Physics (IGCSE), Mock 2, P2

PHYSICS
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended)
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*3645684800*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.
 Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
1. A student measures the volume of a small, irregularly shaped stone.
Which apparatus must be used?

A a ruler and a measuring cylinder containing water

B a measuring cylinder containing water only
C a ruler and an empty measuring cylinder
D a ruler only

2. Which quantity is a vector?

A electric field strength

B energy
C mass
D temperature

3. An athlete runs 2.4 km in 12 minutes.

What is the average speed of the athlete?

A 0.20 m / s

B 3.3 m / s

C 29 m / s

D 200 m / s

4. The graph shows how the speed of a car changes during a period of 50 s.

Which row gives the car’s greatest acceleration and the car’s greatest deceleration?
5. Which statement about gravitational field strength g is correct?

A g =weight/mass
B g = mass × weight
C g is defined as the mass per unit force
D g is equal to the acceleration of free fall

6. Which property of an object cannot be changed by applying forces?

A mass
B shape
C speed
D volume

7. A small ball of mass 0.10 kg travels horizontally at a speed of 600 m / s. It strikes a stationary
wooden block of mass 1.9 kg resting on a frictionless horizontal surface.
The ball stays in the block.
What is the speed of the ball and the block immediately after the impact?

A 30 m / s
B 32 m / s
C 60 m / s
D 130 m / s

8. An object taken underwater will be damaged if the total pressure acting on it is greater than
2.1 MPa.
What is the maximum depth that the object can be taken underwater before it breaks?
(atmospheric pressure = 101 000 Pa)
(density of water = 1000 kg / m3)
A 10.3 m

B 204 m

C 214 m

D 225 m

9. A piece of solid metal melts to become a liquid.

How do the particles of metal or their behaviour change?
A They increase in size.
B They move around each other.
C They move much further apart.
D They vibrate more about their fixed positions.

10. Brownian motion of particles is observed.

Which statements describe the movement of the particles?
1 The particles all travel along a curved path.
2 The particles move randomly.
3 The particles all travel in the same direction.
A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only
11 Which graph shows how the volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature varies
with its pressure?

12. Which effect is caused by thermal expansion?

A a metal surface heating up in direct sunlight
B ice-cream melting on a hot day
C a railway track buckling on a hot day
D ice forming on a pond on a cold day

13. The temperature of the water at the bottom of a waterfall is greater than the temperature of
the water at the top.
The energy in the gravitational potential store of the water at the top is transferred to the thermal
store at the bottom.
The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).
What is the temperature difference for a waterfall of height 21 m?

A 0.0050 °C
B 0.049 °C
C 20 °C
D 200 °C

14. An ice cube is placed in a beaker and is heated.

The ice melts to form water, which evaporates at first and then boils.
The steam condenses on a cold window in the room.
Which process involves a transfer of energy from the ice, water or steam to the surroundings?
A melting
B evaporating
C boiling
D condensing
15. A teacher shows his class a polystyrene cup. The polystyrene is a thick plastic with lots of
tiny air bubbles in it.
He asks the class why the cup is so good at keeping a hot drink warm. Three suggestions are
made.

1 It contains air which is a poor thermal conductor.

2 The air is trapped in tiny bubbles so very little convection is possible.
3 The plastic is a poor thermal conductor.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

16. Two samples of the same material have the same mass but different surface areas.
Each sample is heated to the same temperature and then left to cool to room temperature.
Each sample is allowed to cool to the same final temperature.

Which row correctly compares the decrease in internal energy and the initial rate of cooling for
each sample?

17 In which type of wave is the direction of vibration parallel to the direction of travel?
A electromagnetic waves
B seismic P-waves
C seismic S-waves
D water waves

18 Waves in a ripple tank are diffracted as they pass through a narrow gap.
What can be done to make the spreading due to diffraction greater?

A Decrease the frequency of the waves and keep the speed constant.
B Decrease the speed of the waves and keep the frequency constant.
C Increase the frequency of the waves and keep the speed constant.
D Increase the frequency of the waves and decrease the speed.
19. Diagram 1 shows the page of a book in front of a plane mirror.
An eye is looking at the image of the page.
Diagram 2 shows a large letter G on the page facing the mirror.

What is the appearance of the image of G seen by the eye?

20. The diagram shows a ray of light passing from air into diamond.

What is the refractive index of the diamond?

A 0.89
B 1.1
C 2.4
D 2.5

21 Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for detecting fake bank notes?
A radio
B microwaves
C ultraviolet
D X-rays
22 A sound wave travels at 330 m / s. The distance between the centre of a compression and
the centre of the nearest rarefaction in the sound wave is 2.5 cm.

What is the frequency of the sound wave?

A 66 Hz
B 130 Hz
C 6600 Hz
D 13 000 Hz

23 Which waves are used in the medical scanning of soft tissue?

A gamma rays
B infrared
C microwaves
D ultrasound

24 Which row describes suitable materials for use in a temporary magnet and in a permanent
magnet?

25. A magnetic field is represented in the diagram by magnetic field lines.

At which point is the magnetic field strongest?
26. A student determines the resistance of resistor R. She uses a circuit including a voltmeter
and an ammeter.
Which circuit does she use?

27. A diode and a resistor are connected across a variable d.c. supply. Terminal X is initially
positive and at a maximum value. The potential difference (p.d.) across XY is adjusted so that it
changes, as shown by the graph.

Which graph shows how the current in the circuit (from X to Y) varies during the same time
interval?
28 When a conductor in a complete circuit cuts across a magnetic field, a current is induced in
the conductor.
Which statement about the induced current is correct?
A The induced current is in the same direction as the motion of the conductor.
B The induced current is in the opposite direction to the motion of the conductor.
C The direction of the induced current is in the same direction as the magnetic field.
D The direction of the induced current opposes the change causing it.

29 The diagram shows a solenoid carrying an electric current.

Which row compares the strength of the magnetic field due to the solenoid at points Y and Z
with the strength of the magnetic field at point X?
30. A conducting wire is placed between the poles of a magnet. When an electric current in the
wire is in the direction shown, then the force on the wire acts out of the page

Three statements of different conditions and how the wire is affected are given.

1 When the current is towards the top of the page and the direction of the magnetic
field is unchanged, the force produced acts into the page.

2 When the current is towards the bottom of the page and the magnetic field is
reversed, the force produced acts into the page.

3 When the current in the wire is alternating, the wire vibrates into and out of the page.
Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

31. Which component forms part of a d.c. motor but not a simple moving coil a.c. generator?

A the coil
B the brushes
C the magnet
D the split-ring commutator

32. A transformer has 5500 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary coil.

The output of the secondary coil is 110 V a.c. and is connected to a heater. The transformer is
100% efficient.

The heater produces a power of 132 W.

What is the current in the primary coil?

A 0.11 A
B 0.12 A
C 11 A
D 12 A
33 The scattering of alpha-particles from a thin gold foil produces the following observations.
● Most of the alpha-particles pass through the foil.
● Most of the alpha-particles are virtually undeflected.
● A small fraction of the alpha-particles are deflected through large angles.
● A very small fraction of the alpha-particles bounce back from the foil.

Which conclusion does not follow from these observations?

A Most of the mass of the gold atom is in its nucleus.

B Most of the atom is empty space.
C The nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
D The nucleus must be charged.

34. A nuclide of chlorine has the symbol shown.

What is the nucleon number of this nuclide of chlorine?

A 17
B 18
C 35
D 52

35. Which change is occurring in a nucleus during β-emission?

A An electron and a neutron become one proton.
B An electron and a proton become one neutron.
C A neutron becomes one proton and one electron.
D A proton becomes one neutron and one electron.

36. The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a
radioactive isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts
per minute.

What is the half-life of the isotope?

A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days
37 Which row about the orbits of the Earth and the Moon is correct?

38 Which statement about the orbits of comets is correct?

A Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit.
B Comets have elliptical orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.
C Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is at the centre of the orbit.
D Comets have circular orbits and the Sun is not at the centre of the orbit.

39 Which row describes the power source for a stable star?

40 Which quantity can be determined using the brightness of a supernova in a distant galaxy?

A the speed at which the galaxy is moving away from the Earth
B the distance of the galaxy from the Earth
C the Hubble constant
D the age of the Universe