to provide.
This is especially so in the case of gap years, (28) the level of technical skill or
professional experience required of volunteers is negligible. Hence, it is unsurprising that many
academic studies (29) to the moral issue of whether gap year volunteering is
principally motivated by altruism – a desire to benefit the society visited – or whether young
people aim to generate ‘cultural capital’ which benefits them in their careers. (30) _, the
projects may play a role in developing people who will, in the course of their careers and lives,
act ethically in favour of those less well-off.
(Adapted from Cambridge English Compact Advanced by Peter May)
Question 26. A. unpaid B. due C. significant D. subscription
Question 27. A. amount B. number C. lot D. range
Question 28. A. in which B. whereby C. whereas D. whosever
Question 29. A. subscribe B. acclimatize C. allude D. contribute
Question 30. A. Therefore B. Notably C. However D. In contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Do you ever speak with your mouth full of food. Do you forget to cover your mouth with
your hand when you sneeze? If you are guilty of these ‘crimes’, then perhaps you should enrol
on an Etiquete and Social Skills course. This is not just an ordinary course. It’s a course in
manners. You will have lessons in good manners and how to behave in social situations.
The person who teachers these lessons is Maggie O’Farrill at the Petite Protocol School,
and her students are aged between six and twelve years old. She thinks this is the best time to
teach kids. “At this age they are very easy”, O’Farrill says. “When they get older, it’s harder for
them to break bad habits. Children at this age want to be polite. You can see that they’re trying.
Maggie instructs the children to speak properly on the phone and walk correctly, as well as

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telling them about basic table manners. These classes have become popular because parents
want well-behaved children but they are too busy to teach manners at home.
So, what do the children actually think of this course? The classes have proven to be
popular with most of the children, and the teachers at school have noticed that the
youngsters are treating each other with more respect. They also feel the skills they have
learnt will be useful to them in the future.
Maggie O’Farrill herself believes that such skills can be life-changing. “We’ll have
children growing up who value manners. Maybe we’ll see a change in direction for the better in
society”. That, however, remains to be seen. Only time will tell.”
(Adapted from Upstream Level B1+ by Virginia Evans and Lynda Edwards)
Question 31. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Mind your manners. B. Say please and thank you.
C. Bad habits start from childhood. D. Maggies dream.
Question 32. The word “properly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. effortlessly B. rightly C. thoroughly D. fascinatingly
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is stated regarding the
Etiquette and Social Skills Course?
A. Pupils at the Petite Protocol School range from toddlers to teenagers.
B. The teacher believes the children on the course are at an appropriate age for learning.
C. At the school, children learn to keep their elbows of the table when eating.
D. Parents don’t view manners as important as other home-skills.
Question 34. The word “they” in Paragraph 3 refer to .
A. the classes B. the teachers C. the students D. the skills
Question 35. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. The course in manners has lead to successful breakthrough’s in society.
B. All participants of the course have found it worthwhile.
C. The course teaches children how to conduct themselves in everyday situations.
D. The teachers have noticed that the children on the course are more confident around their
peers.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
The Great Barrier Reef is alrealy in a critical state. Rising sea temperatures are killing
corals faster than they can recover. As temperatures continue to increase, more and more of the
reef will die, along with the rich variety of life and the AUS$6 billion tourism industry that
depend on it. The heating of the planet will push many struggling species over the brink. Some
will just have no place left to go. For biodiversity, climate change is, in military jargon, a threat
multiplier. Worse still, measures to limit warming often don’t take biodiversity into account.
Some, such as the push for biofuels, directly harm it.
The world has warmed around 1˚C since pre-industrial times. That is already having a
dramatic effect on wildlife. In the Arctic, for example, the loss of more and more sea ice each
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summer is affecting many animals, from walruses to polar bears. Polar inhabitants have
nowhere colder to go, but many creatures elsewhere are already moving to stay in their comfort
zone. Some marine species, including mammals, birds, fish and plankton, have shifted their
ranges by hundreds of kilometres. Rising sea levels, meanwhile, could wipe out species as low-
lying islands are inundated. Mainland species are also at risk, such as the few hundred Bengal
tigers in the Sundarbans, a network of mangrove forests along the coast of Bangladesh and
north-east India. The effects of habitat destruction and rising water levels mean there will
probably be no suitable habitat left there for these tigers by 2070.
Some threats to biodiversity can’t be forecast with any certainty. For instance, people
forced from their homes by disasters or conflict can have a severe impact on biodiversity in the
places they flee to, rapidly deforesting vast areas and greatly reducing wildlife populations.
Floods and storms displaced 15 million people in 2018 alone, and these numbers will rise as
extreme weather keeps on getting more extreme.
For all these reasons, there is growing awareness that climate change and biodiversity are
inextricably linked, and that we need joined-up policies to tackle both. Many initiatives and
studies around the world show that we can protect biodiversity and tackle climate change while
offering a better and fairer future for people.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Concerns over the Great Barrier Reef. B. How to tackle global warming.
C. The future of the animal kingdom. D. The connection between climate change
and biodiversity.
Question 37. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. biodiversity B. climate change C. jargon D. multiplier
Question 38. According to paragraphs 2, which of the following is mentioned regarding
climate change?
A. There are less walruses and polar bears today than there were in the past.
B. Some marine species have had to make modifications to their living arrangements.
C. There are less than 100 Bengal Tigers roaming the planet today.
D. The effects of habitat destruction may lead to the extinction of all animals.
Question 39. The word “inundated” in paragraph 2 mostly means
A. discharged B. ignited C. induced D. flooded
Question 40. The word “inextricably” in paragraph 4 mostly means
A. inseparably B. potentially C. adversely D. partially
Question 41. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. In 2018, 15 million people were killed through floods and storms.
B. Tigers will certainly die out by 2070 due to their habitat loss.
C. Some specices verge on extinction as a result of the warmer weather.
D. Mainland species are not challenged by rising water levels.

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Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. All of the threats to biodiversity can easily be anticipated.
B. Climate change can also have an adverse impact on those working in military forces.
C. Those migrating to other countries due to natural disasters may negatively impact
the wildlife.
D. Humans cannot both address climate change and save their lives simultaneously.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Producing variable clones of many species is a lengthy and difficult problem and,
despite questionable claims of success, has yet to be proven in humans.
A. variable B. lengthy C. questionable D. proven
Question 44. European bees pass the winter by sleeping in its hives, which cuts off the bee-
eater’s main
source of food.
A. pass B. sleeping C. its D. cuts off
Question 45. How much this fairly low-budget advertising campaign achieved in terms of
helping to boost sales are difficult to evaluate.
A. low-budget B. achieved C. are D. evaluate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. It took me about 3 hours to watch the whole episode.
A. I never spent 3 hours watching the whole episode.
B. I used to spend 3 hours watching the whole episode.
C. I didn’t usually spend 3 hours watching the whole episode.
D. I spent 3 hours watching the whole episode.
Question 47. “I’m sorry I’ve stained your new blouse,” said Olivia.
A. Olivia apologized for having stained my new blouse.
B. Olivia admitted having stained my new blouse.
C. Olivia denied having stained my new blouse.
D. Olivia promised to have stained my new blouse.
Question 48. It’s a good idea for you to apologise to Mr. Perkins for your disrespectful
comments.
A. You may apologise to Mr. Perkins for your disrespectful comments.
B. You must apologise to Mr. Perkins for your disrespectful comments.
C. You should apologise to Mr. Perkins for your disrespectful comments.
D. You can apologise to Mr. Perkins for your disrespectful comments.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
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Question 49. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it.
C. Only after I stayed up all night to finish the novel was it interesting.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 50. The virus is so infectious. This country can’t bring it under control.
A. Much as the virus is so contagious, the country misses the opportunity to contain
its spread.
B. Unless the virus is so infectious, this country can’t bring it under control.
C. If only the virus weren’t so infectious and this country could bring it under control.
D. So long as the virus is so infectious, this country would bring it under control

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ĐỀ 26
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. police B. pollute C. policy D. polite
Question 2: A. sympathy B. rose C. grease D. horse
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. community B. circumstance C. identity D. considerate
Question 4: A. headhunt B. handshake C. high-flyer D. workforce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Young children often miss out the nutrition needed for their
growing bodies, as well as the education necessary for their expanding minds.
A. of B. on C. in D. to
Question 6: We are all very sorry that we have to wait for this agreement to come into .
A. truth B. action C. force D. reality
Question 7: I couldn't go into my own world far away and try to block out all
of these problems.
A. imaginary B. imaginatively C. imaginable D. imaginative
Question 8: Never more people in charity work than now.
A. do/ participate B. have/ participated
C. did/ participate D. had/ participated
Question 9: The A.I. expert wanted to have his assistant the newly made robot.
A. activate B. activated C. activating D. to activate
Question 10: If children are enjoying themselves and having fun during the activities, this is
an indication that they feel at with the methods being used.
A. crease B. ease C. release D. peace
Question 11: Her impression of the school was positive, but there were a few
aspects she objected to.
A. standard B. complete C. overall D. wide
Question 12: The message was often enhanced by a drawing specifically to
attract the attention of children.
A. light-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted
Question 13: She forher parents’ support during her university education, but she
prefered to work part-time and support herself.
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A. could have asked B. should have asked
C. ought to ask D. must have asked
Question 14: “What did Maria ask you?”
“She asked me I had ever been abroad.”
A. that B. for C. whether D. about
Question 15: Emma and Karen used to be good friends that I’m surprised they don’t get
on now.
A. such B.enough C. so D. too
Question 16: During the course, you will be given a test other week and a final exam
at the end.
A. some B. either C. several D. every

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: “Do you fancy a drink?” –“ ”
A. No, everything is OK. B. Oh! Of course not.
C. Sure, let’s go and get one D. Wow! I am so excited.
Question 18: - Nam: I’m planning to raise a couple of rabbits at home.
- Lan: .
A. That’s a good idea. B. Rabbits are very fast.
C. I’ve never seen rabbits before. D. I’ve decided to raise a cat.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 19: Sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide.
Young people find an expert willing to explain their significance.
A. Although sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide,
young people are forced to find an expert willing to explain their significance.
B. Since sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide,
young people are supposed to find an expert willing to explain their significance.
C. For sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide, young
people might find an expert willing to explain their significance.
D. Because sacred texts and ceremonies can seem confusing with no one there to guide,
so young people are willing to find an expert willing to explain their significance.
Question 20:1 find it very challenging. It requires a lot of concentration and determination.
A. I find it very challenging, for it requires a lot of concentration and determination.
B. I find it very challenging, so it requires a lot of concentration and determination.
C. I find it very challenging, yet it requires a lot of concentration and determination.
D. I find it very challenging, though it requires a lot of concentration and determination.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 21: He was so addicted to social networks that he quitted all other outdoor activities.
A. He was not addicted enough to quit all other outdoor activities.
B. He had quitted all other outdoor activities before he became addicted to social networks.
C. The social networks are too addictive for him to quit all other outdoor activities.
D. He was such an addict to social networks that he quitted all other outdoor activities.
Question 22: Immediately after his arrival home a water-heater exploded.
A. Hardly had he arrived home than a water-heater exploded.
B. No sooner had he arrived home than a water-heater hadexploded.
C. Hardly had he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.
D. Scarcely he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.
Question 23: I haven’t got used to Indian food although I have lived here for three months.
A. Eating Indian food is one of the habits when I lived in Indian three months ago.
B. Because I still live in India, I find Indian food strange to eat.
C. I have to eat Indian food to get used to eat as I have to live in India.
D. I still find it strange to eat Indian food though I have lived here for three months.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.
Almost all living things ultimately get their energy from the sun. In a process called
photosynthesis, plants, algae, and some other organisms capture the sun's energy and use it to
make simple sugars such as glucose. Most other organisms use these organic molecules as a
source of energy. Organic materials contain a tremendous amount of energy. As food, they fuel
our bodies and those of most other creatures. In such forms as oil, gas, and coal, they heat our
homes, run our factories and power our cars.
Photosynthesis begins when solar energy is absorbed by chemicals called photosynthetic
pigments that are contained within an organism. The most common photosynthetic pigment is
chlorophyll. The bright green color characteristic of plants is caused by it. Most algae have
additional pigments that may mask the green chlorophyll. Because of these pigments, algae
may be not only green but brown, red, blue or even black.
In a series of enzyme-controlled reactions, the solar energy captured by chlorophyll and other
pigments is used to make simple sugars, with carbon dioxide and water as the raw materials.
Carbon dioxide is one of very few carbon- containing molecules not considered to be organic
compounds. Photosynthesis then converts carbon from an inorganic to an organic form. This is
called carbon fixation. In this process, the solar energy that was absorbed by chlorophyll is
stored as chemical energy in the form of simple sugars like glucose. The glucose is then used
to make other organic compounds. In addition, photosynthesis produces oxygen gas. All the
oxygen gas on earth, both in the atmosphere we breathe and in the ocean, was produced by
photosynthetic organisms. Photosynthesis constantly replenishes the earth's oxygen supply.
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Organisms that are capable of photosynthesis can obtain all the energy they need from sunlight
and do not need to eat. They are called autotrophs. Plants are the most familiar autotrophs on
land. In the ocean, algae and bacteria are the most important autotrophs. Many organisms
cannot produce their own food and must obtain energy by eating organic matter. These are
called heterotrophs.
(Hooked on TOEFL Reading - LinguaForum)
Question 24. The word “fuel” in the first paragraph is similar in meaning to .
A. give fuel to B. produce organic materials
C. help to function D. provide nutrients for
Question 25. Based on the information in paragraph 3, we can see that glucose .
A. enables photosynthesis B. is a byproduct of oxygen production
C. contains carbon D. creates enzymes
Question 26. Which of the following is true about heterotrophs?
A. They require more energy than autotrophs.
B. They are not reliant on simple sugars for energy.
C. They cannot exist without the presence of autotrophs.
D. They are mostly land-bound organisms.
Question 27. The phrase “this process” in the third paragraph refers to the process of .
A. storing chemical energy B. photosynthesis
C. absorbing solar energy D. carbon fixation
Question 28. It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers solar energy to be
.
A. useless to most bacteria and algae
B. a permanent and everlasting source of energy
C. a perfect solution to the energy problem
D. essential for every organism on earth
Question 29. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Plants are familiar heterotrophs
B. Plants capture the sun's energy to make sugars.
C. Photosynthesis produces oxygen gas
D. Organic materials contain an amount of energy.
Question 30. From the passage, we can see that .
A. Most plants have additional pigments
B. Algae are a kind of simple plants
C. Autotrophs obtain energy by eating organic matter
D. Oxygen helps the process of photosynthesis

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
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A MORE COMMERCIAL TUNE
Roger Press, 40, has changed his career. After spending five years (31) a concert
pianist, he has gone into business, recently setting up his own company. After leaving
university I decided to (32) myself to a career in music. I loved performing, but it was
hard work. I played at concerts in Europe and America, made recordings and got reviews. But
after a while I felt I had gone as far as I could. Unless you’re one of the world’s top 20
pianists, it’s difficult to earn a good living and I wasn’t one of the greatest.
When I gave up my performing career, people around me were more sad and disappointed than
I was. But I felt free and (33) I knew I was getting serious about life. After getting a
qualification in business administration I joined the recording company EMI and started their
classical video division, producing programmes about famous artists. A year ago I left EMI
and formed a new company, New Media Systems, which (34) in multimedia programs.
(35) I run my own business, I’m in control of my life and I feel proud of my
achievements. Although the stress is high and I work long hours, the stress involved in piano
playing was much worse. It took physical, emotional and mental skills. I prefer the pressures I
live with now.
Question 31. A. like B. working C. how D. as
Question 32. A. devote B. take C. assign D. employ
Question 33. A. lastly B. at last C. at the end D. lately
Question 34. A. specializes B. focuses C. concentrates D. dedicates
Question 35. A. Although B. For that C. Now that D. On account of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 36: She was dumbfounded at this magical event, and stood there open mouthed for
a long time, looking at this strange object in her own hand.
A. speechless B. astonished C. content D.
applauding Question 37: While this kind of weather may not be the most conducive to
the playing of sports, for the spectator it is a godsend.
A. that creates barrier for B. that helps
C. that doesn’t make easier D. that pays fee for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 38: While waiting at a gas station Simon and Mack strike up a friendship.
A. cover up B. give up C. make up D. remain
Question 39: My father continued to work very hard, hoping to be promoted to the position of
manager. Finally, his hard work paid off and he was promoted.
A. paid in full B. compensated C. succeeded D. failed

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 40: The skin of mammals is a complexity organ that serves vital protective and
metabolic functions.
A. is B. complexity organ C. vital D. metabolic functions
Question 41: Possibly the easiest and most enjovablv way to become a weather watcher is
simply to observe the clouds.
A. Possibly B. easiest C. enjoyably D. to observe
Question 42: Before the cotton gin A. had been invented in 1794, American famers B. had
cheap C. salves remove seeds D. from the cotton fiber.
A. had been invented B. had C. salves D. from

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
“They told me I could never walk again. But when I listened to music, I forgot all about the
pain. I found the strength I didn’t know I had.”Ninety-two-year-old Tina Goodman, who
regained her ability to walk, thanks to music.
This is just one of the many stories in Fettaro’s book “The Healing Power of Music” . Fettaro
tries to show just how important music is in our lives and how it can help us to be healthy and
happy.
According to Fettaro, music can make sick people again. In fact, his book comes with a CD of
recordings, each one specially designed to help with a number of health problems.
Fettaro, e well-known music therapist, promises that by reading his book, you will be able to
develop the healing power of music in your life. He says this will help you fight headaches and
back pain, as well as reduce stress, high blood pressure, and many other common illnesses.
Certainly, I accept that listening to certain types of music can help with particular problems,
such as stress. I am also comfortable with Fettaro’s claim that by reading his book, you’ll be
able to create a peaceful enviroment to help you relax in your home. I found the relaxation and
breathing techniques very useful. Similarly his claim that music help you sleep better seems
reasonable. Yet when he goes on to promise his music therapies will help cure depression and
even cancer, he begins to sound a little bit unbelievable.
Nevertheless, for those of you who are interested in the power of music to heal, this is a great
book to buy. It’s a thorough introduction to the history and practice of music therapy. Fettaro
writes in a simple, easy to understand way and shows clearly how music can affect us
positively. His basic message-that music can improve our lives-is well-presented and clear. It
may even be true that certain techniques covered here can help some people recover from
unpleasant health problems. However, his promises of “amazing results” seem impossible to
justify.
Question 43: What was Tina Goodman’s problem?
A. stress B. high blood pressure
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C. disablement D. headaches

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Question 44: Which statement is not true?
A. Music can help you sleep better
B. Music has positive effects
C. It is necessary to create a peaceful enviroment when you read Fettaro’s book
D. The recordings accompanied with the book are to help with some health problems.
Question 45: What is the basic message of Fettaro’s book?
A. Music can make our lives better
B. No illness is incurable with the help of music
C. Music can cure even depression and cancer
D. Music brings amazing results
Question 46: What are the two techniques useful to the writer?
A. relaxing and peace-making ones B. listening and reading
C. recovering and relaxing in your own home D. relaxing and breathing ones
Question 47: Which is not stated by Fettaro as curable?
A. cancer B. high blood pressure
C. back pain D. sore throat
Question 48: What is the writer’s opinion of the book?
A. He likes the book a lot and recommends it to everyone
B. He likes the book but is not so happy about some of the promises it makes
C. He doesn’t like the book because few of the claim can be proved
D. He finds all claims impossible to be proved
Question 49: What is the meaning of the word “covered”?
A. included B. paid C. attended to D. illustrated
Question 50: Which word is similar to the word “justify”?
A. attain B. deny C. believe D. prove

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ĐỀ 27
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. consist B. disable C. vision D. suggest
Question 2: A. chance B. charity C. brochure D. charter
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. certainly B. persuasive C. marvelous D. counseling
Question 4: A. accidentalB. instrument C. represent D. souvenir

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Small companies may take their goods abroad for trade show
without paying foreign value-added taxes by acquiring an ATA carnet.
A. a document calls B. a document called
C. calls a document D. called a document
Question 6: Your sister has lost an awful lot of weight. She must have been on a diet, ?
A. mustn’t she B. needn’t she C. haven’t she D. hasn’t she
Question 7: The rat population is rapidly the increase, bringing with it increased
risk of diseases.
A. in B. on C. with D. for
Question 8: The death from infectious diseases is still very high, largely because
of increased populations.
A. number B. roll C. toll D. total
Question 9: They married for two years or so when Roy employed a very
attractive Indian secretary in his Glasgow office.
A. only have been B. were only
C. have only been D. had only been
Question 10: In 1962 the American Telephone and Telegraph Company
launched telstar, communications satellite to transmit telephone and
television signals.
A. it was a first B. that was the first C. first it was a D. the first
Question 11: They can't adequately provide basic necessities for themselves, afford to
save money for the future.
A. much less B. not only C. so to speak D. regardless of
Question 12: These camps keep children amused while allowing them to up on their
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acting skills, the backstroke or leam to play a sport.
A. back B. build C. bear D. brush
Question 13: The lecturer recommended a number of books before the exam.
A. to read B. reading C. we reading D. to have read
Question 14: We are considering having a swimming pool built as the summers
are so long and hot.
A. thoughtfully B. sincerely C. responsibly D. seriously
Question 15: We’d better leave early tomorrow there’s a lot of traffic when
we get to London.
A. unless B. so long as C. in case D. if
Question 16: With to the situation in Lebanon, my delegation has mixed
feelings about recent developments in that country.
A. relation B. reference C. regards D. regarding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Mr. Collin is speaking to his student, Brian.
Mr. Collin: “You’ve been making very good progress. I’m proud of you!”
Brian: “ ”
A. No problem B. Don’t worry about it!
C. Everything’s alright. Thank you. D. I really appreciate you saying that.
Question 18: “It usually costs £150, but I got it for £75 in the sale!” “ ”
A. Lucky you. B. Really? You are so lucky.
C. It’s a real bargain! D. I’m not that lucky.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 19: Mary was completely out of touch with her family for over ten years. She can't
remember how each of the members looks like.
A. Completely out of touch with her family for over ten years, Mary can't remember how
each of the members looks like.
B. If completely out of touch with her family for over ten years, Mary can't remember how
each of the members looks like.
C. Although she was out of touch with her family for over ten years, Mary can't
remember how each of the members looks like.
D. Completely out of touch with her family for over ten years but Mary can't remember how
each of the members looks like.
Question 20: The teacher suspected that Larry cheated in the final term test. He had been
cheating since the beginning of the semester.
A. If the teacher didn't suspect Larry of cheating in the final test, he would not have been
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cheating since the beginning of the semester.
B. The teacher suspected that Larry cheated at the final test; in fact, he had been cheating since
the beginning of the semester.
C. Larry was suspected of having been cheating since the beginning of the semester so he
cheated in the final test.
D. Because he had been cheating since the beginning of the semester, the teacher
suspected that Larry cheated in the final term test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 21: The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was
imposed.
A. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was
imposed.
B. It is the speed limit that reduce steadily the number of accidents.
C. The imposing of speed limit has resulted from the number of accidents.
D. There have been few accidents than before since they used the speed limit.
Question 22: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were rechecked.
B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
D. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
Question 23: "Why don't you take extra classes in English if you want to become a tourist
guide?" said my friend.
A. My friend advised me to take extra classes in English only if I wanted to become a tourist
guide.
B. My friend suggested I take extra classes in English if I wanted to become a tourist guide.
C. In my friend's opinion, I will never become a tourist guide if I don't take extra classes in
English.
D. In my friend's opinion, taking extra classes in English is necessary if I wanted to become
a tourist guide.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.
Thirty years ago, Lake Ponkapog in Hartwell, New Jersey, was full of life. Many birds and
animals lived beside the water, which was full of fish. Now there are few birds, animals, and
fish. The lake water is polluted. It is a dirty brown colour, and it is filled with strange plants.
How did this happen? First, we must think about how water gets into Lake Ponkapog. When it
rains, water comes into the lake from all around. In the past, there were woods all around Lake
Ponkapog, so the rainwater was clean.
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Now there are many homes on the lake shore. People often use the chemicals in their gardens.
They use other chemicals inside their houses for cleaning and killing insects. There are also
many businesses. Businesses use chemicals in their machines or stores. Other chemicals fall
onto the ground from cars or trucks. When it rains, the rainwater flows by these homes and
businesses. It picks up all the chemicals and then pours them into the lake. They pollute the
water and kill the animal life.
There is still another problem at the lake: exotic plants. These plants come from other
countries. They have no natural enemies here, and they grow very quickly. In a short time,
they can fill up a lake. Then there is no room for other plants. The plants that normally grow
there die. These plants gave many animals and fish their foods or their homes. So now those
animals and fish die, too.
People in Hartwell are worried. They love their lake and want to save it. Will it be possible? A
clean lake must have clean rainwater going into it. Clean rainwater is possible only if people
are more careful about chemicals at home and at work. They must also be more careful about
gas and oil and other chemicals on the ground.
(“Reading Power ” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky/Linda Jeffries - Longman)
Question 24: This article is about .
A. the exotic plants in Lake Ponkapog B. dirty lakes in New Jersey
C. chemicals in Lake Ponkapog D. why the water is dirty in Lake Ponkapog
Question 25: In the past, the water in Lake Ponkapog was made clean by .
A. fish B. rain C. forests D. birds
Question 26: Chemicals from homes and businesses .
A. get into the rainwater B. are good for the lake
C. are always clean D. can help the animals
Question 27: The highlighted word “They” in the third paragraph refers to .
A. these homes B. chemicals C. cars or trucks D. businesses
Question 28: Exotic plants grow quickly because they .
A. make the water dirty B. have no natural enemies
C. are large and strong D. have a lot of water
Question 29: The phrase “fill up” in the passage probably means .
A. become too crowded B. grow in tiny quantities
C. become full of water D. cover the surface
Question 30: To save Lake Ponkapog, people need to .
A. use more water from the lake B. be more careful about chemicals
C. grow fewer plants in the gardens D. use more boats on the lake

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from II to 35.
Before the 1960’s, Singapore was essentially a trading nation. Since (31) , it has
developed a more (32) economy and has become an important financial, trade, and
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transportation center. Singapore has many banks, (33) firms, and finance
companies, as (34) as a stock exchange. Tourism is also important to the economy of
Singapore. There is little unemployment in Singapore. The country’s annual income per capita
(per person) is one of the highest in Asia. The government of Singapore plays a major role in
the country’s economy. For example, it decides what benefits, such as vacation time and sick
leave, must be provided for workers by employers. It also operates an employment agency to
help people find jobs, and it provides (35) for retired workers.
Question 31. A. then B. time C. that D. age
Question 32. A. various B. varied C. different D. better
Question 33. A. insurance B. guarantee C. underwritten D. ensuring
Question 34. A. long B. far C. much D. well
Question 35. A. wages B. incomes C. earnings D. pensions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 36: When I last spoke to her yesterday she was full of beans, very cheerful and
chirpy, so I deduce from that that all was going well.
A. eating a lot B. hyperactive
C. melancholy D. lively and in high spirits
Question 37: The government has made an attempt to avert the crisis.
A. have a go at averting B. on the go at averting
C. deep in thought with averting D. save their bacon to avert

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 38: Several brands have replied and questioned the methods used in the study and
they said that the number of plastics evaluated was exaggerated.
A. over the top B. magnified C. excessive D. understated
Question 39: It has been a secret for many years, but I am going to break the seal now.
A. tell it B. keep it C. save it D. hold it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 40: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to
because of the hereditary nature of many diseases.
A. their B. tend to C. similar to D. because
Question 41: Many ancient cultures begin their spiritual life by worshipping the Sun.
A. Many B. begin C. their D. by
worshipping Question 42: Almost lemons grown in the United Ststes come from farms in
Floria and California.

maianhh3103 maianhlma 0325998990

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A. Almost B. grown C. come D. farms

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
It is often the case with folktales that they develop from actual happenings but in their
development lose much of their factual base; the story of Pocahontas quite possibly fits into
this category of folktale. This princess of the Powhatan tribe was firmly established in the lore
of early America and has been made even more famous by the Disney film based on the
folktale that arose from her life. She was a real-life person, but the actual story of her life
most probably different considerably from the folktale and the movie based on the folktale.
Powhatan, the chief of a confederacy of tribes in Virginia, had several daughters, none of
whom was actually named Pocahontas. The nickname means “playful one,” and several of
Powhatan’s daughters were called Pocahontas. The daughter of Powhatan who became the
subject of the folktale was named Matoaka. What has been verified about Matoaka, or
Pocahontas as she has come to be known, is that she did marry an Englishman and that she did
spend time in England before she died there at a young age. In the spring of 1613, a young
Pocahontas was captured by the English and taken into Jamestown. There she was treated with
courtesy as the daughter of chief Powhatan. While Pocahontas was at Jamestown, English
gentlemen John Rolfe fell in love with her and asked her to marry. Both the governor of the
Jamestown colony and Pocahontas’s father Powhatan approved the marriage as a means of
securing peace between Powhatan’s tribe and the English at Jamestown. In 1616, Pocahontas
accompanied her new husband to England, where she was royally received. Shortly before her
planned return to Virginia in 1617, she contracted an illness and died rather suddenly.
A major part of the folktale of Pocahontas that is unverified concerns her love for English
Captain John Smith is the period of time before her capture by the British and her rescue of
him from almost certain death. Captain John Smith was indeed at the colony of Jamestown
and was acquainted with Powhatan and his daughters, he even described meeting them in
1612 journal. However, the story of his rescue by the young maiden did not appear in his
writing until 1624, well after Pocahontas had aroused widespread interest in England by her
marriage to an English gentlemen and her visit to England. It is the discrepancy in dates that
has caused some historians to doubt the veracity of the tale. However, other historians do
argue quite persuasively that this incident did truly take place.
(“Preparation Course " for the TEOFL Test - Deborah Phillips - Longman)
Question 43: The main idea of the passage is that .
A. Pocahontas fell in love with John Smith and saved his life
B. any one of Powhatan’s daughter could have been the Pocahontas of legend
C. Pocahontas did not really exist
D. folktales are often not very factual
Question 44: The expression “arose from” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. went up with B. developed from

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C. climbed to D. was told during
Question 45: What is true about the name Pocahontas, according to the passage?
A. It meant that someone was playful.
B. Only one girl was known to have used this name.
C. Powhatan was one of several people given this nickname.
D. It was the real name of a girl named Matoaka.
Question 46: How was Pocahontas treated when she was held at Jamestown?
A. With disregard B. With surprise C. With harshness D. With respect
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that Pocahontas .
A. suffered from a long illness B. had a long marriage
C. never intended to return to Virginia D. did not mean to remain in England
Question 48: The pronoun “he” in the third paragraph refers to .
A. the governor B. Powhatan C. John Smith D. Pocahontas
Question 49: When did John Smith most likely meet Pocahontas?
A. In 1613 B. In 1616 C. In 1612 D. In 1624
Question 50: Why are some historians doubtful about the portion of the Pocahontas folktale
dealing with John Smith?
A. His account did not appear until well after the event supposedly happened.
B. Captain John Smith probably never knew Pocahontas.
C. Captain John Smith was never actually in Jamestown.
D. His rescue purportedly happened while Pocahontas was in England.

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ĐỀ 28
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. bad B. fan C. calm D. cat
Question 2: A. google B. giraffe C. girl D. garage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. justice B. survey C. campaign D. knowledge
Question 4: A. tropical B. commercial C. mysterious D. disastrous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: To all intents and , we are already confronting the challenges of the future.
A. purposes B. views C. plans D. aims
Question 6: “What happened to the plane?” “It had hardly touched down it burst into
flames.”
A. than B. that C. while D. when
Question 7: “Isn’t your class picnic today?” “No, ourplans for the picnic ”
A. fell through B. fell down C. fell off D. fell over
Question 8: Although thunder and lightning are produced at the same time, light waves
travel faster , so we see the lightning before we hear the thunder.
A. do sound waves B. than sound waves are
C. than sound waves do D. sound waves
Question 9: On checking them out, I found that I was mentioned in the article, which
did me no at all.
A. harm B. harmfully C. adverse D. adversely
Question 10: Such investments are beyond the of a small farmer's family.
A. abilities B. means C. capitals D. earnings
Question 11: was expected, these discussions raised temperatures in the chapter hall.
A. Such B. So C. As D. That
Question 12: Your products an advantage through color and brilliance, for
example, for automotive coatings and many other applications.
A. gain B. earn C. achieve D. win
Question 13: I’d rather you say anything to John about his converstion.
A. didn’t B. don’t C. hadn’t D. won’t

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Question 14: She was also from school, after teachers said she would be a ‘bad
influence’ on the other girls.
A. excluded B. exiled C. extracted D. expelled
Question 15: Seeing the children playing hide and seek in the school yard, .
A. I thought of the times long ago when I did the same thing
B. one of the children hid behind a huge tree
C. it had a lot of fun
D. my friends called me to pick them up at the bus stop
Question 16: It's that you would send your child out to cross the street without
first giving a lesson in safe crossing.
A. likable B. alike C. unlikely D. likely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: “What qualities do you have that make you a suitable candidate for this post?” “
”
A. Well, I have a lot if qualifications that match.
B. I’m highly qualified for the post.
C. I used to work in a similar position for two years.
D. I consider myself to be trust worthy, responsible and punctual.
Question 18: Jenny: “Hi, Mark. Long time no see. What’s going on?" Mark: “ ”.
A. So-so. B. I’m going to see a movie
C. I saw you yesterday. D. Good morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 19: The city made major improvements in the old waterfront area. As a result, it is a
great attraction today.
A. The city is a great attraction today, making major improvements in the old waterfront area.
B. Without major improvements made in the old waterfront area, the city wouldn’t be a
great attraction.
C. But for major improvements made in the old waterfront area, the city is a great attraction.
D. Despite major improvements made in the old waterfront area, the city is a great attraction.
Question 20: We cannot create a rule-based ASEAN. We don’t have means of drafting,
interpreting and enforcing rules.
A. Having means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, it is impossible to create a rule-
based ASEAN.
B. It is impossible to create a rule-based ASEAN community with means of
drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules.
C. Not having means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, we are unable to create a

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rule-based ASEAN.
D. To have means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, we are able to create a rule-
based ASEAN.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 21: It will take some time before the impact of the new legislation is brought home
to the person in the street.
A. In the future street people will be able to take advantage of the new legislation for long.
B. The new legislation will affect home lives of many people in the city for a long time.
C. The new law will be effective only for the people who are brought home to work.
D. It will take some time before the impact of the new legislation is felt by ordinary people.
Question 22:1 don’t mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
A. I wouldn’t mind going to the seaside this year.
B. I am looking forward to going to the seaside this year.
C. It doesn’t make any difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.
D. For me, we shouldn’t go to the seaside this year.
Question 23: The weather was so dismal that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.
A. The weather was too dismal that the picnic was cancelled immediately.
B. So dismal was the weather that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.
C. The picnic would be cancelled immediately since the weather was dismal.
D. The weather was enough dismal for them to cancel the picnic immediately.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and
patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is
then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for
red blood cells) about once every two months.
Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the
blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows down from
the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the
infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the
transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that
transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria.
Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic
reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell
incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other
causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood,
overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to

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donor plasma or platelets.
Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their
blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis
B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to
eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets
removed.
Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a
glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood
for long periods has been a boon to human health.
Question 24. The word "it" refers to .
A. surgical procedures B. accident victims
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
Question 25. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood
cells?
A. Every four months B. Every three month
C. Every two months D. Every month
Question 26. All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to
transfusion EXCEPT .
A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood
Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility
Question 27. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?
A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted
Question 28. What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?
A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed
Question 29. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood
transfused to infants and newborns?
A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults.
C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.
Question 30. What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Storing blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented.
C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, II, C or I) on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
THANKS A MILLION
Percy Ross was bom in 1916 in Michigan. His parents has come to the USA from Latvia and
Russia and the family were poor. But Percy soon showed a talent (31)
business and made a (32) in the fur trade and auction business. Then disaster struck and
he lost all his money. But he soon made a fortune again - this time by manufacturing plastic
bags. In 1969, he sold his plastic bag company for millions of dollars.
Ross started giving away in 1977: he gave $50,000 to 50 Vietnamese refugees so that they could
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make a new home in the USA. (33) he held a Christmas party tor 1,050 poor children in the
American town of Minneapolis. Ross bought a bike for every one of the 1,050 children at the
party.
After these first experiences of giving money away, Ross decided to do it on a (34)
basis. He started a newspaper column called “Thanks a Million”, and later a radio show,
in order to (35) his money. It took years, but Ross finally succeeded in giving away
his entire fortune.
(Source: Solutions - Intermediate)
Question 31. A. for B. of C. On D. with
Question 32. A. fortune B. money C. budget D. earnings
Question 33. A. But B. Then C. Yet D. Though
Question 34. A. frequent B. usual C. occasional D.regular
Question 35. A. give B. take away C. give in D. take in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.
Question 36: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. make him understand B. allow him to stay
C. let him drive his car D. give him a lift home
Question 37: The company paid its workers undeservedly, which made them let down.
A. Emotional B. optimistic C. disappointed D. satisfied
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 38: People sometimes choose partners who compensate for their own shortcomings.
A. benefits B. strengths C. flaws D. disadvantages
Question 39: Mr Lane urged any parents who have concerns about the disease to seek medical
help at once.
A. immediately B. right way C. forthwith D. in due course

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 40: Endemic diseases are diseases that habitual infect only those persons living
within certain geographical limits.
A. Endemic diseases B. that C. habitual infect D. living within
Question 41: There are only ten children in the class at the moment but it could be twice that
after Christmas.
A. There are B. in the class C. twice D. after Christmas
Question 42: When I got to the cinema Jack had been waiting for me.
A. to B. the C. had been D. for

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In addition to improved physical health, sport plays a primarily positive role in youth
development, including improved academic achievement, higher self- esteem, fewer behavioural
problems, and better psychosocial development. Many studies focus on the effects of sport on
the five “C’ s” - competence, confidence, connections, character, and caring The many facets
of playing sport - the discipline of training, learning teamwork, following the leadership of
coaches and captains, learning to lose - provide lifelong skills for athletes.
The literature on youth sport stresses the positive effects of participation in learning the
important life skills of goal setting and time management combined with enjoyment; the
development of a strong sense of morality; and the development of an appreciation of
diversity. Studies have shown that children and youth participating in sport, when compared to
peers who do not play sport, exhibit higher grades, expectations, and attainment; greater
personal confidence and self-esteem; greater connections with school — that is, greater
attachment and support from adults; stronger peer relationships; more academically oriented
friends; greater family attachment and more frequent interactions with parents; more restraint
in avoiding risky behaviour; and greater involvement in volunteer work.
Sport provides opportunities for children and youth to engage in valuable and positive
relationships with adults. Thus, it is a missed opportunity for children who are “gated” - or not
included in sport - during early stages of childhood because they are less well behaved than
other children. These children are being prevented from participating in the very thing that
could help them learn to control and regulate their behaviour. Sport provides an opportunity for
children to safely navigate and negotiate between right and wrong as they learn to interact with
peers and adults. Research by Taliaferro et al. suggests that playing sport can even protect
against suicide risk in youth. Compared to nonathletes, male athletes exhibit lower levels of
hopelessness and suicidal ideation. Young males involved in multiple sports seem to gamer
even more protection in this regard. Similar results were found for girls. Research on the role
of exercise in adults confirms that it improves mood and alleviates many forms of depression.
Bartko and Eccles found that youth who are highly involved in sport are more
“psychologically resilient,” that is, better able to recover from problems. Eccles et al. found
that sport participation protects young athletes against social isolation.
(Adaptedfrom: Sport is a way of life, Sun Star Baguio, Jan 10, 2017)
Question 43: What is NOT mentioned as a factor contributing to lifelong skills for athletes? A,
Leading other people B. Learning to obey rules
C. Learning to accept failure D. Working well together as a team
Question 44: According to the passage what is NOT increased by playing sports?
A. Having success in studying B. Eating fresh, nutritious food
C. Having good mental states D. Feeling happy with your own abilities
Question 45: According to the passage, sport players benefit from .
A. scoring a lot of goals B. enjoying success

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C. acknowledging differences D. suffering time pressure
Question 46: Which of the followings is NOT mentioned as a benefit for teenagers playing
sport in comparison with those who do not?
A. Having more friends B. Doing more volunteer work
C. Having more self-control D. Being more self-confident
Question 47: What does the word “gated” in the third paragraph mean?
A. Staying outside the stadium gate
B. Being kept away from playing sports
C. Being locked inside the house
D. Being excluded from the school’s sport team
Question 48: Which of the followings is NOT prevented as a result of playing sports?
A. Being separate from the society B. The feeling of being without hope
C. Suffering economic decline D. Thinking of killing oneself
deliberately Question 49: Whose study suggests that sport players are more able to feel
better after unpleasant events than others?
A. Taliaferro et al.’s B. Bartko and Eccles’s
C. Taliaferro and Bartko D. Eccles et al.’s
Question 50: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Tips for youth to play sport in a beneficial way.
B. Advantages and disadvantages of playing sport.
C. Causes and effects of problems in playing
sport. Psychological and social benefits of playing
sport

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ĐỀ 29
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following question.
Question 1: every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. Winning D. On winning
Question 2: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a
of a doubt.
A. shade B. shadow C. benefit D. hue
Question 3: She was out of 115 applicants for the position of managing Director.
A. short-changed B. short-listed C. shorted-sighted D. short-handed
Question 4: It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to .
A. get B. beat C. take D. achieve
Question 5: The smell was so bad that it completely us off our food.
A. set B. took C. got D. put
Question 6: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at it has come.
A. last B. the end C. present D. the moment
Question 7: It is opportunity to see African wildlife in its natural environment.
A. an unique B. a unique C. the unique D. unique
Question 8: If I the same problem you had as a child, I might not have succeeded
in life as you have.
A. have B. would have had C. had had D. had
Question 9: Delegates will meet with from industry and the government.
A. represented B. representative C. representatives D. presenters
Question 10: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process;
experts must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens.
A. so that B. however C. afterwards D. therefore
Question 11: Peter and Thomas are talking about their mission. Peter: “It is important?”
Thomas: “ ”.
A. Not on your life! B. It’s a matter of life and death!
C. No worry, that’s nothing. D. It’s ridiculous.
Question 12: Ann is asking Mathew’s opinion after biology class. Ann: “Does the
global warning worry you?”
Mathew: “ ”
A. What a shame! B. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter.
C. I can’t bear to think about it. D. I don’t like hot weather.
Question 13: You look exhausted. You in the garden all day.

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A. must have been working B. should have been working
C. would have been working D. will have been working
Question 14: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my
A. piece of cake B. sweets and candy C. biscuit D. cup of tea

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. spear B. gear C. fear d. pear
Question 16: A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 17: The composer Verdi has written the opera Aida to celebrate the opening of the
Suez Canal,
A B C
but the opera was not performed until 1871.
D
Question 18: Wealthy people have always desired and wear precious stones because their
beauty is
A B C
lasting.
D
Question 19: It was not until she could read and write when she was allowed to use
smartphone.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist.
A. hindrance B. obstruction C. furtherance D. setback
Question 21: The ship went down although strenuous efforts were made to save it.
A. exhausting B. forceful C. energetic D. half-hearted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Criticism
The volume of traffic in many cities in the world today continues to expand. This (22)
many problems, including serious air pollution, lengthy delays, and the greater risk
(23) _accidents. Clearly, something must be done, but it is often difficult to persuade
people to change their habits and leave their cars at home.
One possible approach is to make it more expensive for people to use their cars be increasing

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charges for parking and brining in tougher fines for anyone who (24) the law. In
addition, drivers could be required to pay for using particular routes at different times of the
day. This system, also known as ‘road pricing’, is already being introduced in a number of
cities, using a special electronic card (25) to windscreen of the car. Another ways of dealing
with the problem is to provide cheap parking on the outskirts of the city, and strictly control
the number of vehicles allowed into the centre. Drivers and their passengers then use a special
bus service for the final stage of their journey. Of course, the most important (26) is to
provide good public transport. However, to get people to give up the comfort their cars, public
transport must be felt to be reliable, convenient and comfortable, with fares charged at an
acceptable level.
Question 22: A. causes B. results C. leads D. invents
Question 23: A. of B. for C. about D. by
Question 24: A. crosses B. refuses C. breaks D. cracks
Question 25: A. fixed B. joined C. built D. placed
Question 26: A. thought B. thing C. work D. event

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 27: A. mutually B. apologize C. permission D. reaction
Question 28: A. survival B. industry C. endangered D. commercial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Nowadays, there have still been some decisions by sports referees which are
likely to be either unsatisfactory or problematic.
A. strict B. arguable C. tactful D. firm
Question 30: Nobel’s original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on
this sum is used for the awards which very from $30,000 to $125,000.
A. fortune B. prize C. heritage D. bequest

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Of all modern instruments, the violin is apparently one of the simplest. It consists in essence of
a hollow, varnished wooden sound box, or resonator, and a long neck covered with a fingerboard,
along which four strings are stretched at high tension. The beauty of design, shape, and
decoration is no accident. The proportions of the instrument are determined almost entirely by
acoustical considerations. Its simplicity of appearance is deceptive. About 70 parts are
involved in the construction of a violin. Its tone and its outstanding range of expressiveness
make it an ideal solo instrument. No less important, however, is its role as an orchestral and
chamber instrument. In combination with the larger and deeper- sounding members of the

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the violins form the nucleus of the modern symphony orchestra.
The violin has been in existence since about 1550. Its importance as an instrument in its own
right dates from the early 1600’s, when it first became standard in Italian opera orchestras. Its
stature as an orchestral instrument was raised further when in 1626 Louis XIII of France
established at his court the orchestra known as Les vinq-quatre violons du Roy (The King’s 24
Violins), which was to become widely famous later in the century.
In its early history, the violin had a dull and rather quiet tone resulting from the fact that the
strings were think and were attached to the body of the instrument very loosely. During the
eighteenth and nineteenth century, exciting technical changes were inspired by such composer-
violinists as Vivaldi and Tartini. Their instrumental compositions demanded a fuller, clearer,
and more brilliant tone that was produced by using thinner strings and a far higher string
tension. Small changes had to be made to the violin’s internal structure and to the
fingerboard so that they could withstand the extra strain.
Accordingly, a higher standard of performance was achieved, in terms of both facility and
interpretation. Left-hand technique was considerably elaborated, and new fingering patterns on
the fingerboard were developed for very high notes.
Question 31: The word “standard” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. practical B. customary C. possible D. unusual
Question 32: “The King’s 24 Violins” is mentioned to illustrate .
A. the competition in the 1600’s between French and Italian orchestras
B. how the violin became a renowned instrument
C. the superiority of French violins
D. why the violin was considered the only instrument suitable to be played by royalty
Question 33: What is the main idea presented in paragraph 3?
A. The violin is probably the best known and most widely distributed musical instrument in
the world.
B. The violin has been modified to fit its evolving musical functions.
C. The violin had reached the hight of its popularity by the middle of the eighteenth century.
D. The technique of playing the violin has remained essentially the same since the 1600’s.
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. Civaldi and Tartini B. internal structure and fingerboard
C. thinner strings and a higher string tension D. small changes
Question 35: According to the passage, early violins were different from modern violins in
that early violins .
A. were heavier B. produced softer tones
C. were easier to play D. broke down more easily
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following contributes to a dull sound
being produced by a violin?
A. A long fingerboard B. A small body C. High string tension D. Thick strings
Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the ability to

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play modern violin music EXCEPT .
A. use of rare wood for the fingerboard and neck
B. different ways to use the fingers to play very high notes
C. more complicated techniques for the left hand
D. minor alterations to the structure of the instrument

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Advertising helps people recognize a particular brand, persuades them tro try it, and tries to
keep them loyal to it. Brand loyalty is perhaps the most important goal of consumer
advertising. Whether they produce cars, canned foods or cosmetics, manufacturers want their
customers to make repeated purchases. The quality of the product will encourage this, of
course, but so, too, will affect advertising.
Advertising relies on the techniques of market research to identify potential users of a product.
Are they homemakers or professional people? Are they young or old? Are they city dwellers or
country dwellers? Such questions have a bearing on where and when ads should be played. By
studying readership breakdowns for newspapers and magazines as well as television ratings
and other statistics, an advertising agency can decide on the best way of reaching potential
buyers. Detailed research and marketing expertise are essential today when advertising budgets
can run into thousands of millions of dollars.
Advertising is a fast-paced, high-pressure industry. There is a constant need for creative ideas
that will establish a personality for a product in the public’s mind. Current developments in
advertising increase the need for talented workers.
In the past, the majority of advertising was aimed at the traditional white family – breadwinner
father, non- working mother, and two children. Research now reveals that only about 6 percent
of American households fit this stereotype. Instead, society is fragmented into many groups,
with working mothers, single people and older people on the rise. To be most successful,
advertising must identify a particular segment and aim its message toward that group.
Advertising is also making use of new technologies. Computer graphics are used to grab the
attention of consumers and to help them see products in a new light. The use of computer
graphics in a commercial for canned goods, for instance, gave a new image to the tin can.
Question 38: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How to develop a successful advertising plan
B. New techniques and technologies of market research
C. The central role of advertising in selling products
D. The history of advertising in the United States
Question 39: The word “this” in bold type in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. the quality of the product B. effective advertising
C. repeatedly buying the same brand D. the most important goal
Question 40: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that advertisers must .

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A. encourage people to try new products
B. aim their message at homemakers and professional people
C. know about the people who will buy the product
D. place several ads in newspapers and magazines
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, market research inclues .
A. studying television ratings
B. hiring researchers with backgrounds in many fields
C. searcihng for talented workers
D. determining the price of a product
Question 42: The author implies that the advertising industry requires .
A. millions of dollars B. a college-educated work force
C. innovative thinking D. government regulation
Question 43: According to the passage, most advertising used to be directed at .
A. working mothers with chilren B. two-parent families with children
C. unmarried people D. older adults
Question 44: The phrase “in a new light” in bold type in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

A. differently B. with the use of color enhancement

C. more distinctly D. in a more energy-efficient way
Question 45: Where in the passage does the author give an example of a new development in
advertising?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 5

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the
threats of cybercrime less.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about
the threats of cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats
of cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about
the threats of cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime
less.
Question 47: The new contract sounds good. However, it seems to have some problems.
A. In spite of the fact that the new contract sounds good, it appears to have some problems.
B. In spite of its sound, the new contract appears to have many problems.
C. In order to get less problems, the new contract should improve its sound.
D. If it had much less problems, the new contract would sound better.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Due to unforeseen circumstances, our group’s scheduled visit to the museum has
been called off.
A. The trip to the museum that we’d planned is now cancelled because something unexpected
has happened.
B. Something happened at the museum, so they cancelled our visit.
C. We are no longer going to the museum because there is no time on our schedule.
D. We can’t go to see the museum at the arranged time because it will be closed.
Question 49: The little girl said “Will you help me open the parcel? I can’t do it alone”.
A. The little girl asked me if I would help her open the parcel as she couldn’t do it alone.
B. The little girl asked me if I will help her open the parcel as she can’t do it alone.
C. The little girl asked me to open the parcel because she couldn’t do it.
D. The little girl asked me to help her open the parcel because she couldn’t do it alone.
Question 50: They said that “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December went like a bomb.
A. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December was complained to have gone like a disaster.
B. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December is said to go like a bomb.
C. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December was complained to be very violent.
D. “IZZI GALA EVENT” on 23 December was praised to be very successful.

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ĐỀ 30
Điểm LUYỆN THI TIẾNG ANH THPTQG
Thời gian làm bài :60 phút
Ngày: …/…/2023

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Henry was found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 2: We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. had little time to play B. had a lot of time to play
C. felt happy D. felt disappointed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige
Question 4: A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. decides B. combines C. lives D. appoints
Question 6: A. picture B. culture C. pure D. nature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 7: Mario has now to the point where his English is almost fluent.
A. arrived B. approached C. advanced D. reached
Question 8: It seems that he is having a lot of difficulties, ?
A. doesn’t it B. isn’t it C. isn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 9: If energy inexpensive and unlimited, many things in the world would
be different.
A. is B. will be C. were D. would be
Question 10: Opera singer Maria Callas was known for her , powerful voice.
A. intensity B. intensify C. intense D. intensely
Question 11: , he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
Question 12: Dr. Parker gave my mom a lovely for spaghetti carbonara.
A. recipe B. prescription C. receipt D. paper

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Question 13: My sunburnt nose made me feel rather for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-confident B. self-centered C. self-conscious D. self-evident
Question 14: Why is he always the subject of money?
A. bringing up B. taking up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 15: that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so
Question 16: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are_
A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work
Question 17: Do you remember Daisy? I ran her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by B. down C. across D. in
Question 18: It is not to be drunk in the street.
A. respecting B. respectably C. respectful D. respectable
Question 19: A salesgirl is talking to a customer in a clothes shop. Salesgirl: “Can I help you,
madam?”
Customer: “ ”
A. Yes, it’s in our summer sale. B. It’s very cheap.
C. No, thanks. I’m just looking. D. Right. It looks a bit
small. Question 20: Cairo and Roma are talking in the living room. Cairo: “
?” Roma: “I’d rather you
didn’t, if you don’t mind.”
A. Would you do me a favour B. Would you mind if I opened the door
C. Will you please open the window D. Do you mind helping me with my work

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The woman is famous not only for her beauty, intelligent but also for her
hardworking.
A B C D
Question 22: Among the world’s 44 richest countries, there has been not war since 1945.
A B C D
Question 23: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them
from spreading
A B C
easily among the population.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived

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Question 25: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into
debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspapaer war between giants of the
American press in the late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January
1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color
comic supplement, similar to today’s Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William
Randolph Hearst’ rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic
relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the
“Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator,
Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The “Yellow
Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to
characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech baloon inside the strip, usually placed
above the characters’ heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks’s
“Katzenjammer Kids”, based on Wilhelm Busch’s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the
nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for future
American strips. It contained not only speech baloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and
was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier
comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips
throughout the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips
were not far behind. The first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by
many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of daily
newspapers around the country.
Question 26: In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. In alphabetical order by title.
Question 27: According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of
the following EXCEPT .
A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a baloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way
Question 28: The word “incorporate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect

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Question 29: Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today.
B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York’s first newspaper.
D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
Question 30: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”
Question 31: The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following
reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters.
D. They provided a break from serious news stories.
Question 32: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between early and modern comic strips.
B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.
D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether
exposure to these radio waves might (33) to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive.
The scientific evidence does not enable us to say with certainly that mobile phones are
categorically (34) . On the other hand, current research has not yet proved clear adverse effect
associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (35) in various countries. Some of the results are
contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (36)
, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long-term investigation.
Until the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone
for long periods of time. Don’t think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the
moment, research is in fact showing the opposite and they may be just as dangerous. It is
also thought that young people (37) bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
Question 33: A. bring B. lead C. cause D. produce
Question 34: A. risky B. unhealthy C. secure D. safe
Question 35: A. on B. by C. through D. about
Question 36: A. Additionally B. However C. While D. Though
Question 37: A. whose B. that C. with D. as

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects – an estimated 90 percent of the
world’s species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of
insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also
have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for
communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past
century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when
he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk, whereas the total
number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported
only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well
confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate
and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns very among
different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within
temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them, is poorly understood. Indeed,
comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still
mostly “personal communication” citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike
comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation
phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical
decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously;
little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies
make up the preponderance of example because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped
that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be
minimized.
Question 38: The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 39: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about
conversation issues because they .
A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 40: The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats.
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions.
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region.
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups.
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Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory
of diversity EXCEPT .
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 43: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 44: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to .
A. insects B. butterflies C. patterns D. issues
Question 45: The idea “little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution” in
paragraph 5 is that .
A. there are many other things that we don’t know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don’t know anything about butterfy evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 47: “Cigarette?”, he said. “No, thanks.”, I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: They started the meal after they had reached an agreement.
A. Reaching an agreement, they started the meal.
B. Having reached an agreement, they started the meal.
C. Having had the meal, they reached an agreement.
D. Having the meal, they reached an agreement.
Question 49: It had been snowing all day. A great many people managed to get to the end-of-
term concert.

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A. Very few people indeed were prevented from getting to the end-of-term concert by the
heavy snow.
B. Since there had been snow all day long, it wasn’t easy for people to get to the end-of-term
concert.
C. As it had been snowing heavily all day, a great many people just could not get to the end-of-
term concert.
D. A lot of people did get to the end-of-term convert in spite of the snow that fell all day.
Question 50: People said that the manager would return next Monday.
A. The manager was said to have returned on Monday.
B. The manager was said to return next Monday.
C. The manager is said to return next Monday.
D. The manager is said to have returned on Monday.

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