TEST CODE : UAJ-113

IIT-JEE
Batch – Growth (UIATS) | Minor Test-11

Time: 3 Hours Test Date: 1st December 2024 Maximum Marks: 300

Name of the Candidate: ____________________________________________________Roll No.______________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals):_______________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: ____________________________Invigilator’s Signature:___________________________

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should not write their Roll Number anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
2. This Test Booklet consists of 75 questions.
3. This question paper is divided into three parts PART A - MATHEMATICS, PART B -
PHYSICS and PART C - CHEMISTRY having 25 questions each and every PART has two
sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option. Marking
scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 5 questions, is an INTEGERAL VALUE.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
4. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
mobile phone any electronic device etc., except the Identity Card inside the examination
hall/room.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate is allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
7. For integer-based questions, the answer should be in decimals only not in fraction.
8. If learners fill the OMR with incorrect syntax (say 24.5. instead of 24.5), their answer will
be marked wrong.
 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

TEST SYLLABUS

Batch – Growth (UIATS) | Minor Test-11

1st December 2024

Mathematics: Compound Angle & Trigonometric Eq, Quadratic Equation

Physics: Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion, Center of Mass,
Momentum & Collision

Chemistry: Chemical Bonding, Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry

Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant R = 8.314 JK −1 mol−1
= 0.0821Lit atm K −1 mol−1
= 1.987  2 Cal K −1 mol−1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023

Planck's Constant h = 6.626  10−34 Js

= 6.25  10−27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66  10−27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10−19 J

Atomic No:
H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79.

Atomic Masses:
He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207,
Au = 197, Ag = 108, F = 19, H = 2, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6

Useful Data Physics:

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s2

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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

PART-A: MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A
1. The least value of cos2  – 6 sin  cos  + 3 sin2  + 2 is-

(A) 4 + 10
(B) 4 − 10
(C) 0
(D) 4

5sin  − 3cos 
2. If 5 tan  = 4, then = =
sin  + 2 cos 
(A) 5/9
(B) 14/5
(C) 9/5
(D) 5/14

3. No. of solution in the equation x = 4 sinx when x  [0, 2  ]-

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

2 4
4. x = y cos = z cos , then xy + yz + zx =
3 3
(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

5. 2+ ( 2 + 2 cos 4 ) ;  0     / 4 is

(A) cos 
(B) sin 
(C) 2 cos 
(D) 2 sin 

A B
6. If A + B + C =  , then  tan 2 tan 2 is equal to-

(A) 0
(B) –1
(C) ½
(D) 1

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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

7. Number of solution of sin x = cos x  x  [0, 2]

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

3
8. General solution of sin3 x + cos3 x + sin 2x = 1
2
(A) x = n  when n is even integer


(B) x = n  + when n is odd integer
2
(C) x = 2n  when n is odd integer


(D) x = n  − when n is even integer
2

9. Minimum value of 5 sin2  + 4 cos2  is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

10. If the roots of the equation x2 – 5x + 16 = 0 are α, β and the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0
𝛼𝛽
are (α2 + β2) and , then -
2

(A) p = 1 and q = 56
(B) p = 1 and q = -56
(C) p = -1 and q = 56
(D) p = -1 and q = -56

1
11. A quadratic equation with rational coefficients whose one root is will be
2+√5

(A) x2 + 4x – 1 = 0
(B) x2 – 4x – 1 = 0
(C) x2 + 4x + 1 = 0
(D) None of these

3𝑥 2 +9𝑥+17
12. If x is real, the maximum value of is
3𝑥 2 +9𝑥+7
1
(A)
4
(B) 41
(C) 1
17
(D)
7

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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

13. Determine the nature of the roots of the equation 2x2 + 5x + 5 = 0

(A) imaginary and distinct
(B) real and equal
(C) imaginary and equal
(D) real and distinct

14. It is given that the roots of the equation x2 — 2x — log2 K = 0 are real. For this, the minimum value
of K is
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/16

15. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15°, respectively, then the
value of 2 + q — p is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 0
(D) 1

16. If (1 – p) is a root of quadratic equation x2 + px + (1 – p) = 0 then its root are

(A) -1, 2
(B) -1, 1
(C) 0, -1
(D) 0, 1

17. All the values of m for which both roots of the equation x2 – 2mx + m2 – 1 = 0 are greater than – 2
but less than 4, lie in the interval
(A) -2 < m < 0
(B) m > 3
(C) -1 < m < 3
(D) 1 < m < 4

18. If x2 – px + 4 > 0 for all real value of x, then which one of the following is correct?
(A) |p| < 4
(B) |p| ≤ 4
(C) |p| > 4
(D) |p| ≥ 4

19. The equation 𝑒 sin 𝑥 − 𝑒 −sin⁡ 𝑥 − 4 = 0 has:

(A) infinite number of real roots
(B) no real roots
(C) exactly one real root
(D) exactly four real roots
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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

20. If the quadratic equations x2 + ax + b = O and x2 + bx + a = O (a ≠ b) have a common root, then the
value of (a + b) is
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 2
(D) 0

SECTION-B
21. (
Number of solutions 4 sin   cos  − 2 cos  − 2 3 sin  + 3 = 0   0, 2 is )

22. Range of 3sin 2 x + 2 cos 2 x lies. Number of Integer in the range.

23. The number of values of x in the interval 0, 5 satisfying the equation

3sin 2 x − 7 sin x + 2 = 0 is

81
24. If the sum of all the roots of the equation 𝑒 2𝑥 − 11𝑒 𝑥 − 45𝑒 −𝑥 + = 0 is log 𝑒 ⁡ 𝑝, then p is equal to ____.
2

1/8 1/8
𝛼3 𝛽3
25. If α and β be two roots of the equation x2 – 64x + 256 = 0. Then the value of ( 5) + ( 5) is:
𝛽 𝛼

PART-B: PHYSICS
SECTION-A
26. A rigid body is acted upon by a horizontal variable force which is inversely proportional to the
distance covered from its initial position 's'. The work done by this force will be proportional to:
(A) s
(B) s2
(C) √s
(D) None of these

27. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 100 J of energy. If it is stretched further by 2 cm, the
stored energy will be increased by:
(A) 100 J
(B) 200 J
(C) 300 J
(D) 400 J

28. Two springs A and B (kA = 2kB) are stretched by applying forces of equal magnitudes at the four
ends. If the energy stored in A is E, then in B is (assume equilibrium):
(A) E/2
(B) 2E
(C) E
(D) E/4

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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

 20 
29. A particle moves along a circle of radius   m with constant tangential acceleration. If the speed
 
of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begun, the tangential
acceleration is:
(A) 160  m/s2
(B) 40  m/s2
(C) 40 m/s2
(D) 640  m/s2

30. A mass of 2 kg is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 5 revolutions
per minute. Keeping the radius constant the tension in the string is doubled. The new speed is
nearly:
(A) 14 rpm
(B) 10 rpm
(C) 2.25 rpm
(D) 7 rpm

31. A man of mass 100 kg is standing on a platform of mass 200 kg. which is kept on a smooth ice
surface. If the man starts moving on the platform with a speed 30 m/sec relative to the platform
then calculate with what velocity relative to the ice the platform will recoil?
(A) 5 m/sec
(B) 10 m/sec
(C) 15 m/sec
(D) 20 m/sec.

32. A circular road of radius r is banked for a speed v = 40 km/hr. A car of mass m attempts to go on
the circular road. The friction coefficient between the tyre and the road is negligible.
(1) The car cannot make a turn without skidding.
(2) If the car turns at a speed less than 40 km/hr, it will slip down
(3) If the car turns at the constant speed of 40 km/hr, the force by the road on the car is equal to

mv 2
r
(4) If the car turns at the correct speed of 40 km/hr, the force by the road on the car is

mv 2
greater than mg as well as greater than
r
How many of statements 1 to 4 are correct?
(A) 1 & 2
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 2 & 4
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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

10
33. A stone of mass 1kg tied to a light inextensible string of length L = m is whirling in a circular
3
path of radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum to the minimum tension in the string

is 4 and g = 10m/s2, the speed of the stone at the highest point of the circle is
(A) 20 m/s

(B) 10 3 m/s

(C) 5 2 m/s
(D) 10 m/s

34. Masses of 1g, 2g, 3g, ...............100g are suspended from the 1cm, 2cm, 3cm...............100cm marks of a
light horizontal metre scale. The system will be supported in equilibrium at
(A) 67 cm
(B) 66 cm
(C) 55 cm
(D) 72 cm

35. A particle A moves at 37o with +x at (5m,0,0 ) with 10 m/s. Another particle B located at (–
5m,0,0) moves at 53 with x-axis with velocity 20 m/s at the same instant. The angular velocity of
o

A w.r.to B at this instant, in radian/sec is :

10 m/s

A 37o B
o
53

20 m/s
(A) 2.2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) None of these

36. A particle of mass m is projected at an angle of 60° with a velocity of 20 m/s relative to the ground
from a plank of same mass m which is placed on smooth surface. Initially plank was at rest. The
minimum length of the plank for which the ball will fall on the plank itself is :

(A) 40 3m

(B) 20 3m

(C) 10 3m

(D) 60 3m

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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

37. A ball of mass m is released from A inside a smooth wedge of mass m as shown in the figure. What
is the speed of the wedge when the ball reaches point B?

1/2
 gR 
(A)  
3 2 
(B) 2gR
1/2
 5gR 
(C)  
2 3 
3
(D) gR
2

38. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at rest. The first ball is brought to rest by the impact. If
half the kinetic energy is lost by impact, what is the value of the coefficient of restitution?
1
(A)
2 2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
2
3
(D)
2

39. Hail storms are observed to strike the surface of the frozen lake at 30 o with the vertical and
rebounds at 60o with the vertical. Assume contact to be smooth, the coefficient of restitution is:
1
(A) e =
3
1
(B) e =
3
(C) e = 3
(D) e = 3

40. A cannon with shots of total mass M0 is kept on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of
friction between the cannon and the horizontal surface is  . If the cannon fires the shots with a
velocity u relative to it, find the velocity of the cannon when it possesses a total mass M with the
remaining shots, after time t from starting. Assume that the cannon fires shots at the same
frequency.

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 TEST CODE : UAJ-113

(A) u ln ( M0 / M ) − gt / 2

(B) u ln ( M0 / M ) − gt

(C) 2u ln ( M0 / M ) − gt

(D) u ln( M0 / M ) − 2gt

41. A square of side 4cm and uniform thickness is divided with four equal squares as shown in the
figure. If one of the squares is cut off, find the distance of the centre of mass of the remaining
portion from O.
A B

D C
2
(A) cm
3
(B) 3/4 cm
(C) 2/3 cm
(D) None

42. A semicircular portion of radius 'r' is cut from a uniform rectangular plate as shown in the figure.
The distance of centre of mass C of remaining plate from O is :

2r
(A)
3 −
3r
(B)
2(4 −  )
2r
(C)
4 +
2r
(D)
3(4 −  )

43. A loaded spring gun of mass M fires a shot of mass m with a velocity V at an angle of elevation  .
The gun is initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface. Just after firing, the centre of mass
of the gun-shot system :
m
(A) moves with a velocity V
M
Vm
(B) moves with a velocity cos in the horizontal direction
M
(C) remains at rest
V (M − m)
(D) moves with a velocity in the horizontal direction.
(M + m)
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44. A block of mass M is attached to a vertical rod by means of two strings of equal length. When the
system rotates about the axis of the rod, the strings are extended as shown in figure.

30 35
When the system makes revolutions per minute the tension in the upper chord is 20 kgf.
 2
Then M=
(A) M = 4Kg
(B) M= 3Kg
(C) M= 2 Kg
(D) M = 1 Kg

45. A ball dropped on a hard floor from a certain height rebounds after collision. The graph of normal
reaction versus time is shown as follows. The mass of ball is 50 gm. The change in velocity of the
ball is

(A) 5 m/s
(B) 10 m/s
(C) 12 m/s
(D) 15 m/s

SECTION-B
46. ⃗ is given by 𝑢(𝑥, 𝑦) = −𝑥 2 𝑦. The magnitude of force acting on
The potential energy for a force field F
the particle of mass m at (1, 0) is

47. Figure shows a particle sliding on a frictionless track which terminates in a straight horizontal
section. If the particle starts slipping from the point A, how far (in meter) away from the track will
the particle hit the ground?

48. A particle of mass m = 1 kg is moving along y-axis and a single conservative force F(y) acts on it.
The potential energy of particle is given by U(y) = (y2—6y+ 14) J where y is in meters. At y = 3 m the
particle has kinetic energy of 15 J.
The total mechanical energy of the particle is

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49. A 10 kg mass moves along x-axis. Its acceleration as function of its position is shown in the figure.
What is the total work done on the mass by the force as the mass moves from x = O to x = 8 cm?
If work done = N × 10-2J, then find the value of N

50. A particle of mass m is attached at one end of a light, inextensible string of length whose other
end is fixed at the point C. At the lowest point A, the particle is given minimum velocity to complete
the circular path in the vertical plane. As it moves in the circular path the tension in the string
changes with  .  is defined in the figure.
When angle  = 90o, Tension = Nmg, then N = ?

PART-C: CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. ( )
Which of these is a correct Lewis structure for iodine tetrachloride ion ICl−4 ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

52. Calculate the formal charge on the central oxygen atom is O3.
(A) 0
(B) +1
(C) -1
(D) 0.5
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53. In the following which has highest boiling point :

(A) HBr
(B) HCl
(C) HI
(D) HF

54. The bond dissociation energy of B – F in BF3 is 646 kJ mol–1 whereas that of C – F in CF4 is 515 kJ
mol–1. The correct reason for higher B–F bond dissociation energy as compared to that of C – F is
(A) Significant p - p interaction between B and F in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such
interaction between C and F in CF4.
(B) Lower degree of p - p interaction between B and F in BF3 than that between C and F in CF4
(C) Smaller size of B-atom as compared to that of C-atom
(D) Stronger bond between B and F in BF3 as compared to that between C and F in CF4

55. The electronic configuration of carbon is 1s22s22p2. There are 12 electrons in C2. The correct
electronic configuration of C2 molecule is :
(A) ( 1s 2 ) ( *1s 2 )( 2s 2 ) ( * 2s 2 ) ( 2 pz2 ) ( 2 px2 )

(B) ( 1s 2 ) ( *1s 2 )( 2s 2 ) ( * 2s 2 ) ( 2 px2 =  2 p y2 )

(C) ( 1s 2 ) ( *1s 2 )( 2s 2 ) ( * 2s 2 ) ( 2 pz2 ) ( 2 p1x =  2 p1y )

(D) ( 1s 2 ) ( *1s 2 )( 2s 2 ) ( * 2s 2 ) ( 2 px2 =  2 p1y )

56. Among the following atomic orbital overlap, the non-bonding overlap is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

57. What is not true about resonance?

(A) The resonating structures are hypothetical
(B) The unpaired electrons in various resonating structures are same
(C) Molecule exists in all the canonical forms for certain fractions of time
(D) Hybrid structure is least energetic
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58. Which of the following molecules has the Maximum Dipole Moment?
(A) CO2
(B) CH4
(C) NH3
(D) NF3

59. ∆U is equal to
(A) Adiabatic work
(B) Isothermal work
(C) Isochoric work
(D) Isobaric work

60. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in Figure.

Δ𝑈𝐵𝐶 = −5𝑘𝐽mol−1 , 𝑞𝐴𝐵 = 2𝑘kmol−1
𝑊𝐴𝐵 = −5kJmol−1 , 𝑊𝐶𝐴 = 3kJmol−1
Heat absorbed by the system during process CA is:

(A) −5kJmol−1
(B) +5kJmol−1
(C) 18kJmol−1
(D) −18kJmol−1

61. In figure, A and B are two adiabatic curves for two different gases. Then A and B corresponds to:

(A) Ar and He respectively

(B) He and H2 respectively
(C) O2 and H2 respectively
(D) H2 and He respectively

62. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure of 1 bar. The
work done in kJ is
(A) -9.0
(B) -0.9
(C) -2.0
(D) +10.0
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63. For the combustion reaction at 298 K

4Ag(s) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2Ag 2 O(s)
Which of the following relation will be true?
(A) ∆H = ∆E
(B) ∆H > ∆E
(C) ∆H < ∆E
(D) ∆H and ∆E bear no relationship with each other

64. For the given reactions

SiO2 + 4HF → SiF4 + 2H2 O, ΔH = −10.17kcal
SiO2 + 4HCl → SiCl4 + 2H2 O, ΔH = 36.7kcal
It may be concluded that
(A) HF will attack SiO2 and HCl will not
(B) HCl will attack SiO2 and HF will not
(C) HF and HCl both attack SiO2
(D) None attack SiO2

65. Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?

(A) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2 O
(B) N2 + O2 → 2NO
(C) 2NaOH + H2 SO4 → Na 2 SO4 + 2H2 O
(D) C2 H5 OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2 O

66. If S + O2 → SO2 ; ΔH = −298.2 kJ

SO2 + 1/2O2 → SO3 ; ΔH = −98.7 kJ
SO3 + H2 O → H2 SO4 ; ΔH = −130.2 kJ
H2 + 1/2O2 → H2 O; ΔH = −287.3 kJ
Then the enthalpy of formation of H2 SO4 at 298 K is
(A) -814.4 kJ
(B) -650.3 kJ
(C) -320.5 kJ
(D) None of these

 d (ΔG ) 
67. If ΔG = ΔH − TΔS and ΔG = ΔH + T   then variation of EMF of a cell E, with temperature T, is
 dT  P
given by:
ΔH
(A)
nF
ΔG
(B)
nF
ΔS
(C)
nF
ΔS
(D) −
nF
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68. The enthalpy of formation of hypothetical MgCl is −125 kJ mol−1 and for MgCl2 is −642 kJ mol−1 . What
is the enthalpy of the disproportionation of MgCl
(A) 392 kJ mol−1
(B) −392 kJ mol−1
(C) −767 kJ mol−1
(D) None of these

69. For hypothetical reversible reaction 1/2 A2 ( g) + 3/2 B2 ( g) → AB3 ( g); ΔH = −20 kJ if standard
entropies of A2 , B2 and AB3 are 60, 40 , and 50 J K −1
mol , respectively. The above reaction will be
−1

equilibrium at
(A) 400 K
(B) 500 K
(C) 250 K
(D) None of these

70. The difference between the heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the
reaction
2C6 H6 (l) + 15O2 → 12CO2 ( g) + 6H2 O(l) at 25∘ C in kJ is
(A) -7.43
(B) +3.72
(C) -3.72
(D) None of these

SECTION-B
71. How many of the following are paramagnetic in nature
O2 ,N22− , CN− ,NO+ ,N2 ,B2 , C2 , O22+ , O2− ,NO

72. How many of the following possess two lone pair of electron on the central atom and have square
planar shape?

SF4 , XeO4 , XeF4 ,ICl−4

73. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when heated from 300 K to 500 K changes its internal
energy by 5000 J. The molar heat capacity at constant volume is ______. (Nearest Integer)

74. Find the magnitude of work done when one mole of the gas is expanded reversibly and isothermally
from 5 atm to 1 atm at 25°C. (Nearest Integer)

75. Carnot's cycle is said to have 25% efficiency when it operates between T (source) and 300 K (sink).
Temperature T is
[Please mark the best possible correct option as your digit answer]
(1) 300 K
(2) 350 K
(3) 375 K
(4) 400 K
(5) None of these

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