Mastering the

BMAT
Mastering the
BMAT

Christopher Nordstrom
George Rendel
Luke Baxter
CRC Press Taylor & Francis Group

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Contents

About the authors

Introduction: Exam strategy and technique
Section 1 – Problem solving, spatial reasoning and verbal reasoning

Section 2 – Biology

Section 2 – Chemistry

Section 2 – Physics

Section 2 – Maths

Section 3 – Essay

Mock BMAT exam and answers

Index
About the authors

Dr Christopher Nordstrom graduated from University College London

with a prize-winning degree in medicine and a first-class honours degree in
neuroscience. He undertook medical training in London before starting
specialist training in anaesthetics and critical care. Christopher has been
involved in medical education for over ten years and has received written
praise for his teaching from hospitals and universities, including Imperial
College London and University College London. He completed a PgCert in
clinical education with distinction and is a Fellow of the Higher Education
Academy. His academic achievements include publications in
worldrenowned journals, published original research and presentations at
national and international conferences. He is one of the UK’s leading
UKCAT and BMAT experts, regularly speaking at national events including
the Royal Society of Medicine’s Career Day and the Futurewise Careers
Day.

George Rendel graduated from the University of Leeds with a prize-

winning First Class Degree in English. He went on to work in publishing
for Pearson in North America, before continuing his career as a consultant
for Accenture in London. George is a co-founder of The Medic Portal,
where he is in charge of technology, marketing and content. He is an expert
on the verbal reasoning and written components of the BMAT and UKCAT
examinations.

Luke Baxter graduated from the University of Cambridge with a first-class

degree in Natural Sciences. He has previously worked in France for the
international NGO, L’Arche. Currently he is a student on the graduate
course in medicine at Cambridge. He also frequently delivers courses on
both the UKCAT and BMAT for The Medic Portal.
Introduction
Background
The BioMedical Admissions Test (BMAT) is one of the longest serving
aptitude tests used to select prospective medical, dental, veterinary and
biomedical sciences students. It is used in the UK and internationally,
testing a combination of both aptitude and knowledge.

The BMAT is a two-hour pen and paper test, sat in designated test centres
across the world. Most candidates can sit the exam at their school, while
school leavers will need to register at their local test centre.

All candidates sit the BMAT on the same date. Usually this is the first
Wednesday of November. The results are released three weeks later and
remain valid for one year. If a candidate wishes to reapply the following
year they will need to resit the BMAT that year.

Top Tip: The BMAT exam takes place after you have submitted your
university choices via Undergraduate Courses at University and College
(UCAS). For medical applicants it is advisable not to apply to more than
two BMAT universities to ensure you spread your risk between United
Kingdom Clinical Aptitude Test (UKCAT) and BMAT universities.

The BMAT exam is broken into three sections:

• Section 1: Aptitude and Skills • Section 2: Scientific Knowledge and
Applications • Section 3: Writing Task Section 1 is the aptitude test. It
is designed to test innate problem-solving abilities and does not require
any specific factual information. Candidates have to answer 35 multiple
choice problem-solving questions, covering mathematical, verbal and
spatial reasoning style questions.

Section 2 requires knowledge. It consists of 27 multiple choice science

questions covering biology, chemistry, physics and maths. Every year a
specific BMAT science syllabus is released, although broadly speaking this
covers the sciences to General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE)
(Key Stage 4) level.

Section 3 is the writing task. Candidates have to write a one A4-sided essay
from a choice of four possible question titles. Many students find this task
the most daunting – especially as they may have dropped all essay-writing
subjects for A levels.

In this book, we will walk you through each of these sections, explaining
how they work and what strategies can be adopted to help you score highly.
We will be referring to worked examples throughout, and there is a full-
length mock exam with model answers at the end of the book.
Courses requiring BMAT
As of Summer 2016, courses requiring the BMAT include: Medicine:
• Brighton and Sussex Medical School (A100)
• Cambridge University (A100)
• Imperial College London (A100 and A109)
• Keele (non-EU students) (A100 and A104)
• Lancaster University (A100)
• Leeds University (A100)
• Lee Kong Chian School of Medicine (Singapore)
• Oxford University (A100 and A101)
• University College London (A100)

Dentistry:
• Leeds University (A200)

Veterinary Medicine:
• Cambridge University (D100)
• Royal Veterinary College (D100 and D101)

Biomedical Sciences:
• Oxford University (BC98)

There are international variations on the BMAT for specific centres,

including BMAT Leiden and BMAT Navarra.
Booking your test
Your test centre will register you for the BMAT; you cannot do this
yourself. Most schools and colleges are registered test centres. Current and
former pupils should speak to their school or college to register them for the
exam. If you are not at school or college you can find registered test centres
on the BMAT website to approach. There are test centres located around the
world for international applicants.

Top Tip: It is your responsibility to ensure that your test centre registers
you for the BMAT exam – make sure you check it has completed this.

Registration opens two months before the exam date (the start of
September) and closes one month before the exam. Late entries will be
considered for two weeks after the closing date but an additional fee
(£32.00) will be levied. The costs of entering the BMAT in 2016 are: •
Standard UK and EU entry: £45
• Non-EU entry: £76

Eligible widening participation candidates can apply to have their standard

entry fee reimbursed. This can be claimed back after payment has been
made with the appropriate letter of proof. For full criteria, visit the BMAT
website.
The test day
It is important to arrive early for your exam. This will ensure you are
relaxed and calm, as well as providing a buffer for unexpected delays.

You will need to bring your own writing equipment. For Sections 1 and 2
you will need a soft pencil and eraser. For Section 3 you will need a pen
with black ink. You may not bring a calculator or dictionary into the exam
hall.

The exam is two hours long. You will be allowed to leave to go to the loo;
however, this will use valuable time.

Top Tip: Bring a couple of spare pens and pencils in case they run out.
Extra time and special considerations
Students with certain disabilities may be considered for extra time or the
use of a laptop. If you are allowed extra time or laptops for other exams you
will need to inform the test centre in advance and bring proof with you.

If you are using a laptop, your Section 3 essay will be limited to 550 words.
You must use Arial size 11 font with single spacing. Spell and grammar
check software must be disabled throughout.

Non-native English speakers or international applicants do not qualify for

extra time, nor may they use a dictionary.

Results and scoring The BMAT results are released

three weeks after the exam. Candidates can log in
online to access a breakdown of their results.
Each university uses the BMAT scores in different ways. Some will focus
mainly on one or two sections whereas others will consider all three
sections. They will each have different cut-offs for deciding who to invite to
interview.

In Sections 1 and 2 each question is worth one mark. The raw score is then
scaled into a ‘BMAT score’ ranging from 1 to 9. The scaling is such that
average successful candidates will score around 5, strong candidates around
6 and exceptional candidates around 7. Typically only around 3% of
candidates score a 7 or above.

Section 3 is marked by two examiners, each of whom grades candidates on

the quality of their content (a numerical score from 1 to 5) and the quality
of their written English (an alphabetical score of A, C or E). The average of
the two examiners is then taken as the final score.
For example, if a candidate scored 5A and 4C from the two examiners, their
grade would average as 4.5B. If there is a large discrepancy between the
two scores a third examiner will assess the paper.
General technique and strategy
The BMAT exam is tough and requires dedicated revision. Most high-
scoring candidates will have spent at least six to eight weeks revising.

All past BMAT papers are available online on the BMAT website. Although
the syllabus has changed, the 2003 to 2008 papers are still useful.

The Medic Portal website (www.themedicportal.com) hosts a fully

interactive BMAT question bank, in which you can answer hundreds of
questions from each section and instantly get feedback and worked
solutions. It even includes BMAT essay tasks with model notes and
responses.

Top Tip: Save the last three years’ worth of papers to practise to time
closer to your exam date.

Each section will require independent revision, testing different skills. For
Section 1 you will need to practise solving mathematical problems without
the comfort of a calculator. For those applying to medicine and dentistry
you will find that sitting the UKCAT will help with some of the verbal and
mathematical aspects.

Each year an official BMAT science guide is published. There is an online

e-book along with syllabus stipulating all areas you must cover. Some
topics in the BMAT syllabus are not present on all GCSE syllabuses, so
make sure you go through the BMAT syllabus to ensure you have revised
all potential topics.
 Top Tip: There is no negative marking in the BMAT. Sections 1 and 2
are both multiple choice. If you find yourself running out of time make
educated guesses to ensure you’ve answered all questions.

Section 3 can be daunting – especially if you are no longer studying essay-

based subjects. It is important to print out sample answer sheets from the
BMAT website and use these when practising questions. This lets you
familiarise yourself with the format you will encounter on the day and
allows you to practise with the space constraints.

Timing is tight but with practice most students find they will finish each
section. It is important that if you are stuck on a question to move on –
remember each question is only worth one mark.

General Top Tips:

• Ensure you cover the theoretical knowledge required for the exam.
• Use the BMAT syllabus to structure your revision.
• Never leave a question blank – there is no negative marking.
• Structure a revision plan over six to eight weeks for optimal results.
• Make sure you do all the past papers available online.
• Practise sections to time – including the essay.
 Problem solving, spatial
SECTION 1 reasoning and verbal
reasoning

Overview

The first section of the BMAT exam is designed to test aptitude. It

does not require any specific knowledge, but instead is designed to
assess your problem-solving abilities. Broadly speaking, questions
cover logic and mathematical skills, and verbal and spatial reasoning
abilities. You are, however, expected to have a solid grasp of basic
mathematical principles up to GCSE level.

Format of the section

Section 1 contains 35 multiple choice questions to be answered in 60
minutes. This equates to approximately 103 seconds per question. In
reality, some questions will take much longer whereas others are quite
quick.

You must answer the questions on the computer-read answer sheet

provided using a pencil. If you mark more than one answer option per
question, you will not score any points.

Top Tip: If changing your answers, make sure you rub them out
completely to prevent the computer reading two answers and therefore
scoring you zero points.

Every question is worth one mark and there is no negative marking. It

is therefore vital that you do not leave any questions unanswered.
 Competition is tight and approximately 25% of candidates will score
within three marks of each other. Therefore, one mark could be the
difference between success and failure.

Problem solving and verbal reasoning typically each make up

approximately a third of Section 1, with the remainder of questions
covering spatial reasoning and data analysis (which could include
verbal, statistical and graphical information).

Question format
The questions will take one of two formats:

• Single answer
• Combination answer

Single answer questions consist of a question stem, followed by three

or more answer options. Combination answer questions contain a
stem, three possible answer statements and then three or more answer
options involving different combinations of the answer statements.

There will also be a few longer ‘question sets’. These questions

contain a large amount of information, often a combination of text and
tables or graphs followed by four questions. These can be purely
verbal, logical or mathematical, but often contain a mixture of
question types.

Top Tip: The longer question types don’t usually require you to read
all the information. The questions will point you towards the relevant
part of the information.

Verbal reasoning
Verbal reasoning questions make up approximately a third of Section 1
questions. They are predominantly designed to test your understanding of
arguments. It helps to have studied critical thinking when approaching these
questions.

The majority of questions are single or combination answer questions,

although there will usually be a few verbal reasoning questions linked to a
longer question set format.

Top Tip: The BMAT Section 1 verbal questions are similar to the
UKCAT ‘new format’ comprehension style questions.

The basic format of the verbal reasoning single answer questions is:
1. 100 to 150-word argument (the passage)
2. A question
3. Four or five answer options

The combination answer questions are similar, and consist of:

1. 100 to 150-word argument (the passage)
2. A question
3. Three statements
4. Three to seven answer options made from combinations of the three
statements

Understanding arguments
Before attempting to answer verbal reasoning questions it’s important to
understand the basic principles of an argument. In its simplest form, an
argument is a set of reasons given in support of an idea or theory. In
addition, you must be familiar with the definition of: • Premises
• Conclusions
• Assumptions
 • Flaws

A premise is a previous statement or proposition from which another is

inferred or follows as a conclusion. A conclusion is a proposition that is
reached from given premise(s). In other words, a premise can be thought of
as the ‘evidence’ or ‘supporting statement’ used to justify an overall
conclusion.

Below is an example of an argument:

Regular exercise reduces the rate of atherosclerosis, which in turn

reduces your chance of suffering a heart attack. In addition, exercise
releases endorphins which have a positive effect on mood and
psychological well-being. People who exercise regularly have longer
life expectancies than those with sedentary lifestyles. Therefore,
exercise is beneficial to your health.

From the above example we can see that there are three premises leading to
an overall conclusion:
• Exercise reduces rates of atherosclerosis and therefore heart Premises
attacks.
• Exercise improves mood through the release of endorphins.
• Regular exercise is linked to longer life expectancy.
• Exercise is beneficial to health. Conclusion

When explaining arguments (and related questions) we will refer to the

famous ancient Greek palace – the Parthenon. Visualising arguments as the
Parthenon will allow you to understand how they can be attacked or
strengthened.

Consider a basic argument as the Parthenon:

Just as the roof of the Parthenon is supported by the pillars, the conclusion
of an argument is supported by the premises.
In Section 1 verbal reasoning there are five question formats you will
encounter where you will need to identify: • Conclusions
• Assumptions
• Flaws
• Strengthening arguments
• Weakening arguments

Conclusions
A conclusion is the proposition that is reached from given premise(s). It is
important to differentiate between a conclusion and the conclusion.

A conclusion is, simply speaking, something that logically follows on from

the premises. Logically follows means you cannot help but reach a
particular conclusion without making any assumptions. In other words, you
have not had to make any assumptions or use any outside knowledge.
Consider the following statement:

In the kitchen there are two apples in the fridge, two in the fruit bowl
and none anywhere else.

It therefore logically follows that there must be four apples in the kitchen.
Although not explicitly stated, you know this for a fact.

A conclusion is therefore simply something that logically follows from the

passage. It is similar to ‘true’ in UKCAT verbal reasoning. This differs from
questions asking you to identify the conclusion. The conclusion (sometimes
referred to as the main conclusion) means the ‘point’ of the argument as a
whole.

Top Tip: Remember passages can have more than one conclusion, as
technically many statements can logically follow from the premises.
The, or the main, conclusion is the ‘point’ of the whole argument. Be
careful to assess all answer options before committing to an answer.

Question 1
One of the biggest issues facing societies in advanced economies around
the world is disconnect between urban and rural areas. Traditionally, as a
country’s economy develops, the social separation between urban and
rural populations widens. Attitudes towards hunting are an excellent
example of an ideological schism that can occur in such cases. In rural
societies, growing food, slaughtering animals and hunting for sport are
often everyday occurrences. And someone who slaughters a pig for their
family to eat would see little wrong with spending their leisure time
killing animals. Yet, in urban environments, where societies are typically
further removed from any of the processes used to produce the food they
consume, many are horrified at the idea of hunting for sport.
What conclusion can be drawn from the above passage?
A. Urban societies are unaware of how their food is produced.
B. Rural populations are less affected by changes in economic
development.
C. Differences in opinion can be shaped by an individual’s experience.
D. Hunting for sport is not seen as acceptable by urban populations.
E. Economic development often results in an improvement in animal
rights.

Question 1: answer and explanation

The passage states that ‘someone who slaughters a pig for their family to
eat would see little wrong with then spending their leisure time killing
animals’. It goes on to say that ‘in urban environments, where societies
are typically further removed from any of the processes used to produce
the food they consume, many are horrified at the idea of hunting for
sport’. This represents a difference of opinion that is shaped by
individual experience. The correct answer is therefore C.

A is incorrect because the passage does not say that urban populations
are unaware of how their food is produced – just that they are more
removed from the processes.

B is incorrect because the passage does not present any evidence that
rural populations are less affected by changes in economic development.

D is incorrect because the passage does not state that urban populations
as a whole, and in their entirety, view hunting for sport as
‘unacceptable’.

E is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the issue of animal
rights.
 Top Tip: Make sure you don’t confuse a premise with a conclusion.
Representing the argument as the Parthenon will help you avoid this
pitfall.

Value judgements
Some verbal reasoning questions introduce value judgements. This is where
you need to decide which option is ‘more correct’ than the other options. It
therefore means that several options could be theoretically correct, but you
need to make an assessment of rightness or wrongness to gauge which
option is the best fit.

Value judgement questions are signalled by words such as ‘best’ or ‘most’

in the question. For example: Which of the following is the best conclusion
of the above passage?

Reading this question should immediately alert you to the fact that more
than one answer option might technically represent a valid conclusion that
logically follows from the passage. You need to make a value judgement as
to which option is the most suitable. Usually this is the option with the
highest ‘impact factor’. In other words, the option that is the main
conclusion.

Assumptions
An assumption is a thing that is accepted as true or certain to happen, but
without proof. Assumptions can therefore be considered as unstated
premises:

The Parthenon model shows us that assumptions are ‘see-through pillars’.

They must be present in order for the argument to hold true; however, they
are not explicitly stated within the passage.
Assumption questions usually ask you to identify which of the answer
options is/are assumptions in the argument. It can be useful to use the
following algorithm when assessing each answer option in turn to decide
whether a statement is an assumption or not:

Top Tip: Use the above algorithm to identify if a statement is a premise

or an assumption.

Question 2
In some countries, it is illegal not to participate in a general election. The
decision not to vote can even lead to the individual in question receiving
a fine. This is often seen as a good thing, as it leads to more people being
interested in politics. Naturally, if someone has to vote no matter what,
they will take an added interest in the political climate. Compulsory
voting also reduces the potential of governments to ignore minority
groups, due to the fact that a certain demographic is unlikely to hold
them to account at the ballot box.

Which of the following is an assumption in the above argument?

A. Some countries have different voting laws than others.
B. Governments ignore minority groups if not held to account.
C. There is a correlation between voting and political interest.
D. Fewer people will vote if they are not legally compelled to do so.
E. Penalising those who do not vote is a good thing.

Question 2: answer and explanation

The passage claims that ‘if someone has to vote no matter what, they
will take an added interest in the political climate’. This statement shows
that the author is linking voting to political interest. Since this link is not
demonstrated, it is an assumption. It is also a questionable one, since it
does not account for people who may vote purely to avoid financial
penalties. The correct answer is therefore C.

A is incorrect because voting laws are a matter of fact and therefore not
based on assumption.

B is incorrect because the passage only says that the laws reduce the
‘potential’ of this happening.

D is incorrect because this is not an assumption underlying the argument

about voter interest and government actions.

E is incorrect because the passage only says that it is often seen that
way; it does not assume it to be true.

Argument flaws
An argument flaw is an imperfection, often concealed, that impairs the
soundness of an argument. It is important to remember that a flaw does not
necessarily render the conclusion incorrect – it simply introduces an
imperfection that increases the likelihood it may be wrong.

Consider the Parthenon:

If the Parthenon were to be struck by lightning, cracks may develop in the

structure. These cracks won’t necessarily cause the building to collapse, but
will certainly affect the soundness of the structure. Similarly, if a flaw were
to be introduced into an argument the conclusion may still hold true,
although the soundness would certainly be impaired.

There are well over 100 types of flaw (also known as fallacies) described in
critical thinking. But for the BMAT the main types encountered are: • Flaw
of causation
 • Conflation
• Straw man fallacy
• Ad hominem
• Bifurcation fallacy
• Generalisations
• Circular reasoning

Flaw of causation
This usually means confusing correlation with causation. It assumes that
because two events happen in close proximity, there must be a causal link
between them. Consider the following example: More people who take
paracetamol develop brain tumours. Therefore, we can conclude that
paracetamol causes brain tumours.

It may very well be the case that more people taking paracetamol develop
brain tumours. But this conclusion assumes that there is a direct link
between the two, despite there being no concrete evidence for this.

It fails to take into account the fact that there might be other factors
involved. Maybe those with brain tumours develop frequent headaches,
therefore take more paracetamol? Or perhaps people with brain tumours
consume more paracetamol as a result of the tumour, rather than as a
precursor to it developing.

Top Tip: Correlation does not necessarily mean causation!

Conflation
Conflation relates to flawed analogies. These is sometimes colloquially
known as ‘comparing apples and oranges’. This is when an argument
compares two or more concepts, treating them as the same thing when in
reality they are not. Consider the argument below: Last year 1000 UK
citizens died in car crashes while only 25 died in plane crashes. Therefore,
planes are four times as safe as cars.

This argument attempts to compare the safety of cars and planes. However,
the comparison is flawed because we do not know how many journeys were
made by each mode of transport. If only 25 flights were taken, the mortality
rate was in fact 100%! In other words, we might be comparing apples and
oranges.

Straw man fallacy

The straw man fallacy is when the arguer misrepresents an argument and
cites premises and conclusions that were not in fact made by the person he
is arguing against. The argument below highlights the straw man fallacy:
Individual 1: We should limit immigration to help boost the job prospects of
our unemployed youth.

Individual 2: Individual 1 thinks that we should ban immigration, not

do anything to help those disadvantaged in other countries and instead
let them continue to live in poverty.

In this case, Individual 2 has misrepresented the argument put forward by

Individual 1. Did Individual 1 say we should ban immigration? Did they say
we should not do anything to help others living in poverty in other
countries? By misrepresenting the argument, Individual 2 has made it easier
to attack the argument.

Ad hominem
This is when someone seeks to undermine an argument by attacking the
character of the individual delivering it. For example: Paul believes that to
make the country safer all guns should be banned. This is ironic, as Paul
used to go hunting with his dad as a child. How can we take Paul’s
argument seriously?
Paul may have a well-thought-out and logical argument, but the arguer has
attacked Paul’s personal circumstances, rather than the soundness of the
argument.

Bifurcation fallacy
The bifurcation fallacy is also known as ‘restricting the options’ or ‘false
dilemma’. It arises when the argument forces an individual to choose
between a narrow range of options, when in reality there is at least one
other viable option. An example of this is as follows: The universe must
either have arisen as the result of the Big Bang, an infinitely small and
dense point which exploded outwards, or have been formed by a divine
Creator, as it could not have arisen from nothing. As a Creator would also
have needed to arise from something, the Big Bang is the most plausible
explanation.

This argument does not take into account any other theories or options, but
instead assumes that only one of the two listed options must be true. There
could be many other theories which offer viable explanations.

Generalisations
Generalisations occur when arguments extrapolate specific points into
general theories. This leads to flaws. Although the specific point may be
representative of all cases, it is likely that it is not. As a result, incorrect
conclusions may be drawn. For example: When visiting Sweden on holiday,
the people who caught my eye all had blond hair. Therefore, all Swedish
people have blond hair.

While it may be true that relatively speaking there are more blond-haired
individuals in Sweden, it is incorrect to generalise it into ‘all’.

Circular reasoning
Circular reasoning occurs when an argument assumes that what you are
trying to prove is true, or when the conclusion is used as a premise. These
arguments are flawed. It’s just like someone telling you: I’m right because
I’m right!

Question 3
Medical professionals frequently lament a lack of availability when it
comes to donor organs. One idea for addressing this is that eligibility to
receive organ transplants be limited only to those who themselves are
registered as organ donors. This would offer a practical solution to the
lack of organ donors, as people would probably not want to be refused
the chance for potentially life-saving surgery. And it stands to reason that
organ donors are more deserving of organs, as they are prepared to offer
up their own. So, this new policy, if introduced, would create a virtuous
cycle, whereby there would be more organ donors, and organ donors
themselves would always get an organ if needed.

Which of the following could be a flaw in the above argument?

A. It uses the term ‘virtuous cycle’ without defining it.
B. It confuses donor numbers with organ availability.
C. It doesn’t account for large administration costs associated with
adding people to the donor register.
D. There is no legal way of defining if someone is deserving of an organ.
E. It is wrong to punish someone so severely for one mistake.

Question 3: answer and explanation

The passage concludes that making organs available only to donors
would mean donors would always get an organ. However, this is not
mathematically true, since a donor does not necessarily mean an
available organ. And, even if it did, if the number of donors in need
 outweighed the number of donors in a position to provide, the ‘virtuous
cycle’ would not work. The correct answer is therefore B.

A is incorrect because this term does not need to be defined for the
argument to be valid – only used correctly.

C is incorrect because the argument is not concerned with costs.

D is incorrect because it is not relevant to the argument presented.

E is incorrect because the argument does not consider the moral

implications of the policy.

Structural flaws
The above examples have all looked at content flaws. But BMAT Section 1
also uses arguments with structural flaws (sometimes known as ‘reasoning
errors’). For example: All humans are mammals. Therefore, all mammals
are humans.

Sometimes, if you want to understand the structure of an argument, it helps

to translate it into letters. In this case, that would give us: All A is B.
Therefore, all B is A.

This is obviously an incorrect conclusion to draw from the information

provided.

Top Tip: Putting the argument structure into letters allows you to spot
structural flaws more easily.

Question 4
Daniel Day-Lewis is the only actor in history to have won three Oscars
for Best Actor. He took the prestigious Academy Award in 1989, 2007
and 2012 for My Left Foot, There Will be Blood and Lincoln
respectively. Many people think this makes him the best actor in the
world. Day-Lewis is a well-known exponent of the ‘method’ school of
acting, whose members also include Marlon Brando and Robert De Niro,
who at various times have also been considered the best actors in the
world. To be considered the best actor in the world, it is therefore
necessary to be a ‘method’ actor.

Which of the following makes the same reasoning error as the above
argument?
A. Most pieces of music are only as good as the musician who performs
them.
B. Fernando is a Spanish singer, so to be a singer you must be Spanish.
C. All cats are mammals, therefore all mammals are cats.
D. Most Ferraris are red, so the majority of red cars are Ferraris.

Question 4: answer and explanation

The format of the argument is: A is B. A is C. Therefore, to be B you
must be C. The correct answer is B.

A has the format: A depends on B.

C has the format: All A is B. Therefore all B is C.

D has the format: Most A is B. Therefore most B is A.

 Top Tip: When trying to identify the flaw in an argument think like a
detective and work backwards from the conclusion to the premises. By
finding the illogical ‘jump’ in logic you have identified the flaw in the
argument.

Strengthening and weakening the argument

Frequently, questions will ask you to select which statement will either
strengthen or weaken the argument in the passage. These questions are
easier to approach if you think about the Parthenon model.

To strengthen an argument, you can either add another premise or

strengthen an existing premise. Below is an example of a short argument to
show how you can strengthen a premise: Passage: Mr Daniels must be a
good physics teacher as last year 75% of his students scored an A* in
GCSE physics.

Statement: After remarking, it turned out that in fact 82% of Mr

Daniels’ students achieved an A* grade.

We can see that the statement will strengthen the argument, as it solidifies
an existing premise (in this case the high number of A* grades achieved).

Thinking of the Parthenon model, this would mean adding another pillar or
increasing the size of an existing pillar – both have the result of
strengthening the foundation of the building.
Weakening the argument relies on the same principles as strengthening the
argument – but in reverse. You can weaken an argument by either removing
a premise or by introducing a flaw. Remember, a flaw doesn’t necessarily
render the conclusion incorrect, but it does decrease the likelihood of the
conclusion being right.

In terms of the Parthenon model you can weaken the argument by removing
a pillar or by introducing a ‘crack’. Both of these weaken the foundations of
the structure.
Top Tip: By learning the different types of flaw that can be introduced
into arguments you will understand how to approach both ‘flaw’ and
‘weakening’ style questions.

Question 5
Many people are quick to call potential ministers of political parties
‘career politicians’. This term is used as a way of negativity labelling a
candidate, based upon the idea that politics is their chosen career and
that being elected is a mere stepping stone in their career path, rather
than a genuine opportunity to represent their constituency. But this label
is an archaic one. We no longer live in a world where politicians are
made up of generous individuals who are willing to give up their time to
represent the needs of others. Politics is a serious business and we need
the best people for the job, regardless of their background. Therefore,
those who seek out a career as a politician should be applauded, not
chastised due to criticisms founded on dubious assumptions.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument

presented?
A. The best politicians often benefit from skills they acquired from a
range of professions and environments.
B. People who have had successful careers outside of politics often do
not face financial pressures when campaigning to become a
politician.
C. Every political candidate must pass a background check before they
can be considered for election.
D. It is rare to be a good politician and be unpopular.
E. The idea of following a career solely in politics is relatively recent.
 Question 5: answer and explanation
The passage implies that ‘career politicians’ should be applauded based
on the premise that ‘politics is a serious business and we need the best
people for the job, regardless of their background’. If ‘A’ were true, it
would suggest that ‘career politicians’ may not be as suited to the job as
other candidates, thereby justifying many of the concerns that this
argument seeks to dismiss. The correct answer is therefore A.

B is incorrect because the issue of financial independence is not relevant

to the argument.

C is incorrect because the issue of a background check is not relevant to

the argument.

D is incorrect because the argument does not say that all career
politicians are unpopular.

E is incorrect because it agrees with the argument presented.

Types of evidence
There are five different types of evidence you need to understand for the
BMAT exam:
1. Conclusive evidence: This is strong factual evidence, often derived
from research and experiments, which cannot be contradicted by the
other types of evidence.
2. Statistical evidence: This is evidence based on numbers and samples.
It can be very strong (if you have a large, representative sample) but
can be exploited to falsely demonstrate an effect by using a small,
non-representative sample.
3. Anecdotal evidence: This is evidence based on personal accounts and
observations, not research or scientific study. Generally speaking it is
a weak form of evidence.
 4. Hearsay: This is unofficial, unverified information gained from
someone else and not part of one’s direct knowledge. Hearsay is a
weak form of evidence as it cannot be corroborated.
5. Irrelevant evidence: This is evidence that is cited in support of an idea
or theory but which has no actual relevance to the argument. It is
therefore a very weak form of evidence.

You may be asked to identify what type of evidence has been used in a
particular argument.

Glossary of argument terminology

• Argument: A persuasive piece of text or speech consisting of premises
leading to a conclusion.
• Assumption: Something that is accepted as true or certain to happen,
but without proof.
• Conclusion: A proposition that is reached from given premise(s).
• Correlation: Two or more events regularly occur in close proximity.
Correlation does not necessarily imply causation.
• Evidence: Factual material used in support of a claim.
• Flaw: An argument flaw is an imperfection, often concealed, that
impairs the soundness of an argument.
• Inference: Moving from premise(s) to a conclusion.
• Logically follows: You cannot help but reach a particular conclusion
without making any assumptions.
• Premise: A statement or proposition from which another is inferred or
follows as a conclusion.
• Value judgement: Assessing the rightness or wrongness of something.

Logical and mathematical reasoning

The problem-solving questions in Section 1 can be very tricky. There are
some recurring themes and styles of questions which repeat, but each year
there will usually be one or two completely new question varieties.

These questions are designed to assess your ability to apply logic and
reasoning to solve problems. It is about figuring out the underlying
principles in the question – something which can be hard to do in the time
allowed.

In the remainder of this chapter, we will run through some of the common
themes and underlying principles involved in these questions, and will
highlight how they work in practice with sample questions.

Top Tip: Be careful of time. It is easy to spend too long trying to solve
one problem. This has a domino effect that may well see you run out of
time on the remaining questions.

Time and date questions

Time and date questions are common and, if understood, can be very quick
to answer. Therefore, they can offer a steady source of marks.

Question 6
Four of my friends are called Jasmine, Fiona, Liam and Minaj. Their
birthdays are on the 77th, 177th, 200th and 312th day of the year
respectively.

Which two of my friends will have their birthday on the same day of the
week as each other?
A. Jasmine and Fiona
 B. Jasmine and Liam
C. Jasmine and Minaj
D. Fiona and Liam
E. Fiona and Minaj
F. Liam and Minaj

Question 6: answer and explanation

Time and date questions are relatively straightforward. In this case, in
order to have their birthdays on the same day of the week, the difference
in number of days between two of the friends’ birthdays must be
divisible by seven. This is because there are seven days in a week. If the
difference is not divisible by seven, the birthdays cannot be on the same
day.

Liam and Minaj have their birthdays on the 200th and 312th day
respectively. The difference is 112, which is divisible by 7 (112 / 7 = 16).
They will therefore have their birthdays on the same day of the week, 16
weeks apart.

Top Tip: If the question is looking for months of the year, find a
difference divisible by 12.

Partial table questions

Partial table questions provide you with a table of information which is only
partially completed. The introductory text will usually establish a set of
‘rules’ for how the table operates and how it should be filled in. You will
need to complete the table in order to answer the question.
Top Tip: Pay close attention to the rules provided. There is sufficient
information provided to answer the questions, although there may not be
enough to complete the whole table.

Question 7
Paul, Matt, Susan and Orpa are attending a training day with four
different sessions. A trainee cannot attend all four sessions and each
session must have at least two trainees attending. Paul and Susan each
attend only one session.

The session planner starts the following table:

Morning Afternoon Evening Night

Paul
✔

Matt
✘

Susan
Orpa
✔

Which sessions does Matt attend?

A. Morning and Afternoon
B. Morning, Afternoon and Night
C. Morning and Night
D. Afternoon only
E. Afternoon and Night
F. Night only

Question 7: answer and explanation

All the rules needed to complete the table are provided. Paul only attends
one session so he does not attend the morning, evening or night sessions.
Each session must have at least two trainees so Susan must attend the
evening session. Susan does not attend the morning, afternoon or night
sessions (as she only attends one session). Consequently Matt and Orpa
both attend the morning and night sessions as each session requires two
attendees. A trainee cannot attend all four sessions; hence Orpa does not
attend the afternoon session, meaning that Matt must attend the
afternoon session.

Matt therefore attends the morning, afternoon and night sessions.

Morning Afternoon Evening Night
Paul
✘ ✓ ✘ ✘

Matt
✔ ✔ ✘ ✔

Susan
✘ ✘ ✔ ✘

Orpa
✔ ✘ ✔ ✔
 Top Tip: You can use the table in your question booklet to tick and
cross as you go along, saving time when compared to drawing out the
table.

PIN number questions

PIN numbers lend themselves to generating logical reasoning questions
using numbers. There are usually two parts to these questions: 1. Use
logical reasoning to deduce the correct PIN number.
2. Solve one or more of the PIN numbers then apply basic calculations
on the numbers.

Question 8
The four digits of the PIN number of my debit card are all different and,
when written out as words, in alphabetical order. When the digits are
written as words, I find that the first letter is different for each digit. The
sum of any two digits will always be less than 15. The third digit of my
PIN is 7.

What is the total number of letters required to spell the first three digits
of my PIN number?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
E. 14
F. 15
Question 8: answer and explanation
PIN number questions rely on using only 10 numbers:
1. Zero
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
6. Five
7. Six
8. Seven
9. Eight
10. Nine

When written out as words it is easy to spot characteristics that will

allow you to eliminate them as options: • The number of letters
• The first letter

The third digit is 7 and the sum of any two numbers must be less than 15
so my PIN does not include 8 or 9 (otherwise the sum would be greater
than 15). The first letter of each digit begins with a different letter when
written as a word so my PIN does not include 6 (as both 6 and 7 begin
with S). For this reason, only one of 4 and 5 can be included (both begin
with the letter F). This means that the 1 must be included (as this is the
only number left since 0, 2 or 3 would all be after 7 since the PIN is in
alphabetical order).

Since the digits are in alphabetical order, the first letter of each digit in
order will either be FOST or FOSZ. Both 4 and 5 have the same number
of letters (four). Hence the total number of letters for the first three digits
is 12.
 In this case, you do not need to know if the PIN starts with a 4 or 5 – and
it is impossible to tell based on the information.

Number sequence questions

It is common to encounter number sequence questions. These usually
require you to break down a sequence using a set of ‘rules’ provided in the
question. The second step will require logical reasoning to decipher the
answer, often combining the theory from ‘time and date’ questions.

Question 9
A spy ring uses a code whereby each letter is given a numerical value (A
= 1, B = 2, C = 3, etc.) and a word is ended by giving the cumulative
total of the letters in that word. The cumulative total ‘resets’ to zero at
the beginning of a new word.

For example, ‘COW’ would be ‘3152341’ because the letters of the word
equal 3, 15 and 23 respectively giving cumulative totals of 41 (3 + 15 +
23).

The ring leaders receive a string of numbers from one of their agents,
which translates into a single word (in English). However, the string of
numbers is repeated, so the leaders are unsure where the number
broadcast begins and ends.

Here is a transcript of the repeated section: 1255480252018

What are the first and last letters of the word?

A. U and S
B. M and E
C. B and D
D. G and M
E. F and S

Question 9: answer and explanation

This question could probably be answered through trial and error until
you identify letters that ‘work’, but this may take up precious time. A
quick way to do it is to spot that zero can never appear as the first digit in
a number (see the example, ‘C’ is represented as ‘3’). Whenever a zero
appears it must either represent the letters J or T (numerical values 10
and 20 respectively), or it must be a digit in the cumulative total. We
have two zeros – one preceded by an eight, the other preceded by a two.

There are 13 digits in the string of numbers above – note that the highest
value possible in a string of 13 digits is 130, the total of five ‘Z’s –
2626262626130 (the code for ‘ZZZZZ’). Therefore, 80 must be the
cumulative total in the string of digits above because it contains a zero
and it is the highest digit-combination that is lower than 130.
This must mean that the zero preceded by a two is 20 or ‘T’. From here
it is easy to work out the rest of the string: • 25201812554 arranged as
numbers added together must equal 80.
• 25T1812554 – note that 25, ‘Y’, rarely precedes T so more likely to
be B, E.
• B, E, T, 1812554 – note that 55 and 54 cannot be letters, so final two
digits must be E and D.
• B, E, T, 18125 E, D; 80 – (2 + 5 + 20 + 5 + 4) = 44.
• 18125 could be: AHABE or AHAY or RLE or RAY or RABE.

Only RAY fits – so the word is ‘BETRAYED’, although obviously you

should stop when you know the first and final letters! The correct answer
is therefore C.
Travel
Logical reasoning questions involving travelling and distances are common.
It is essential that you are familiar with: speed =
distance

time

You may also be expected to interpret graphs using the gradient and area
under the graph.

Top Tip: In a velocity-time graph the area under the graph is equal to
the distance travelled.

Question 10
There are 26 stations, labelled from A to Z. A train moving at 100 mph
passes through Station A, heading towards Station Z. A car moving at 60
mph passes Station F, also heading towards Station Z.

If Stations A to Z are spaced apart in a straight line, with a constant

distance of 10 miles between each station, when will the train overtake
the car?
A. At Station L
B. Between Station L and M
C. Between Station M and N
D. At Station N

Question 10: answer and explanation

The car has a 50-mile head start on the train. The train is moving 100 –
60 = 40 mph faster than the car. Therefore, it will close the 50 mile gap
within 50/40 = 1.25 hours.

In this time, the car will have advanced 60 × 1.25 = 75 miles. So, if it
started at Station F, it will be halfway between stations M and N when
the train catches it.

(To check, you can see where the train will be after 1.25 hours; it has
moved 125 miles which, if you divide by 10, gets you 12.5 stations away
from A, which is halfway between M and N.)

Top Tip: It is important to remember that the focus of these questions is

on problem solving, rather than mathematical ability. Pure maths skills
will be tested in Section 2. In Section 1, the focus is on thinking
logically around the problem to generate the answer.

Question 11
As part of a celebration, two antique steam trains are heading along
straight tracks towards a station where they arrive simultaneously. One
train comes from the north while one comes from the south travelling at
25 and 45 mph respectively. The initial distance between the trains is 70
miles.

A helicopter, flying at 65 mph is filming the events. The helicopter sets

off from the southern station at the same time as the train, following the
railway tracks towards the other train. When it reaches the northern train
it turns around and heads back to the southern train. It then turns around
again heading back to the northern train and continues doing this until
the trains meet.

How far will the helicopter have flown by the time the trains meet?
 A. 65 miles
B. 70 miles
C. 90 miles
D. 110 miles
E. 135 miles
F. Can’t tell

Question 11: answer and explanation

On the surface this question looks difficult. The key thing to remember is
that when a question looks disproportionately convoluted there is usually
a simpler way of solving it through logic.

You know that the two trains are 70 miles apart and will be heading
towards each other at 25 + 45 = 70 mph. Using time = distance / speed
we can calculate that the trains will meet in 1 hour.

The helicopter which is filming the events is travelling at 65 mph. So, the
key question is simply: how far will a helicopter fly when travelling at 65
mph for 1 hour? Suddenly the problem has become easy to answer! The
answer is therefore A – 65 miles.

Top Tip: Although questions may look mathematical, they may simply
be testing some basic logical reasoning and problem-solving skills.

Graphs and data analysis

There will usually be three to five questions based around interpreting
graphs and data. We will cover more on this in later chapters (Section 2 –
Maths). Often data interpretation and graphical questions will form part of
longer question sets, where there will be four follow-on questions from one
set of data.

You will need to be comfortable interpreting:

• Line graphs
• Bar charts
• Pie charts
• Histograms
• Box plots
• Venn diagrams
• Scatter diagrams
• Cumulative frequency graphs

All of the above are covered in detail in subsequent chapters (Section 2 –

Maths).

Question 12
The following scatter graph shows data for several different countries.
The x-axis shows the average alcohol intake, in units, per week per adult
member of the population. The y-axis displays the incidence of liver
disease per 100 000 of the population. The scale starts at zero on both
axes.
Below are five statements related to the scatter graph above:
1. Alcohol intake may cause liver disease.
2. If Country Y has an incidence of liver disease of 1230 per hundred
thousand, Country Z has an incidence of 1640 per hundred
thousand.
3. Out of all the countries displayed, Country X has the median
incidence of liver disease per hundred thousand of adult
population.
4. Liver disease might not come as a result of increased alcohol
intake.
5. Country Q has the modal incidence of liver disease per hundred
thousand of population.

Which of the following statements is/are consistent with what is

displayed on the scatter graph?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 5
E. 1, 2 and 3
F. 1, 3 and 4
G. 2, 3 and 5
H. 3, 4 and 5
I. 1, 2, 4 and 5
J. All of the above

Question 12: answer and explanation

This is an example of a question that tests your ability to interpret scatter
diagrams. It is also a combination answer style question.

Assessing each answer option in turn:

1. This is consistent with what is presented on the graph. The scatter
of the points suggests that there is some association between liver
disease and alcohol intake, and this might be the relationship at
work.
2. Incidence of liver disease is expressed on the y-axis, so if Country
Y has an incidence of 1230 per hundred thousand, Country Z has
an incidence of (1230/5) × 6 = 1476 per hundred thousand, so this
statement is incorrect.
3. Country X is the sixth out of 11 data points on the graph ascending
the y-axis, so it does show the median incidence of liver disease
per hundred thousand out of the countries displayed.
4. This is true: there might be a third variable that links alcohol intake
and liver disease which could explain the association seen on the
graph.
5. Country Q has the modal incidence of alcohol intake, not liver
disease incidence (which is what Country R displays) – so this
 statement is incorrect.

The correct answer is therefore F – 1, 3 and 4.

Working without a calculator

One of the challenges of the BMAT exam is working without a calculator.
In addition to basic arithmetic, you need to be comfortable working with
orders of magnitude:

Prefix Factor Symbol Decimal Equivalent

Tera 1012 T 1,000,000,000,000

Giga 109 G 1,000,000,000

Mega 106 M 1,000,000

Kilo 103 K 1000

Hecto 102 h 100

Deca 101 da 10

100 1

Deci 10−1 d 0.1

Centi 10−2 c 0.01

Milli 10−3 m 0.001

Micro 10−6 μ 0.000 001

Nano 10−9 n 0.000 000 001

Although unlikely to appear as a standalone question, you may need to

quickly add a large quantity of numbers together, or calculate an average as
part of a question. Consider the following scenario: The scores of 10
students in a chemistry test are listed below:

54, 76, 64, 56, 72, 90, 38, 50, 55, 64

What was their total combined score?

A. 616
B. 619
C. 622
D. 624
E. 630

Although you could spend valuable time adding the numbers together, there
are two tricks you can use to quickly eliminate answer options: 1. Add the
last digit of each number in the question. By adding the last digit of each
value, you know what number the final total ends in. You can then select the
correct answer by process of elimination.
2. Odds and evens. In the above number sequence there is only one odd
number – so the answer must be odd! There is only one odd answer
option, B, so this must be correct.

Top Tip: If you have an odd number of odd numbers, your answer must
be odd!

Spatial reasoning
The spatial reasoning questions in BMAT can be tricky and time
consuming. It’s important to keep an eye on your timings, as it’s easy to get
carried away trying to solve just one question.
The spatial reasoning questions can be broadly split into three categories:
• Hidden objects and visualisation
• Construction and deconstruction
• Navigation

Some questions will combine elements of two – or even three – of the above
categories.

Hidden objects and visualisation

As a doctor you will need to be able to mentally visualise what structures
should look like when performing procedures, and increasingly be able to
use ultrasound to coordinate performing procedures in real time. Some of
the spatial reasoning questions will test your ability to: • Identify what
objects must be present but which you cannot see (hidden objects).
• Rotate three-dimensional structures to ‘see’ them from other
perspectives.

In these question types it’s easiest to assess each answer option in turn.
Once you can eliminate an option, move on. You should then be left with
one remaining correct answer.

Question 13
Below is a structure assembled from equally sized cubes. Which of the
following options could represent the view of the structure from the top,
side (as shown by the arrow) and front?
 Question 13: answer and explanation
It is best to start with one side, and work your way through the answer
options eliminating any which don’t work. The easiest side to visualise is
the front view, as you can almost see this in the diagram. By logically
working your way through the options, eliminating them one by one, you
are left with only one correct answer: A.

You could quickly have eliminated answer option D, as this features a

‘floating’ box in the side view. It would be physically impossible for the
box to float above the structure, so this answer must be incorrect.

Construction and deconstruction

Assembly style questions require you to convert 2D shapes into 3D (or, on
rare occasions, vice versa). Many students struggle with these questions, as
they find it hard to visualise the transformation into three dimensions.

The easiest way to approach these questions is to:

1. Analyse each answer option in turn.
2. Start with one side (it’s easiest to pick the largest).
3. Find the analogous area on the three-dimensional shape.
4. Compare the adjacent sides on the two-and three-dimensional shapes.
5. Eliminate combinations which don’t match.
6. If two adjacent sides match, compare to the next adjacent side, etc.
7. Continue until you’ve eliminated all but one option.

Question 14
Which of the following boxes could be assembled from the shape below?

Question 14: answer and explanation

Using the above step-by-step approach, we can assess each answer
option in turn. Starting with the largest side facing us and finding the
analogous area on each of the two-and three-dimensional shapes, we can
work through option by option: A: The top and large faces do not match
as the thick line should be on the same side as the black triangle, not the
white triangle.
 B: The large face and top work, but the diagonal stripe on the side should
be angled such as in option A.

C: The top and large faces do not work as the triangles are positioned in
the wrong corners.

D: Correct answer.

Navigation
Navigation questions test your ability to navigate an object through space.
They can take a descriptive form or can present you with a three-
dimensional shape which you need to move in a certain order through a
grid. Questions will then focus on where the object will end up or which
side will be visible.

These questions can be combined with basic geometry, although without a

calculator you are unlikely to encounter questions involving π.

Top Tip: Questions can sometimes involve π where they will stipulate π
= 3 to ensure calculations are possible without the use of a calculator.

The basic geometric formulae you need to know are covered in Section 2 –
Maths.

Question 15
A dancer performs a dance that requires taking the following steps seven
times:
• 5 steps forwards
• 5 steps to the right
• 2 steps backwards
• 1 step left

Each of the dancer’s steps has a length of 40 cm.

What is the displacement, in metres, of the dancer from their original

position at the end of the dance?
A. 5.2 m
B. 7 m
C. 10.4 m
D. 13 m
E. 14 m

Question 15: answer and explanation

A good way to approach this problem is to think in vectors. It may help
to draw a diagram of the dancer’s steps:

It is clear from the diagram that after each cycle the dancer has moved
the vector equivalent of 3 steps forward and 4 steps to the right. Using
Pythagoras’ theorem, we can see that after one set of dance steps the
dancer has moved: √3 + 4 = 5 steps from their original position
2 2

(alternatively you can quickly see this is a Pythagorean 3, 4, 5 triangle).

This happens 7 times, so they move 7 × 5 = 35 steps from their original

position. Each step is 40 cm in length, so they are displaced by 35 × 0.4
= 14 m from their original position.

Top Section 1 Tips:

• Practise each question style in turn.
• Learn and understand the definitions and structure of an argument.
• Use the past papers on the BMAT website and the questions on The
Medic Portal website.
• Practise questions to time.
• Get used to working without a calculator.
 Biology, chemistry, physics
SECTION 2
and maths

Overview

The second section of the BMAT exam is the science section. It

requires scientific knowledge to GCSE (Key Stage 4) level in: •
Biology
• Chemistry
• Physics
• Maths

Although most students will be studying some or all of these subjects

at a higher level, many still find this section challenging. This is
because although the knowledge required is GCSE level, the
application of the knowledge can require significant initiative and
‘thinking outside the box’.

A BMAT syllabus (test specification) is available on the BMAT

website. This lists all the topics and specific knowledge required.
There is also an ‘assumed knowledge guide’ available on the BMAT
website. This science revision guide can be read online but cannot be
downloaded or printed.

Format of the section

 Section 2 contains 27 multiple choice questions to be answered in 30
minutes. This equates to just over a minute per question. As per
Section 1, you must answer the questions on the computer-read
answer sheet provided using a pencil. If you mark more than one
answer option per question, you will not score any points.

Top Tip: Every question is worth one mark and there is no negative
marking. You should therefore never leave any answers blank – if in
doubt try to eliminate answer options and make an educated guess.

Question format
There will be six to eight questions in each of chemistry, biology and
physics, and five to seven in maths. There are slightly fewer maths
questions as mathematical skills will already have been covered in
Section 1. There is no set order of questions or topics.

We will now work through the BMAT syllabus for all four science
subjects. At the end of the book there is a mock exam containing
sample questions with model answers.

Biology

1. Cell biology

1.1 Cell structure

You should learn the names, locations and functions of the following
cellular structures: Animal cells

Structure Function and other key details

Cell membrane
 • Separates the internal and external environment of
the cell
• Regulates the movement of substances in to and
out of the cell
• Involved in cell-to-cell signalling
• Composed of a phospholipid bilayer
Cell nucleus
• Contains nuclear DNA, in the form of
chromosomes
• Bound by nuclear membrane
• Regulates the activities of the cell through
transcription of DNA
Cytoplasm • ‘Gel-like’ substance in cell where many enzyme-
catalysed reactions take place, e.g. glycolysis
Ribosomes
• Protein and RNA structures that synthesise
proteins
• Site of translation
Mitochondrion • Double membrane-bound structures that synthesise
(pl. mitochondria) energy for the cell in the form of ATP
• Also contains mitochondrial DNA and regulates its
transcription
Plant cells
Plant cells have all the structures contained within animal cells as well as
additional structures, including:

Structure Function and other key details

Cell wall
• Rigid structure made from cellulose that maintains the
shape of the cell and prevents it from bursting under
osmotic pressure
Chloroplast • Double membrane-bound structure that is the site of
photosynthesis
• Also contains chloroplast DNA and regulates its
transcription
Permanent • Contains sap, which draws in water by osmosis and
vacuole maintains the cell’s turgidity
Bacterial cells
Bacterial cells do not contain a cell nucleus, mitochondria or chloroplasts,
and other structures may differ significantly from corresponding structures
in animal and plant cells:

Structure Function and other key details

Cell wall
• Rigid structure made from peptidoglycan
that maintains the shape of the cell and
prevents it bursting under osmotic pressure
Nucleoid/Chromosomal • Large ring of DNA containing most of the
DNA cell’s genetic material
• It is free-floating in the cytoplasm, i.e. not
bound by a membrane
Plasmid • Small ring of free-floating DNA
• May code for antibiotic resistance; the
transfer of plasmids between bacterial cells
helps spread resistance
Flagellum (pl. flagella) • ‘Whip-like’ structure that is used for motility
• Not found on all bacterial cells

Top Tip: It is very common in the BMAT to be asked whether a

statement is true or false. Often, statements will be presented in a way
such that they sound true when in fact they are false (and vice versa). A
common way examiners do this is by writing a statement that is half-
true, or even mostly true, but with a subtle error that renders the
statement false as a whole. Since biology is, broadly speaking, a more
descriptive subject than physics or chemistry, this type of ‘trick’ is very
common in BMAT Biology questions (although it will be inevitably
used in some questions for the other subjects too!). Consider this
statement: ‘The nucleoid is a structure found within bacterial cells
consisting of a ring of membrane-bound DNA.’ This is mostly
correct, except of course for the fact that the nucleoid is not
membrane bound. It may seem obvious, but similar statements in
the BMAT are often subtler and easier to miss when you are under
stress!
1.2 Movement across cell membranes and into cells You need to
know six ways in which substances can move across cell
membranes: 1. Diffusion: The movement of dissolved particles
from a region where they are highly concentrated to a region
where they are less highly concentrated. Movement is passive
and down a concentration gradient. Substances that move
across cell membranes by diffusion must be nonpolar or small
enough to dissolve directly into membrane (e.g. CO2, O2), or
they require a protein channel in the membrane (also known as
facilitated diffusion, e.g. glucose).
2. Osmosis: The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane
from a region of low solute concentration (or high water potential) to
a region of high solute concentration (or low water potential).
Movement is passive and down a concentration gradient (i.e. that of
water).
3. Active transport: The movement of substances against a
concentration gradient. This requires energy-consuming transport
proteins in the membrane.
4. Phagocytosis: The movement of large particles into the cell by the
infolding of a region of cell membrane.
5. Pinocytosis: The movement of liquid into the cell by the infolding of
a region of cell membrane.
6. Exocytosis: The movement of substances out of the cell by the fusing
of vesicles with the cell membrane.

1.3 Cell division and reproduction

Mitosis
This type of cell division produces the new cells that are needed for growth,
replacement and repair. It produces somatic cells (non-gametes) and has the
following steps in humans: 1. The chromosomes in the parent cell are
duplicated. There are normally 23 chromosome pairs in a human somatic
cell.
2. The duplicated chromosomes line up at the centre of the cell.
3. The duplicated chromosomes are pulled apart at their centres
(centromeres).
4. Two daughter cells form with exactly the same number of
chromosomes as the parent cell, i.e. 23 pairs – 46 chromosomes.
They are diploid cells. The daughter cells are genetically identical to
the parent cell.

Meiosis
This type of cell division produces gametes (sex cells – sperm, produced in
the testes, and ova, produced in the ovaries). It leads to the production of
genetically different gametes. It has the following steps: 1. The
chromosomes in the parent cell are duplicated.
2. Chromosomes in the same pair line up and exchange sections of DNA
by crossing over. This means that the chromosomes in each pair are
no longer genetically identical.
3. Individual chromosomes in each pair are separated from each other.
4. The duplicated chromosomes are then pulled apart at their centres.
5. Four daughter cells are formed with half the number of chromosomes
as the parent cell, i.e. 23 chromosomes. They are haploid cells. The
gametes that are produced are genetically different from the parent
cell, and from each other.
Asexual reproduction
This is when one parent produces offspring that are genetically identical
(i.e. clones).

Sexual reproduction
This is when two parents produce offspring that are genetically different
from both parents – since each parent contributes half of the offspring’s
chromosomes through their gametes, and these chromosomes may have
undergone crossing-over during meiosis. It increases genetic variation in a
population.

Sex determination
Sex in mammals is determined by the sex chromosomes, X and Y. Females
have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have one X and one Y (XY).
The expected sex ratio of offspring is 50:50 male to female, since there is a
50% chance that any individual will receive a Y chromosome from their
father, and a 50% chance that they will receive an X chromosome.
 Top Tip: Remember that during both mitosis and meiosis there is an
initial doubling in the amount of genetic material within the cell as
copies of each chromosome are made. Since we already have two
chromosome copies in each cell, this means that before division we have
the equivalent of four copies of each chromatid in each cell. Chromatids
become new chromosomes. Remember also that every cell in the body,
excluding the gametes, has the full complement of chromosomes –
including sex chromosomes.

1.4 Enzymes
Enzymes are biological catalysts made from proteins. They speed up the
rate of biological reactions without being used up themselves. An enzyme-
catalysed reaction takes place in the enzyme’s active site. Reactant
molecules, or the substrates, fit into the active site because the active site
has a specific shape.

If the shape of the active site is altered because of protein denaturation, the
enzyme will become ineffective at catalysing the reaction.

Temperature and its effect on enzyme-catalysed reactions

As temperature increases, the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction will also
increase as collisions between substrate articles and the enzyme active site
become more likely. At the optimum temperature the rate of reaction is at
it fastest. Above this temperature, the enzyme begins to denature and the
rate of reaction falls sharply.
Graph showing how temperature affects the rate of an enzyme-catalysed
reaction pH and its effect on enzyme-catalysed reactions The rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction is fastest at a particular pH, the optimum pH. At
pH values lower or higher than the optimum pH, the enzyme begins to
denature and the rate of reaction falls sharply.

Graph showing how pH affects the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction

2. Genetics
2.1 Terminology
Gene: A section of DNA that codes for a particular protein.

Allele: Different forms of the same gene.

Genotype: A description of the alleles possessed by a particular organism.

Phenotype: A description of the physical characteristics of a particular

organism.

Dominant: A characteristic that develops when the allele that codes for it is
present on one or both chromosomes in a pair.

Recessive: A characteristic that only develops when the allele that codes for
it is present on both chromosomes in a pair.

Homozygous: When an organism possesses the same allele on each

chromosome in a pair.

Heterozygous: When an organism possesses different alleles on each

chromosome in a pair.

2.2 Monohybrid crosses

Make sure you understand how Punnett squares work:
Mother’s alleles
A a
Father’s alleles A AA Aa
A AA Aa

They can be used to figure out the expected ratio of off spring genotypes
from parent genotypes. For instance, in this example, a mother and a father
with genotypes of Aa and AA respectively can be expected to produce 50%
of offspring with genotype AA and 50% with Aa. Remember, an organism
carrying a dominant allele for a trait must express that trait, regardless of
whether it is heterozygous or homozygous. Recessive alleles will only be
expressed in homozygous organisms.

Punnett squares can be used in conjunction with genetic pedigrees to work

out the probability that an individual will display a particular trait and
determine the pattern of inheritance. Remember, for pedigrees usually
males are represented with squares and females are represented with circles.
Individuals expressing the trait are shaded black and individuals not
expressing the trait are left white.

Autosomal dominant traits (e.g. Huntington’s disease)

• If just one parent is homozygous dominant, all offspring will express
the trait.
• If one parent is heterozygous and expresses the trait and other parent
does not express the trait, 50% of offspring will express the trait.
• If both parents are heterozygous then 75% of offspring will express the
trait.
• Parents that do not express the trait do not transmit the trait.
• Appears in both sexes with equal frequency and both sexes can transmit
the trait to their offspring.
• Does not tend to skip generations.
Autosomal recessive traits (e.g. cystic fibrosis)
• If both parents are homozygous recessive, all offspring will express the
trait.
• If one parent is homozygous recessive and the other is heterozygous,
50% of offspring will express the trait.
• If both parents are heterozygous, 25% of offspring will express the trait.
• Parents that do not express the trait can produce offspring that express
the trait.
• Appears in both sexes with equal frequency and both sexes can transmit
to offspring.
• Trait may skip generations.

X-linked dominant traits (e.g. Rett syndrome) • Both sexes express

the trait but it tends to be more common in females than in males.
• Sons expressing the trait must also have a mother expressing the trait.
• Daughters expressing the trait must have a mother or a father expressing
the trait.
• Fathers expressing the trait will pass it on to all their daughters, but
cannot have sons with the trait.
X-linked recessive traits (e.g. haemophilia)
• Both sexes affected but it tends to be more common in males than in
females.
• Sons expressing the trait may be born to mothers not expressing the
trait.
• It is never passed from father to son.

Y-linked dominant traits

• Only males affected; passed from fathers to sons.
• Does not skip generations.
 Top Tip:Although we have given you some example pedigrees,
remember that there is no ‘set’ pedigree for any type of inheritance.
Learning these examples by heart will not help when you sit your exam.
Instead, when given a pedigree, look at each generation in turn and ask
yourself which inheritance patterns could have led to that particular
expression profile? Work your way through the different branches of the
pedigree and you should be able to narrow down the possible inheritance
patterns until you come to a correct answer.

2.3 Genetic variation

Note that variation can be caused by the environment as well as one’s genes.
Many traits show variation due to both environment and genetics (e.g.
weight, height). However, only genetic variation can be inherited. Genetic
variation is caused by crossing-over during meiosis, sexual reproduction
and mutation.

Genetic variation is vital to evolution by natural selection. Variation leads

to organisms that show differing levels of adaptation to their environment;
hence some organisms will be better at surviving than others. Organisms
that survive are able to reproduce and pass on their adaptive traits to their
offspring.
Continuous variation: The trait varies gradually over a range of values. If
influenced predominantly by genetic variation, the trait is usually under the
control of many genes (traits include height, weight, skin colour).

Discontinuous variation: The trait can be placed definitively into one of a

small number of discrete categories. If influenced predominantly by genetic
variation, the trait is usually under the control of a small number of genes
(traits include gender, blood group).

3. DNA and gene technologies 3.1 DNA structure

Genes are made from deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA. A DNA molecule
consists of a double helix constructed from a sugar, deoxyribose, a
phosphate and bases. The sequence of the four bases, adenine (A), thymine
(T), cytosine (C) and guanine (G), determines the genetic code. Bases
demonstrate complementary pairing: A pairs with T, G pairs with C.

In animal and plant cells, DNA is arranged in long strands wrapped around
protein molecules to form chromosomes.

3.2 Protein synthesis

Proteins are made from amino acids. Triplets of bases in DNA code for
different amino acids; the order of base triplets in DNA determines the
order of amino acids in the protein.

Transcription is the first step in protein synthesis: a molecule of mRNA is

transcribed from DNA by enzymes in the nucleus. The sequence of bases
on the mRNA is determined by complementary pairing with bases on the
DNA.
Translation follows: The strand of mRNA is passed through ribosomes in
the cytoplasm. Molecules of tRNA also pass through the ribosome; each
molecule of tRNA carries an amino acid molecule. Triplets of bases on the
mRNA (known as codons) pair with complementary triplets on molecules
of tRNA. The ribosome then joins together the amino acids carried by the
tRNA to form a protein.

3.3 Mutations
Any alteration in the sequence of bases within DNA is called a mutation.
Mutations can occur spontaneously, or they may be induced by mutagens
such as tar from cigarette smoke or radiation. Mutations may not
necessarily have an effect – they may occur in non-coding regions of DNA,
for instance.

3.4 Gene technologies

Genetic modification: Using enzymes, genes can be cut from the DNA of
one organism using a restriction enzyme – these enzymes cut DNA at
specific sites. The desired gene is then placed into the DNA of another
organism using a ligase enzyme which sticks DNA at specific sites. This
means the second organism expresses a gene that it would not normally.
Examples include the insertion of herbicide-resistance genes into crops and
the insertion of the human insulin gene into bacteria (for the mass-
production of insulin for diabetics).

Top Tip: When questions reference genetic modification, make sure you
have a firm understanding of which type of chemical is used at which
stage. For instance, it is not true that ‘insulin is transferred into a
bacterial vector’ in the example above – insulin is a protein. Rather, it is
the insulin gene that is transferred. It may seem obvious now, but often
this type of subtle wording is used to trip up candidates.

3.5 Stem cells

Cells in the early embryo give rise to all the different cell types in the body.
They are called embryonic stem cells and have the potential to differentiate
into any cell type. As the embryo grows, cells become more and more
specialised and lose the ability to do this. It may be possible to use
embryonic stem cells therapeutically in tissues that do not self-repair easily,
such as in the brain.

Stem cells may also be found in adult (non-embryonic) tissues. These adult
stem cells can be found, for instance, in bone marrow. Although adult stem
cells can differentiate into many types of cell they lack the ability possessed
by embryonic stem cells to turn into any type of cell in the body.

4. Physiology

4.1 Nervous system

The nervous system consists of the central nervous system (CNS), the
brain and spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system, a network of
nerves that connect the limbs and organs with the central nervous system.

A neurone is a nerve cell; it receives signals from other neurones at its

dendrites and passes on signals to other neurones via its axon. Electrical
signals are passed along single neurones.

Chemical signals, called neurotransmitters, pass between neurones across a

small gap called a synapse.

A reflex arc is the nerve pathway that is used during a reflex action. The
signals in a reflex arc are transferred rapidly because they bypass the brain.
They pass through the flowing sequence of neurones: 1. Sensory neurones
transmit signals from receptors – specialised cells that detect certain
stimuli (e.g. temperature, pressure etc.).
2. Relay neurones (also known as interneurones) are found in the CNS
and transmit signals from sensory neurones to motor neurones; they
regulate the flow of signals in the CNS.
3. Motor neurones transmit signals from relay neurones to effectors.
They elicit a response by the effector. An effector is a specialised
tissue that responds to a stimulus – it might be a gland or a muscle.

Top Tip: The brain is not involved in a reflex arc.

4.2 Respiratory system

Ventilation
Ventilation is the process whereby air is moved into and out of the lungs to
allow for gas exchange. Airways bring air into the lungs: the trachea leads
from the mouth and nose; its shape is maintained by C-shaped rings of
cartilage. The trachea branches into two bronchi (sing. bronchus). These in
turn branch into smaller bronchioles. The smallest bronchioles end with air
sacs called alveoli (sing. alveolus) – these are the sites of gas exchange.

The lungs sit in a fluid-filled cavity called the pleural cavity. The pleural
cavity is contained by two pleural membranes; these are slippery, to stop
them from sticking to each other during breathing.

Breathing is controlled by the diaphragm (the muscular floor of the chest

cavity) and the intercostal muscles (the muscles between the ribs).

When we inhale, the diaphragm contracts and moves downwards. The

internal intercostal muscles relax and the external intercostal muscles
contract, causing the ribcage to move upwards and outwards. This increases
the volume of the thoracic cavity and lowers the air pressure inside the
cavity. Higher-pressure air from outside the cavity moves into the lungs so
that air pressure is equilibrated. Air movement into the lungs causes them to
inflate. Inhalation replenishes oxygenrich air in the lungs so that alveolar
gas exchange can occur.
When we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards (passive
expiration). The internal intercostal muscles contract and the external
intercostal muscles relax, causing the ribcage to move downwards and
inwards (active expiration). The volume of the thoracic cavity is reduced,
increasing air pressure in the cavity. Air moves out of the lungs so that air
pressure is equilibrated. The lungs deflate. Exhalation removes CO2-rich air
from the lungs so that alveolar gas exchange can occur; it is also the
primary mechanism of CO2 excretion from the body.

Gas exchange
Gas exchange is what occurs in the lungs when gases are transferred
between the alveoli and the blood of the alveolar circulation. Deoxygenated
blood arriving in the lungs contains a high concentration of CO2 relative to
the alveolar air. It diffuses down its concentration gradient across the
capillary and alveolar walls into the alveolus. Conversely, alveolar air
contains a relatively high concentration of oxygen which diffuses into the
blood where it combines with haemoglobin in red blood cells, forming
oxyhaemoglobin.
 Top Tip: Haemoglobin without any bound oxygen is called
deoxyhaemoglobin. Students often confuse this with
carboxyhaemoglobin which is haemoglobin bound with carbon
monoxide, not dioxide!

4.3 Respiration
Respiration is distinct from breathing; it is a process that occurs in all
tissues and cells of the body. It describes the chemical process by which
energy is released from nutrients.

Aerobic respiration is the process in which oxygen is reacted with glucose

to produce energy. Water and carbon dioxide are also produced as waste
products. It is a multi-step process that occurs partially within the cell’s
cytoplasm and partially within the mitochondria.

Glucose + Oxygen → Energy + Carbon Dioxide + W ater

Anaerobic respiration is the incomplete breakdown of glucose to release

energy in the absence of oxygen. In animal cells, the reaction also produces
lactic acid or lactate, which causes cellular pH to drop. The body has to
subsequently convert the lactic acid into CO2 and water by reacting it with
oxygen. Hence, during anaerobic respiration, an oxygen debt is built up.

Glucose → Energy + Lactic Acid

4.4 Circulatory system

Humans have a double circulatory system; with each complete circuit of the
body, blood passes through the heart twice. From the heart, blood undergoes
two circuits, as follows.

Pulmonary circulation
Deoxygenated blood from the heart goes to the lungs via the pulmonary
artery. The blood is under lower pressure than in the systemic circuit. It
passes through capillaries that surround the alveoli. The blood becomes
oxygenated through gas exchange – the newly oxygenated blood is returned
to the heart via the pulmonary vein.

Systemic circulation
Oxygenated blood is sent to the rest of the body – initially by passing
through the aorta. The blood is pumped under high pressure to maintain a
good flow rate around the body. It passes from arteries to arterioles, and
from here it goes through capillaries. Every cell in the body is close enough
to a capillary such that it receives all the oxygen it needs through diffusion
alone. Deoxygenated blood from the tissues returns back to the heart
through venules and veins; it enters the heart via the venae cavae.

Top Tip: The pulmonary arteries and veins are exceptions to the rule:
the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood while the pulmonary
vein carries oxygenated blood.
The heart
The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood around the body. It is made
from cardiac muscle, a type of involuntary muscle that can generate its own
contraction. Deoxygenated blood enters the heart on the right side, via the
superior and inferior venae cavae. It first enters the right atrium, which then
pumps the blood through the tricuspid valve to the adjacent right ventricle.
The right ventricle then pumps blood into the pulmonary artery through the
pulmonary valve.
Oxygenated blood enters the heart on the left-hand side via the pulmonary
vein. It first enters the left atrium, which then pumps the blood through the
bicuspid or mitral valve to the left ventricle. The left ventricle then pumps
blood into the aorta through the aortic valve. The wall of the left ventricle
is thicker than the wall of the right ventricle, reflecting the fact that the right
ventricle pumps blood with more force to maintain a high systemic
circulatory pressure.

The heart itself is supplied with oxygenated blood via the coronary arteries.
If these become blocked, the cardiac muscle lacks oxygen and may die –
this is a myocardial infarction (heart attack).
 Top Tip: Make sure you have a very good understanding of circulation,
both within the body and the heart. It is common to get trick questions
along the lines of ‘Is this statement true – the vena cava transports
deoxygenated blood from the body into the left atrium’. The statement is
mostly true, except of course the vena cava delivers blood into the right
atrium. As always with the BMAT, pay close attention to the wording
and read the question carefully.

Blood vessels
Arteries carry blood away from the heart. They tend to carry oxygenated
blood; an exception is the pulmonary artery. They have thick walls relative
to their lumen – this is because the walls contain smooth muscle and elastic
tissue to resist and maintain high pressure of blood that has just been
pumped from the heart.

Veins carry blood towards the heart. They tend to carry deoxygenated
blood; an exception is the pulmonary vein. Veins tend to carry blood at a
lower pressure, as it has already passed through the capillary network.
Hence, veins have relatively large lumens relative to their vessel walls. In
addition, because they carry blood at relatively low pressure, they often
contain one-way valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

Capillaries are narrow blood vessels. They have vessel walls that are one
cell thick – this aids gas exchange with surrounding tissues by reducing the
distance over which gases have to diffuse.

4.5 Digestive system

Food enters the alimentary canal through the mouth, which begins
digestion by chewing and mixing the food with saliva produced by the
salivary glands. Saliva contains salivary amylase.

From the mouth, food passes through the oesophagus, a muscular tube
which utilises peristalsis to move the food into the stomach. The stomach
uses muscular contraction to break down the food; it also produces
protease enzymes. Protease has a low optimal pH, so the stomach also
produces stomach acid. Stomach acid has the added advantage of killing
pathogens, thereby forming part of the innate immune system.

From the stomach, the food passes into the duodenum – the first section of
the small intestine. Here, food is mixed with enzymes produced by the
pancreas – pancreatic amylase, protease and lipase. The food is also
mixed with bile – this substance is synthesised in the liver, but stored and
secreted by the gall bladder. Bile has two roles: it emulsifies fats (making
them easier to digest), and neutralises stomach acid, because it is alkaline.

From the duodenum, digested food (chyme) passes into the jejunum and
the ileum – the second and third parts of the small intestine. They absorb
nutrients from the digested food into the blood. Both the jejunum and the
ileum have a large surface area to aid this absorption process – this is due to
their length and the presence of villi on their inner surface.

What remains after digestion and absorption passes into the large intestine.
The colon absorbs water; the rectum stores faeces, and the anus is the area
from which faeces are egested.

Digestive enzymes
Name of Catalysed reaction Produced by
enzyme
Amylase Starch into maltose Salivary glands, pancreas
Maltase Maltose into glucose Small intestine
Lipase Fat into glycerol and fatty Pancreas, small intestine
acids
Protease Proteins into amino acids Stomach, pancreas, small
intestine

Peristalsis

Peristalsis moves food along parts of the alimentary canal – it describes a

synchronised contraction of smooth muscle in parts of the alimentary canal,
such as the oesophagus and the small intestine. Contraction of circular
smooth muscle causes the lumen to constrict; contraction of longitudinal
smooth muscle causes localised shortening of the gut. The contractions
progress in wave-like motions to ‘push’ food along.

Villi
Villi (sing. villus) are the protrusions found on the inner surface of the small
intestine – they are adapted to absorb nutrients into the blood: • They are
coated with microvilli which increase their surface area; microvilli have a
wall which is just one cell thick, minimising diffusion distance.
 • Their surface is coated with digestive enzymes, such as maltase.
• They are well-supplied with capillaries, which carry nutrients away in
blood.
• They contain a structure called a lacteal which transports fatty acids
and glycerol away in the lymph.

Hepatic portal vein

This vessel transports blood from the small intestine to the liver. The liver
helps to regulate the levels of certain nutrients in the blood (e.g. it turns
excess glucose into glycogen and breaks down excess amino acids).

4.6 Renal system

The kidneys have an important role in excretion – they produce urine.
Urine contains excess water, urea (a toxin produced in the breakdown of
amino acids) and some excess salts. Urine is passed from the kidneys
through the ureters to the bladder, where it is stored. It then leaves the
bladder, and the body, through the urethra.

Microscopic structures called nephrons are found within the kidneys – they
regulate the water content of the blood that passes through the kidneys.
Each nephron is in close association with blood capillaries.

The first part of the nephron is the Bowman’s capsule. It surrounds the
glomerulus, a network of capillaries. Blood enters these capillaries under
high pressure – this forces water, toxins (including urea), amino acids, sugar
and salt out of the capillaries. This process is called ultrafiltration.
Proteins are too large to be filtered, and remain in the blood.

The filtrate is collected by the Bowman’s capsule. It passes into the next
section of the nephron – the proximal convoluted tubule, where glucose,
amino acids and some salt are reabsorbed into the blood via active
transport.

Then the fluid passes into a structure called the Loop of Henle. Here,
reabsorption of water and salt establishes a concentration gradient in the
interstitial fluid surrounding the nephron. The fluid leaving the loop is
dilute.
This dilute fluid then passes into the collecting duct. The water content of
the fluid in the collecting duct can be altered depending on the permeability
of the collecting duct to water. When the duct is highly permeable, water
moves into the interstitial fluid by osmosis. The permeability of the duct is
regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH – see below). Fluid leaving the
collecting duct is called urine.

4.7 Homeostasis
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment within
narrow limits, independent of external factors. Homeostasis is usually
maintained through negative feedback mechanisms – whereby any change
in the internal environment is detected and countered with a response that
reverses that change.

Thermoregulation
Thermoregulation is how the body maintains a constant internal
temperature of around 37°C. It is controlled by the hypothalamus in the
brain, which detects the temperature of blood. The hypothalamus elicits
different responses in the body if the internal temperature drops or rises too
much.

Internal Hairs on skin Sweat Capillaries in the Skeletal

temperature skin muscles
Flatten Is secreted Vasodilation – Shivering
onto skin more blood is does not
Too hot by sweat brought to the occur.
glands; surface of the skin,
heat is lost where it loses heat
as the by radiation.
sweat
evaporates.
Are erected by Is not Vasoconstriction – Shivering
the contraction secreted less blood is occurs –
Too cold of small brought to the this
muscles within surface of the skin; generates
the skin; this instead it flows heat
traps a layer of beneath insulating
insulating air layers of
close to the subcutaneous fat.
skin.

Osmoregulation
Osmoregulation is how the body maintains the osmolarity of fluids. The
osmolarity of blood is monitored by the hypothalamus. This, in turn,
regulates the amount of ADH released by the pituitary gland in the brain.

When blood is too dilute, ADH release from the pituitary gland is reduced.
Water filtered from the blood in the kidneys (see above) leaves the body as
urine. Dilute urine is produced.

When the blood is too concentrated with solutes, ADH production from
the pituitary is increased. Higher levels of ADH in the blood cause the
permeability of the collecting ducts in the kidney to increase. More water
leaves the collecting duct by osmosis and is reabsorbed in the kidney.
Concentrated urine is produced.

Top Tip: Remember, higher levels of ADH in the blood leads to less
urine being produced.

Blood glucose regulation

Blood glucose regulation maintains relatively constant concentrations of
glucose within the blood. Glucose levels are detected by cells in the
pancreas. When glucose levels are too high, β-cells within the pancreas
secrete insulin into the blood. When glucose levels are too low, α-cells
within the pancreas secrete glucagon into the blood. Insulin and glucagon
are hormones with opposing effects in the body:

Effects of… On the liver On fat tissue

Promotes the uptake of glucose Promotes the uptake of
Insulin by the liver and its conversion glucose by fat tissue and
within the liver to glycogen. its conversion into lipids.

Promotes the breakdown of Promotes the breakdown

glycogen into glucose and its of lipid.
Glucagon release into the blood.
 Top Tip: Use the mnemonic: alpha cells produce glucagon when the
glucose in your blood has ‘gone’.

4.8 Hormones
Hormones are chemicals that are used to regulate processes in the body by
providing a (relatively) long-lasting signal that travels in the blood. They
are released from endocrine glands – these, by definition, release
hormones directly into the blood. They are distinct from exocrine glands
which do not release hormones, but release other substances (e.g. bile,
sweat) into a cavity or outside the body via a duct.

As well as the hormones already described, you should be aware of the

hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle:

Hormone Released Physiological effect Effect on

from… other
hormones
Follicle Pituitary Matures the egg in Promotes the
stimulating gland the ovary, within a production of
hormone (FSH) follicle. oestrogen by
the ovaries
Ovaries Causes thickening of Inhibits
Oestrogen the uterine wall release of
FSH, hence its
use in
contraceptive
pills. Causes a
‘surge’ in LH.
Luteinising Pituitary Causes the release of Causes
hormone (LH) gland the mature egg from progesterone
 the follicle to be produced
(ovulation) by the ovaries.
Ovaries – Maintains the uterine Inhibits the
Progesterone specifically wall. If the egg is not production of
the corpus fertilised, FSH and LH,
luteum, what progesterone levels thus
remains of the drop and this causes preventing the
follicle after the uterine wall to release of two
ovulation break down. eggs at once.

You should also be aware of these other hormones (note the additional role
of oestrogen):

Hormone Released Physiological effect

from…
Adrenal glands Varied, including:
Adrenaline • Increased heart rate
• Increased metabolism
 • Redirection of blood to
muscles
• Expansion of airways
Testes Male sexual characteristics
Testosterone
Ovary Female sexual characteristics
Oestrogen

4.9 Immune system

Innate immunity describes the general defences that the body has against
infection, of any sort. It consists of physical barriers such as the skin,
mucous membranes, stomach acid, etc. In addition, specialised white blood
cells called phagocytes can identify, attack and consume microbes that
invade the body.

Acquired immunity describes the body’s ability to form a more rapid

defensive response to microbes that it has previously encountered. Key to
this response is two other types of white blood cell: • B-cells, which
produce antibodies.
• T-cells, which produce antitoxins and can kill infected cells of the
body.

Antibodies are proteins that recognise and bind to molecules (antigens) on

the cell surface of a previously encountered pathogen. They immobilise the
pathogen, clump microbes together and help phagocytes to consume them.

5. Environment
5.1 Food chains and populations
In food chains, energy moves from food to the animal feeding on that food.
Plants are known as producers in the food chain, because they are able to
capture energy from the sun via photosynthesis. Producers are consumed by
primary consumers, who are consumed by secondary consumers, and so
on.

At each stage of the food chain, some energy is lost to the surroundings as
heat or in the form of waste materials.
Apart from these losses to the surroundings, the food that animals eat will
be converted into living material, or biomass. The amount of biomass is
decreased at each stage of the food chain because: • there are energy losses
to the surroundings at each stage of the food chain • not all the biomass at
one stage of the food chain will be consumed by organisms at the next stage
of the food chain.

This causes the shape of a ‘biomass pyramid’.

You need to be aware that populations of organisms interact with each

other. The predator–prey relationship is one example of such an interaction.
Note that changes in the population of one organism can have ‘knock-on’
effects on the population of another organism. Hence, in predator–prey
relationships, populations may follow cyclical patterns as a decreasing prey
population leads to a decreasing predator population, which in turn causes
the prey population to increase, and so on.

5.2 Carbon cycle

Carbon dioxide enters the atmosphere by three main routes:
a) Respiration of organisms – producers, consumers and decomposers.
b) Combustion of organic material or fossil fuels.
c) Weathering of carbonate-containing rocks (e.g. limestone) and
volcanic activity.

Carbon is assimilated into organisms by three main routes:

a) Producers (plants) extract carbon from carbon dioxide in the air and
convert it into glucose during photosynthesis.
b) Consumers acquire their carbon by eating plants, and by eating other
consumers.
c) Decomposers acquire their carbon by breaking down dead organisms,
or the waste of living organisms.

Carbon may accumulate elsewhere in the environment:

a) If decomposition is prevented, carbon from dead organisms may turn
into fossil fuels.
b) Many marine animals create shells from calcium carbonate. Over
time, their shells may become carbonate-rich minerals, such as
limestone.
5.3 Nitrogen cycle

Nitrogen gas is present in high quantities in the air. It is converted into

nitrate by nitrogen-fixing bacteria and lightning. Nitrifying bacteria
convert ammonia into nitrates. Plants absorb nitrates and convert them
into amino acids. These are then passed on to consumers. Urea, egested
material and dead organisms are broken down by decomposers, which
returns nitrogen to the soil as ammonia. Denitrifying bacteria break down
nitrates into nitrogen gas, which is released into the atmosphere.
Chemistry

1 The atom

1.1 Atomic structure

An atom is a small unit of matter. It is composed of three even smaller particles:
• Neutrons have a relative atomic mass of 1. They are not charged.
• Protons have a relative atomic mass of 1. They have a positive charge.
• Electrons have negligible atomic mass. They have a negative charge.

The atom consists of a central nucleus, which contains protons and neutrons
clustered together. Electrons orbit the nucleus; they can only follow orbital
paths at set distances from the nucleus. The orbits that they occupy are called
electron shells. The shell closest to the nucleus can hold a maximum of two
electrons. Shells further out can hold a maximum of eight electrons.
In an atom, the numbers of electrons and protons are equal, so the atom has no
overall charge.

Atoms may, however, lose or gain electrons to become ions. Ions have an
overall charge that is positive (if electrons are lost) or negative (if electrons are
gained). A positive ion is known as a cation, a negative ion is an anion.

The relative atomic mass (Ar) of an atom is given as the sum of the total
number of protons and neutrons it contains.

The atomic number of an atom is equal to the total number of protons it

contains. The atomic number differentiates atoms of different elements.

Standard notation shows the chemical symbol of an element, as well as its mass
number (in superscript, before the symbol) and its atomic number (in subscript,
before the symbol), e.g. C for carbon.
12
6

The atomic number can be used to write an electronic configuration, which tells
us the number of electrons in each shell. For example, as carbon has an atomic
number of six, there must be six protons and six electrons in each atom. Its
electronic configuration is {2, 4}. Similarly, the atomic number of calcium is
20, so it has an electronic configuration of {2, 8, 8, 2}. You only need to know
how to write electronic configurations for the elements from hydrogen to
calcium.

The mass of a molecule, in terms of atomic mass, is the sum of all the
individual masses of each atom that makes up the molecule. This is termed the
relative molecular mass (Mr). The Mr of ethane, C2H6, is therefore equal to
the mass of two carbon atoms and six hydrogen atoms = (2 × 12) + (6 × 1) =
30.

1.2 Isotopes
The isotopes of an element refer to atoms of that element that have different
masses but have the same atomic number. That is, they each have the same
number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
In the periodic table, the relative atomic mass of each element is given as a
weighted average of all the atomic masses of the different isotopes of that
element, depending on how common they are.

To work out the relative atomic mass of an element, sum the atomic mass of
each isotope multiplied by its relative abundance (as a percentage). For
instance, neon has three naturally occurring isotopes: 20Ne, 21Ne and 22Ne,
with relative abundances of 90.5%, 0.25% and 9.25% respectively. So its
relative atomic mass is: (20 × 0.905) + (21 × 0.0025) + (22 × 0.0925) ≈ 20.18

1.3 Chemical bonding

Single atoms will react with other atoms in order to gain a full outer shell of
electrons, or, in other words, to gain the electronic configuration of a noble gas
(see below).

Atoms of the same element may bond together, e.g. in molecules of O2 and N2.
Atoms of different elements may also bond together to produce compounds.

There are three types of bonding that you need to be aware of:
• Covalent bonding: a covalent bond consists of a pair of electrons that is
shared between two atoms. One electron in each pair may be provided by
each bonded atom, or both electrons may be provided by a single atom –
the bond in the latter case is known as a dative bond. Covalent bonds tend
to form between atoms of non-metal elements.
• Ionic bonding: atoms may lose or gain electrons from their outer electron
shell in order to attain a noble gas configuration. When electrons are lost or
gained, the overall charge on the atom changes – the atom becomes an ion.
Ionic bonds occur due to the natural affinity that ions of opposite charges
will have for each other (i.e. a positive ion will be strongly attracted to a
negative ion). Ionic bonding tends to occur between atoms of metallic
elements and non-metallic elements.
 • Metallic bonding: the outermost electrons of metal atoms can become
dissociated from their atoms. This results in a system of dissociated
electrons around metal cations. The bonding is due to the affinity of the
positive cations to the negative dissociated electrons.

You also need to be aware of four molecular structures that come about as a
result of this bonding:
• Simple covalent structures: these consist of a few atoms held together by
strong covalent bonds. They have weak intermolecular forces, so these
molecules tend to have low melting and boiling points. Examples include
CO2, H2O, NH3, O2 and N2.

• Giant covalent structures: these consist of a large number of atoms joined

together by covalent bonds to form giant, repeating lattice structures.
Since the structure is held together by strong covalent bonds, they tend to
have very high melting and boiling points. You need to know the identities
of several giant covalent structures:
• Silica: consists of a lattice of oxygen and silicon atoms; each silicon
atom is bonded to four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded
to two silicon atoms. It is hard with a high melting point, and is an
electrical semiconductor.
• Graphite: is an allotrope of carbon (i.e. one type of molecular
arrangement of carbon). It consists of layers of carbon atoms arranged
in lattice ‘sheets’. A system of dissociated electrons exist between the
layers; these electrons can transfer heat and carry an electrical current,
so graphite is a good heat and electrical conductor. While the bonding
between atoms within a layer is strong, the bonding between layers is
fairly weak. Hence layers can slide over each other, making graphite
fairly soft.
• Diamond: is another allotrope of carbon. It is arranged such that each
carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms. It is extremely hard,
with very high melting and boiling points. However, unlike graphite, it
does not have dissociated electrons so it is a poor conductor of
electricity.
 • Ionic lattice structures: ions will arrange themselves into repeating lattice
structures in which positive ions are surrounded by negative ions and
negative ions are surrounded by positive ions. Due to the strong
electrostatic forces holding the ions of different charges together, these
structures have high melting and boiling points. As solids, they are poor
electrical conductors, but when molten or dissolved in solution the ions are
free to move about and can carry a current.
• Giant metallic structure: Layers of metal cations surrounded by
dissociated electrons. The electrons carry heat and current, and so metals
are good thermal and electrical conductors. The attraction between the
cations and the electrons means that the structure tends to be strong, with
high melting and boiling points. The cation layers can slide over each
other, however, making metals malleable and ductile.

2. The Periodic Table

The Periodic Table displays groups (columns) of elements and periods (rows).
For the BMAT, you should know that elements of the same group have the
same number of outer-shell electrons, and elements of the same period have the
same number of electron shells.

Elements in the same group tend to share similar chemical properties.

The elements in the periodic table can be divided into metals and non-metals.
Their positions are displayed below. Down a metal group, reactivity increases;
down a non-metal group, reactivity decreases.
The Periodic Table of Elements

2.1 Metals
Metals tend to be ductile (they can be stretched to form wires), malleable (they
can be bent), and good conductors of heat and electricity. Certain metals have
specific properties, which makes them useful for specific tasks:
• Aluminium: good strength-to-weight ratio, used in aircraft.
• Titanium: good strength-to-weight ratio, used in replacement hips, military
aircraft.
• Iron: pure iron is a relatively soft metal, but iron with a certain carbon
content forms steel, which is strong and used in construction.
• Copper: does not react readily with water, so it is used in pipes. Soft and
easily bent, so used in wiring.
• Gold, silver, platinum: unreactive, but expensive; used in jewellery. Gold is
a good conductor of electricity and is used in wires and circuits as it
doesn’t corrode.
2.2 Metal extraction
Metals are not usually found in their elemental state in nature, but are mined as
ores. These are usually metal oxides. Metals are extracted when the metal
oxides are reduced. Different metals require different extraction methods.

Reactive metals, such as potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and

aluminium have to be extracted by electrolysis (see below).

Iron is less reactive than carbon, so it can be displaced by carbon.

Copper can also be extracted by being reacted with carbon. It is then purified by
electrolysis.

Metals such as gold are so unreactive that they are found in their elemental state
in nature.

2.3 Metals and displacement reactions

Metals have different levels of reactivity. When a more reactive metal is
reacted with a less reactive metal that is in a compound with another element,
the more reactive metal can displace the less reactive metal from the
compound. For example, iron displacing less reactive copper from copper
sulfate:

iron + copper sulf ate → iron sulf ate + copper

The relative reactivities of different metals is illustrated below. Certain non-

metal elements (in italics) have also been included for reference:

Potassium

Sodium

Lithium
Calcium

Magnesium

Aluminium

Carbon
Zinc

Iron

Hydrogen
Copper

Silver

Gold

Top Tip: Learn this displacement table by heart! You will not be provided
with it when you sit your BMAT, unlike your GCSE chemistry exams!

2.4 Alkali metals

Group 1 of the periodic table contains the alkali metals. They share similar
properties:
• They are soft enough to be cut with a knife.
• They have low melting and boiling points relative to other metals.
• They have low densities (lithium, potassium and sodium float on water).
• They react violently with water to produce hydrogen and a metal
hydroxide.
 • Their hydroxides and oxides dissolve readily in water to produce alkaline
solutions, hence their name.

As you descend the group, the Group 1 metals become softer, have decreasing
melting points, higher densities, and they become more reactive.

The Group 1 metals are so reactive that they need to be kept under oil to
prevent them from oxidising rapidly, but also to prevent a violent reaction with
moisture in the air.

You need to know how Group 1 metals react with different substances:
• With water: Metals will react to form the metal hydroxide and hydrogen
gas.

X(s) + H2 O(l) → XOH(aq) + H2 (g)

Lithium, sodium and potassium will all float on water. Potassium will
produce a lilac flame during this reaction.
• With oxygen: Metals will react with air to form a layer of the metal oxide:

4X(s) + O2 (g) → 2X2 O(s)

When burned in oxygen, lithium will react to produce lithium oxide

(Li2O). Sodium will produce some sodium oxide (Na2O) and some
sodium peroxide (Na2O2). Potassium, when burned, will form mostly
potassium peroxide (K2O2). Lithium burns with a red flame, sodium with
an orange flame and potassium with a lilac flame.
• With halogens: The metals react violently with the halogens to form a
metal halide. For example, with chlorine:

2X(s) + Cl2 (g) → 2XCl(s)

2.5 Transition metals

The transition metals are found in between Groups 2 and 3 (also written as
Group 13) on the periodic table. They share similar properties:
• They form coloured compounds, e.g. copper (II) sulfate is blue, iron (III)
oxide is red.
• They tend to be less reactive than Group 1 metals.
• They can have more than one stable ion, or oxidation state, e.g. iron can
exist in compounds as a +2 or a +3 iron (these are the most common, but it
can form others).
• They are often used as catalysts, e.g. iron is used in the reaction forming
ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen; nickel is a catalyst for
hydrogenation.
• They tend to be strong, malleable, good conductors of heat and electricity,
and have high densities.

2.6 Halogens
The halogens are the non-metal elements found in Group 7 (or Group 17). They
share similar properties:
• They react vigorously with the alkali metals.
• Low melting and boiling points (typical of non-metals).

The reactivity of the halogens decreases down the group. The melting/boiling
points increase down the group – fluorine and chlorine are both gases at room
temperature, bromine is an orange liquid and iodine is a grey solid (that
sublimes into a purple gas when heated).
More reactive halogens further up the group can displace less reactive halogens
further down the group. You need to know how to write the ionic equations that
describe this process; e.g. the displacement of chlorine by fluorine can be
represented by:
− −
2Cl (aq)
+ F2 (g) → Cl2 (g) + 2F (aq)
The presence of different halide ions in solution can be tested using silver
nitrate solution. First, dilute nitric acid is added to the solution to remove any
carbonates that are present (as these would produce a precipitate of silver
nitrate that would interfere with the results). Then silver nitrate is added:
• If a white precipitate is formed that dissolves with the addition of dilute
ammonia solution, the solution contains chloride ions.
• If a cream precipitate is produced that dissolves in concentrated ammonia
solution, the solution contains bromide ions.
• If a yellow precipitate is formed that does not dissolve in concentrated
ammonia solution, the solution contains iodide ions.

2.7 Noble gases

The noble gases are the non-metal elements found in Group 8/0 (or Group 18).
They share similar properties:
• They are very unreactive because they have a full outer electron shell.
• Under standard conditions, they are gases made up of single atoms of the
element (i.e. unlike oxygen, O2, or nitrogen, N2, for example).
• They have low densities – helium is used in air balloons for this reason.

Because they are so unreactive, the noble gases are often used to prevent other
reactions from happening. For instance, argon is used in light bulbs to prevent
the filament reacting with air and burning.

3. Chemical reactions and equations

In a chemical reaction, the atoms within different compounds are rearranged
but matter is never created or destroyed. The mass of reactants will always be
equal to the mass of products.

A chemical reaction can be displayed as an equation. The equation can either

be expressed in words or with chemical symbols. The state of different
reactants and products may also be shown using state symbols – (s) for solid,
(l) for liquid, (g) for gas and (aq) for a substance in aqueous solution.

Be aware of the symbols for these commonly used chemicals:

Hydrogen, H2 Carbon dioxide, CO2 Sulfuric acid, H2SO4

Oxygen, O2 Water, H2O Hydrochloric acid, HCl
Nitrogen, N2 Ammonia, NH3 Nitric acid, HNO3
Carbon monoxide, CO Caustic soda

(Sodium hydroxide), NaOH

You also need to be able to recall the charge on common ions. Note that the
positive charge on metal ions will be the same as their group number in the
periodic table. Transition metals, which form more than one stable ion, will
have the charge of their ion indicated by Roman numerals, e.g. the ion of iron
(III) is Fe3+.

Ammonium, NH4+ Fluoride, F− Hydroxide, OH−

Hydrogen, H+ Chloride, Cl− Oxide, O2−
Silver, Ag+ Bromide, Br− Sulfide, S2−
Lead, Pb2+ Iodide, I− Sulfate, SO42−
Carbonate, CO32− Nitrate, NO3− Hydrogen carbonate, HCO3−

3.1 Balancing equations

Since mass is always conserved during a chemical reaction, the number of
atoms of reactants in a chemical equation must equal the number of atoms of
products.

Chemical equations therefore need to be balanced before they are correct.

The best way to approach balancing equations is perhaps to reduce it to an
algebraic problem.

For example, with the equation:

P Cl5 + H2 O → H3 P O4 + H Cl

We can put in the letters a, b, c, d and e to represent the balancing numbers:

aP Cl5 + bH2 O → cH3 P O4 + dH Cl

We know that:

a = c (from looking at the number of phosphorus atoms)

5a = d (from looking at the number of chlorine atoms)

2b = 3c + d = 3c + 5a (from looking at the hydrogen atoms)

b = 4c (from looking at the oxygen atoms)

Let a = 1

b=4
c=1
d=5
These are all whole numbers, so the balanced equation is:

P Cl5 + 4H2 O → H3 P O4 + 5 H Cl

Of course, if the letters happened to be fractions after substituting a for 1, you

would have to multiply throughout by the lowest factor that would leave whole
numbers to end up with the correct balancing numbers.

3.2 Redox reactions

When atoms of an element gain electrons as a result of a reaction, they are said
to be reduced.

When atoms of an element lose electrons as a result of a reaction, they are said
to be oxidised.

A disproportionation reaction is one in which atoms of the same element are

both oxidised and reduced. When reduction and oxidation occur in the same
reaction (but not necessarily to the same element), that is a redox reaction.

Note that, at a basic level, oxidation is defined as the gain of oxygen and
reduction is the loss of oxygen.

Top Tip: Remember the mnemonic OILRIG (Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction

Is Gain).

Although you should not have to solve complicated ionic equations in your
exam, it may be worthwhile to learn the following rules about oxidation states:
• The overall oxidation number of an uncharged compound should be zero.
• Group 1 metals always have an oxidation number of +1.
• Group 2 metals always have an oxidation number of +2.

• The oxidation numbers of elements in compound ions (e.g. NO3−, SO42−

etc.) must sum to the charge on the ion.
• Oxygen is usually −2, except in hydrogen peroxide, H2O2, where it is −1
(and F2O where it is +2).

• Hydrogen is usually +1, except in the metal hydrides where it is −1.

• Chlorine is usually −1, except in compounds with oxygen and fluorine.
• Fluorine is always −1.
To work out balanced redox equations, first write out balanced half-equations
for each species that is being oxidised/reduced. Then combine these half-
equations to form a full, balanced equation. For example, the reaction
describing the displacement of copper from copper (II) oxide by magnesium
can be described with two half-equations:
2+ −
Cu + 2e → Cu

and
2+ −
Mg → Mg + 2e

Giving us an ionic equation of

2+ 2+
M g + Cu → Mg + Cu

3.3 Reversible reactions

Sometimes, the products of one reaction can react themselves to form the
original reactants. Such reactions are called reversible reactions.

Sometimes a reversible reaction may be in dynamic equilibrium whereby the

rate at which the products are produced is the same rate at which products react
to form the original reactants. Hence the amount of reactants and products
remains constant, even though a chemical reaction is always occurring.

An example of such a reaction is the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen to form

ammonia:

N2 + 3 H2 ⇌ 2N H3

The forward reaction is exothermic and the reverse reaction is endothermic. For
all reversible reactions, the position of equilibrium (i.e. how much reactant
there is in relation to the amount of product) can be altered by two factors:
• Temperature: cooler temperatures will push the point of equilibrium
towards the exothermic side of the reaction; hotter temperatures will push
 it to the endothermic side.
• Pressure: higher pressures will push the point of equilibrium towards the
side of the reaction with fewer moles of gas; lower pressures will favour
the side with more moles of gas.

Note that if a large quantity of reactants is suddenly introduced to a reaction

system, the forward reaction will be favoured until the previous point of
equilibrium has been re-established (provided that pressure and temperature
have not changed). If large amounts of products are suddenly introduced to the
system, the reverse reaction will be favoured.

Note also that catalysts have no effect on the position of equilibrium. They
increase the rate of the forward and reverse reactions to the same extent, which
may mean that a point of dynamic equilibrium is reached faster than it would
without the catalyst.

4. Quantitative chemistry

4.1 The mole

A mole is simply a large number. Specifically, if you have one mole of any
substance, the mass of that substance will be equal to its relative molecular
mass (or relative atomic mass if we are considering pure elements) expressed in
grams. So one mole of carbon (Ar = 12) has a mass of 12 g.

From this, we get the equation:

mass of subtance
number of moles in a sample of a subtance =
relative molecular (or atomic) mass

Or

moles = mass/Mr

Using this equation, you may be asked to:

 • Work out the empirical formula of a reaction (i.e. the formula that shows
the simplest proportions of atoms involved in a reaction), based on the
experimental masses of reactants and products. To do this, work out the
number of moles of each reactant and product. Then find the ratio of the
number of moles of each substance.
• Work out the molecular formula (i.e. the formula that shows the total
number of atoms reacting with each other) using the empirical formula and
Mr values. For instance, if I am looking at a reaction involving a
hydrocarbon that is shown to be CH in my empirical formula, and if I then
find out the Mr of my hydrocarbon is 26, I must have two lots of carbon
and hydrogen atoms, since the Mr of CH would be 13. Hence the
hydrocarbon in my molecular formula will be C2H2.

• Use balanced equations to calculate the masses of reactants and products.

In a simple reaction X → 2Y + Z, if I have 0.1 moles of X (worked out
from the mass of X), I must have 0.2 moles of Y (from this, I can work out
my mass of Y) and one mole of Z.
• Calculate the percentage composition by mass of a compound given Ar
values. If I know a sample of a compound has a certain mass, I can work
out the number of moles of each element within the compound using the
Ar values and the chemical equation for that substance, and subsequently
work out the mass of each element. For instance, if I have a 23 g gram
sample of ethanol (C2H5OH, Ar values: C = 12, O = 16, H = 1) and I am
asked to work out the percentage carbon by mass, I know that 1 mole of
ethanol has a mass of 46 g, so I must have half a mole of ethanol in the
sample. Hence I have one mole of carbon in the sample, which must be
contributing 12 g to the total mass. So its percentage carbon by mass is
12/23 or ~ 52%.

4.2 Moles and gases

You will be told in the exam that 1 mole of any gas occupies 24 dm3 at room
temperature and pressure (20°C and 1 atmosphere), and 22.4 dm3 at standard
temperature and pressure (0°C and 1 atmosphere). From this you may be asked
to work out the mass, the number of moles or the volume of gas.

Top Tip: Pay close attention to whether the question refers to room or
standard conditions.

4.3 Moles and concentration

Using the equations
−3 moles
concentration (moldm ) = 3
volume (dm )

and
3
volume (cm )
−3
moles = × concentration (moldm )
10 0 0

you will be expected to work out moles, volume and concentration. You are
also expected to work out the solubility of a substance in a particular solvent,
i.e. how many moles of a given substance will dissolve in a given volume of
solvent under certain conditions. Solubility can be expressed as a concentration.

Note that, at a given temperature and pressure, a solute will only dissolve into
solution up to a certain point. Once a solution has become saturated, any
further solute that is added to the solution will form a precipitate. The
saturation point can be altered by changing the temperature and pressure of a
solution.

4.4 Yield
You need to be able to work out the percentage yield of a reaction according to
this equation:
 actual yield (g)
percentage yield = × 10 0 %
predicted yield (g)

where predicted yield is obtained using a balanced equation, the mole equation,
and the known masses of reactants.

Note that, in real life, when you measure the amount of products that can be
usefully employed, the predicted yield is never obtained. This may be because
of:
• unreacted reactants in a reversible reaction
• reactants that react in an unexpected way
• reactants left in their transfer containers (e.g. droplets left on the inside of
flasks)
• products left inside reaction vessel.

5. Separation techniques
There are procedures that can separate the components of both mixtures (not
chemically joined, but substances mixed together) and compounds (chemically
bonded substances).

5.1 Miscible liquids

A mixture of liquids that are miscible, i.e. one does not float on top of the other
when mixed, can be separated in several ways, including:
• Chromatography: separating substances depending on how well they
dissolve in, or move through, another medium. A typical example is paper
chromatography, where different inks can be separated depending on
their solubility in water (and hence how far they are carried by water that is
absorbed by a piece of filter paper).
• Fractional distillation: Different liquids in a mixture will have different
boiling/condensing points. If these liquids are heated together, and if the
gases that are evolved are passed through a fractionating column, the
 substance with the higher boiling point will condense first and can be
collected separately. This method is used to separate the different
components of crude oil (see diagram below).

5.2 Immiscible liquids

Liquids that form separate layers when mixed can easily be separated by
removing them one at a time with a separating funnel.

5.3 Soluble solids mixed with insoluble solids

These can be separated by dissolving the soluble solid in a solvent to form a
solution that can be easily removed. The solution can be filtered to remove
impurities. The liquid can then be evaporated, leaving the crystallised soluble
solid.

5.4 Separating compounds – electrolysis

The components of certain compounds may be separated using displacement
reactions; using a more reactive substance to ‘push out’ one element in a
compound.
Electrolysis is a process that is used to separate out the component elements of
ionic-bonded substances that have been melted or dissolved in solution. Such
substances are called electrolytes. During electrolysis, a positive electrode,
known as an anode, and a negative electrode, known as a cathode, are placed
in an electrolyte. Cations in the electrolyte are attracted to the cathode, where
they are reduced. Conversely, anions are attracted to the anode, where they are
oxidised.
For electrolysis to work, a DC current has to be applied instead of an AC
current, otherwise the polarity of the electrodes would keep switching.

You need to know about the electrolysis of the following substances:

Brine: When a solution of sodium chloride (NaCl) is electrolysed, chlorine gas

is produced as chloride ions are oxidised at the anode:
_ −
2Cl (aq)
→ Cl2 (g) + 2e

Hydrogen ions from the water are reduced at the cathode to form hydrogen
gas:
+ −
2H (aq)
+ 2e → H2 (g)

Sodium ions are more reactive than hydrogen ions, so they stay in solution
with hydroxide ions from the water. Hence, the products of this electrolysis are
chlorine, hydrogen and sodium hydroxide (or caustic soda) solution.

In industry, this electrolysis is carried out using an ion exchange membrane to

keep the hydroxide and chloride ions separated. The membrane is permeable to
sodium ions, so sodium hydroxide can be extracted from one side.
Copper (II) sulfate: This method can be used to purify impure copper. An
anode of impure copper is used; at the anode, copper (II) ions are produced:
2+ −
Cu(s) → Cu (aq)
+ 2e

These ions dissolve into solution. Copper (II) ions in solution are attracted to
the cathode where they are reduced to form pure copper metal:

2+ −
Cu (aq)
+ 2e → Cu(s)
6. Rates of reaction and energetics

6.1 Finding rates of reaction

Rates of reaction can be determined experimentally by measuring how quickly
a reactant is lost or a product is gained. This might be done by using a
balance to determine how quickly mass is gained or depleted if your reactants
or products are liquids or solids. If your reactants or products are gases, you
may be able to use equipment such as a gas syringe or a measuring cylinder
to determine how quickly gas volume is gained or depleted.

You may also use colorimetry to determine how quickly a reaction progresses
by measuring the change in light passing through the reacting chemicals (this
can be done using a colorimeter).

You might also measure the rate of change of properties of the reacting
chemicals, such as electrical conductance (which can be determined by
observing changes in current using an ammeter), or thermal conductance
(which can be measured using a thermometer).

6.2 Collision theory

For a reaction between different reactant particles to occur, two things must
happen:
• The reactant particles must collide.
• The reactant particles must have a sufficient amount of energy when they
collide, known as the activation energy (EA).

Collision theory explains why certain changes to the experimental environment

can change the rate of reaction:
• Changes in temperature: If the temperature of a reacting system is
increased, the reactant particles will have greater kinetic energy, and will
be moving about faster (for this to be true, at least one of the reactants has
 to be in a fluid phase). This will increase the chance of collision between
reactant particles, but it will also mean that when particles do collide, they
are more likely to possess EA. The reverse is true when temperature is
decreased.
• Changes in surface area: If reactant particles are made more accessible by
increasing the surface area of, for instance, a solid reactant (e.g. by
grinding a block of the reactant into a powder), you increase the chance of
a collision occurring.
• Changing concentration: If you increase the concentration of reactants in
solution, or the partial pressures of gaseous reactants, you increase the
likelihood of collisions occurring between reactant particles as there will
be a greater number of the reactant particles in a certain volume.
• Changing pressure: Increasing the pressure of gaseous reactants will,
again, increase the number of reactant particles in a given unit of volume,
thereby increasing the chances of collisions occurring.

6.3 Rates of reaction graphs

Rates of reaction can be displayed graphically, usually by recording the mass
of reactant lost or mass of product gained on the y-axis and time on the x-
axis. Usually the line of the graph with be diagonal and straight initially (i.e.
near the origin), but will plateau over time. See below.

Usually it is helpful to compare the initial rate of reaction under different

conditions; that is, finding out the gradient of the straight line close to the
origin. A faster initial rate of reaction will be shown with a steeper line (i.e. one
with a larger gradient). A reaction with a faster initial rate will plateau earlier.
Note that by comparing the initial rate of reaction for different concentrations
of a particular reactant, you can draw a rate-concentration graph; this allows
you to establish the order of the reaction.

Top Tip: When working out rate of a reaction from a graph similar to the
one above, always use the initial rate, i.e. the region of the line that is
straight.

6.4 Catalysts and energetics

All reactions require energy input in order to take place – this is the activation
energy. This energy, ultimately, is required to break the bonds in the reactant
molecules. When different bonds are formed in the products, energy is released.

If more energy is required to break bonds than is released by the formation of

bonds, energy in the form of heat will be withdrawn from the environment as
the reaction proceeds. Such reactions are known as endothermic reactions.
Below is the energy profile for an endothermic reaction:
If more energy is released by the formation of bonds in the products than is
required to break the bonds in the reactants, energy in the form of heat will be
released into the environment as the reaction proceeds. Such reactions are
known as exothermic reactions. Below is an energy profile for an exothermic
reaction:

Catalysts are substances that increase the rate of a particular reaction, without
being used up in the reaction themselves. They do this by lowering the
activation energy required to initiate the reaction. An energy profile comparing
catalysed and non-catalysed reactions is shown below:
7. Acids and bases
An acid is a substance that releases hydrogen ions when dissolved in solution
(it is a proton donor). A strong acid is one that fully dissociates to form
hydrogen ions in solution whereas a weak acid does not fully dissociate. A
base is a substance that neutralises acids (it is a proton acceptor). It usually
does this by forming hydroxide ions when it is dissolved in water.

A strong base is one that is fully dissociated into its ions and produces a lot of
hydroxide ions when in solution; a weak base does not dissociate fully and will
result in a lower hydroxide concentration when in solution.

Acids have a pH below 7, bases have a pH above 7, and pH 7 itself is neutral.

Top Tip: Examiners may try to trip you up by subtly referencing pH. For
instance, you may be asked: ‘Is this statement true? – Sodium hydroxide is a
base, and will dissolve in water to form an alkaline solution with a low pH.’
This is mostly correct, except of course that the pH will be high if the
solution is alkaline.
Acids react with bases to form a salt and water, e.g.

H Cl(aq) + N aOH(aq) → N aCl(aq) + H2 O(l)

Acids react with metals to form a salt and hydrogen, e.g.

2H Cl(aq) + M g(s) → M gCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

Acids react with carbonates to form a salt, water and carbon dioxide, e.g.

2H Cl(aq) + CaCO3 (S) → CaCl2 (aq) + H2 O(l) + CO2 (l)

8. Organic chemistry
You need to know how to name hydrocarbon molecules according to
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) guidelines. The
way to do this is as follows:
• Identify the longest carbon chain in the molecule; this will determine the
‘root’ of the hydrocarbon name to be used. For instance, if the longest
chain is just 1 carbon, the root is ‘meth’; 2 carbons, ‘eth’; 3 carbons,
‘prop’; 4 carbons, ‘but’; 5 carbons, ‘pent’, etc.
• Identify the functional groups. The position of the main functional group is
indicated by the number of the carbon atom that forms part of it or attaches
to it. The number that is assigned to that carbon atom has to be the lowest
number possible (given how far along the carbon chain it is). The
functional group is indicated with a suffix or a prefix.
• Side chains are then identified. The position of the side chains is indicated
by the number of the carbon atom in the main carbon chain to which they
are attached.
• If there is more than one of the same side chain, the prefixes ‘di’ and ‘tri’
are used to indicate two or three of the same side chain, respectively.
• Side chains are named in alphabetical order (ignoring the ‘di’ and ‘tri’
prefix). Hence ‘ethyl’ will always precede ‘methyl’ in the full name of the
hydrocarbon.
As an example, look at the molecule below:

• The longest carbon chain is 4 atoms long, so the root is ‘but’.

• The molecule is an alkene; the lowest number carbon atom we could assign
to establish the position of the alkene functional group is 1 (because the
functional group is right at the end of the carbon chain). Hence we are
looking at a ‘but-1-ene’.
• There are two side chains with 1 carbon atom each, hence we have two
methyl groups; so we need to add the prefix ‘dimethyl’.
• They are both on carbon 3, so the full name is ‘3,3 – dimethylbut-1-ene’.

You need to know about the following types of hydrocarbon molecule:

Alkanes: C—C
• These hydrocarbons have a general formula of CnH2n+2

• They only contain single carbon–carbon bonds; hence we say that they are
saturated.
• They are relatively unreactive, because the carbon–hydrogen and carbon–
carbon bonds they contain are very stable.
• They can be combusted completely in excess oxygen to form water and
carbon dioxide.
• They are indicated by the suffix ‘ane’.

Alkenes: C=C
• Have a general formula of CnH2n

• They contain at least one double carbon–carbon bond; hence we say that
they are unsaturated.
• We can test for alkenes by shaking them with bromine water; if an alkene
is present, the bromine water will decolourise from orange.
• Alkenes are more reactive than alkanes because the carbon–carbon double
bond can ‘open up’ to form single bonds with other atoms (i.e. alkenes are
susceptible to addition reactions). You need to know about the following
reactions:
• Hydrogen – when alkenes react with hydrogen they form alkanes. The
process is known as hydrogenation, and requires a nickel catalyst when
carried out industrially. Here is the reaction of ethene with hydrogen:

C2 H4(g) + H2 (g) → C2 H6 (l)

• Halogens – alkenes will react with halogens to form dihaloalkanes. The

carbon atoms that were previously in the double bond still have a single
bond with each other, but they also each have a single bond to the halogen
atom. Note that this isn’t true for fluorine. Here is the reaction of ethene
with chlorine:

C2 H4 + Cl2 → C2 H4 Cl2

• Hydrogen halides – alkenes will react with halogen halides to form

haloalkanes. When an asymmetrical alkene is used, the halogen atom will
tend to attach to the carbon atom in the carbon–carbon double bond that
has the fewest hydrogen atoms already attached to it (you do not need to
know why this is the case). Hence, in the reaction between propene and
hydrogen chloride we get 2-chloropropane:
 C3 H6 + H Cl → C3 H7 Cl

• Steam – alkenes reacted with steam will produce alcohols. When steam is
reacted with an asymmetrical alkene, the alcohol functional group (O H)
will tend be added to the carbon atom in the carbon–carbon double bond
that has the fewest hydrogen atoms already attached to it. Hence in the
reaction between propene and steam we get propan-2-ol:

C2 H6 + H2 O → C3 H7 OH

Alcohols: O—H
• Alcohols tend to have higher melting and boiling points than their
corresponding alkanes due to the presence of their −OH group, which
permits hydrogen bonding between molecules.
• In addition, due to their −OH group they are soluble in water. They are also
soluble in hydrophobic substances due to their hydrocarbon chains.
Longer-chain alcohols are less soluble in water than shorter-chain alcohols.
• Alcohols can be used as fuels, as they burn easily in oxygen. Because they
can be produced through the fermentation of biomass, they may be
considered to be more ecofriendly than other fuels (as their combustion
simply releases CO2 that was taken up by the plant).

Carboxylic Acids
 • Carboxylic acids are hydrocarbons with the functional group −COOH.
• When dissolved in water, these hydrocarbons form acidic solutions. They
tend to form weak acids.
• Like all acids, they react with carbonates to form a salt, water and carbon
dioxide. For example, the reaction of ethanoic acid with calcium carbonate
to form calcium ethanoate:

CH3 COOH(aq) + CaCO3 (S) → CH3 COOCa(aq) + H2 O(l) + CO2 (g)

• They react with alcohols, in the presence of an acid catalyst, to form esters
and water. For instance, ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid to form ethyl
ethanoate:

C2 H5 OH(l) + CH3 COOH(aq) → CH3 COOC2 H5 (aq) + H2 O(l)

Polymers
Alkenes, or any organic molecule with a carbon–carbon double bond, can react
with each other to form long, saturated molecules called polymers.
The unsaturated, simple molecules that join to create polymers are called
monomers.

As an example, ethene can act as a monomer that can be polymerised to form

polythene:

Most polymers are non-biodegradable, because micro-organisms lack the

molecular machinery to break them down. Instead, they have to be disposed of
by other means; for example, by being placed in landfills or incinerated. Both
of these methods have detrimental ecological impacts.

Alternatively, some polymers are designed to be biodegradable. It is also

possible to recycle many polymers.
Physics

1. Electricity

1.1 Electrostatics
A material may be an electrical conductor, in which case it will easily disperse
any electrical charge that it gathers. Other materials may be electrical insulators
that do not disperse charge easily.

If an insulator is rubbed it may become positively charged by losing electrons, or

it may become negatively charged by gaining electrons. Friction causes the
displacement of electrons.

For instance, an acetate rod that is rubbed with a duster will lose electrons to the
duster and become positively charged. A polythene rod that is rubbed with a
duster will acquire electrons and become negatively charged (the duster will be
positively charged).

Charged objects with the same charge will be repelled from each other. Objects
with different charges will be attracted to each other.

Static electricity is useful in some cases in industry, e.g. it can be used in spray
painting. The object that needs to be painted is given a particular charge, and the
paint droplets are given the opposite charge as they are released. This means the
paint is attracted to the object and less is wasted.

Static electricity also poses a danger in some cases. Build-ups of charge may
eventually be dissipated in the form of a spark. In certain scenarios, such a spark
may ignite a fire. Hence certain precautions need to be taken, for instance, with
vehicles that are used to transport flammable substances. Any charge that is built
up as the vehicle travels needs to be discharged using an earth wire – this
reduces the chance of a spark igniting a fire.

1.2 Electric current

Current (I) is the flow of charge (usually electrons, although currents can be
carried by other charged particles such as ions) through an electrical conductor.
Its unit is the ampere (A), which is the same as a coulomb (a measure of charge)
per second. Hence it can be described by the equation:

charge (C)
current(A) =
time (s)

Voltage (V) or potential difference is the work that needs to be done to move a
unit of charge between two points. Without a potential difference across an
electrical component, electrons will not flow through it and there will be no
current. The unit of voltage is the volt (V), which is equal to a joule per
coulomb. It can be described by this equation:
work done (J )
voltage (V ) =
charge (C)

Current in a circuit is measured with an ammeter. An ammeter is always placed

in series with other components in the circuit. Voltage is measured with a
voltmeter; this device measures the potential difference across a single
component in an electric circuit. In order to do so, it is placed in parallel to the
component.

Resistance (R) describes the opposition to current in a conductor. All

conductors have resistance. Resistance is directly proportional to the length of a
wire but inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of a wire. Resistance
is measured in ohms (Ω).

Voltage, current and resistance are all linked by this equation:

voltage = current × resistance

or

V = IR

1.3 Voltage–current graphs

The relationship between voltage and current can be expressed graphically, with
current on the y-axis and voltage on the x-axis.

In a fixed resistor, the resistance is maintained at a constant level. The current

flowing through the resistor is directly proportional to the voltage across the
resistor. Hence the graph is a straight, diagonal line.

Top Tip: The resistance of a fixed resistor will not change no matter what
the voltage across it or the current flowing through it.

In a filament lamp, the filament heats up as more current passes through it. The
heat that is generated increases the resistance of the filament. This means that
resistance does not remain constant for all values of current, but will increase as
current rises. This gives the graph a sigmoidal shape.

1.4 Series and parallel circuits

In a series circuit, components are placed in a ‘loop’ such that the same current
passes through all components.

The voltage that is supplied to a series circuit (i.e. the voltage across the battery
or cell) is equal to the sum of the voltages across all components in the circuit.

Vtot = V1 + V2 + V3 ⋯

The current in series circuits is the same wherever it is recorded in the circuit.

I1 = I2 = I3 ⋯
The resistance of the circuit is equal to the sum of the resistances of all the
components in the circuit.

Rtot = R1 + R2 + R3 ⋯

In a series circuit the total of all the resistors multiplied by the current taken at
any point in the circuit will give you the voltage across the battery or cell, the
‘voltage drop’.

In a parallel circuit, components will not necessarily be connected one after

another, but some components will be placed on parallel branches.

The voltage across components that are arranged in parallel is equal. In other
words, the sum of the voltages across components on the same branch of a
parallel circuit will equal the voltage across the battery or cell (i.e. in the
diagram above V1 + V2 = V3 = VT).

The current entering and leaving a branching point in a parallel circuit must be
equal. Hence, when several branches meet, the current after the meeting point is
equal to the sum of the currents across each branch (in the diagram above I1 = I2
+ I4 = I5).
Note that current recorded at any point on a single branch will always be the
same, because current will not ‘split’ if there are no branch points – hence I2 =
I3.

Bear in mind that, unlike voltage, the current on two different branches arranged
in parallel is not necessarily equal. Hence, in the above example, it is not
necessarily the case that I2 = I4.

The total resistance in a parallel circuit is given by the reciprocal law:

1/Rtot = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 ⋯

Sometimes the circuits you are given in the BMAT exam will look very different
from the easy-to-categorise series and parallel circuits you get at GCSE. For
instance, have a look at this one:

Is this a series or parallel circuit? In situations like this, it is better to consider

the arrangement of components. Resistors R1 and R2 are arranged in parallel, so
it may be easier to consider them as a ‘single’ resistor where the total resistance
can be figured out from 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 (reciprocal rule!). After doing that,
you are left with a much less scary-looking series circuit:
1.5 Electrical power
Power (P) is the rate of energy transfer, measured in watts (W). A watt is equal
to a joule per second. The transfer of electrical power can be given as:

power (W ) = voltage (V ) × current (A)

Following on from this, the energy transfer in a component in an electrical

circuit is

energy transf er (J ) = power (W ) × time (s)

= voltage (V ) × current (A) × time (s)

1.6 Transformers
Transformers are devices that allow voltage and current to be altered.
Electricity produced by power stations needs to have its current reduced and its
voltage increased when it is put into the National Grid, in order to prevent
energy loss as heat in pylon cables. This requires a step-up transformer.

When electricity is sent to our homes, the voltage needs to be decreased and the
current increased, for reasons of safety. This is carried out by step-down
transformers.

A transformer consists of a primary coil wound round a core. Current flowing

through the primary coil creates a magnetic field which then induces a current in
a secondary coil. Alterations in current and voltage between the coils depend on
the number of turns in both the primary and secondary coils. The transformer
equation is given by:
number of turns in primary coil voltage in primary coil (V )
=
number of turns in secondary coil voltage in secondary coil (V )

Transformers are supposed to maintain electrical power while altering voltage

and current. In real life, no transformer is 100% efficient at maintaining power
output. However, for the BMAT questions will often assume that this is the case.
Hence, when questions ask you about the power output of transformers,
remember that:

power output (W )

= voltage in primary coil (V ) × current in primary coil (A)

= voltage in secondary coil (V ) × current in secondary coil (A)

Top Tip: Note that current, power and velocity are all examples of rates –
i.e. a description of how much a certain variable (charge, energy and
displacement respectively in this case) changes per unit of time. Therefore, it
is possible to express all rates as the gradient on a graph where the
independent variable is time. The gradient can, of course, be worked out by
dividing the change in the value on the y-axis by the change in time. In
situations where you are asked to work out a rate from the gradient of a line
on a graph, always make sure you use a section of the line that is completely
straight! Otherwise your calculations may be wrong. Be warned – BMAT
examiners may put in graphs that contain very subtle curves… Always check
before starting your calculations.

1.7 Power generation

An electrical current will be generated whenever an electrical conductor is
moved relative to a magnetic field or when a stationary conductor is exposed to a
fluctuating magnetic field.
A generator may consist of a wire coil rotating in a magnetic field. As it
rotates, each side of the coil moves through the magnetic field in two different
directions with each turn. Because the wire is constantly ‘switching’ how it
moves through the magnetic field as it rotates, an alternating current is
generated.

2. Motion and energy

2.1 Kinematics
You need to know that speed is a scalar quantity; when we know the speed of an
object, we only know how fast it is travelling.
distance travelled (m)
speed (m/s) =
time (s)

During a particular journey, an object may alter its speed several times. Hence
we use the concept of average speed which is defined as total distance
travelled in a journey divided by total travel time.

Velocity is a vector quantity. It describes how fast an object is travelling in a

certain direction.
 distance travelled in a particular direction (m)
velocity (m/s) =
time (s)

Acceleration is also a vector quantity. It describes the rate of change in velocity.

Deceleration is the same as acceleration, but with a negative value.
change in velocity (m/s)
2
acceleration (m/s ) =
change in time (s)

Top Tip: Beware of the vector definitions of velocity and acceleration. It is

possible for an object to have a constant speed but a changing velocity if the
direction in which the object is moving is constantly changing. This may be
true, for instance, in circular motion (a satellite orbiting, a car going around a
bend). Of course, if the velocity of an object is changing the object is
accelerating; and if the object is accelerating it follows that a net force is
acting upon it. So keep in mind a car going around a bend at a constant speed
is technically accelerating!

In a distance–time graph:
• A horizontal line will be recorded for a stationary object.
• A straight, diagonal line will be recorded for an object moving at a constant
speed/velocity.
• Speed/velocity is equal to the gradient of the line. Lines with a steeper
gradient represent a faster speed/velocity.
• The distance can be read directly off the y-axis.
 • A curved line will be recorded for an object that is accelerating.

In a velocity–time graph:
• A horizontal line will be recorded for an object with a constant
speed/velocity.
• A straight, diagonal line will be recorded for an object with a constant
acceleration.
• Acceleration is equal to the gradient of the line. Lines with steeper gradients
represent greater accelerations.
 • The distance travelled is equal to the area under the graph.

2.2 Newton’s Laws

Newton’s First Law

An object will remain stationary or moving at a constant velocity unless acted
on by an unbalanced force. Objects with balanced forces acting upon them will
either be stationary or moving at a constant velocity (it may help to imagine a
stationary object as having a velocity of 0 m/s!)

When an unbalanced force acts upon an object, the object will accelerate in the
direction of that force.

Newton’s Second Law

The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on
the object and inversely proportional to the mass of the object. This is usually
summarised with the equation:
 2
net f orce (N ) = mass (kg) × acceleration (m/s )

Newton’s Third Law

‘For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.’ When two objects
interact with each other, the force exerted on one object by the other will be
equal, but opposite in direction, to the force exerted by the second object on the
first object.

2.3 Momentum
An object’s momentum (p) is defined as its mass multiplied by its velocity. It
has units of kilogram-metres per second. Momentum is always conserved in a
system. That means that if a moving object collides with a stationary object, the
total momentum of both objects after the collision will be equal to the
momentum of the moving object before the collision.

For any change in momentum to occur, a force must be applied. The size of a
force that acts on an object to alter its momentum is equal to the rate of change
in that momentum, or:
change in momentum (kg m/s)
f orce (N ) =
change in time (s)

Cars include safety features such as seatbelts and crumple zones. In the event
of a collision, these safety features slow down the deceleration of passengers
inside the vehicle. Consequently, the change in the passengers’ momentum
occurs over a longer period of time and they are exposed to smaller forces. This
reduces the possibility of injury.

Top Tip: Momentum questions can often involve guns or cannons –

remember that the momentum of the stationary gun (i.e. 0 kgm/s) is equal to
the combined momentums of the fired projectile and the recoiling gun. This
is because the two objects move in opposite directions, so if we assign the
projectile a positive velocity, the gun will have a negative velocity.
2.4 Mass, weight and free-fall
Mass is defined as the quantity of matter in an object. It is measured in
kilograms (kg).

Weight is defined as the force acting on an object due to the effects of gravity.
It is measured, like any other force, in newtons (N).

The weight of an object is calculated as its mass multiplied by the acceleration

due to gravity (g). For the purposes of the BMAT, you should assume g = 10
m/s2.

When an object is in free-fall, it has two forces acting on it that determine how
fast it falls – its weight and its aerodynamic drag. Free-fall has several stages:
• Initially, the weight of the object is greater than drag, causing the object to
accelerate.
• As the object gets faster, drag increases.
• Drag increases until the point when it is equal to weight.
• At this point, forces acting upon the object are balanced and the object falls
at a constant speed. This is known as terminal velocity.

Skydivers will fall for a certain time at a fast terminal velocity. They will then
deploy their parachute, which causes the drag force to increase dramatically.
This results in deceleration (as drag is greater than weight). However, as the
parachutist slows down, drag decreases. The parachutist decelerates until they
reach a new, slower terminal velocity. Note that at the new terminal velocity, the
values of weight and drag will still be the same as their values at the previous
terminal velocity.

Top Tip: Remember that a skydiver falling at terminal velocity will have a
drag force acting upon them that is equal to their weight, no matter the speed
 at which they fall.

2.5 Energy
Energy is defined as the capacity to do work. Work done is equal to energy
transferred. Energy and work are both measured in joules (J).

work done (J ) = f orce (N ) × distance (m)

Note that the distance over which a force is applied must be in the same
direction in which the force is acting for the equation to work. For example, if
we move an object of a certain weight horizontally for a certain distance, we
cannot work out the work done by multiplying the weight by the distance
travelled. This is because weight is a vertically acting force.

Instead, the relevant force to use in the equation is the driving force that moves
the object horizontally.

As mentioned above, power (P) is the rate of energy transfer:

energy (J )
power (W ) =
time (s)

Gravitational potential energy, or just potential energy (PE), is the energy

gained by an object as it is moved to a higher position.

change in potential energy (J )

2
= mass (kg) × acceleration due to gravity (m/s ) × change in height (m)

An object’s kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a moving object.

kinetic energy (J ) = ½ × mass (kg) × (velocity (m/s)) 2

 Top Tip: If an object falls, all of its potential energy must be converted into a
different type of energy. In cases where there is no drag, or drag is negligible,
all the potential energy must be converted into kinetic energy. But be careful:
if there is drag, some of the potential energy will be converted into energy of
other types, e.g. heat and sound. Note the opposite is also true – whenever an
object is lifted, some energy must be expended to be converted into potential
energy.

Energy is always conserved; it is not created or destroyed, but converted from

one type to another. The different types of energy are:
• Heat
• Light
• Sound
• Kinetic
• Electric
• Nuclear
• Elastic potential
• Gravitational potential
• Chemical potential

Often we want to convert energy from one type into another type that is useful to
us; i.e. it allows us to do useful work. However, no energy conversion is
perfectly efficient, and there will always be some energy ‘lost’ in forms that are
not useful to us. Often energy losses are in the form of heat.
usef ul energy output (J )
energy ef f iciency (%) = × 10 0 %
total energy output (J )

3. Thermal physics and matter

3.1 Matter
Matter is made up of many small particles (e.g. molecules, atoms, ions, etc.)
These particles behave differently in different phases of matter.

In solids, particles are tightly packed together and are only able to vibrate
around a fixed point. As they are heated, these particles will vibrate more and
gain more energy until they are able to overcome, to an extent, the bonds holding
them close together. At this point, melting occurs, and the solid will change into
a liquid.

In liquids, particles are not fixed in their position and they are free to move
around each other. However, they are limited in how far they can move away
from each other. As particles gain more energy by heating, they are able to
overcome the bonds that keep them associated with their neighbours.

As a liquid is heated, particles may gain enough energy to evaporate. This is

defined as the transition of particles from a liquid to gas phase at the surface of
the liquid. As the temperature increases, the rate of evaporation increases.

If the temperature of the substance reaches a sufficient level, particles may

escape from the bonds to their neighbours at any location within the body of
liquid (i.e. not just at the surface). When gas is formed throughout the liquid and
not just at the surface, we say the liquid is boiling.

In a gas, particles are free to move independently of other particles. Hence,

particles in a gas may have relatively large spaces between them.

As heat is applied to matter, the average volume occupied by any particle

increases. This means that as substances are heated, they become less dense.
Density (ρ − rho) is defined as:
mass (kg)
3
density (kg/m ) = 3
volume (m )

3.2 Transfer of heat

Heat energy will always move from regions of high temperature to regions of a
lower temperature. Heat energy is also called internal energy, because the heat of
a substance is determined by the kinetic energy of the particles within that
substance. Heat transfer, or the transfer of kinetic energy between particles,
occurs through three different routes, as follows.

Conduction
Conduction is the transfer of energy through solids. Within solids, particles are
packed tightly together and they are immobile, apart from vibrating in a fixed
position. As they gain more energy, they vibrate more. In doing so, they collide
with neighbouring particles and pass on some of their energy. The vibration of
particles is the basis of heat energy.

Thermal insulators do not conduct heat well. This may be because their
particles are less densely packed, which makes collision events less likely to
occur, or because they contain pockets of air (air is a poor conductor because its
particles are spread out).

Thermal conductors conduct heat well. Metal is a good thermal conductor

because it contains free electrons. These electrons can move independently of
the metal cations; they can also gain kinetic energy as the metal is heated. When
high-kinetic energy electrons collide with other particles, they pass on some of
their energy.

Conduction is a relatively quick transfer of heat energy, because collisions

between vibrating particles and their neighbours are very likely to occur.

Convection
Convection is the transfer of heat through fluids. Particles within fluids (liquids
and gases) are not as densely packed as in solids, hence they are less likely to
collide. Instead, as fluid particles gain more kinetic energy, they occupy a greater
volume of space. Therefore, a hot region of fluid will be less dense than a cooler
region of fluid. As a result, the hot fluid rises above the cool fluid, and the cool
fluid takes the place of the hot fluid next to the source of heat. A convection
current is established as different regions of fluid fluctuate in density. Gradually,
the convection current spreads heat throughout the body of fluid.
The effectiveness of convection currents at transferring heat can be affected by
properties of the fluid itself, such as viscosity.

Radiation
Heat can also be transferred as radiation; specifically, as infrared (IR)
radiation. IR radiation is a type of electromagnetic radiation, and it exists in
the form of waves of energy (or photons).

All objects absorb and emit IR radiation. The hotter an object, the more IR
radiation it emits.

Objects with a large surface area will emit more IR radiation than an object of
identical mass and temperature, but with a smaller surface area.

Dark, matt surfaces are better at emitting and absorbing IR radiation than
shiny or reflective surfaces.

4. Waves

4.1 Wave nature

A wave is a transfer of energy through matter which results in no net
displacement of particles of that matter. Energy instead is transferred by particles
oscillating around a fixed point.

Electromagnetic waves are slightly different, insomuch as they consist of

oscillations within electrical and magnetic fields (see below).

Transverse waves are ones in which the direction of travel and energy transfer
is perpendicular to the direction of the oscillation of the particles. Water waves
and seismic ‘S’ waves are transverse waves.

Longitudinal waves are ones in which the direction of travel and energy
transfer is parallel to the direction of the oscillation of the particles. Sound
waves and seismic ‘P’ waves are longitudinal waves.
In waves:
• The amplitude is the maximum distance that a particle moves from an
undisturbed position.
• The frequency (f) is the number of cycles of a wave that pass a fixed point
in one second. It is measured in hertz (Hz) or ‘per second’ (s−1). Waves
with a higher frequency have a lower wavelength.
• The time period is the time taken for a single cycle to fully pass a fixed
point.
• The wavelength (λ) is the distance between one point on a wave and the
equivalent point on the following wave. Waves with a greater wavelength
have a lower frequency.

• The wave-speed is how quickly the wave travels.

These concepts are linked by a couple of equations:

wave-speed (m/s) = f requency (H z) × wavelength (m)

1
time period (s) =
f requency (H z)

4.2 Wave behaviour

All waves can be reflected. Remember that the angle of incidence is equal to
the angle of reflection. Note that these angles are between the wave and the
normal (i.e. the line perpendicular to the boundary between the two media).

When a wave reaches a boundary between two different substances of different

densities, it may be refracted – this is simply a change in direction. As a wave
enters a denser medium, its direction of travel is shifted closer to the normal.

If a wave crosses a boundary at 90°, it will not be refracted.

If a wave moving from a dense medium to a less dense medium hits the
boundary at an angle known as the critical angle, the wave will be refracted
along the boundary.

If it hits the boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle, it will reflect
back into the denser medium. This is known as total internal reflection.

4.3 The Doppler effect

If a wave source moves towards an object, the receiver encounters waves that are
higher in frequency than the frequency at which the source produces the waves.
This is because waves will ‘bunch up’ in front of the moving wave source.

Conversely, if the wave source moves away from an object, the receiver is
exposed to waves that are lower in frequency than the frequency at which the
source produces waves. This is because waves will ‘spread out’ behind the
moving object.

This is known as the Doppler effect.

4.4 Sound waves
Sound waves are longitudinal waves that are transmitted through matter.

When a sound wave is reflected, this is called an echo.

Ultrasound describes any sound wave that is above the frequency threshold of
human hearing. It can be used for:
• Imaging human tissues; at boundaries between different tissues, some
ultrasound is reflected. By calculating the time taken between emitting an
ultrasound wave and receiving its echo, computers can build up an image of
the interior of the body.
• Echolocation in animals; bats produce ultrasound waves. By calculating the
time taken between emitting an ultrasound wave and receiving its echo, they
can determine the location of their prey.

4.5 Electromagnetic waves

Electromagnetic (EM) waves are transverse waves made from fluctuations in
magnetic and electric fields. All EM waves travel at the speed of light; in a
vacuum the speed of light is approximately 300,000 km/s.

EM waves of different frequencies fall into different categories. The different

types of EM wave that exist make up the EM radiation spectrum. Each
different type of radiation has its own practical uses and associated dangers.
They are listed in the table below in order of increasing frequency:

Name of Frequency Wavelength Uses Dangers

wave
Radio Lowest Longest • Communications None

• Low-frequency radio
waves can be diffracted
around large obstacles
like hills, so
transmitters do not
necessarily need to be
in sight of the receiver.
• High-frequency radio
waves can be reflected
off the ionosphere, a
charged region of the
atmosphere; this allows
them to be sent around
the Earth.
Microwave Can heat
• Cooking: microwaves
tissues
can be absorbed by
and cause
water molecules in
burns
food, causing the food
to heat up.
• Communications:
mobile phone signals
are transmitted as
microwaves.
Microwaves will also
 pass directly through
the Earth’s atmosphere,
and can be used for
satellite
communication.
Infrared Can cause
• Used in electric heaters,
burns
toasters, grills.
• Also used in fibre-optic
cables; total internal
reflection of IR
radiation along a cable
is used to transmit
messages.
Visible High
• Used to see.
light* intensities
• Used in lasers. of light
can
damage
eyes
Ultraviolet Can cause
• Used in sunbeds.
sunburn
• Objects that fluoresce and skin
(e.g. fluorescent lights, cancer
security markings on
bank notes) absorb UV
light and re-emit it as
visible light.
X-ray Can cause
• Used for medical
cancer. As
imaging, as it passes ionising
through soft tissue, but radiation,
is not transmitted by can also
dense tissues such as cause
bone. radiation
sickness
 • Used to detect metal
objects and welds for
cracks.
Gamma Highest Shortest Can cause
• Sterilisation of medical
cancer. As
equipment.
ionising
• Cancer radiotherapy – radiation,
exposing a tumour to can also
gamma rays from cause
several different angles radiation
helps to kill the cancer sickness.
while limiting damage
to surrounding tissue.
Note that the lowest frequency visible light is red light and the highest frequency visible light is violet light.

5. Radioactivity

5.1 Types of decay

The atoms of some elements have unstable nuclei. This may be because the
nucleus is too large, because the number of protons is very different to the
number of neutrons or because the nucleus has a lot of energy. In order to
become more stable, nuclei will emit radiation.

There are three types of radioactive decay: alpha, beta and gamma. They each
have different characteristics. All three types of decay produce ionising
radiation; i.e. radiation that can free electrons from atoms and produce ions.

Alpha decay
Alpha decay occurs when an alpha particle is ejected from the nucleus. An
alpha particle is made up of two neutrons and two protons. Hence it is
equivalent to a helium nucleus. Alpha particles are highly ionising because of
their relative large size. However, they are also relatively slow-moving and
weakly penetrating: they can be stopped by a few centimetres of air.
When an alpha particle is ejected from the nucleus of an atom, the atom is
transmuted into a different element. This is because it has lost two protons, and
so its atomic number drops by two. In addition, because of the loss of the two
neutrons, its atomic mass drops by four. Here is an example of radon-219
decaying into polonium-215:

219 215 4 2+
Rn → Po + He
86 84 2

Top Tip: Don’t confuse an alpha particle with a helium atom – the latter also
has two electrons.

Beta decay
Beta decay occurs when a beta particle is ejected from the nucleus. A beta
particle is an electron. In the nucleus, a neutron turns into a proton and an
electron (which is ejected). Hence the atom is transmuted to an element with an
atomic number that is greater by one. For this reason we also say that beta
particles have an atomic number of ‘-1’. The mass of the nucleus remains
unchanged as the total number of protons and neutrons will remain the same.
Here is an example of carbon-14 decaying into nitrogen-14:
14 14 0 −
C → N + e
6 7 −1

Top Tip: The electron released during beta decay comes from the nucleus,
not the electron shell. If the electron were to be released from the electron
shell, it would create an ion instead.

It is also possible for the beta particle that is produced to be a positron – the
positively charged antimatter counterpart of an electron. When a positron is lost,
a proton changes into a neutron and atomic number decreases by one. Here is
an example of magnesium-23 decaying into sodium-23:
23 23 +
Mg → Na + e
12 11

Beta particles are moderately ionising, moderately fast-moving and moderately

penetrating; they can be stopped by aluminium foil.

Gamma decay
Gamma decay occurs when gamma radiation is emitted from the nucleus (i.e. a
high-energy photon). The atom does not change in mass or atomic number.

Gamma radiation is relatively weakly ionising, but it is highly penetrating. It can

only be stopped by thick lead.

Top Tip: Examiners may use radioactive decay in order to combine concepts
from physics and chemistry. Remember, if an atom decays and changes
element, its electronic configuration and reactivity will change too.
5.2 Uses and dangers of different
radioactivity
Alpha particles are used in smoke alarms. An alpha source in the alarm emits
particles that ionise air molecules. The ions that are produced carry a current and
complete a circuit within the alarm. Smoke particles prevent the ionisation of air
molecules from occurring – this reduces the current. When this happens, the
alarm sounds.

Because alpha particles are so highly ionising, they are extremely dangerous to
cells and tissues because they can damage DNA. However, because they are so
weakly penetrating they only present a danger when ingested or inhaled.

Beta particles are used to examine the thickness of materials such as paper and
aluminium sheets as they are produced in factories. If the material gets too thick,
fewer particles will penetrate through it. This can be detected using a radiation
detector.

In addition, certain tracers can be made that produce beta particles. In medicine,
a chemical that accumulates in a certain part of the body can be artificially made
to release beta particles. Recording the production of these beta particles using
techniques such as positron emission topography (PET) can allow us to image
the relevant area of the body.

Beta particles are moderately penetrating, and so they represent a danger if they
are inhaled or ingested or if a person is exposed to them directly without a
barrier to protect them.

Gamma radiation is used to sterilise medical equipment and food. It is also

used in cancer radiotherapy, where a tumour is exposed to gamma rays from
several different directions.

As gamma rays are weakly ionising, they do not present a significant danger
when given in very small doses. In radiotherapy, changing the direction from
which the tumour is exposed to gamma rays minimises exposure in surrounding
healthy tissue. However, gamma rays are highly penetrating, and thus present a
danger in high doses (since only a thick lead or concrete barrier will prevent
exposure).

All types of ionising radiation can cause radiation burns, radiation sickness and
cancer.

5.3 Half-life
Radioactive decay is a completely random process – we can have an idea of the
probability that a certain nucleus will decay in a given period, but we cannot
definitely say when it will decay.
The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time taken for 50% of the atoms in
the substance to decay, or the time taken for the count-rate of a substance to
decrease by 50%. The radioactive count can be measured using a Geiger counter
and is measured in Becquerels (Bq), where 1 Bq is one nucleus decay per
second.

The half-life for any given radioactive isotope is constant. It cannot be altered,
for instance, by changing external factors such as temperature and pressure.

Top Tip: Remember that there will always be a base level of radioactive
count rate due to background radiation, caused by cosmic rays, radon gas,
radioactive rocks, etc.

5.4 Nuclear fission

The breaking apart of a nucleus is known as nuclear fission. Nuclear fission
releases a lot of energy that is stored within the nucleus. Currently, nuclear
fission is the basis of providing energy in nuclear power plants.

You need to know specifically about the fission of uranium-235. In the fission
reaction, a nucleus of uranium-235 absorbs a neutron. This produces uranium-
236, which is unstable. The uranium-236 fissures into two smaller nuclei, which
are radioactive, releasing three neutrons in the process. Here is the equation of
the fission of uranium-235 to produce krypton and barium (note that krypton and
barium are not the only possible products; other elements may be produced too):
235 1 90 143 1 1 1
U + n → Kr + Ba + n + n + n
92 0 36 56 0 0 0

The three neutrons may then be absorbed by three other uranium-235 nuclei and
the process continues. This is known as a chain reaction. In power plants, some
of the neutrons are ‘soaked up’ using carbon rods to control the chain reaction.
An uncontrolled chain reaction can lead to a nuclear explosion.

5.5 Nuclear fusion

When two atomic nuclei are fused together, this is nuclear fusion. This is the
source of energy produced by the sun. Fusion requires extremely high
temperatures to occur, as the nuclei need to have enough energy to overcome
their mutual charge repulsion.

In the sun, fusion occurs predominantly between hydrogen nuclei to form

helium. The reaction requires two different isotopes of hydrogen: hydrogen-1
and hydrogen-2 (also known as deuterium).
1 2 3
H + H → He
1 1 2
Maths

1. Number
For the exam, you need to be comfortable performing addition, subtraction,
division and multiplication without a calculator – see the section on how to do
maths without a calculator (p. 108).

1.1 Multiples and factors

A multiple of a number, x, can be divided by x and not leave a remainder.

A factor of a number, x, is one that x will divide by without leaving a remainder.

The highest common factor (HCF) is the highest factor that is shared between
two numbers.

The lowest common multiple (LCM) is the lowest multiple that is shared
between two numbers.

A prime number is a number greater than 1 that only has factors of itself and 1.

Prime factorisation can be used to establish the HCF and LCM of two or more
numbers. The highest common factor will simply be the combination of prime
factors that is shared between all numbers, and the lowest common multiple will
be the prime factors of both numbers multiplied together, but removing any sets
of numbers that are repeated:

1092 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 13

588 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 7

H CF = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 = 84

LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 7 × 13 = 7644
1.2 Index laws

A number to the power of n is that number multiplied by itself n times:

4
2 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16

A number to the power of −n is equal to 1 divided by that number to the power of

n:
−4 1 1 1
2 = 4
= =
2 2 ×2 ×2 ×2 16

A number to the power of 1

n
is equal to the nth root of that number:
1
4
2 4
= √2 = 1.1892 …

Note also the following index laws:

a b a+b
x x = x

a b a−b
x /x = x

a b ab
(x ) = x

1.3 Standard Index Form

Standard Index Form is a way of writing a number in the format A × 10n.

A is always a number between 1 and 10.

n tells us where the decimal point lies – if n is positive, we move the decimal
point n places to the right. If n is negative, we move the decimal point n places to
the left.
6
5.2 × 10 = 5 , 200, 000

−4
3.7 × 10 = 0.00037

To multiply standard form numbers, multiply the A values separately and then
add the n values:
 4 3 7 8
3 × 10 × 4 × 10 = 12 × 10 = 1.2 × 10

To divide standard form numbers divide the A values separately and then subtract
the n values:

5 3 2
(4 × 10 ) ÷ (2 × 10 ) = 2 × 10

1.4 Fraction, decimal and percentage

You need to be comfortable converting between fractions, decimals and
percentages without a calculator. Below is a table of conversions of common
fractions that you may find useful:
Fraction Decimal Per cent
1/2 0.5 50%
1/3 0.333… 33.333…%
2/3 0.666… 66.666…%
3/4 0.75 75%
1/4 0.25 25%
1/5 0.2 20%
2/5 0.4 40%
3/5 0.6 60%
4/5 0.8 80%
1/6 0.1666… 16.666…%
5/6 0.8333… 83.333…%
1/8 0.125 12.5%
3/8 0.375 37.5%
5/8 0.625 62.5%
7/8 0.875 87.5%
1/9 0.111… 11.111…%
2/9 0.222… 22.222…%
4/9 0.444… 44.444…%
5/9 0.555… 55.555…%
7/9 0.777… 77.777…%
8/9 0.888… 88.888…%
1/10 0.1 10%
1/12 0.08333… 8.333…%
1/16 0.0625 6.25%
1/32 0.03125 3.125%

Top Tip: 1/7 and its multiples demonstrate an interesting characteristic: when
expressed as decimals or percentages, the repeated sequence of numbers
‘142857’ will always appear.
1/7 = 0.1428571428…
2/7 = 0.2857142857…
3/7 = 0.4285714285…

1.5 Percentages and percentage change

To work out X% of a number, divide X by 100 and then multiply it by that
number.

5 0 % of 7 6 = (5 0 ÷ 10 0 ) × 7 6 = 0 . 5 × 7 6 = 3 8

When a number is increased by X%, multiply that number by 1 + (X ÷ 100).

I ncrease 7 6 by 5 0 % = (1 + 0.5) × 7 6 = 1. 5 × 7 6 = 114

When a number is decreased by X%, multiply that number by 1 – (X ÷ 100).

Decrease 7 6 by 25 % = (1 − 0 . 25 ) × 7 6 = 0.75 × 7 6 = 5 7

1.6 Ratios
A ratio is simply another way of writing a fraction. Like fractions, they can be
simplified:

12 : 15 = 3 : 5

If, in a class, the ratio of boys to girls is 12:15, boys make up 12/27 of the class
and girls make up 15/27 – the denominator of the fraction can be found by the
total of the numbers in the ratio.

1.7 Proportion
When two numbers are directly proportional, if one number increases the other
number increases by the same factor. If two numbers a and b are directly
proportional:

a ∝ b

a = kb, where k is a constant

Knowing a given value of a and b allows you to work out k, which means that
you can then work out all values of b for any value of a and vice versa.

When two numbers are inversely proportional, if one number increases the
other number decreases by the same factor. If two numbers a and b are inversely
proportional:

a ∝ 1/b

a = k/b

Again, k is a constant that can be worked out to establish all values of a and b.

1.8 Surds
A surd is a square root that cannot be converted to a rational number. There are
some rules that can be used to simplify surds:
 √a × √b = √ab

√a × √a = a

√a a
= √
√b b

You may be asked to rationalise the denominator of a fraction containing a surd.

To do this, multiply that fraction by the surd divided by itself (= 1).

x x √a x√a
= × =
a
√a √a √a

1.9 Approximations
When a number is rounded to a certain number of significant figures, you
include the stated number of digits starting from the first non-zero digit.

0 . 0 3 20 12 to 4 s. f . is 0 . 0 3 20 1

When a number is rounded to a certain number of decimal places, you include

the stated number of digits starting from the digit after the decimal point.

0 . 0 3 20 12 to 4 d. p. is 0 . 0 3 20

When rounding, if the proceeding digit is less than 5, you round down. If the
proceeding digit is 5 or greater you round up.

If we are told a value that has been rounded, the upper bound or maximum of
that value is the limit at which we would round up.

So if I have a plank of wood that is 14 cm long to 2 s.f., its upper bound must be
14.5 cm. At that value and above I would round up to 15 cm.

Similarly, the lower bound or minimum of that value is the limit at which we
would round down.

So the lower bound of the plank’s length is 13.5 cm. Below this value we would
round down to a length of 13 cm.
2. Algebra

2.1 Algebraic operations

You need to be comfortable with the following concepts:
• Multiplying out of a bracket:

a(b + c) = ab + ac

• Expanding the product of two linear expressions:

(a + b)(c + d) = ac + ad + bc + bd

• Factorising:

ab + ac = a(b + c)

You need to be able to simplify rational expressions by cancelling.

To do this, you have to be able to recognise common factors that are present in
both the numerator and the denominator of a fraction. This may only become
possible when certain expressions are factorised.
2 a(a+b)
a +ab a+b
= =
ab ab b

2.2 Simultaneous equations

To solve simultaneous equations in two unknowns, you should have enough
information to describe one of the unknowns in terms of the other. From here,
you can solve a simple linear equation:
 2a + b = 3

3 a + 2b = 5

b = 3 − 2a

3 a + 2(3 − 2a) = 3 a + 6 − 4a = 6 − a = 5

a = 1

b = 1

2.3 Quadratic equations

You need to be able to solve quadratic equations. In order to do this, the
expression needs to first be factorised.

A quadratic equation will be in the form ax2 + bx + c = 0

The factorised equation will be in the form (mx + n)(px + q) = 0

You need to find values for m, n, p and q that satisfy these criteria:

mp = a

nq = c

np + mq = b

Hence the equation 2x2 + 8x + 6 = 0 factorises to (2x + 2)(x + 3) = 0

Then solve each factor as an independent equation:

x + 3 = 0

x = −3

2x + 2 = 0

2x = −2

x = −1

x = −1 and − 3
 Top Tip: Remember two quick methods for helping to solve quadratic
equations:

• Completing the square:

x2 + 10x + 21 = (x + 5)2 – 4; note: this is a useful method for solving

expressions that do not factorise easily.
• Finding the difference of two squares:

x2 – 25 = (x + 5) (x – 5); 25 can be replaced with any square number.

2.4 Inequalities
For the BMAT, you only need to learn how to solve linear inequalities.

Usually, solving inequalities can be carried out in much the same way that you
would solve a simple, linear algebraic equation:

3x + 3 > 5

3x > 2

x > 2/3

However, remember that if you’re dividing or multiplying by a negative number

on both sides of the equation, the direction of the inequality switches:

−3 x + 3 > 5

−3 x > 2

x < −2/3

2.5 Sequences
To solve arithmetic sequences:
• Identify the difference between the terms in the sequence.
• Identify the number of the term in the sequence. For instance, if you had the
third term in the sequence, you would have term number 3.
 • Find the difference between the term number and the term itself.

So if our sequence was 2, 5, 8, 11…

The difference between the terms is 3.

Term number 1 is ‘2’. The difference between 1 and 2 is 1 − 2 = −1

So our expression for the nth term is 3n – 1

You may have to express a quadratic sequence. This occurs when the
differences between terms are different, but there is a constant difference
between differences. For example:

1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31

The differences are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10.

The differences between the differences is always 2.

For these sequences, the expression describing the nth term always contains n2.

If the difference between the differences is x, then the n2 part of the expression is
given by x/2(n2).

Hence, if the difference of the differences is 2, then the expression uses n2.

If the difference of the differences is 3, the expression uses 1.5n2.

If the difference of the differences is 4, the expression uses 2n2.

If it is 6, we use 3n2, and so on.

For the above sequence, where the difference between the differences is 2, the n2
part of the expression is just n2.
In the next step, subtract the n2 parts from the corresponding terms in the
sequence; this should leave a simple arithmetic sequence.

Hence:

Sequence: 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, 31

n2 part: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36

Difference: 0, −1, −2, −3, −4, −5

Then work out the expression of the arithmetic sequence that is produced.

Here it is: − n + 1.

Then combine this arithmetic sequence expression with your n2 term to get the
expression for your quadratic sequence.

Hence, our quadratic sequence expression in this case is n2 – n + 1.

2.6 Graphs
You should recognise that straight line graphs are usually written in the form y =
mx + c where m is the gradient of the line and c is the y-intercept.
You need to be able to graphically solve linear equations where one equation is
quadratic and one is linear. To do this, simply read off where the lines intercept.

You should be able to recognise the following graphs in all 4 Cartesian

quadrants:

Quadratic functions – e.g. y = x2

Cubic functions – e.g. y = x3

Reciprocal functions – e.g. y = 1/x

y = sin x
y = cos x

y = tan x

Exponential functions – e.g. y = 2x

You also need to be able to recognise the following transformations of functions:

Let y = f(x) be a function of a graph –

y = af(x) is a stretch by a factor of a along the y-axis.

y = f(ax) is a stretch by a factor of 1
a
along the x-axis.

y = f(x) + a is a translation of the line a units along the y-axis (in a positive
direction).

y = f(x + a) is a translation of the line a units along the x-axis (in a negative
direction).
y = −f(x) is a reflection of the line in the x-axis.
y = f(–x) is a reflection of the line in the y-axis.

3 Geometry

3.1 Angles
Angles at a point add up to 360°.
Angles on a straight line add up to 180°.

Opposite angles at a vertex are always equal.

Parallel lines:
• Opposite angles are equal, a = c.
• Corresponding angles are equal, a = b.
• Alternate angles are equal, b = c.
• Co-interior angles add up to 180°, c + d = 180°.

Interior angles in a triangle add up to 180º.

Interior angles in a quadrilateral add up to 360º.

The exterior angles of any polygon always add up to 360°. Therefore, for any
regular polygon of n sides, each exterior angle is equal to 360°/n.

The interior angles of a regular polygon of n sides will each be equal to (n – 2) ×

180°.

3.2 Congruence and similarity

Shapes are congruent if their sides are all the same length and they have the
same corresponding angles.

Shapes are similar if one shape is congruent to an enlargement of the other.

Note that for similar shapes, if the length of a side of one shape is x times greater
than the corresponding length on the other shape, the area will be x2 times
greater and the volume will be x3 times greater.

For instance, say there are two similar cubes, A and B. Cube A has a side that is
twice as large as the side of Cube B. This means that the area of a face of Cube A
is four times greater than the area of a face of Cube B. The volume of Cube A is
eight times larger than that of Cube B.

3.3 Triangles
You need to be familiar with Pythagoras’ Theorem:

For a right-angled triangle with sides of length a, b and c, and where the side of
length c is the hypotenuse:
In a right-angled triangle with angle θ, the following relationships are true:
opposite
= sin θ
hypotenuse

adjacent
= cos θ
hypotenuse

opposite sin θ
= = tan θ
adjacent cos θ

For the BMAT, you just need to be aware of these relationships. You will not be
expected to recall trigonometric values!

Top Tip: Often BMAT geometry questions will ask you to solve angles in 3D
shapes; in addition, you probably won’t have the angle ‘drawn on’ the
diagram you’re given. Instead, you will have to identify it yourself. For
instance, you might be asked to ‘find the sine of the angle ED makes with the
horizontal plane’ in the diagram below:

Don’t be panicked by the wording! Simply identify the line ED and the
smallest angle it could possibly make with a horizontal surface. Then work
out sine (opposite divided by adjacent).
With questions asking you to solve the angle in a 3D shape, it’s always best to
work out the answer by splitting the shape up into several 2D shapes. Hence,
for the question above, we first need to work out length AD using Pythagoras’
Theorem:
 Then, to find the answer we need to find the sine of angle ADE. This is 4/√2,
or 2√2:

3.4 Circle theorems

Learn the following circle theorems:
4. Measures

4.1 Areas and perimeters

2D shapes
Shape Area Perimeter
Square A2 – where A is length of one side 4A
Rectangle A × B – where A and B are lengths 2A + 2B
of perpendicular sides
Triangle ½ × base × height A + B + C – where A, B
and C are lengths of sides
Parallelogram base × height 2A + 2B – where A and B
are non-parallel sides
Trapezium ((A + B)/2) × height – where A and A + B + C + D – total of
B are lengths of parallel sides all four sides

The circumference of a circle is given by 2πr, where r is the radius.

The area of a circle is πr2.

The length of an arc is given by 2πr 360

x
, where x is the angle at the centre of the
arc.

Similarly, the area of a segment is given by πr .

2 x

360

3D shapes
Shape Surface area

Volume
Cube/cuboid Total area of all faces width × base × height
Prism Total area of both end faces and of Surface area of one end
faces running along length of prism face multiplied by length
Pyramid Total surface area of all faces (base length × base width
× height) ÷ 3
Cylinder 2πr2 + (2πr × length) πr2 × length
Cone πr(r + √(height 2 + r2)) πr2 × (height ÷ 3)
Sphere 4πr2 (4πr3) ÷ 3

Note that the formulae for a cone and sphere will be provided to you in the exam.

4.2 Vectors
Vectors provide us with information on the magnitude and direction of a
−
−→
movement from one point to another. Vectors may be symbolised as XY – this
represents the vector going from a point, X, to another point, Y.

x
Vectors can be presented in this format ( ) where x represents the distance
y

travelled in a horizontal direction and y represents the distance travelled in a

vertical direction.

A minus sign indicates that movement occurs in the opposite direction, so if

x −x
( ) was designated as x units to the right, y units upwards, ( ) would be x
y −y

units to the left and y units downwards.

Vectors can be added together to give a resultant vector. Hence we could say that
moving 3 units left and 4 units up, followed by 5 units right and 2 units down is
equivalent to originally moving 2 units up and right because
−3 5 2
( ) + ( ) = ( )
4 −2 2

If we move against a vector, we can indicate this by multiplying both numbers in

2 −2
the vector by −1. So going 2 units down and left is − ( ) = ( )
2 −2

4.3 Bearings
Three-figure bearings are used to describe a direction of travel in terms of the
degrees of rotation clockwise from north.
Hence, having a bearing of 000 is the same as facing north; a bearing of 090 is
the same as facing east; a bearing of 180 is the same as facing south; and a
bearing of 270 is the same as facing west.

Top Tip: Bearings can be used to construct geometric diagrams and solve
problems. They should be treated like any other angle. Since they are always
taken from the north, your knowledge of angles in parallel lines is particularly
relevant.

In the figure above, suppose we are told that the bearing A is 100 and bearing D
is 230. If we were asked to find out C, we know that A + B = 180° (because co-
interior angles add up to 180°) so B = 80°. Therefore B + D = 80 + 230 = 310°.
So C must equal 50°.

5. Statistics

5.1 Presenting data

Bar charts
Used predominantly for presenting data that can be arranged into groups or
categories. The length of the bar is proportional to the data represented.

Pie charts

Used to display proportions of a whole. The size of a segment is related to the

size of the proportion it represents.
Line graphs

Used to observe general trends by joining up data points. Allows us to see how
one variable is affected by another.

Top Tip: As with every graph in the BMAT paper, whether it is in a physics,
maths, chemistry or biology question, pay very close attention to the axes.
Make a note of the labels (variables) on each axis. Sometimes examiners will
give you a graph with a shape that you are familiar with (for instance, the rate
of reaction line) but with differently labelled axes (they may put ‘rate of
reaction’ on the y-axis as opposed to ‘amount of product’). Make a careful
note, too, of where points on the graph lie on the axes. Always check to see
whether a point lies exactly in line with a labelled value on the axis, or
whether it is in line with an unlabelled value just next to it.

Cumulative frequency graph

This graph shows the running frequencies of grouped data. Note that the x-
coordinates of each point on the graph are placed at the upper bound of the
group they represent. So if I was recording the frequency of people in different
age groups, and one of my groups was for people between 10 and 20 years old,
on the cumulative frequency graph I would mark the frequency of that age group
by placing a point at ‘20 years old’.

It is easy to read the median, lower quartile and upper quartile values by using
the cumulative frequency on the y-axis.
Box plots

Box plots are also used to display certain statistics. The ‘whiskers’ of the box
plot show the smallest and largest data points. The ‘sides’ of the box show the
upper and lower quartiles, and the central line in the box shows the median value.

Histograms

Histograms are used to represent the frequency of grouped data. They are
particularly useful at showing the frequency of grouped data with groups of
uneven width. Frequency density is the variable on the y-axis. The area of a bar
on a histogram represents the frequency of data in that group.
Scatter diagrams

These are used to display relationships between two variables. Data points are
placed at coordinates that correspond to the values on the y- and x-axes. The
shape formed by the points on the graph provides information about the type of
relationship between the variables (if any). A line of best fit may be used to
display a trend.

5.2 Averages

Mean
The values are summed and then divided by the number of individual values.
Incorporates all the data but may be skewed by outliers.

3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2

Total – 27

Mean – 27 ÷ 9 = 3

Median
The values are placed in ascending order and the ‘middle value’ is selected. If
there are two middle values (i.e. in even datasets) the midpoint of these values is
taken. The median is not skewed by outliers, but is time-consuming to calculate.

3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2

Ordered – 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6

Middle value – 3

Lower quartile
The value that is one-quarter of the way through the dataset when the data is
arranged in ascending order. If you divide the dataset into halves after working
out the median, without including the median in the remaining numbers, the
lower quartile is the median of the lower half of the dataset.

3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2

Ordered – 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6

Middle value – 3

Lower half – 1, 1, 2, 2

Middle value of lower half – 1.5

Upper quartile
The value that is three-quarters of the way through the dataset when the data is
arranged in ascending order. Similar to above, but the upper quartile is the
median of the upper half of the dataset.

3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2

Ordered – 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6

Middle value – 3
Upper half – 3, 4, 5, 6

Middle value of upper half – 4.5

Range and interquartile range

The differences between the lowest and highest values and the difference
between the upper and lower quartiles respectively.

3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2

Difference between highest and lowest values – 6 – 1 = 5

Difference between the upper and lower quartiles – 4.5 – 1.5 = 3

Mode
The most common value in the dataset. If several values are equally common
with the highest frequency, they are all modal values. The mode is not skewed by
outliers, but it is not very representative of the dataset in its entirety.

3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2

Numbers appearing most frequently – 1, 2 and 3; all three are modes.

6. Probability

6.1 Probabilities of Single Events

The probability that a certain outcome, A, will happen is given by:

total number of ways A could occur

P (A) =
total number of possible outcomes

This can be established experimentally by looking at the number of times A

occurs in a set number of trials.
If an outcome is certain to happen, it has a probability of 1 (i.e. A is the only
possible outcome).

If an outcome is impossible or certain not to happen, it has a probability of 0 (i.e.

A is not a possible outcome).
Mutually exclusive outcomes of an event are ones which cannot occur together.
If there are only two outcomes to an event, A and B, and they are mutually
exclusive, the probability that either one will occur is:

P (A or B) = P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) = 1

That is, the probabilities of all the mutually exclusive outcomes of an event sum
to 1.

The probability of an outcome, A, not happening is equal to

′
P (not A) = P (A) = 1 − P (A)

6.2 Probabilities and Venn diagrams

Sometimes it is helpful to display probabilities using Venn diagrams.

Let us imagine we have two outcomes, A and B. These can be represented on a

Venn diagram like so:

The probability that all these outcomes will occur, i.e. that A and B will occur, is
equal to the intersection on the Venn diagram. Using Venn diagram notation we
write:
 P (A and B) = P (A ∩ B)

The probability that any or at least one of the events will occur is equal to the
union of all sets on the Venn diagram:

P (A or B) = P (A ∪ B)

The probability that none of the events will occur is equal to region outside the
sets:
′
P (not A or B) = P (A ∪ B)
The probability of just one event occurring is equal to the set that represents that
event minus the intersection with other events:

P (just A) = P (A) − P (A ∩ B)

When outcomes are not conditional on each other, then the following are true:

P (A ∩ B) = P (A) × P (B)

P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B)

6.3 Conditional probabilities

Conditional probabilities of outcomes occur when one outcome is dependent
on another outcome. A typical GCSE and BMAT example is picking coloured
balls out of a bag in sequence without replacing them. Because the balls aren’t
replaced, the total number of outcomes possible changes each time you pick a
ball, so the probability of picking any one colour keeps on changing.

When tackling these types of question, it is usually helpful to draw a tree

diagram. In the tree diagram, we write the probability of a certain outcome at
each branch point. To work out the probabilities of multiple outcomes we
multiply moving along a branch and we add parallel branches.
Note that parallel branches represent mutually exclusive events.

As an example, if I had a bag with three red and two green balls inside, and I had
to pick three balls from the bag without replacing them, I could draw this tree
diagram:
To find out the probability of picking a red ball, then a green ball, then another
red ball, I just have to read along the relevant branches, multiplying as I go:
3 2 2 12 1
P (redthengreenthenred) = × × = =
5 4 3 60 5

The probability of picking a red, then green, then red or green, then red, then
green is:

1 1 2 3 1 1 6 3
+ P (greenthenredthengreen) = + ( × × ) = + =
5 5 5 4 3 5 60 10

The probability of an outcome, A, occurring given that another outcome, B, has

already occurred can be worked out with the following equation:
P(B∩A)
∣
P (A B) =
∣ P(B)

So the probability that a red ball is picked on the third go given that a red ball
was picked on the second go is equal to the probability that a red ball is picked
on the third go and a red ball was picked on the second go divided by all the
probabilities that red was picked on the second go.
 2 3 2 3 2 1 3
P (redpickedonthirdgoandsecondgo) = ( × × ) + ( × × ) =
5 4 3 5 4 3 10

2 3 3 2 3
P (redpickedonsecondgo) = ( × ) + ( × ) =
5 4 5 4 5

3 3 1
P (redpickedonthirdgivenpickedonsecond) = ÷ =
10 5 2

Top Tip: Remember that P(B ∩ A) does not equal P(A) × P(B) when A is
conditional on B, or vice versa.

There is a full mock BMAT exam with science questions, including model
answers, at the end of the book.
SECTION 3 Essay

Overview

In Section 3 of the BMAT, you are required to write a short essay.

This is a test of your ability to understand a statement and to present
coherent, well-thought-out arguments. You are expected to do this in a
clear and concise way, before reaching a balanced conclusion.

In this chapter, we are going to suggest a formulaic approach to

Section 3, ensuring that you hit the right length and timing while
picking up high scores – each and every time.

Format of the section

BMAT Section 3 will see you presented with four statements. These
are usually quotations, or opinions expressed as if they were facts.
Beneath each statement will be instructions, which usually ask you to
explain the statement, formulate an objective argument and express
your opinion.

You are expected to write one essay, addressing one particular

statement/quotation. Your essay must fit on one side of A4 paper,
which will be provided. You are allowed to make notes on a separate
sheet of paper.

This section of the BMAT examination is time pressured – but not

intensely so. Writing one side of A4 is easy to do in 10 minutes or
less. The challenge, therefore, comes in planning your arguments and
counter-arguments in such a way that they can be efficiently translated
into a fluent and articulate essay.

What is Section 3 testing?

According to the BMAT guidelines, ‘this section tests ability to select,
develop and organise ideas and communicate them in writing in a
concise and effective way’.

Note that the words used here are all precise, analytical ones. There is
no mention of creativity, flair or innovation – or any of those artistic
adjectives that strike fear into the scientific minds of many prospective
medics.

Don’t confuse writing an essay with ‘being creative’. Within your one
side of A4, you want to appear logical, concise, reasoned and
systematic. Basically, like a scientist.

Trying to be too creative isn’t only a misunderstanding of the task. It

is also an unnecessary risk. Creativity comes and goes, and depends
upon inspiration. Analytical, systematic approaches can be reproduced
with far less variance.

Our aim in this chapter is to equip you with a replicable methodology

to ensure success in Section 3.

Top Tip: Don’t try to be overly creative. Your approach should be

more Charles Darwin and less Charles Dickens!

How is Section 3 marked?

Your essay will be marked on two things:
1. the quality of your content, and
2. the quality of your English.

Content is given a score between 1 and 5.

5 is the best mark; 1 is the lowest. When awarding a mark for content,
examiners will be looking at the following:
• Has the candidate addressed the question in the way demanded?
• Have they organised their thoughts clearly?
• Have they used their general knowledge appropriately?

As with the summary of what the section is testing, take note of the
types of words used here. The emphasis is always on relevance, clarity
and organisation.

Many students worry about how they will be able to write a good
essay if they don’t know a lot about the subjects raised within the
statements.

Don’t worry!

Nowhere in the mark scheme does it say that you will be marked for
your knowledge. It is a test of how you use what you know – not what
you know per se. That said, it is fair to assume that having some
knowledge of the topic will help you formulate strong arguments and
showcase your technique.

An answer that scores an amazing 5 for quality of content should

exhibit the following traits:
• All aspects of the question are addressed
• Excellent use of the material
• Excellent counter-proposition or argument
• The argument is cogent
• Clear and logical
• Breadth of relevant points
• Compelling conclusion
When practising writing essays, go through your responses with this
list next to you and tick off the ones yours possesses.

Top Tip: Make sure you address all of the criteria from the mark
scheme to score highly for content.

Quality of English is scored from A to E.

A is the best mark; E is the worst. Ultimately, the examiner is

assessing whether you have expressed yourself clearly using concise,
compelling and correct English.

An answer which scores an A for this should tick the following boxes:
• Fluent
• Good sentence structure
• Good use of vocabulary
• Sound use of grammar
• Good spelling and punctuation
• Few slips or errors

Your overall score will be a combination of a number (awarded for

content) and a letter (awarded for quality of English). Your aim is to
get an A5. Your paper will be marked by two examiners and your final
score will be the average of the two. If there is a significant
discrepancy between the scores given, then a third examiner will break
the deadlock.
From this graph, you can see that most students score highly on their
quality of English. Those who sometimes struggle are international
applicants. If English is your second language, make sure you keep
things simple and stick to vocabulary which you understand. It’s also
important that you practise writing in English and get your work
checked by a native speaker.

This next graph shows typical scores for quality of content. You’ll
notice that these represent more of a bell-shaped curve. That means
most students score in the mid-range, with few hitting top marks. The
good news? This is where you can really stand out!
 Question structure
The question structure in BMAT Section 3 is pretty uniform. You have
to answer only one question out of four. Each question consists of a
statement or quotation, followed by a series of prompts. These
prompts will usually equate to:
1. Explaining the statement
2. Providing objective arguments
3. Reaching a balanced conclusion

In recent years, by far the most common question structure has been:

Statement or Quotation
Explain the statement. Argue to the contrary of argue for the
statement. To what extent do you agree with the statement what
is your opinion on the subject of the statement or quotation?

Note that this is based on analysis of the last few years of BMAT. It is
not a cast-iron guarantee.

Top Tip: Prepare for the most common task structure but be ready to
adapt to variations.

Your essay structure

Given the above, you can plan your essay quite precisely. That includes
exactly how much you are going to write for each different section. This is
important because you have a limited space on your one side of A4 – and
you need to maximise it to fulfil all the criteria within the mark scheme.

So, we suggest adhering to the following guidelines:

Section Sentences Words

Explanation 1–2 20–40
Objective argument 5–8 130–180
Extent of agreement 5–8 130–180

Total: 11–18 280–400

Think about it for a minute. 11–18 sentences are not much at all. This is a
double-edged sword, however. While it means you don’t have to produce
huge reams of fluent text in just half an hour, it also makes every single
sentence crucial. You can’t waste words!

So, you should start by being aware of sentence structure.

Sentence structure
Our advice on this is straightforward: keep it simple! Writing short, punchy
sentences will ensure that you maximise clarity and impact. The last thing
you want to do is start writing a long, meandering sentence which confuses
the reader (and quite possibly yourself).

Here are two indicators that might suggest your sentences are getting too
long:
1. They contain lots of fancy grammar or punctuation like semicolons.
Elaborate use of grammar is probably unnecessary and could confuse
the examiner – as well as yourself! Short, snappy sentences are
preferable to long, meandering ones full of semicolons, which are
often not needed and frequently misused.
2. They contain numerous conjunctions, like ‘and’ and ‘but’ in a single
sentence. Consider the following two examples:
a. It is important to practise BMAT Section 3 because it is one of the
most challenging sections of the exam and offers a chance for
 candidates to stand out but it is also important to practise other
sections of the exam and overall exam technique.
b. It is important to practise BMAT Section 3 because it is one of the
most challenging sections of the exam. It therefore offers a chance
for candidates to stand out. However, it is also important to
practise other sections of the exam, in addition to overall exam
technique.

Which do you think is better?

We believe that option ‘b’ provides more clarity and a more discernible line
of logical thought. You can see that the simple act of breaking things up into
shorter sentences instantly adds cohesion. It is also easier and quicker to
write like this!

Top Tip: As you write each sentence, sound it out in your head. This
will help you keep things clear and improve the fluency of your writing.

The statement/quotation
What kind of statement can you expect? Well, it will be no more than two
or three sentences (it is often just one). It is often science-or medicine-
related, though not 100% of the time. However, it won’t be highly technical.
That is, the statement won’t relate to drug calculations or how to perform
surgery!

Generally speaking, there are two types of statement:

1. An opinion stated as fact

In a world where we struggle to feed an ever-expanding human

population, owning pets cannot be justified. (2013)
2. A quotation
 ‘The art of medicine consists of amusing the patient while nature cures
the disease.’ Voltaire. (2011)

When deciding which one to tackle, make sure you select one which you
understand perfectly. If you find any of the vocabulary or the syntax
confusing, steer clear. Ideally, there might be one or two which you not only
understand, but are actually interested in. This will help you formulate
arguments for and against.

If you see something that you feel very strongly about, that might be helpful
as you will have plenty to say. However, it is essential you still present a
balanced essay which appreciates both sides of the argument and isn’t
aggressively partisan.

Explaining the statement/quotation

The first part of the task will almost always ask you to explain what the
statement/quotation means. This can be phrased in slightly different ways.
Over the last few years, we have seen all of the following:
• ‘Explain what this statement means.’
• ‘Explain what you think the above means.’
• ‘What does the above imply?’
• ‘What do you understand by the above?’
• ‘Explain the argument behind the above.’

Ultimately, they are all asking the same thing: explain the statement!

Though this will only end up taking a couple of sentences, it is absolutely

critical. The rest of the essay rests upon the foundation of your explanation.
Any misunderstandings in your explanation are likely to be transmitted –
and magnified – throughout your entire essay.

So, how do you go about explaining the statement? Well, we advocate three
simple steps:
 1. Identify the key terms. Key terms are the ones that stand out and
really form the bones of the statement.
2. Define these key terms. In your notes, write what is meant by the key
terms, without using the term itself. This doesn’t need to be a
dictionary definition, but should be as clear and objective as possible.
3. Apply context and combine. Fuse together these definitions so that
they dovetail with one another and provide a cohesive overall
meaning in one or two sentences.

Now let’s explore three steps through a worked example, using the
following quotation:

‘A scientific man ought to have no wishes, no affections – a mere heart

of stone.’ Charles Darwin

Explain what this statement means.

Step one – identify the key terms

Which are the key terms that give the statement its meaning? In other
words, which terms do you need to ‘translate’ to explain to someone, in a
different (preferably simpler) way, exactly what Darwin is getting at? We
would choose the following:
1. ‘Scientific man’
2. ‘Ought’
3. ‘Wishes/affections’
4. ‘Heart of stone’

Step two – define these key terms

Now that we have identified the key terms, we need to arrive at the best way
of conveying their meaning. As mentioned above, this does not necessarily
mean a dictionary definition. The idea should be to make it easily
comprehensible, while accounting for the context. Do not try to impress by
using overcomplicated language. Clarity is always the goal.

So:
1. ‘Scientific man’
– Person seriously involved in scientific pursuits
2. ‘Ought’
– Should/ideally
3. ‘Wishes/affections’
– Emotional traits
4. ‘Heart of stone’
– Metaphor for emotional detachment

Step three – apply context and combine

By fusing together the definitions above, we might arrive at the following
explanation, which is clear, concise and effective:

‘Charles Darwin is suggesting that a person who is seriously practising

science would, in an ideal world, be completely free from emotion.’
(21 words)

Please note that there have recently been some examples of BMAT essays
that have asked you to ‘explain the reasoning’ behind the statement. In this
case, you will need to adjust your approach slightly.

Our recommendation is to stick to the same three-step plan above, but to

then add a layer of interpretation, in order to ensure that you are seen to be
addressing the task precisely.

This additional content should go one step further, suggesting the rationale
behind the statement. In the example above, for instance, we might add:
 ‘The reasoning behind this statement might well be that, since science
is by definition objective and precise, the fickle nature of human
emotion is an obstacle to the discovery of scientific truth.’

Note two things here:

Firstly, we have specifically used the phrase ‘the reasoning behind this
statement’ in order to flag to the examiner that we are addressing the task at
hand.

Secondly, the use of the expression ‘might well’. This is chosen because it
is hard to know exactly what Darwin’s reasoning was, without being able to
ask him (a circumstance we consider unlikely!).

Top Tip: Make sure you nail your explanation. Building an essay on top
of a faulty explanation is like building a castle on sand!

Argue objectively
The second part of the task in Section 3 will almost always demand an
objective argument. That can mean one of three things:
• Argue against (‘to the contrary of’) the statement
• Argue for the statement
• Argue both for and against the statement

The overwhelming favourite over the last few years has been ‘argue to the
contrary’ of the statement.

When arguing ‘to the contrary of the statement’, you should try to come up
with two or three arguments, each demonstrated by a clear example. We
recommend noting these down as bullet points in your notes.
What they are looking for here is a breadth of arguments, clearly and
logically articulated and supported with strong examples. Too many times,
we see candidates approach the argument from only one angle, or use
multiple examples to demonstrate a single point. Both of which will result
in a failure to register top marks.

Again, let’s consider ‘argue to the contrary’ with the aid of a worked
example:

‘The art of medicine consists of amusing the patient while nature cures
the disease.’ Voltaire

Argue to the contrary that medicine does in fact do more than amuse
the patient.

Let’s assume that we have already explained the statement as follows:

‘Voltaire implies that the key skills involved in medicine are those that
simply reassure or distract the patient, while their ailment corrects itself
naturally over time.’

We have therefore equated ‘amusing’, in this context, with reassuring and

distracting the patient. It is worth noting that we have not used the modern
definition, which equates to making someone laugh. Remember: context is
crucial and dictionary definitions are often misleading in this task.

So, three examples of situations where medicine does, on the contrary, do

more than amuse the patient might be as follows:
• Emergency surgery – e.g. stent in coronary artery
• Faster healing – e.g. orthopaedic gamma nail
• Prescribing medication – e.g. HIV

This is how it would look in our notes section, with a prompt followed by
an example. Then, when written onto the paper, it would read something
like this:
 Contrary to Voltaire’s statement, there are many instances in which
medicine does more than amuse the patient. This is often true of
medical procedures that have been scientifically proven to physically
improve patients’ well-being faster, or more dramatically, than nature.

This is certainly the case in emergency procedures, such as the

insertion of a stent into one of the coronary arteries of the heart in
order to relieve an acute blockage to blood flow. It is also true of
procedures which speed up healing, like the insertion of an orthopaedic
gamma nail, which can realign a fracture of the lower limb with much
faster and more consistent results than could realistically be expected
to occur naturally.

Furthermore, a doctor is able to prescribe medications and treatments

that can cure or contain illnesses that might progress if left to nature.
One example is HIV, which requires prescribed medication to prevent
it developing into AIDS.

(139 words)

It is important that you remember that at this stage of the task you need to
argue objectively. Your personal opinion is not relevant – yet! That comes
into play later, when you are (usually) asked to what extent you agree with
the statement or quotation.

You should try to tailor your language accordingly. Words that lend
themselves nicely to objective arguments are ones like:
• Therefore
• However
• In light of
• Consequently
• For example
• For instance
Phrases like ‘I think’ and ‘in my opinion’ are therefore not appropriate at
this stage of your essay.

There is one other thing we would like to stress here. We have focused on
‘arguing to the contrary’ because that has been the most common request in
the second part of Section 3 in recent years.

However, you may well get asked to ‘argue for’ a statement. In this case,
it’s not too difficult to adapt. Simply apply the above methodology, but note
arguments ‘for’ rather than arguments ‘against’.

As you are about to find out, you will ultimately need to argue both ways,
anyway. Because when expressing the extent to which agree, you logically
will have to balance any arguments against with arguments for, or vice
versa!

To what extent do you agree?

The final part of the task usually prompts you to express an opinion. This is
generally done by asking you the extent to which you agree with the
statement/quotation, or by asking: ‘to what extent do you agree that…’
followed by a paraphrasing of the statement/quotation.

Let’s remember that you will almost certainly have just put forward some
objective arguments ‘for’ or ‘against’ (most likely ‘against’) the
statement/quotation. Therefore, in order to conclude the extent to which you
agree, it is a good idea to begin by counterbalancing those arguments.

In other words, if you just argued to the contrary, you will want to put
forward some points in favour of the statement/quotation. Or, if you just
argued in favour, you will want to make a case for the contrary standpoint.

Once you have done this, you will be well positioned to make a well-
balanced conclusion. This should appreciate that there are merits to both
sides.
You are dealing with statements and quotations that are contentious and
complex. That is the nature of the task: to see how you grapple with them.
In such cases, it won’t simply be a case of falling one way or the other. The
clue is in the question: ‘to what extent…’ You are expected to see shades of
grey, not simply black and white.

Top Tip: As a doctor, you will encounter patients from many different
cultures, with many different perspectives. So being able to appreciate a
variety of viewpoints is essential.

So, how do you begin the counterbalancing process? The first step will be to
come up with some counter-arguments in your notes.

Let’s continue with the Voltaire example. You will recall that the quotation
was:

‘The art of medicine consists of amusing the patient while nature cures
the disease.’ Voltaire

And the final part of the task asks:

To what extent do you think Voltaire is correct?

Given that we already provided arguments to the contrary, we should now

think of two or three arguments in favour. These might be jotted into our
‘notes’ section as follows:
• ‘Amusing’ in this context can equate to ‘listening to’, or ‘sympathising
with’, a patient
• There is an art to this
• Nature can cure many ailments (e.g. common cold)

And, after weighing these against our previous arguments to the contrary,
we might reach a conclusion that, in note form, looks like this:
 • In some conditions, the emphasis is on ‘amusing’ the patient while
nature takes its course.
• In others, it is important to take actions proven to have a physical effect.

When writing up the counterbalancing arguments and the conclusion, we

therefore end up with this:

Nonetheless, Voltaire’s standpoint is not without merit. In this context,

‘amusing’ the patient can be taken to mean ‘offering sympathy’ or
‘reassuring’ them.

There is clearly an art to this and it is extremely valuable in medicine.

For example, in the case of the common cold, there is little a doctor
can do to help medically. But the doctor can reassure the patient that
there is nothing seriously wrong, and that they will be well again soon.

Overall, there are some times when the best thing a doctor can do is to
‘amuse’, or ‘reassure’, a patient while nature takes its course. At other
times, though, medical procedures or prescriptions must be
administered to prevent an illness progressing.

Perhaps we can conclude that the best doctors are those who combine
the ‘art’ of sympathy and reassurance with the ‘science’ of swiftly
applying necessary physical procedures.

(144 words)

There are a few things that you should note here.

The first is that we presented both sides of the argument before concluding.
The second is that though we have reached a conclusion (this is essential if
you are to gain full marks for fulfilling all the requirements of the question)
it is not a partisan one. It simultaneously concludes while appreciating the
nuances involved.

You will also see that the type of language has shifted. Having put forward
an objective argument in objective terms, we now see words like ‘overall’,
‘at other times’ and ‘perhaps’. This is now the language of subjectivity and
compromise. By saying ‘we can conclude that…’ or ‘in conclusion’ we are
flagging to the examiner that we have recognised and fulfilled this part of
the criteria.

On that note, good words to use in this part of the task include:
• Perhaps
• Maybe
• Nonetheless
• On the other hand
• Overall
• On balance
• In conclusion

Top Tip: Use clear wording to demonstrate to the examiner that you are
fulfilling the mark scheme criteria. ‘On the other hand…’ highlights that
you are introducing a breadth of points; ‘in conclusion’ stresses that you
are coming to an overall conclusion.

Diagrams
On the cover sheet of Section 3, you are told that you can use diagrams ‘if
they enhance communication’. Our stance on this is that, generally
speaking, we don’t recommend it. There are a couple of reasons for this.

The first is that it is an unusual tactic. That is not to say that it is a bad one.
No doubt, it could work wonderfully well. However, we feel that it is higher
risk. The examiner might love it, but they also might be thrown off. Our
approach to Section 3 is about following a clearly defined methodology that
reduces variance in performance and outcome. Therefore, using diagrams
does not sit well with us.

The second reason we don’t particularly favour diagrams is that they

potentially take up a lot of space. As we know, you only have one side of
A4, so space is a premium asset in this task. Remember, it is called an essay
writing task. Again, if we think about the risk profile, you are using a
considerable percentage of your real estate here.

In addition, diagrams often aren’t easy to draw. So if you make a mistake

and need to start again, you might end up wasting a valuable portion of your
answer sheet.

None of this is to say that using diagrams prohibits you from scoring highly
in BMAT Section 3. It just means that it is not the approach we prefer when
championing a methodology which will consistently reach the top marks.

Timing: step-by-step approach

So, you’ve reached the final part of your BMAT exam. The clock has just
started ticking; you now have half an hour to finish Section 3. What exactly
do you do, step by step, minute by minute?

The big news is that we advocate that you do not touch your final answer
sheet until you have spent 15 minutes writing notes.

Top Tip: Stick to the notes section until you have planned your essay;
the answer sheet is for writing up a plan, not freestyling!

Here is the procedure we suggest you follow:

Step 1: Choose your question (2 minutes)

Read all the options carefully. Choosing the right one of the four to tackle is
important. There are certain criteria you should be looking for here.

In terms of the statement/quotation, you want one that you are certain you
understand fully. This is non-negotiable!

Any doubt about the terminology used or the meaning intended should be a
major red flag. You also want a statement/quotation about which you know
something, or for which arguments for and against spring to mind. This is
highly preferable.

Then there is the task itself. What exactly are they asking you to do?

As we have said, asking you to explain, argue against and explain the extent
to which you agree is the most common format over the last three years.
But there are numerous variations. If you have prepared for the most likely
scenario and two follow this pattern, perhaps those are better options than
the two that don’t. Whatever you do, do not assume the task instructions
will follow the most common template: read them carefully.

We feel that you can weigh up the options and choose your question in two
minutes.

Step 2: Explain it: notes (3 minutes)

It is highly likely that the first part of the task will ask you to explain the
statement/quotation. So, in your notes, write down the key terms and jot
down definitions next to each. Remember, these aren’t dictionary
definitions, but ones which simplify within context. Then knit these into a
clear one-or two-sentence explanation, ready to transcribe straight onto your
answer sheet.

Remember to add a line about the ‘reasoning behind’ the

statement/quotation if this has been requested by the question.

We believe that this can be done in three minutes.

Step 3: Argue objectively: notes (5 minutes)
Next, you will be asked to argue for or against the statement – most likely
against (or ‘to the contrary’ as it tends to be phrased). So, you will need to
write three arguments, in bullet point form, in your notes section. Include an
example next to each one.

As you write each point, try to start thinking about how it will be developed
when writing it up. When it comes to doing so, you can either use two or
three points, depending on space. So start with your best!

Step 4: To what extent: notes (5 minutes)

Now you want to write two or three more bullet point arguments for the
opposite position. So, if you argued to the contrary above, jot down some
arguments for the statement/quotation now.

Then, think of a short conclusion and write this down. Your essay needs to
finish powerfully, so any crossing out and moving around should be done
here in your notes first.

Step 5: Write it! (15 minutes)

The last 15 minutes should be spent writing up your notes into a clear,
cogent essay on the answer sheet. Fifteen minutes is a long time to write
one side of A4, so there’s no need to rush or be frantic. You should keep
your handwriting neat and think about what you are writing. However, do
still keep an eye on the clock!

Final Tips: Here are our final tips for success on BMAT Section 3:
• Read questions carefully.
• Use short sentences.
• Use clear vocabulary.
• Sound it out as your write it – this will promote fluency.
 Mock BMAT exam and answers

Below is a full mock BMAT exam, followed by worked answer solutions. You
should allow yourself a two-hour window to sit the exam. We recommend that you
take a break after the exam, and only work through the answers once rested!

You should allow yourself the following timings:

• Section 1: 1 hour
• Section 2: 30 minutes
• Section 3: 30 minutes

To help simulate the exam experience we have created sample computer-read mark
sheets for you to use. Visit our website to print these in advance:
www.themedicportal.com/bmatbook.

You must not use a calculator, dictionary or any other electronic device.

Good luck!

Section 1
Instructions to candidates:

There are 35 multiple choice questions to be answered in one hour. Each question is worth
one mark and there is no negative marking. Download and print the computer-read mark
sheet from our website (www.themedicportal.com/bmatbook), and use a soft pencil to
complete.

You may use the exam paper to perform rough work and calculations. Calculators are not
permitted.

START
1. The four digits of the PIN number for my debit card are such that their numerical sum
is the same as their numerical product. The first letter of each digit, when written in
order as words, can be used to form the word FOOT.
What is the total number of letters required to spell the first, second and last digits?
A. 9
 B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
E. 13
F. 14
2. I have five glasses of equal shape and size. I know the following facts:
• Glass A contains a third of the amount of water as Glass C.
• Glass B contains as much water as the water in Glasses D and E combined.
• Glass C contains as much water as the water in Glass A and half the water in Glass E
combined.
• Glass D contains a fifth of the total volume of water.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Glass B contains the most water.
B. Glass A contains more water than Glass D.
C. Glass B contains the average amount of water.
D. If the total volume of water in the glasses was 1250 ml, E would contain 125 ml of
water.
E. Glasses B and D combined contain more than half the total amount of water.
3. In the Middle Ages, thousands of women were famously tried and executed for crimes
of witchcraft. However, it is a myth that the majority of these were executed because
they had a form of mental illness or were unpopular locally. People in the Middle Ages
were in fact reluctant to classify someone as a witch. When this happened, it meant
that the woman in question had to be removed from society, for the benefit of herself
and the community. She therefore had to be supported for the remainder of her life by
her fellow citizens. This could often be a costly process, and one which people
preferred to avoid whenever possible. This shows the paradoxical nature of the Middle
Ages, where superstition and pragmatism were intertwined in a way that is unfamiliar
today.
What conclusion can be drawn from the argument in the passage?
A. Witchcraft trials were gender-driven, with the victims almost always women.
B. Women who were found guilty of witchcraft faced swift execution after their trial.
C. The Middle Ages was not a time of pure individualism.
D. The Middle Ages was characterised by superstition and pragmatism in equal
measure.
E. Today we live in a less superstitious society than was typical in the Middle Ages.
4. A group of 50 medical students are discussing which medical field they would like to
enter:
• 17 say they are considering entering oncology.
• 25 say they are considering entering ophthalmology.
• 29 say they are considering entering obstetrics and gynaecology.
• 5 say they are considering only oncology.
• 4 say they are considering either oncology or obstetrics and gynaecology.
• 1 says she is considering all three.
How many are considering either oncology or ophthalmology?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. 9
5. In 2006, England introduced a smoking ban which made it illegal to smoke in all
enclosed work places in the country. The ban, which was largely popular at the time,
was the result of increased understanding of the dangerous effects of passive smoking,
whereby those in near proximity to smokers can suffer adverse health effects.
However, the decision to sign into law a blanket ban on all enclosed smoking has been
met with increased opposition in recent times. And it is true that the law is
fundamentally undemocratic. If people want to smoke, they should be able to, since it
is their body, at the end of the day. A pressure group called ‘Freedom to Choose’ has
recently launched a campaign for a judicial review of the legislation, claiming that the
law is a violation of human rights.
Which of the following best describes a flaw in the above argument?
A. The purpose of laws is that they supersede the wants of the individual.
B. Smoking can cost society money in NHS bills.
C. Smoking affects the health of more than just the person doing it.
D. It is difficult to enforce a smoking ban if it is not total.
E. The ban cannot be undemocratic as it was popular when introduced.
6. An airline awards reward points to its most frequent customers according to the
following formula:
2 reward points for every hour flown + 10 reward points for every country visited =
total number of reward points
David and Stuart both have 70 reward points. If David flew for twice as many hours
as Stuart and visited 5 countries, how many countries must Stuart have visited?
 A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
7. A signalling system depends on the rotation of parts which can be viewed as two-
dimensional shapes.
The shapes are all aligned such that one straight edge on one shape is parallel with a
straight edge on an adjacent shape. When a shape on the left rotates clockwise, this
forces the shape to its right to rotate anticlockwise. Similarly, if the left shape rotates
anticlockwise, the adjacent shape rotates clockwise.
Shapes rotate until a new pair of edges are parallel, for example:
If the leftmost triangle rotates clockwise, the square will rotate anticlockwise and the
rightmost triangle will rotate clockwise.

The signalling system has the following arrangement of shapes, and the leftmost
shape is rotated clockwise once:
Which of the following arrangements represents the shapes after their rotation?

A.

B.
 C.

D.

E.

8. Most people will tell you that the ‘value’ of something is how much someone is willing
to pay. Therefore, when people complain that top footballers are ‘paid too much’, what
they are saying makes no sense. The fact that someone is willing to pay such wages,
without being coerced or unfairly influenced, proves that they are paid sufficiently.
Even leading economists fall into this trap. Often, after a major economic incident,
economists state that the subsequent price crash reveals that certain products were
‘overvalued’. But this cannot be the case. The value only fell because it had been
created by investment from the past. If a product was not truly ‘worth’ a certain
amount, it would not achieve this value in the first place.
Which of the following best describes a weakness in the above argument?
 A. It ignores the fact that value is subjective.
B. It fails to differentiate between ‘good’ value and ‘bad’ value.
C. It confuses ‘value’ and ‘worth’.
D. It refers to only extreme examples.
E. It treats a subjective premise as objective.
9. A teacher wants to find out how many pupils in her GCSE Maths class passed their
exams with grades A*–C. She constructs the following table:

After she draws the table, she notices one of the individual entries in the table has
been typed incorrectly.
Which value is incorrect?
A. Set 1, Grade B
B. Set 1, Grade C
C. Set 2, Grade A*
D. Set 2, Grade C
E. Set 3, Grade A
F. Set 3, Grade C
G. Set 4, Grade A*
H. Set 5, Grade B
I. Set 5, Grade C
10. A mathematician has the following algorithm in which he can input any number to
produce a new number:
1. Multiply your number by 10
2. Subtract 5
3. If the number is odd, multiply by 2. If the number is even multiply by 3
4. Subtract 10
He inputs a number and receives the output 30. However, later that day, he notices he
had forgotten to do step 4.
 What was his original number?
A. 1.9
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
E. 10
F. 15
11. One of the most widely misunderstood phrases in popular culture must surely be: ‘the
survival of the fittest’. Generally, Darwin’s mantra is taken to refer to physical
strength, with the implication being that nature is tough and only has room for the
fiercest of survivors. This, though, is misguided. In fact, the phrase should be
understood to mean the ‘survival of the best-suited’. Let’s consider an example. The
kiwi bird cannot fly. And, when approached by predators, it simply remains stationary
and makes no sound. Yet, the fact the species continues to reproduce and exist in the
wild makes it an effective survivor, on par with lions and great white sharks.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument presented?
1. Many more kiwi birds are kept as pets in comparison to those that live in the wild.
2. While lions and sharks live on multiple continents, there are no kiwi birds in any
countries outside of New Zealand.
3. Scientists believe that over 10,000 flightless bird species have become extinct in
the last million years.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
E. 1 and 3 only
F. 2 and 3 only
G. None of the statements
12. My four children are called Fiona, Ben, George and Darwin. Their birthdays are on
the 15th, 35th, 144th and 323rd days of the year respectively.
Which two of my children have their birthday on the same day of the week?
A. Fiona and Ben
B. Fiona and George
C. Fiona and Darwin
D. Ben and George
E. Ben and Darwin
 F. George and Darwin
13. Every Tuesday night at the university union is quiz night. There are a total of 30
questions, with every correct answer scoring 8 points, but 3 points are deducted for
every incorrect answer. Team A entered the quiz, answering every question and
scored 152 points.
How many correct answers did Team A get?
A. 8
B. 11
C. 19
D. 20
E. 22
14. Here is a net that can be assembled into a cube:

Which of the following are possible representations of the cube?

A.
 B.

C.

D.

E.

A. A and B
B. B and C
C. D and E
D. C and E
E. D and A
15. Many people fear unemployment, not only due to the insecurity of having a limited
income and lack of purpose in life, but also due to the social stigma that can be
attributed to not having a job. But, in the 21st century, graduates fear not
unemployment but underemployment. Underemployment refers to an individual
working in a position for which they are overqualified. As a result, they receive lower
wages, are less stimulated and become easily frustrated. In many cases,
underemployment is seen as less desirable than unemployment. Therefore, the
percentage of graduates employed represents an example of an anachronistic statistic
which can be too easily skewed by those in underemployment. Academic institutions
should take this into account to provide more accurate statistics.
 What is an assumption made in the above argument?
A. Unemployment and underemployment are effectively the same.
B. Only university graduates can be underemployed.
C. Underemployment has only become an issue in the 21st century.
D. Underemployment is measurable.
E. Statistics from academic institutions are unreliable.
16. A scientist is preparing for an experiment. He must dilute every 1 part of concentrate
with 4 parts of water. By mistake, he added 300 cm3 water to 25 cm3 concentrate.
What must he add to the resulting mixture to obtain the correct concentration?
A. 50 cm3 of water
B. 100 cm3 of water
C. 200 cm3 of water
D. 3 cm3 of concentrate
E. 50 cm3 of concentrate
F. 75 cm3 of concentrate
G. 100 cm3 of concentrate
17. Mary plans on hosting a charity coffee morning and plans on baking 60 cakes. She
makes the cakes in batches of 12. Each batch takes 20 minutes to prepare and 15
minutes to cook in the oven (during which time she can begin to prepare the next
batch).
Once the cakes have finished baking they require 5 minutes to cool slowly, during
which time the oven is occupied and cannot be used for baking. Once the cooling
period is finished the oven is ready for use again.
If Mary starts at 15:00, at what time will she finish, assuming she doesn’t take a
break?
A. 16:40
B. 17:00
C. 17:15
D. 17:20
E. 17:30
F. 17:40
18. A spy needs to get from the north side of a fortified wall to the south side. He can only
do this by passing through a gate on the north side of the wall, followed by a gate on
the south side of the wall.
 The gates are guarded; however, guards are obliged to take rest breaks. When a guard
is resting, the spy can slip by unnoticed. The spy knows the following rules apply to
the guards’ rest breaks:
• At least one guard must be resting on each side (north and south) of the wall.
• No two guards at adjacent gates (e.g. A and B, B and C, C and D, etc.) can both be
resting at the same time.
• The spy cannot go through a gate where a guard is resting if it lies between (i.e. is
adjacent to) two gates where the stationed guards are both awake.

Which of the following statements are true?

1) If a guard is awake at A, the spy may be able to escape through Gate F on the south
side.
2) If a guard is resting at E, the spy will not be able to cross the wall.
3) If a guard is awake at E, the spy will be able to escape.
4) Only an even number of guards may be resting at any time.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
E. 1 and 2
F. 1, 2 and 3
19. The health secretary, Jeremy Hunt, has stated that by 2020 he would like to see at least
half of the country’s 40,000 consultants work regular weekends. Currently, the
consultants have the right to opt out of weekend work. However, such an opting out is
detrimental to our health service: consultants, who are doctors with the highest levels
of experience, are likely to be better at identifying and treating rare medical
complications than their more junior colleagues. Therefore if consultants are lacking
in hospitals at the weekend, patients’ lives will be endangered. Indeed, this is borne
out by certain statistics that show, for example, that a patient is 15% more likely to
 die when admitted on a Sunday rather than a Wednesday. For these reasons, the
health secretary’s statement should be applauded.
Which of the following statements, if true, would strengthen the above argument?
A. All consultants have postgraduate qualifications in medicine.
B. Consultants would have anticipated that they would be expected to make certain
sacrifices at the outset of their medical careers.
C. The increase in mortality at the weekend is found to be predominantly due to rare
medical complications that went unnoticed.
D. Senior doctors in other countries work regular weekend shifts.
E. The presence of consultants boosts the morale of junior doctors.
20. I decide to go for a walk. I start by facing north. I then perform the following
movements:
• I walk 10 metres forward, then I turn right by 35°.
• I walk 15 metres forward, then I turn right by 90°.
• I walk 5 metres forwards, then I turn left by 45°.
• I turn around to face the opposite direction, then I walk 20 metres forward.
• I do these previous four steps once again, in the same order.

Between which directions am I now facing?

A. North and east
B. South and east
C. North and west
D. South and west
E. Due south
F. Due west
21. Faisal runs a small business and regularly has to send packages to local companies. A
local courier company charges a flat rate per pick-up with an additional fee per
kilometre travelled.
• Delivering a package to the station, which is 4 kilometres away, costs Faisal £10.
• Delivering a package to the cinema, which is 3 kilometres away, costs Faisal £8.60.

How much would it cost Faisal to send a package to the sweet shop, located 5
kilometres away?
A. £5.80
B. £11.40
 C. £12.50
D. £23.40
22. Joseph played a game at the fair. He had to take out 2 balls from a bag of 50 balls.
There were balls of different colours in the bag. Both the balls he picked were black.
The man running the stall said:
‘There was a 4/175 chance that you would do that.’
What is the maximum number of red balls that could have been in the bag at the start?
A. 46
B. 42
C. 38
D. 34
E. 27
23. In 2008 the world witnessed arguably the worst financial disaster in history. Part of the
problem which engulfed the world economy was that large financial institutions all
over the world had amassed huge liabilities, which far outweighed their own assets.
In fact, prior to the crash, many confidently predicted that certain organisations were
‘too big to fail’. While large proportions of debt usually create fear of default,
advocates of this theory asserted that the level of debt and amount of money involved
in some cases was so vast that governments couldn’t afford to let this happen. They
had a shock when American mortgage companies Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae were
allowed to go to wall, soon followed by 158-year-old investment bank Lehman
Brothers.
Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the passage above?
A. Large liabilities always lead to a situation of economic difficulty.
B. The government was surprised by the failure of Freddie Mac.
C. The sense of security propagated by advocates of ‘too big to fail’ was paradoxical.
D. The ‘too big to fail’ theory had not existed prior to 2008.
E. Company age does not protect a company from failure.
24. A regular convex polyhedron (Platonic solid) has 20 vertices, 30 edges and an
unknown number of faces.
What is the name of the shape?
A. Hexahedron
B. Heptahedron
C. Octahedron
D. Nonahedron
E. Dodecahedron
25. In a factory, workers can assemble either 10 large toys or 25 small toys in 1 hour.
Assuming they have only 3 hours to assemble an order of 100 large toys and 500
small toys, how many workers do they need?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30
26. The table below shows the mean systolic blood pressure of four ethnic groups
(Caucasian, Afro-Caribbean, South Asian, Oriental Asian) measured in a student-led
research experiment, along with the statistical error bars:

Based on this graph, which of the following statements is true?

A. Oriental Asians have the lowest mean systolic blood pressure.
B. There is no significant difference in the mean systolic blood pressure between the
four ethnic groups.
C. Afro-Caribbeans have the highest systolic blood pressure among the four ethnic
groups.
D. There is a significant difference in systolic blood pressure between Caucasians and
Oriental Asians.
E. South Asians have the lowest systolic blood pressure.
27. History teaches us that prohibition rarely works. It famously failed in the United
States when alcohol was banned there in the 1920s. The amount of alcohol consumed
did not decrease and prohibition resulted in a dramatic increase in violent crime,
motivated by the illicit rewards available from bootlegging. There is now a similar
situation in the United States when it comes to recreational drugs. Prohibition has
failed to prevent the consumption of these drugs, despite the fact that they are illegal.
 Violent crime prevails as a result, as gangs fight for lucrative territory. Therefore,
legislators should learn lessons from the past and end the ‘prohibition’ on drugs,
thereby solving the majority of these issues.
What is an assumption made in the above argument?
A. Recreational drugs and alcohol carry the same health risk.
B. Socially, drugs are viewed the same way now as alcohol was in the 1920s.
C. Violence can only be solved by removing prohibition.
D. People are more likely to consume a product if it is illegal.
E. Legislative decisions have significant consequences.
28. In a school, the test results from two physics exams were recorded by the teacher as
follows:

Which student’s test results are represented by the white diamond?

A. Ben
B. Dilayla
C. Eric
D. Frodo
E. Germaine
F. Hina
G. Anna
29. I am thinking of installing solar panels. The cost of installation is high; however, in
the long term I will be able to recoup the money through the savings I make on my
annual energy bills, which will be reduced to zero. My energy bill remains constant,
year to year.
 In addition, I will be able to sell any surplus electricity back to the national grid at 10
pence/kWh.
In the first year of having solar panels, I predict I will have recouped a total of 5% of
the original installation cost of the solar panels, and that I will sell 5000 kWh of
energy back to the grid.
In the second year of having solar panels, I predict that I will have recouped an
overall total of 11.25% of the original installation cost of the solar panels, and that I
will sell 7500 kWh of energy back the grid.
What was the installation cost of the solar panels?
A. £20,000
B. £25,000
C. £60,000
D. £70,000
E. £200,000
30. The graphs below show how the speed of four different cars, S, T, U and V, vary with
time over a period of 20 seconds:
 At the end of the 20-second period, Car V continues at a constant speed for an
additional 40 seconds. Car S, however, travels at a constant speed from 10 seconds
onwards for another 50 seconds.
After 60 seconds, what is the difference in distance travelled between Car S and V?
A. Car S travelled 800 m further than Car V.
B. Car V travelled 800 m further than Car S.
C. Car S travelled 1400 m further than Car V.
D. Car V travelled 1400 m further than Car S.
E. Car S travelled 900 m further than Car V.
F. Car V travelled 900 m further than Car S.
31. In 2012, a ruling from the European Court stated that car insurance companies could
no longer adjust their rates based on a person’s gender. Before this, it was often the
case that women received lower rates due to the fact that, statistically, young male
drivers are much more likely to suffer a crash that leads to serious injury or death.
According to recent statistics, there is less of a difference between men and women
when it comes to the frequency of minor collisions. However, the ruling is still
fundamentally unfair because careful female drivers are now effectively subsidising
their young and reckless male counterparts.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument in the passage?
A. A car crash often involves two cars and the insurance company usually is unable
to determine the genders of both drivers involved in the incident.
B. It is possible to sometimes drive carefully and sometimes drive recklessly.
C. Before the ruling, insurance companies would add a large premium to all males’
policies, effectively subsidising female drivers.
D. There is little correlation between the seriousness of traffic accidents and the
premiums charged by the insurance company.
E. There is little statistical divergence between the likelihood of being involved in a
serious accident and gender in people over 35.
32. There are currently 480 workers in a hospital: 55% are nurses and 20% are doctors.
One hundred more workers are hired, which results in 55% of the workers being
nurses and 20% doctors.
How many new doctors and nurses are hired?
A. 20
B. 55
C. 75
D. 100
E. 118
33. A laboratory uses an 11-digit reference code when processing blood samples.
The first three digits of the code represent the clinic code, the next six digits represent
the clinic date (written as dd/mm/yy) and the final two digits are a security code. The
security code is calculated as the clinic code – clinic day. If the security code has
more than two digits, it’s divided by 10 and the resultant number rounded.
One of the blood tests from the laboratory has the code: 12527120398.
Which of the following codes could be from the same laboratory?
A. 12419030211
B. 12532111593
C. 12508161412
D. 12522031512
E. 12526101499
34. I am given three candles, each of which, when lit, will burn for exactly 20 minutes. It
is possible to light both ends of each candle.
Assuming I have three candles, which of the following time periods (in minutes) can I
measure through lighting candles?
A. 5, 10, 15, 20, 30, 60 and 90 minutes
B. 20, 40 and 60 minutes
C. 10, 15, 20, 30 and 60 minutes
D. 10, 20, 30, 40 and 60 minutes
E. 10, 15, 20, 30, 60 and 70 minutes
35. In the Western world, the concept of polygamy is seen as completely alien to the
values that should be adhered to in society. In cultures which have a long tradition of
marriage for life to one spouse, the idea of being married to more than one person
simultaneously is seen not only as illegal, but also morally wrong. Yet, in many other
parts of the world polygamy is accepted for the exact reasons for which it is rejected
in the West. In these (usually poorer) communities, families in which a husband has
more than one wife can provide economic security and enhanced social status for a
greater number of people. So, polygamy is viewed there as a positive, rather than a
negative, domestic dynamic.
Which of the following best describes the aim of the above passage?
A. To highlight the difficulty of applying moral judgement on a global scale
B. To explain the limitations of marriage in the Western world
C. To argue against the idea that polygamy is wrong
D. To defend an action that is universally seen to have negative results
E. To evaluate which situations are suited to polygamous relationships
Section 2
Instructions to candidates:
There are 27 multiple choice questions to be answered in 30 minutes. Each question
is worth one mark and there is no negative marking. Download and print the
computer-read mark sheet from our website (www.themedicportal.com/bmatbook),
and use a soft pencil to complete.
You may use the exam paper to perform rough work and calculations. Calculators are
not permitted.

START
1. The diagram below shows the expression pattern for a disease in a single family.
Currently, the status of individual A is unknown. What are the chances that individual
A will also have the disease in the scenarios given in the table below?

Individuals B and C are heterozygous Individual C is homozygous

A 50% 100%
B 50% 0%
C 50% 50%
D 100% 50%
E 0% 50%
2. Which of the following statements about polymerisation are true?
A) Organic molecules that act as the monomers in polymerisation will also
decolourise hydrogen bromide.
B) Monomers must be saturated hydrocarbons.
C) C2H3OH, C3H6 and C2H4Cl2 are all potential monomers.

A. A only
 B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A, B and C
G. None

3. If 3.6 dm3 of carbon monoxide gas is reacted with iron (III) oxide according to the
equation below, what is the mass of iron that will be produced?
(one mole of any gas at room temperature and pressure has a volume of 24 dm3; Ar:
C = 12, O = 16, Fe = 56)
3CO + Fe2 O3 → 2Fe + 3CO2

A. 56 g
B. 12.6 g
C. 5.6 g
D. 126 g
E. 1.26 g
4. Sodium-22 is a radioactive isotope of sodium (atomic number: 11). It emits positrons as
a type of beta decay (positrons are the positively charged antimatter counterpart of
electrons). It has a half-life of approximately two and a half years.
Which of the following statements about sodium-22 is correct?
A) If we have one mole of sodium-22, after five years we will be left with 5.5 g of
sodium-22.
B) When sodium-22 decays, the difference between its new atomic number and its
atomic mass is 10.
C) The decay product of sodium-22 is likely to have a violent reaction with fluorine
gas.

A. A only
B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A, B and C
5. Make a the subject of:
 2
n +a
P = 1 − √
n+a

2 2

A. a =
n(1+P ) −n

2
(1−(1+P ) )

2 2

B. a =
n(1−P ) −n

2
(1−(1−P ) )

2 2
n(1−P ) −n
C. a = 2
(1−P )

D. a =
n(1−P )

2
(n−(1−P ) )

2 2

E. a =
n(1−P ) +n

2
(1+(1−P ) )

6. A patient has 5 litres of blood. They need to be given a drug intravenously such that the
final concentration of the drug in their blood is 0.1 mmoldm −3. If the relative
molecular mass of the drug is 300, what mass of the drug needs to be added to an IV
bag containing 500 cm3 of fluid?
(Assume that the drug is not broken down in the body for the duration that the patient
is on the IV drip, and that the patient does not lose any fluid.)
A. 0.15 g
B. 0.165 g
C. 15 g
D. 16.5 g
E. 165 g
7. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Ligase cuts genetic material at a specific point.
B. Treatment for diabetics can be produced on a large scale by inserting the bacterial
insulin gene into crops.
C. Insulin can be inserted into bacterial plasmids using enzymes.
D. A human cell may contain four copies of a single gene.
E. Increasing temperature of ligase indefinitely will increase its catalytic activity
indefinitely.
8. Two objects, A and B, are identical in mass. They are both held in a vacuum chamber 5
m above the ground. They are then dropped at different times such that at time t, object
A is 4 m above the ground and object B is 3 m above the ground. (Assume g = 10
ms−2).
 What is true of the objects at time t?
A. Object B has a slower velocity than object A.
B. Object B has 33% more potential energy than object A.
C. Object B has lost more energy as heat, due to the effects of drag, than object A.
D. Even if the mass of the objects was known, the kinetic energy of each object could
not be established without further information.
E. The velocity of object B is greater than that of object A by a factor of √2.
9. Identify the letters a, b, c and d by balancing the equation below:
aH2 SO4 + bHI → H2 S + cl2 + dH2 O

a b c d
1 8 4 4
A
2 8 4 8
B
1 4 8 4
C
1 4 4 8
D
2 4 8 8
E

10. The function f(x) is represented by the line y = 2x2 + 3.

Which of the following statements are true?
1) f(x) crosses the line y = x + 3 at (0,3)
2) The line y = 2x2 – 4x + 5 can be written as f(x – 1)
3) The line y = 2x2 – 4x + 5 represents a translation of f(x) by – 1 along the x-axis

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2
E. 2 and 3
F. All three
11. Which statement could describe a possible part of the sequence of neuronal signalling
in a reflex arc?
A. Effector tissue → motor neuron dendrite → sensory neuron axon
B. Sensory neuron axon → receptor tissue → sensory neuron dendrite
C. Interneuron axon → motor neuron dendrite → motor neuron axon
D. Sensory neuron axon → Interneuron axon → Interneuron dendrite
E. Sensory neuron dendrite → sensory neuron axon → receptor tissue
12. I have some tea I would like to keep hot. What sort of container should I put it in?
A. A container made of metal, with a shiny interior and a matt exterior
B. A container made of wood, with a matt interior and a matt exterior
C. A container made of metal, with a shiny interior and a shiny exterior
D. A container made of wood, with a shiny interior and a shiny exterior
E. A container made of wood, with a shiny interior and a matt exterior
13. A substance has an empirical formula of C2OH4. Its Mr is 88.
When reacted with calcium carbonate, it forms a salt, water and carbon dioxide.
When reacted with ethanol it forms an ester. What could be the name of the
substance?
(Ar: C = 12, O = 16, H = 1)
A. Propanoic acid
B. Butanoic acid
C. Propanol
D. Ethanoic acid
E. Butanol
14. The concentration of calcium ions in extracellular fluid is approximately 1 mmolL−1.
The concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm is approximately 0.1 μmolL−1.
Under normal physiological conditions, protein X moves calcium ions out of the cell.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. If a cell is placed into distilled water, calcium ions will move out of it against their
concentration gradient.
 B. If a cell is placed into 2 mmolL−1 calcium ion solution, the amount of energy in
the cell consumed by protein X is likely to rise.
C. If a cell is placed into a 0.01 μmolL−1 calcium ion solution, water will move into
the cell by osmosis.
D. If a cell is placed into distilled water, water will move into the cell by osmosis.
E. The extracellular concentration of calcium is 10,000 times greater than the internal
concentration.
15. I have a bag filled with nine balls. Three are red, three are blue and three are green.
• If I pick a red ball, I get to pick again (unless I picked a blue ball previously).
• If I pick a blue ball, I am allowed to pick out one more ball and then I have to stop.
• If I pick a green ball, I have to stop without picking out any more balls.

What is the probability that I will pick out two red balls and a single ball blue (note –
these do not have to be the only balls I take out)?
A. 3/56
B. 1/56
C. 1/28
D. 3/28
E. 1/1568
16. Which of the following statements is not true of sound waves:
A. An object moving towards a loudspeaker at a constant speed will encounter sound
waves at a higher frequency than those being produced by the loudspeaker.
B. If the speed of sound is taken to be 330 m/s and the speed of light is 300,000 km/s,
a sound wave of frequency 1650 Hz will have a longer wavelength than infrared
radiation of frequency 30 GHz.
C. A sound wave is longitudinal; therefore a sound wave travelling through air will
cause air molecules to undergo a net displacement from their original positions
that is parallel to the direction in which the wave is travelling.
D. Sound waves above the human threshold of hearing can be utilised to provide a
safer alternative to X-rays for medical imaging.
E. A loudspeaker moving away from a stationary person will produce a sound with a
higher tone than the sound that is perceived by the person.
17. Which of the following statements regarding the diagram below is true?
 A. The substance produced by structure 1 contains the enzyme salivary protease.
B. The substance secreted by the walls of structure 3 plays an important role in the
adaptive immune system.
C. Structure 2 is maintained by C-shaped rings of cartilage.
D. Structure 6 receives chyme from the duodenum.
E. Structure 11 secretes bile into structure 12.
18. My younger brother is a keen mycologist. He is growing a patch of fungus in his
room.

• On day 1, the patch had an area of 5 mm2

• On day 2, the patch had an area of 7 mm2.

• On day 3, the patch had an area of 12 mm2.

• On day 4, the patch had an area of 20 mm2.

• On day 5, the patch had an area of 31 mm2.

What will the size of the patch be at the end of the month (day 30)?
A. 1281 mm2
B. 1333 mm2
C. 1457 mm2
D. 1600 mm2
19. Observe the circuit below:
A1 and A2 represent the readings of two ammeters, and R1 to 4 represent the
resistances of four fixed resistors. V is the voltage across the cell.
Which of the following statements are true?
A) A1 = A2 = V ÷ (R1 + R2 + R3 + R4).
B) This graph represents the relationship between resistance and voltage across R4:

C) Multiplying R4 and A2 will give the amount of work done on each unit of charge
that passes through the resistor in joules.

A. A only
B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C
 G. A, B and C
20. Study the chemical equation below:
CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu

Which of the following statements are true?

A) The equation above shows the reduction of copper, which can also be summarised
in the ionic half equation Cu2+ → Cu + 2e−
B) A copper anode, when placed in a solution of the copper compound shown in the
equation above, will increase in size if a voltage is applied.
C) If carbon can be used to displace zinc from its compounds, carbon will also
displace copper.

A. A only
B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C
G. None
21. A patient has an inherited disorder which means that her red blood cells are less
effective at carrying oxygen than in a healthy person. The patient’s father and brother
have the condition, but her mother does not.
Which of the following statements are likely to be true?
A) The disorder is due to a mutation in a gene on the Y-chromosome.
B) The patient will have elevated levels of lactate in her blood compared to a healthy
individual, following a period of anaerobic exercise.
C) The patient’s blood pH will remain elevated for longer than in a healthy
individual, following a period of anaerobic exercise.

A. A only
B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. None is true
22. A concrete block weighs 50 kN. It is pushed at a constant speed across a horizontal
surface between two points, A and B. While it is being pushed, it encounters a
 friction force of 40 kN (assume air resistance is negligible). The bulldozer that pushes
the block expends 1 MJ of useful energy between A and B.
What is the distance between A and B?
A. 20 m
B. 25 m
C. 200 m
D. 250 m
E. 2.5 km
23. Hydrogen reacts with nitrogen to form ammonia. The reaction is reversible. When
ammonia is produced, the reaction is exothermic. The graph below shows the
production of ammonia (y-axis) over time (x-axis).

How will the same graph look (assuming the values on the axes stay the same) if a
nickel catalyst is added and the temperature of the reaction system is increased?

A.
 B.

C.

D.

24. In a sixth-form college there are two biology classes. There are x students in class 1
and y students in class 2. In a recent test, the average score across the two classes was
T. However, three highest-scoring students from class 2 were later discovered to be
cheating, and their scores were later removed from the total. A new average, M, was
established from the remaining marks.
If the average score of the cheating students was a, which of the following statements
will definitely be true?
A) M > a
B) The median score will not change after the removal of the cheaters’ scores.
 T (x+y)−3a
C) M =
(y+x−3)

A. A only
B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C
G. All are definitely true
25. Which of the following substances would not be produced either as a result of the
nuclear fission chain reaction of uranium-235 or the nuclear fusion of hydrogen?
A. Three free neutrons
B. Uranium-236
C. Heat energy
D. Deuterium
E. Krypton-90
F. Helium-3
26. Three nutrient mixtures were combined with either one of three preparations of
digestive enzymes or saline solution preparation.
The nutrient mixtures were tested for the presence of glucose, glycerol and amino
acids before and after the addition of the enzyme preparations. They were only tested
for these chemicals.
The table below shows the results:

Nutrient Preparation Nutrients identified Nutrients identified AFTER

mixture used BEFORE addition of addition of preparation
preparation
1 Glucose Glucose
A
1 Glucose Glucose, Glycerol
B
1 None Glycerol
C
 2 Glucose Glucose
A
2 Glycerol Glycerol
B
2 None None
C
3 Glucose Glucose
A
3 Glycerol Glycerol, Amino Acids
B
3 None Amino Acids
C
4 Glucose Glucose
A
4 Glycerol Glycerol
B
4 None Glycerol
C

Which of the following statements must be true?

A. Preparation 3 is the saline solution.
B. Nutrient Mixture A does not contain starch.
C. Nutrient Mixture B contains all three of starch, fat and protein.
D. Nutrient Mixture C contains at least two different types of nutrient.
E. Protease in Preparation 3 digested another enzyme that was also in the preparation.
27. Which of the following statements is incorrect (assume g = 10 ms−2)?
A. An accelerating object may move at a constant speed.
B. A decelerating train on straight rails will not have a constant speed.
C. An object falling at terminal velocity may have a net horizontal force acting on it.
D. The work done on an object with constant acceleration is proportional to its mass.
E. An object of mass 10 g falling towards Earth will reach terminal velocity when a
drag force of 100 N acts upon it.

Section 3
Instructions to candidates:

Below are two writing tasks for you to practise. In the real BMAT exam, you will have a
choice of four tasks but will only be expected to answer one.

Your answer must fit on one side of A4 paper. Download and print a replica Section 3
answer sheet from our website (www.themedicportal.com/bmatbook).

You can make preliminary notes. Candidates with permission to use a word processor
must not exceed 550 words.

The tasks each provide an opportunity for you to show how well you can select, develop
and organise ideas and communicate them effectively in writing. Diagrams, etc. may be
used if they enhance communication.

You have 30 minutes to complete one task. Dictionaries and calculators may NOT be
used.

1. ‘The medical profession, after all, deals partly with guess work; we do not deal in
absolutes.’ Paul Beeson, MD

Explain what this statement means. Argue that there are times when the medical
profession does deal with absolutes. To what extent do you agree that the medical
profession deals partly with guesswork?

2. ‘A man who cannot work without his hypodermic needle is a poor doctor. The
amount of narcotic you use is inversely proportional to your skill.’ Martin H.
Fischer

Explain the argument behind this statement. Argue to the contrary, that the use of
narcotics does not suggest a lack of medical skill. To what extent do you agree that being
able to work without a hypodermic needle is the sign of a skilful doctor?

Answers

Below you will find an answer key for each section summarising the correct
answers. There is also a sample score conversion, converting each score into a
suggested BMAT score. This score is for guidance purposes, and allows you to see
and compare performances. You can then review detailed answer explanations for
each question, including sample notes and essays for section 3.

Section 1
Answer Key:

Question Answer

1 B
2 E
3 C
4 C
5 C
6 E
7 C
8 E
9 F
10 B
11 G
12 C
13 E
14 D
15 D
16 E
17 B
18 B
19 C
20 B
21 B
22 B
23 C
24 E
25 A
26 B
27 E
28 A
29 A
30 A
31 D
32 C
33 E
34 C
35 A

Score Conversion:

Total Score Suggested BMAT Score

0 1.0
1 1.0
2 1.0
3 1.0
4 1.0
5 1.0
6 1.3
7 1.8
8 2.1
9 2.5
10 2.8
11 3.1
12 3.4
13 3.6
14 3.9
15 4.1
16 4.4
17 4.6
18 4.8
19 5.0
20 5.3
21 5.6
22 5.9
23 6.2
24 6.5
25 6.8
26 7.1
27 7.4
28 7.7
29 8.1
30 8.5
31 9.0
32 9.0
33 9.0
34 9.0
35 9.0

1. Answer = B
We are given that the first letters of each digit, when written as words in order, spell
FOOT. The only single digit that begins with O is 1 – therefore the second and third digits
of the PIN must be 1.

For the first digit, F, the only options are 4 (four) or 5 (five), and similarly for the last
digit, T, the only options are 2 (two) or 3 (three).

We know that the numerical sum is the same as the numerical product. This is only true if
the first digit is 4 and the last digit is 2 (as 4 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 8 and 4 × 1 × 1 × 2 = 8).

We can therefore deduce that the total number of letters required to spell the first, second
and last digits is 10 (four, one and two).

2. Answer = E

This question requires you to work through each answer option in turn to assess whether
or not it is correct. Based on the statements you know that:

A = C/3

B=D+E

C = A + E/2 = C/3 + E/2

D = 1/5

B = 1/5 + E

6C = 2C + 3E

4C = 3E

C = 3E/4

A = E/4

So A = E/4, B = 1/5 + E, C = 3E/4, D = 1/5, E = E

E/4 + 3E/4 + E + 1/5 + 1/5 + E = 3E + 2/5

3E + 2/5 = 1

E = 1/5

So A = 1/20, B = 2/5, C = 3/20, D = 1/5, E = 1/5

Assessing each answer option in turn:
A. Incorrect: C contains the most water
B. Incorrect: D contains more than A
C. Incorrect: B contains twice the average amount of water
D. Incorrect: E would contain 1250/5 = 250 ml
E. Correct: 2/5 + 1/5 = 3/5 which is greater than 1/2

3. Answer = C

The fact that suspected witches were exiled for ‘the benefit of herself and the community’
shows that people in the Middle Ages acted, at least in part, with the needs of a wider
community in mind. This demonstrates that it was not a time of ‘pure individualism’.

A is incorrect because while witches are always referred to as female in the passage, this
does not mean that their trials were driven by gender.

B is incorrect because for people to worry about the cost of maintaining women guilty of
witchcraft for the rest of their lives, it follows that they were not always executed
‘swiftly’.

D is incorrect because while the passage says that superstition and pragmatism were
intertwined, it does not say they existed in ‘equal measure’.

E is incorrect because the passage does not say that we are less superstitious today – just
that superstition and pragmatism are less intertwined.

4. Answer = C

This question can be answered using a Venn diagram. We are trying to work out area ‘D’.
We know that there are 50 students; however, the numbers for each subject add up to 17 +
25 + 29 = 71. Therefore, 71 – 50 = 21 must be due to students being counted more than
once (i.e. the intersecting area on the Venn diagram).

Area G has been counted three times, so it must have been counted two more times than
necessary. We know from the information given that this is equal to 1 (the one student
considering all three subjects), so it must have contributed 2 × 1 = 2 to the extra counts.
Therefore we know that the other overlapping areas, which have been counted one extra
time each, must add up to 21 – 2 = 19.

We know that one of the overlapping areas, D, is equal to 4 (from the information we are
given). We also know from the given information that A = 5.
So A + E + G + D = 17 or 5 + E + 1 + 4 = 17

So 10 + E = 17

Therefore E = 7

5. Answer = C

The argument states that ‘the law is fundamentally undemocratic’ and that people should
be able to smoke based on the premise: ‘it’s their body’. But this is a flawed premise,
because it is not only their body – we are told within the same argument that passive
smoking impacts the health of others.

None of the other options directly removes or destabilises the main premises of the
argument.

6. Answer = E

David’s points can be calculated as:

• (David’s hours × 2) + (10 × 5) = 70
• (David’s hours × 2) = 20
• (David’s hours) = 10
Therefore Stuart flew for 5 hours (as David flew for double the amount of hours). From
this it is possible to calculate the number of countries he visited:
• (5 × 2) + (10 × number of countries) = 70
• (10 × number of countries) = 60
• (Number of countries) = 6

7. Answer = C

Markers indicate how the shapes move. Remember, a shape rotating one way induces a
rotation in the opposite direction in the shape to its immediate right – a shape rotates until
its edge is parallel with the edge of the adjacent shape.

So, going shape by shape:

Becomes this, as the leftmost square rotates clockwise

Which induces the triangle to rotate anticlockwise

Which induces the pentagon to rotate clockwise

Which induces the other square to rotate anticlockwise (but it looks the same), which in
turn induces the triangle to rotate clockwise. This is arrangement C.
8. Answer = E

The argument starts by saying that ‘most people will tell you that the value of something
is how much someone is willing to pay’. This definition is subjective. But the argument
treats it as a key, objective premise.

A is incorrect because this point is neither ignored nor weakening to the argument.

B is incorrect because while this is true, it does not reveal a weakness in the argument.

C is incorrect because, while both terms are used, they are not ‘confused’.

D is incorrect because the examples can’t be clearly identified as extreme.

9. Answer = F

Adding all the rows for each set, we find that the total for Set 3 (5+13+24+10 = 52) is
different from its row total of 53. So one of the entries for Set 3 is incorrect.

Adding all the totals for each Grade row shows us that the problem is with Grade C. It
should total 61 but only totals 60.

Hence Grade C for Set 3 must be the incorrect entry.

10. Answer = B

The important thing to notice is that in step one, we multiply by 10. This means that when
we subtract 5 in step 2, the number will always be odd. Hence we can use the algorithm
backwards (ignoring step 4):
• 30/2 = 15
• 15 + 5 = 20
• 20/10 = 2

So the mathematician’s original number was 2.

Note: If you are not sure how to approach this sort of question, you could always look at
the answers available and plug them into the algorithm.

11. Answer = G

None of the above statements would weaken the argument that the kiwi bird’s continued
ability to reproduce makes it an effective survivor on a par with the other animals cited.
1 does not weaken the argument because the premise given is that the bird still reproduces
and exists ‘in the wild’, and this is not altered by the fact it is also kept as a pet on a wide
scale.

2 does not weaken the argument because the ability to survive in multiple countries is not
necessary an effective measure of survival skills.

3 does not weaken the argument because it refers to a general trend that may not be
relevant to this specific case.

12. Answer = C

To work out which of the four children share their birthday on the same day of the week,
the difference between the two birthdays should be divisible by 7.

Fiona’s birthday is on the 15th and Darwin’s birthday is on the 323rd. The difference
between these two numbers is 304 which is divisible by 7. Therefore, Fiona and Darwin
have their birthdays on the same day of the week.

13. Answer = E

Start by allocating correct answers = X and incorrect = Y. Therefore they scored 8X – 3Y

= 152

We know they answered 30 questions, therefore X + Y = 30. We can multiply by 3 to give

3X + 3Y = 90

Add the two equations: 8X – 3Y = 152 and 3X + 3Y = 90

This gives 11X = 242 which is X = 22.

14. Answer = D

Questions asking you to construct three-dimensional shapes from two-dimensional

templates are tricky. Work your way through each answer option in turn, finding
analogous positions on the two-and three-dimensional shapes to compare. If combinations
don’t work, eliminate that option as well as other answer combinations containing that
option.

In this question only shapes C and E can be assembled.

15. Answer = D
The argument states that ‘the percentage of graduates employed represents an example of
an anachronistic statistic’ and that academic institutions should take underemployment
into account ‘to provide more accurate statistics’. For this to be possible, the number of
underemployed students would need to be somehow measurable.

A is incorrect because the argument highlights differences between the two, rather than
assuming them to be the same.

B is incorrect because the argument does not say that underemployment is exclusively a
graduate problem.

C is incorrect because the argument does not state that underemployment is a unique issue
of the 21st century.

E is incorrect because the argument states that these particular statistics are anachronistic
rather than ‘unreliable’. Nor does it make a judgement on other types of statistics from
academic institutions.

16. Answer = E

The ratio of concentrate to water should be 1:4. The scientist’s mixture of concentration to
water has a ratio 25:300. This simplifies to 1:12.

So for every 1 part of concentrate, there is an extra 8 parts of water. There is 25 cm3 of
concentrate, so there are 8 × 25 = 200 extra parts of water.

200/4 = 50 cm3 of concentrate needed to obtain the correct concentration.

17. Answer = B

You know that each batch takes 20 minutes to prepare followed by a 20-minute oven
phase (as although the cooking time is 15 minutes, the cooling period during which the
oven is in use is 5 minutes). During this oven period Mary can be preparing the next
batch.

As Mary requires 60 cakes and can prepare them in batches of 12, she will need to bake 5
batches.

It will therefore take Mary 20 minutes to prepare the first batch, after which while each
batch is cooking the next can be prepared. It will therefore take Mary 120 minutes to
prepare and cook 5 batches, meaning she will finish at 17:00.

18. Answer = B
You need to assess each statement in turn to see if the spy can escape.

Statement 1: There are 2 possible configurations, neither of which the spy can escape in
(as the gates with resting guards are between gates with awake guards). This is therefore
false.

Statement 2: With a guard resting at E there is only 1 possible configuration, making it

impossible for the spy to cross. Therefore this statement is true.

Statement 3: The spy cannot escape with this configuration so the statement is false.

Statement 4: There can be an odd number of guards resting. Note it can’t be 1 because
then only one side would have a resting guard and it can’t be 5 because that would leave
adjacent gates with resting guards, hence the odd number must be three with at least one
guard on both sides. The statement is therefore false.

The only statement that is true is statement 2.

Configurations for each scenario:

19. Answer = C

The summary of the argument is that consultants have the most medical experience and
are better at identifying and treating rare complications; so when they are not there,
patient lives are endangered; therefore, consultants should not be able to opt out of
working at weekends.
A is incorrect because this is simply a reiteration of the statement ‘Consultants, who are
doctors with the highest levels of experience’, except it is less informative because it
doesn’t tell us anything about the qualifications held by other doctors!

B is incorrect as this does not strengthen the argument that this particular ‘sacrifice’, i.e.
giving up the weekend opting out, is necessary.

C is correct because this strengthens the premise that patients’ lives will be ‘endangered’
if the chance of recognising/treating rare complications is reduced – hence it strengthens
the whole argument.

Although D may be true, we are not told about the effect of this on patient
mortality/wellbeing, and the argument hinges on that factor.

Again in E we don’t know what effect this has on patient mortality, so it cannot be said to
strengthen the argument.

20. Answer = B

Note, this is a question about bearings; the information regarding the distances is not
needed to answer the question. Let us consider that, if I start facing north, if I rotate
myself by 360° I will still be facing north. Therefore, I just need take into account how
many degrees over a multiple of 360° I have rotated overall. By focusing on right turns, it
is clear that I have rotated:
• 35 + 90 + (360 – 45) + 180 + 35 + 90 + (360 – 45) + 180 =
• 2 × (35 + 90 + (360 – 45) + 180) =
• 2 × 620 =
• 1240° to the right

Note that a turn 45° to the left is equal to a 360 – 45 = 215° degree turn to the right, in
terms of final orientation.

This is equal to 3 × 360° + 160°, so in effect I have rotated 160° to the right from my
original orientation. If I was originally facing north, therefore, I must now be facing
between south (180°) and east (90°).

21. Answer = B

We can write the information given in terms of algebraic equations:

• Equation 1: x + 4y = 1000
• Equation 2: x + 3y = 860
Where x represents the flat rate and y represents the rate for each kilometre travelled.

We can then solve simultaneously by subtracting equation 2 from equation 1 giving us: y
= 140 p. Plugging y back into either of equation 1 or 2 will give us x = 440 p. Hence the
flat rate for pick-up is £4.40 and the rate for each kilometre travelled is £1.40.

So to deliver to the sweet shop would cost the flat rate pick-up of £4.40 plus 5 × £1.40 =
£11.40.

22. Answer = B

Let n be the number of black balls in the bag. We know that n/50 × (n – 1)/49 = 4/175

In other words, n(n – 1)/2450 = 4/175

n(n – 1) = 9800/175 n(n – 1) = 56

n2 – n – 56 = 0
(n – 8)(n + 7) = 0

So n = 8

For the maximum number of balls, we must assume that red and black balls were the only
balls in the bag, so the number of red balls is 50 – 8 = 42

23. Answer = C

This is because the passage states that while high proportions of debt usually lead to
default, advocates of ‘too big to fail’ believed that very high proportions of debt reduced
the risk of this happening in some cases. This represents a paradoxical situation, and
therefore C is correct.

A is incorrect because the argument does not present enough information to evaluate if
large liabilities ‘always’ lead to economic difficulty.

B is incorrect because ‘advocates’ were shocked, rather than the government.

D is incorrect because the argument does not discuss anything prior to 2008.

E is incorrect because, even though the age of Lehman Brothers is given, this is not
related to protection from failure. It also does not preclude the fact that an even older
company, or perhaps a much younger company, could have indeed been protected by age.
24. Answer = E

This question can be done using trial and error, assessing each answer option in turn.
However, it would be faster to use Euler’s formula: F + V − E = 2. (F = number of faces,
V = number of vertices and E = number of edges)

Therefore, F + 20 – 30 = 2

F = 12

25. Answer = A

If you only had 1 hour, you would need 10 workers to assemble 100 large toys, and 20
workers to assemble 500 small toys = 30 workers.

As you have 3 hours, you require 30 / 3 = 10 workers.

26. Answer = B

The error bars show the confidence intervals of the data. In this case, there is no statistical
difference in systolic blood pressure between any of the groups, so none of statements A,
C, D or E can be inferred. Statement B is therefore correct.

27. Answer = E

If legislative decisions – like ending prohibition on drugs – are to solve the ‘majority of
these issues’, it stands to reason that they must have ‘significant consequences’. But, since
this is not demonstrated in the passage, it is an assumption underlying the argument.

A is incorrect because the argument is not concerned with the health risks of either
substance.

B is incorrect because the argument is not concerned with how the substances are/were
viewed socially.

C is incorrect because the argument does not assume that this is the ‘only’ way to reduce
violence.

D is incorrect because the argument does not consider the reasons behind why people
consume substances.

28. Answer = A
Using the graph you can see that the white diamond represents the highest score for Test 2
and the second-lowest score for Test 1. By using the table you can see that Ben came both
top of Test 2 and second to bottom of Test 1.

29. Answer = A

The amount I recoup year by year is a combination of the saving on my energy bill and
the surplus energy I sell back to the national grid.

If I recoup 5% of what I originally paid for installation, i, in the first year, that means that
5% of the installation cost was equal to the saving on energy bills in the first year, x, and
the number of kilowatt hours I gave back to the national grid, k, multiplied by 0.1 (to get
an answer in pounds).

In other words 0.05i = x + 0.1k

I know I sold back 5000 kWh, so I got 0.1 × 5000 = £500 for the energy I sold back to the
grid, so 0.05i = x + 500

In the second year, I recouped an additional 11.25 – 5 = 6.25% of the installation costs.
My energy bills in the second year would have been the same as my energy bills last year.
I sold 7500 kWh of energy to the grid, so I received £750. So, 0.0625i = x + 750

Therefore, solving simultaneous equations:

0.0625i − 0.05i = 0.0125i = 750 − 500 + x − x = 250

250/0.0125 = £20, 000

30. Answer = A

To calculate the distance, we can work out the area under the graph.

Car V travels at a constant speed for the entire 60 seconds – this is equivalent to a straight
line on the graph. Therefore, Car V travels 5 × 60 = 300 m.

For Car S you need to calculate the distance travelled during the first 10 seconds, then the
remaining 50 seconds. For the first 10 seconds Car S travelled: 20 × 10 × 0.5 = 100 m. For
the remaining 50 seconds car S travelled: 20 × 50 = 1000 m. The total distance travelled
by Car S in 60 seconds is 1000 + 100 m = 1100 m.

The difference is: 1100 – 300 = 800, so Car S travelled 800 m further than Car V.

31. Answer = D
The passage states that the ruling is ‘fundamentally unfair because careful female drivers
are now effectively subsidising their young and reckless male counterparts’. Yet, if ‘D’
were true, this would not be correct, as the fact that male drivers are more likely to suffer
a crash that leads to serious injury or death would no longer be particularly relevant to
arguments about premiums.

A is incorrect because it is not relevant to the argument presented.

B is incorrect because the argument does not state that drivers exclusively drive in one
way.

C is incorrect because, while it suggests that prior to the ruling male drivers were
subsidising women drivers, it does not weaken the argument that female drivers are being
penalised now.

E is incorrect because the argument is concerned with young male drivers being
subsidised; this point relates only to those over 35.

32. Answer = C

To start, calculate the number of doctors and nurses currently employed:

• Nurses = 480 × 55% = 264
• Doctors = 480 × 20% = 96

Then calculate the number of doctors and nurses after the additional 100 staff are
employed:
• Nurses = (480 + 100) × 55% = 319
• Doctors = (480 + 100) × 20% = 116

The final step is to add the number of new doctors and nurses = (319 – 264) + (116 – 96)
= 55 + 20 = 75.

33. Answer = E

A: Incorrect as the initial three digits are different (these represent the clinic code).

B: Incorrect as the 4/5 digits represent the day of the month which can therefore not be
larger than 31

C: Incorrect as the 6/7 digits represent the month which can therefore not be larger than
12
D: Incorrect as the security code should be 10 (125 – 22 = 103 / 10 = 10.3 = 10)

E: Correct

34. Answer = C

You know that each candle burns for 20 minutes, so by lighting one candle you can
measure 20 minutes (as well as 40 and 60 minutes as you have three candles).

If you were to light a candle from both ends simultaneously, it would burn in 10 minutes.
You can therefore measure 10, 20 and 30 minutes using this technique, or by combining
with lighting some from one end measure 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 or 60 minutes.

It is also possible to measure 15 minutes. Light two candles: one from one end and the
other from both ends. Once the candle lit from both ends has burnt out (10 minutes) then
light the second end of the first candle – which will now finish burning in 5 minutes. This
will make 15 minutes in total.

Note that as you only have three candles the maximum time period you can measure is 60
minutes.

35. Answer = A

The passage states that ‘in the Western world the idea of polygamy is seen as … morally
wrong’. But it goes on to say that, in ‘other parts of the world’, polygamy is ‘viewed as a
positive, rather than a negative, domestic dynamic’. By doing this, the passage
demonstrates the difficulty of applying moral judgement on a global scale.

B is incorrect because the passage does not evaluate the limitations of marriage in the
Western world.

C is incorrect because the passage does not attempt to make an argument either way; it
merely highlights two conflicting stances.

D is incorrect because the passage is balanced and does not attack or defend a position.
Nor is polygamy shown to be ‘universally’ seen one way or the other.

E is incorrect as the passage does not offer any evaluations or conclusions. It only draws
attention to perceptions.

Section 2
Answer Key:
Question Answer

1 C
2 G
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 B
7 D
8 E
9 A
10 D
11 C
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 A
16 C
17 D
18 A
19 E
20 C
21 B
22 B
23 D
24 C
25 D
26 D
27 E

Score Conversion:
Total Score Suggested BMAT Score

0 1.0
1 1.0
2 1.0
3 1.5
4 2.1
5 2.6
6 3.1
7 3.6
8 4.0
9 4.4
10 4.7
11 4.9
12 5.1
13 5.3
14 5.6
15 5.9
16 6.2
17 6.5
18 6.8
19 7.1
20 7.5
21 8.0
22 8.5
23 9.0
24 9.0
25 9.0
26 9.0
27 9.0
1. Answer = C

If individual C is heterozygous and expresses the illness, the disease must be dominant.
This means, if his daughters do not express the illness, they must both be homozygous
recessive.

If individual B is heterozygous and has a child with a homozygous recessive partner, the
chance that the child will have the disease is 50%.

If individual C is homozygous, and if his daughters do not express the disease, he must be
homozygous recessive. Moreover, if his daughters do not express the disease, they must
be heterozygous. Individual B must also be homozygous recessive to express the illness.
The chance of a homozygous recessive individual having a child that expresses the trait
with a heterozygous individual is also 50%.

2. Answer = G

None of the three statements is correct.

A) Incorrect: polymerisation occurs between alkene monomers. Alkenes discolour
bromine water, not hydrogen bromide – which is colourless anyway.
B) Incorrect: monomers must be unsaturated hydrocarbons.
C) Incorrect: although the first two molecules could be monomers, C2H4Cl2 could not be
a monomer because it would be completely saturated (i.e. no double bond between the
carbons).

3. Answer = C

If 3.6 dm3 of carbon monoxide is reacted, there must be 3.6/24 = 0.15 moles of carbon
monoxide being reacted. This means that we will get 2/3 × 0.15 = 0.1 moles of Fe.
Therefore, the total mass of Fe that we will end up with is 0.1 × 56 = 5.6 g.

4. Answer = A

Only answer option A is correct:

A) Correct: one mole of sodium-22 will have a mass of 22/1 = 22 g. Five years is equal to
two half-lives, so the mass of sodium-22 in the sample will halve then halve again: 22
× 0.5 × 0.5 = 5.5 g.
B) Incorrect: In positron beta-decay, a proton changes into a neutron. Hence the new
atomic number will be 10 and the atomic mass will remain unchanged at 22. The
difference is therefore 12.
C) Incorrect: as the new atomic number is 10, the newly formed element will also have 10
electrons. This gives it the same electronic configuration as neon, a noble gas that is
inert.

5. Answer = B

2
n +a
P = 1 − √
n+a

2
n +a
√ = 1 − P
n+a

2
n +a 2
= (1 − P )
n+a

2 2
n + a = (1 − P ) (n + a)

2 2 2
n + a = n(1 − P ) + a(1 − P )

2 2 2
a − a(1 − P ) = n(1 − P ) − n

2 2 2
a (1 − (1 − P ) ) = n(1 − P ) − n

2 2
n(1−P ) −n
a = 2
1−(1−P )

6. Answer = B

Remember that 1 L = 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3.

Eventually, the mass of the drug will be dissolved in a volume of fluid equal to the volume
of the blood and the volume of the fluid in the drip bag: 5 + 0.5 = 5.5 L = 5.5 dm 3.

The concentration of the drug in the body is given by moles ÷ 5.5 = 0.1 mmoldm3.

• 1 moldm−3 = 1000 mmoldm−3

• So 1 mmoldm−3 = 0.001 moldm−3

• 0.1 mmoldm−3 = 0.0001 moldm−3

• Therefore, moles = 0.0001 × 5.5 = 0.00055

The moles of the drug required is given by mass ÷ 300 = 0.00055. Therefore, the mass of
the drug required is 0.00055 × 300 = 0.165 g.
7. Answer = D
A. Incorrect: ligase sticks together genetic material.
B. Incorrect: human insulin produced by GM bacteria is used to treat diabetics. Normal
bacteria don’t produce insulin!
C. Incorrect: the insulin gene is inserted into bacterial plasmids. Insulin as a word by itself
refers to the protein.
D. Correct: normally, a human cell contains two copies of every gene (one on each
chromosome copy). During mitosis, the amount of genetic material in the cell doubles.
Hence there is a point in the cell cycle where it contains four copies of every gene.
E. Incorrect: ligase is an enzyme; increasing the temperature of ligase indefinitely will
eventually cause it to denature.

8. Answer = E

When both objects were held at 5 m above the ground, they both had potential energy of 5
× 10 × m = 50m joules (where m is the identical mass of each object).

At time t, object A has potential energy of 4 × 10 × m = 40m joules (PE = mgh). As it has
fallen in a vacuum, all of its potential energy must have been converted into kinetic
energy. Therefore it has 50 – 40 = 10m joules of kinetic energy. Since kinetic energy is
equal to ½ mv2, its velocity must equal:

• 10m = ½ mv 2

• 20 = v 2

• v = √20 = 2√5 ms−1

• Similarly, at time t object B has 30m joules of potential energy, 20m joules of kinetic
energy, and a velocity of √40 = 2√10 ms−1
A. Incorrect: 2√10 ms−1 > 2√5 ms−1, so B is moving faster.
B. Incorrect: object B has less potential energy than object A.
C. Incorrect: the objects are falling in a vacuum, so no energy will be lost as heat due to
drag.
D. Incorrect: the kinetic energy of each object will simply be equal to the lost potential
energy.
E. Correct: If the velocity of object B is 2√10 ms−1 and the velocity of A is 2√5 ms−1
then object B is moving at a velocity that is greater than object A’s velocity by a factor
of 2√10 ÷ 2√5 = √10/√5 = √2 times faster.
9. Answer = A

Set up a series of simultaneous equations and solve:

• For moles of H: 2a + b = 2 + 2d
• For moles of S: a = 1
• For moles of O: 4a = d
• For moles of I: b = 2c

So 2 + b = 2 + 2d

b = 2d = 2c
d=4
c=4
b=8
10. Answer = D

Assessing each option in turn:

1. Correct – when 2x 2 + 3 = x + 3, 0 = x(1 – 2x). Hence, x = 0 when the two lines cross
and the corresponding coordinate is (0,3).
2. Correct – f(x – 1) = 2(x – 1)2 + 3 = 2(x 2 – 2x +1) + 3 = 2x2 – 4x + 5.
3. Incorrect – f(x – 1) = 2x2 – 4x + 5, but it represents a translation of 1 along the x-axis,
not – 1.

11. Answer = C

Neuronal signals travel along neurons – they are elicited at the nerve cell dendrites and
then travel along the length of the axon. In a reflex arc, the correct order in which the
signal moves is:

Receptor tissue → sensory neuron → interneuron → motor neuron → effector tissue

12. Answer = D

The container should be made from wood, because wood is a better thermal insulator than
metal.
Its interior and exterior should be shiny, because shiny surfaces are poor absorbers and
emitters of heat.

We will not be able to absorb heat from the surroundings, because the tea will be hotter
than the surroundings. Hence we do not need a matt exterior to absorb ambient
surrounding heat. Instead, we want to slow down heat loss.

13. Answer = B

From the description, we know the type of organic substance we are dealing with is a
carboxylic acid. The combined masses in the empirical formula come to (12 × 2) + 16 +
(4 × 1) = 44. Therefore, the molecule has a formula of C4O2H8. As it has four carbons, it
must be butanoic acid.

14. Answer = A
A. Incorrect: If a cell is placed into distilled water, calcium ions will move out of it down
their concentration gradient.
B. Correct: if a cell is placed in 2 mmolL−1 calcium ion solution, protein X has to move
ions against a larger concentration gradient, so its energy consumption will increase.
C. Correct: the extracellular solution is more dilute than the cytoplasm, so water will
move inwards by diffusion.
D. Correct: as above.
E. Correct: 1 mmolL−1 = 1000 μmolL−1. Therefore 1000 ÷ 0.1 = 10,000.

15. Answer = A

There are several ways I could pick out two reds and a blue:
1. I could pick out a red first, then a blue, then another red (then I would have to stop).
2. I could pick out a red first, then another red, then a blue, then a green.

The probability of situation 1 happening is 1/3 × 3/8 × 2/7 = 1/28

The probability of situation 2 happening is 1/3 × 2/8 × 3/7 × 3/6 = 1/56

So the overall probability of getting two red balls and a single blue ball is 1/28 + 1/56 =
3/56

16. Answer = C
A. Correct: as the object moves towards the speaker, it will encounter sound waves in
quicker succession than if it was stationary. In other words, for the object the time
 period of the waves will seem shorter. As time period is inversely proportional to
frequency, it will encounter higher-frequency sound waves.
B. Correct: 330/1650 = 0.2 m; 3 × 108/3 × 1010 = 0.01 m. Remember, 300,000 km/s = 3
× 108 m/s and that 1 GHz = 1 × 109 Hz.
C. Incorrect: Sound waves are longitudinal. However, by definition, if a wave travels
through a medium the particles in that medium do not undergo a net displacement due
to the wave. Hence the air particles in this scenario would in fact oscillate around a
fixed position in a movement that is parallel to the direction of travel of the wave.
D. Correct: ultrasound imaging of foetuses, for instance.
E. Correct: due to the Doppler effect, the sound waves that reach the person will have
spread out and will be perceived at a lower frequency than the frequency at which they
are emitted by the loudspeaker. So the person will perceive a lower tone than is
produced by the loudspeaker, and the loudspeaker will be producing a tone that is
higher than that perceived by the person.

17. Answer = D
A. Incorrect: structure 1 is the salivary glands. These produce saliva containing amylase
but not protease (which would digest the mouth!).
B. Incorrect: stomach acid forms part of the innate immune system.
C. Incorrect: structure 2 shows the oesophagus, but it is the trachea that is maintained by
C-shaped rings of cartilage.
D. Correct: structure 6 indicates the jejunum.
E. Incorrect: structure 11, the gall bladder, receives bile synthesised by the liver, structure
12, and secretes it into the small intestine.

18. Answer = A

We are looking at a sequence; it is clear that the differences between the terms are not
constant (they are 2, 5, 8 and 11). However, the differences between the differences are all
3. Hence the size of the area on a particular day can be described as part of a quadratic
sequence.

As the difference between the differences is 3, the expression for the sequence must
contain 1.5n2.

The differences between the terms in the sequence and the corresponding 1.5n2 parts is

5 – 1.5(12) = 3.5
7 – 1.5(22) = 1

12 – 1.5(32) = −1.5

20 – 1.5(42) = −4

31 – 1.5(52) = −6.5

Hence the expression for the nth term contains the arithmetic sequence – 2.5n + 6.

So overall, the expression is 1.5n2 – 2.5n + 6.

Therefore, on day 30, the patch will have an area of 1.5(302) – 2.5 × 30 + 6 = 1281 mm2.

19. Answer = E

Both statements B and C are correct:

A) Incorrect: resistors R2 and R3 are arranged in series with each other, but in parallel to
resistor R1. Therefore, the total resistance of the resistors in the ‘parallel’ part of the
circuit can be found out from 1/Rpara = 1/R1 + 1/(R2 + R3). So Rpara is (R1 + R2 +
R3) ÷ R1(R2 + R3).
Resistors R1, R2 and R3 are arranged in series to resistor R4, so the total resistance of
the circuit is (Rpara + R4).
The current shown by A1 and A2 will be equal, but it will be equal to V ÷ (Rpara +
R4) = V ÷ ((R1 + R2 + R3)/R1(R2 + R3)) = VR1(R2 + R3) ÷ (R1 + R2 + R3).
B) Correct: we are told in the question that fixed resistors are used in the circuit.
Therefore, the resistance will remain constant regardless of the voltage across the
resistor.
C) Correct: resistance multiplied by current will give us the voltage across the component.
A definition of voltage is the amount of work that is performed on each unit of charge
to move it through a component. A volt can also be written as a joule per coulomb.

20. Answer = C

Only answer option, C, is correct:

A) Incorrect: the ionic half-equation should be Cu2+ + 2e− → Cu
B) Incorrect: if a copper anode is placed in copper (II) sulfate solution and a voltage is
applied, the anode will be positively charged and lose Cu2+ ions into the solution.
 Gradually, it will decrease in size.
C) Correct: the reaction in the equation is a displacement reaction showing that zinc is
more reactive than copper. If carbon is more reactive than zinc, carbon will therefore
be more reactive than copper.

21. Answer = B

Only answer option, B, is correct:

A) Incorrect: we can tell from the question that the patient is female. Therefore it cannot
be a Y-linked disorder!
B) Correct: during anaerobic exercise, glucose is converted to lactate. Lactate is then
converted into CO2 by reacting it with oxygen. If the patient is less able to transport
oxygen, this second process will be impaired.
C) Incorrect: an increase in lactate, or lactic acid, following a period of anaerobic exercise
will lead to blood having a lower pH. So as lactate will persist in the patient’s blood
for longer than in a healthy individual, her pH will remain lowered for longer.

22. Answer = B

It is pushed at a constant speed across a horizontal surface, so the driving force acting
upon it must be equal to the friction acting upon it. Hence the driving force is also 40 kN.

Work = force × distance, so 1,000,000 = 40,000 × distance (m)

Distance = 1,000,000/40,000 = 25 m

Note that the weight of the block is not needed to answer the question.

23. Answer = D

If a catalyst is used, the reaction will have a faster rate. However, if the temperature is
raised, the endothermic direction of the reaction will be favoured and less ammonia will
be produced at equilibrium. Therefore we are looking for the graph with a steeper initial
gradient, but a smaller plateau, than the one in the question. Only Graph D fulfils these
criteria.

24. Answer = C

Only answer option, C, is correct:

A) Incorrect: note that the scores of the three highest-scoring students were removed.
This means that the average of these students’ scores, a, must be greater than the
 average score of the rest of the candidates.
B) Incorrect: the median score might change; therefore this statement cannot definitely be
true. If it helps, create a thought experiment to see if you can identify when the
median score would change. For instance, if the scores happened to be
1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9
then the median is initially 3. However, if the top 3 marks are removed then the
median changes to 2.5.
C) Correct: the total score, including the scores of the cheaters, is given by T(x + y). The
cheaters scored an average of a, so in total they got a combined score of 3a. So the
new total score for the test once the cheaters’ marks are removed is T(x + y) – 3a. To
work out the new average, we just have to divide that by the number of non-cheating
students, x + y – 3.

25. Answer = D
A. Three free neutrons are released as a result of the nuclear fission of uranium-235.
B. Uranium-236 is produced momentarily in the nuclear fission chain reaction of
uranium-235 when the nucleus of a uranium-235 absorbs one of the free neutrons that
was produced by a previous fission event.
C. Both nuclear fusion and fission release heat energy (usually in large quantities).
D. Deuterium is a hydrogen isotope of mass 2 that can be fused with a hydrogen-1 isotope
to produce helium-3. It will not be produced as a result of the fusion of hydrogen,
because the resulting atom will have too many protons in its nucleus.
E. Krypton-90 is a possible by-product of the fission of uranium-235. An unstable
uranium-236 nucleus may split to form krypton-90 and barium-143.
F. Helium-3 is the product of a fusion between deuterium and hydrogen-1.

26. Answer = D
A. Incorrect: we can see that amino acids are produced in nutrient mixtures B and C after
treatment with Preparation 3, so Preparation 3 must contain enzymes. Preparation 2 is
in fact the saline solution since it elicits no change.
B. Incorrect: we know that nutrient mixture A contains glucose from the start. However,
because amylase breaks down starch into glucose, we cannot know for sure if mixture
A contains starch with this method (glucose produced from starch is non-
distinguishable from pre-existing glucose in this case).
C. Incorrect: we know that B contains starch, because after treatment with preparation A
glucose was present in the mixture when it hadn’t been previously. We also know it
contains protein, because amino acids were produced for the first time after the
addition of preparation 3. However, we cannot know for sure if mixture B contained
 fat too, because glycerol was present in B from the start, and this would have hidden
the presence of glycerol produced by the breakdown of fat.
D. Correct: preparation 1 elicits the production of glycerol from C, so C must contain fat
(and 1 must contain lipase). Preparation 3 elicits the production of amino acids, so C
must contain protein as well (and 3 must contain protease).
E. Incorrect: if this was true, we would expect to find amino acids in all three mixtures (A,
B and C) after treatment; however, none is present in mixture A so this cannot be the
case.

27. Answer = E
A. Correct: an object with circular motion will have a constantly changing velocity,
because it is changing direction constantly (in which case it will be accelerating).
However, it may still be moving at a constant speed.
B. Correct: if the train is moving on straight rails its direction cannot change. Therefore a
change in velocity can only come from a change in speed.
C. Correct: if an object is falling at terminal velocity, the vertical forces acting upon it
must be balanced. However, horizontal forces may still be unbalanced. (Imagine a
skydiver with an open parachute, falling at terminal velocity. A breeze may still push
her horizontally, even though she maintains a falling terminal velocity.)
D. Correct: work done is equal to the force applied to an object multiplied by the distance
that is moved in the direction of that force. The force will be proportional to the mass
of the object, since F = ma. Hence:
W = F × d = m × a × d, so work done will be proportional to the mass of the object.
E. Incorrect: an object of mass 10 g will have a weight of 0.01 × 10 = 0.1 N acting upon
it. This is not balanced with the drag of 100 N, so the object will decelerate.

Section 3
1. ‘The medical profession, after all, deals partly with guess work; we do not deal in
absolutes.’ Paul Beeson, MD

Explain what this statement means. Argue that there are times when the medical
profession does deal with absolutes. To what extent do you agree that the medical
profession deals partly with guesswork?

Notes

Explain it
Key terms:

Partly – To an extent

Deals in – Is predicated upon

Guess work – Things we do not know for certain

Absolutes – Things that are beyond dispute

Therefore:

Paul Beeson is saying that the medical profession is, to an extent, predicated upon things
we do not know for certain. It is not based solely on things that are beyond dispute. (32
words)

Argue objectively
Arguments to the contrary, i.e. where the medical profession DOES deal with absolutes:
• Raised blood pressure readings following 24-hour monitoring.
• You either have a condition, or you do not.
• Histological diagnosis of tumour cells for bowel cancer.

Express an opinion
Arguments for the medical profession dealing partly with guesswork.
• Appendicitis cannot be diagnosed with 100% accuracy prior to operation.
• Psychiatric conditions.

Conclusion
In theory, there are no absolutes.

Much of medicine is based on very informed guesswork, founded upon experience.

Sample answer
Paul Beeson is saying that the medical profession is, to an extent, predicated upon things
we do not know for certain. It is not based solely on things that are beyond dispute.
However, there are times when a doctor does need to deal in absolutes. For instance, when
checking whether someone has raised blood pressure, their readings are monitored for 24
hours. If the readings are above an absolute numerical level, they are considered to have
high blood pressure. While where the cut-off is set can be disputed, the number cannot.

The clearest example of ‘absolutes’ in medicine arises when someone either has a
condition, or they do not. In the histological diagnosis of tumour cells for bowel cancer, a
result will be returned that says that the patient either does, or does not, have bowel
cancer.

In the most extreme instance, someone is either alive or dead.

However, Paul Beeson does have a valid point when he suggests that part of medicine is
based on guesswork.

If there is a strong suspicion of appendicitis, a patient will often undergo the operation to
remove their appendix. This is because there is no categorical way to exclude the
possibility of appendicitis. The operation is therefore based on the suspicions – or best
guess – of the doctor.

There are some medical fields that are predicated more on guesswork than others.
Psychiatry is a good example of this. Since there often no visible symptoms of psychiatric
disorders, they can be extremely difficult to diagnose with certainty. Therefore,
psychiatrists must use their insights to provide an informed opinion – or best guess.

In theory, there are no absolutes. There is always a chance of human error – whether it is
in diagnosing diseases of the body, the mind, or even in pronouncing someone dead. To
that extent, doctors are always partaking in ‘guesswork’.

The responsibility of a good doctor is to make his or her guesses as informed as possible,
based on years of training and experience.

2. ‘A man who cannot work without his hypodermic needle is a poor doctor. The
amount of narcotic you use is inversely proportional to your skill.’ Martin H.
Fischer

Explain the argument behind this statement. Argue to the contrary, that the use of
narcotics does not suggest a lack of medical skill. To what extent do you agree that being
able to work without a hypodermic needle is the sign of a skilful doctor?

Notes
Explain it
Key terms:

‘A man’ – in this context, a doctor

‘Cannot’ – unable

‘Hypodermic needle’ – means of administering drugs

‘Narcotic’ – drugs/medications

‘Inversely proportional to your skill’ – the more you do it, the less skill you have

Therefore:

Martin Fischer is suggesting that a doctor unable to work without administering drugs is
bad at their job, and that those who administer large amounts of drugs have less skill than
those who administer less. (35 words)

Argue objectively
Arguments to the contrary, i.e. that the use of narcotics does not represent a lack of skill:
• Narcotics are a very important part of medicine.
• Some fields, like anaesthesia, rely more heavily on narcotics than others.
• Administering of narcotics is a very precise skill, e.g. controlling blood pressure.

Express an opinion
Arguments for being able to work without a hypodermic needle being the mark of a good
doctor:
• Some doctors might be over-reliant on narcotics at the expense of other skills.
• Overuse of drugs has negative consequences, e.g. resistance.

Conclusion
Narcotics are necessary but should be used sensibly.

Good doctors know when and how to administer.

Sample answer
Martin Fischer is suggesting that a doctor unable to work without administering drugs is
bad at their job, and that those who administer large amounts of drugs have less skill than
those who administer less.

However, there are many cases where the administering of large amounts of narcotics to
various patients does not represent a lack of skill.

Narcotics are a very important part of modern medicine. They can be used to control and
cure ailments that otherwise would progress to the detriment of the patient. For example,
drugs are often used to control blood pressure. This has many benefits, such as reducing
the chances of suffering a stroke.

There are also some medical fields that rely more heavily on the administering of
narcotics than others. For example, the job of the anaesthetist is to administer drugs so
that the patient remains unconscious during serious operations. In this case, the ability to
do this well is the mark of a good doctor – not of a bad one.

In general medicine, the administering of narcotics is extremely important. Being able to

give the right doses of the right drugs in the right situation is a precise art.

Nonetheless, Fischer does raise an important point. Many doctors might be considered to
rely too heavily upon the administering of narcotics. This might be to the detriment of
other skills that a good doctor should have, such as providing a precise diagnosis.

In some cases, using drugs where they are unnecessary might have undesirable
consequences. For instance, if antibiotics are given too readily when they are not needed,
harmful bacteria can develop resistance to them.

In conclusion, narcotics are a necessary and important part of modern medicine. However,
they should be used sensibly. The skill of a good doctor comes in knowing when to use
narcotics, and when not to, in order to benefit the patient.
Index

A
acceleration, 91–5, 179
acetate, 85
acids, 79–80, 83
activation energy, 77–9
active transport, 39, 55
addition reactions, 81
ADH (antidiuretic hormone), 56–7
ad hominem, 9–10
adrenaline, 58
aerobic respiration, 50
aerodynamic drag, 94
alcohols, 82–3, 164
algebraic operations, 110–11
alkaline solutions, 67, 80
alkanes, 81–2
alkenes, 81–3, 196
alpha decay, 102–4
alternate angles, 117
aluminium, 65–6, 103–4
amino acids, 46, 54–5, 61, 178, 203
ammeters, 77, 86, 174
ammonia
chemical symbol for, 69
and halide ions, 68
in nitrogen cycle, 61
reaction forming, 67, 71, 176, 202
amplitude, 98
amylase, 54, 203
anaerobic respiration, 51, 175, 201
angles, 117–21
of reflection and refraction, 99
animal cells, 36–7, 51
antibodies, 59
approximations, 110
arc, length of, 122
argon, 68
argument flaws, 8–12, 152, 155, 184, 186
arguments
counterbalancing, 145–6, 149
glossary of terminology, 17
objective, 135–6, 138–9, 143–5, 147, 149, 204, 206
strengthening and weakening, 13–16, 156, 161, 166, 187, 189, 192–3
understanding, 3, 167, 180, 194
arteries, 53
asexual reproduction, 40
assembly style questions, 31–2
assumptions, 6–8, 159, 164, 188, 191–2
atomic mass, relative, 62–3, 72
atomic number, 62–3, 103, 169, 196
atomic structure, 62–3
autosomal dominant traits, 43
autosomal recessive traits, 43
averages, 128–9, 177, 202
axes, 125–6, 128

B
bacteria, in nitrogen cycle, 61
bacterial cells, 38
balanced equations, 70–2, 74
bar charts, 26, 124
bases, 79–80
B-cells, 59
bearings, 123, 190
beta decay, 103–4, 169
bifurcation fallacy, 9–11
biomass, 59–60, 83
blood glucose regulation, 57
blood vessels, 53
BMAT (BioMedical Admissions Test)
mock exam, 150–80
overview, ix–x
 registration for, x–xi
results, xii
Section 1, 1–2
Section 2, 35–6
Section 3, 135–8
strategy, xii–xiii
Bowman’s capsule, 55
box plots, 26, 127
brine, 75
bromide ions, 68
bromine water, 81

C
calcium, 63, 65–6, 172
calcium carbonate, 60, 83, 172
calcium ions, 172, 199
calculators, working without, 28–9, 33, 106, 108
cancer radiotherapy, 102, 104
capillaries, 50–1, 53, 55–6
carbon
allotropes of, 64
and metal extraction, 65–6, 175, 201
carbonates, 68, 80, 83
carbon–carbon bonds, 81–3, 196
carbon chains, 80–1
carbon cycle, 60
carbon dioxide
and acids, 80
in carbon cycle, 60
chemical symbol for, 69
and hydrocarbon combustion, 81, 83, 172
in respiration, 50
carbon monoxide, 50, 69, 169, 196
carboxylic acids, 83, 199
catalysts
biological, 41
nickel, 81
and position of equilibrium, 72
 and rate of reaction, 79, 176, 202
transition metals as, 67
cell division and reproduction, 39–40
cell membranes, 36
movement across, 39
cell nucleus, 36, 38
cell structure, 36–8
cell wall, 37–8
chain reaction, 105
chemical bonding, 63–4
chemical equations, 69, 72, 175
balancing, 69–70
chemical reactions, 69–72
yield of, 73–4
chemical symbols, 62, 69
chloride ions, 68
chlorine, 67–8, 71, 75–6, 82
chloroplast, 37–8
chromatography, 74
circles, 121–2
circuits, electrical, 86–9
circular reasoning, 9, 11
circulatory system, 51–3
circumference, 121–2
collision theory, 77
colorimetry, 77
combination answer questions, 1–2, 27
combustion, 60, 81, 83
compounds, separating, 75
concentration
and rate of reaction, 77–8
and solubility, 73
concentration gradient, 39, 50, 56, 172, 199
conclusion
in arguments, 3–5, 162, 191
in essay question, 135–6, 138, 146–7
conditional probabilities, 132–3
conductors
electrical, 64–5, 67, 85–6, 90, 97
thermal, 97
cone, 122
conflation, 9–10
congruence, 118
conjunctions, 139
content, quality of, 136–8
content flaws, 12
context, applying, 141–2
convection, 98
copper
extraction of, 65–6, 175, 201
purifying, 76
corresponding angles, 117–18
covalent bonding, 63–4
critical angle, 99
cubes, 30, 118, 122, 158
cubic functions, 114
cumulative frequency graphs, 26, 126
current, electrical, 85–90
cylinder, 122
cytoplasm, 36, 38, 46, 50, 172, 199

D
decimal places, 110
definitions, in essay questions, 141–2, 144, 148–9
densities, 67–8, 97–9
diagrams, in essay questions, 147–8
diamond, 64
diffusion, 39, 50–1, 199
digestive system, 53–5, 173, 200
dihaloalkanes, 82
displacement reactions, 66, 75, 201
disproportionation reaction, 70
distance–time graphs, 92

DNA
chromosomal, 38
structure of, 46
Doppler effect, 99–100, 200
drag, 94–6
dynamic equilibrium, 71–2

E
echo, 100
electricity, static, 85
electrolysis, 65–6, 75–6
electromagnetic waves, 98, 100–1
electrons, in atomic structure, 62–3
empirical formula, 72, 172, 199
endothermic reactions, 71, 78
energy
conservation of, 96
internal, 97
see also heat
use of term, 95
energy efficiency, 96
energy transfer, 89, 95, 97–8
English, quality of, 137
enzyme-catalysed reactions, 36, 41–2, 54
enzymes, 41
digestive, 54–5, 178
restriction, 46–7
equilibrium, position of, 71–2
essays
planning, 139
practicing writing, 137
sample answers, 205, 207
timing, 148–9
esters, 83, 172
Euler’s formula, 191
evaporation, 97
evidence, types of, 17
exocytosis, 39
exothermic reactions, 71, 79, 176
exponential functions, 116
exterior angles, 118
F
factors, mathematical, 106, 109, 112, 116, 170
filament lamp, 87
flagellum, 38
flaw of causation, 9
fluency, 135, 137, 139
fluids
osmolarity of, 56
transfer of heat through, 98
fluorine, 68, 71, 82
food chains, 59–60
force
and energy, 95
friction, 176, 201–2
and momentum, 94
and Newton’s Laws, 93
fractional distillation, 74
fractions, 70, 108–11
free-fall, 94
frequency, of waves, 98
frequency density, 127
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone), 58
functional groups, 80–3

G
gamma decay, 103
gamma radiation, 102–4
gases
convection through, 98
in fractional distillation, 74
and moles, 73
as phase of matter, 97
and pressure, 71
and rate of reaction, 77
at room temperature, 68
see also noble gases
gas exchange, 49–51, 53
Geiger counter, 105
generalisations, 9, 11
genetic modification, 46–7
genetic pedigrees, 43
genetics, terminology of, 42
genetic variation, 40, 45
giant metallic structure, 64
glucagon, 57
glucose
and digestive enzymes, 178, 203
and osmoregulation, 57
and photosynthesis, 60
and renal system, 55
and respiration, 50–1, 201
glycerol, 54–5, 178, 203
glycogen, 55, 57
gold, 65–6
gradients, 23, 77, 90, 92, 114
grammar, 137, 139
graphite, 64
graphs
distance–time, 92
gradient and area under, 23, 90, 165–6, 192
rate of reaction, 77–8
types of, 124–8
of various functions, 114–17, 171, 198
velocity–time, 92–3
voltage–current, 86–7
graphs and data analysis, 26–8
gravitational potential energy, 95
gravity, 94–5, 170, 179

H
haemoglobin, 50
half-equations, 71, 175, 201
half-life, 104–5
halide ions, 68
haloalkanes, 82
halogens, 67–8, 82
HCF (highest common factor), 106
heart, and circulatory system, 51–2
heat
as energy loss, 96
and phases of matter, 97
transfer of, 64, 97–8
heat energy, 97, 178, 202
helium, 68, 102–3, 105, 178, 202
hepatic portal vein, 55
heterozygous, 42–3, 168, 195–6
hidden objects, 29
histograms, 26, 127
homeostasis, 56–7
homozygous, 42–3, 168, 195–6
hormones, 57–8
hydrocarbon molecules, 80–3
hydrogen
chemical symbol, 69
electronic configuration of, 63
and nuclear fusion, 105, 178, 202
oxidation number, 71
hydrogenation, 67, 81
hydrogen bonding, 82
hydrogen halides, 82
hydrogen ions, 75, 79
hydroxide ions, 75, 79
hypotenuse, 119

I
immiscible liquids, 75
immune system, 53, 59, 173, 200
index laws, 106–7
inequalities, 112
infrared radiation, 98, 101, 173
insulation, 85, 97, 171, 199
insulin, 47, 57, 170, 197
interior angles, 117–18, 123
interquartile range, 129
iodide ions, 68
ion exchange membrane, 75–6
ionic bonding, 63
ionic equations, 68, 70–1, 201
ionic lattice structures, 64
ions, 62–4
charge on common, 69
iron, 65–7, 69, 169
isotopes, 63, 105, 169
IUPAC (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry), 80

K
key terms, 141–2, 148, 204, 206
kidneys, see renal system
kinetic energy, 77, 95–8, 170, 197–8

L
lactate, 51, 175, 201
language, objective and subjective, 144–5, 147
LCM (lowest common multiple), 106
LH (luteinising hormone), 58
ligase, 47, 170, 197
light
as energy, 96
speed of, 100
visible, 101–2
linear equations, 114
line graphs, 26, 114, 125
line of best fit, 128
liquids, 39, 68–9, 74–6, 96–8
lithium, 66–7
logical reasoning, 18, 20–3, 25
longitudinal waves, 98, 100
loop of Henle, 56
lower quartile, 126–7, 129

M
magnesium, 65–6, 71, 103
magnitude, orders of, 28
mass, use of term, 94
mathematical reasoning, 18
matter, phases of, 96–7
mean, 128, 163, 191
median, 126–9, 177, 202
The Medic Portal, xii, 34
meiosis, 39–41, 45
menstrual cycle, 57
metal extraction, 65
metallic bonding, 63
metals
and acids, 80
alkali, 66–8
and covalent structures, 64
and displacement reactions, 66
oxidation numbers of, 70
in periodic table, 65
transition, 67, 69
microvilli, 55
microwaves, 101
miscible liquids, 74
mitosis, 39, 41, 197
mode, 129
molecular formula, 72
molecular mass, relative, 63, 72, 170, 197
molecular structures, 64
moles, 72–3, 169, 196–8
momentum, 93–4
monohybrid crosses, 42–3
monomers, 83–4, 168, 196
mRNA, 46
multiples, 106, 108
mutations, 45–6, 175
mutually exclusive outcomes, 130, 132

N
natural selection, 45
navigation questions, 33–4, 161, 190
nephrons, 55–6
nervous system, 48
neuronal signalling, 171, 198
neurones, flowing sequence of, 48
neutrons
in atomic structure, 62
in nuclear fission, 105
in radioactivity, 102–3
Newton’s Laws, 93
nitric acid, 68–9
nitrogen cycle, 61
noble gases, 63, 68
nuclear fission, 105, 178, 202
nuclear fusion, 105, 178, 202
nucleoid, 38
number sequence questions, 22–3, 29

O
oestrogen, 58
OILRIG (Oxidation is Loss, Reduction is Gain), 70
opposite angles, 117, 121
organic chemistry, 80
osmoregulation, 56–7
osmosis, 37, 39, 56–7, 172
oxidation numbers, 70–1
oxidation states, 67, 70
oxygen
and alkali metals, 67
and circulation, 51–2
and respiration, 50–1
in silica, 64
oxygenated blood, 51–3

P
parallel circuits, 87–9
parallelogram, 122
Parthenon model, 3, 5–6, 8–9, 13–15
partial table questions, 19–20
particles
collision of, 77, 97
subatomic, 62
percentage composition by mass, 72–3
percentages, 108–9
Periodic Table, 63–7, 69
peristalsis, 53–4
permanent vacuole, 37
pH, 79–80
and enzyme-catalysed reactions, 42
phagocytosis, 39
pie charts, 26, 124
PIN number questions, 20–2, 150, 167, 182, 193
pinocytosis, 39
pituitary gland, 56, 58
plant cells, 37–8
plasmid, 38
pleural cavity, 49
polygons, regular, 118
polymers, 83–4, 168, 196
polythene, 84–5
populations
genetic variation in, 40
interactions between, 60
positrons, 103–4, 169, 196
potassium, 65–7
potential energy (PE), 95–6, 170, 197–8
power
electrical, 89–90
and energy, 95
power generation, 90–1
premises, and conclusions, 3–5
pressure
blood, 51–3, 55
osmotic, 37–8
and position of equilibrium, 71–2
and rate of reaction, 77
prime factorisation, 106
prime numbers, 106
prism, 122
probability, 43, 104, 130–3, 172, 199
progesterone, 58
proportions, 72, 86, 109, 124
protease, 53–4, 178, 203
protein synthesis, 36, 46
protons, 62–3, 102–3, 202
pulmonary circulation, 51
punctuation, 137, 139
Punnett squares, 42–3
pyramid, 122
Pythagoras’ Theorem, 34, 119–20

Q
quadratic equations, 111–14, 200
quantitative chemistry, 72

R
radiation, 46, 56, 98, 100–2, 104, 173
radiation sickness, 101–2, 104
radioactivity, 102–5
radio waves, 101
range, 127, 129
rate of reaction, 41–2, 76–9, 125
rational expressions, simplifying, 111
ratios, 43, 65, 72, 109, 188
reactivity, 65–6, 68, 104
reasoning, explaining, 142–3
reciprocal functions, 115
reciprocal law, 88
rectangle, 122
redox reactions, 70–1
reflection, 98–9, 117
reflex arc, 48–9, 171, 198
refraction, 99
renal system, 55–7
resistance
antibiotic, 38
electrical, 86–8, 174, 201
resistors, fixed, 86–7, 174
respiration, 50–1, 60
respiratory system, 49–50
reversible reactions, 71, 74
ribosomes, 36, 46
room conditions, 73
rotation, 29–30, 123, 152–4, 185–6, 190

S
salts, 55–6, 80, 83, 172
saturation point, 73
scatter diagrams, 26–7, 128
segment
alternate, 121
area of, 122
semicolons, 139
sentence structure, 137, 139–40
separation techniques, 74–5
sequences, arithmetic, 113–14, 200
series circuits, 87–9
sex determination, 40
sexual reproduction, 40, 45
shapes
2D, 122, 152–4, 185
3D, 120, 122, 163, 187, 191
side chains, 80–1
significant figures, 110
silica, 64
silver, 65–6, 69
silver nitrate, 68
similarity, 118
simultaneous equations, 111, 192, 198
single answer questions, 1–2
smoke alarms, 104
sodium, 65–7, 169, 196
sodium hydroxide, 69, 75, 80
sodium ions, 75
solids, 64, 76, 96–8
solubility, 73–4, 83
sound waves, 100, 173, 199–200
spatial reasoning, 1, 29
speed, 23, 91–2
spelling, 137
spheres, 122
squares, 112, 122, 186
standard conditions, 73
Standard Index Form, 107
starch, 54, 178, 203
statements
arguing for, 145–6
arguing to the contrary of, 143–4
as basis of essay questions, 138, 140–3
steam, 82
stem cells, 47
sterilisation, 102, 104
straw man fallacy, 9–10
structural flaws, 12
sublimation, 68
surds, 109–10
surface area
and microvilli, 55
and radiation, 98
and rate of reaction, 77
systemic circulation, 51

T
T-cells, 59
temperature
and enzyme-catalysed reactions, 41
internal, 56
and position of equilibrium, 71
and rate of reaction, 77
testosterone, 58
thermoregulation, 56
time and date questions, 18–19, 22
titanium, 65
transformations of functions, 116
transformers, electrical, 89–90
translation
of functions, 116, 171, 198
in protein synthesis, 36, 46
transverse waves, 98, 100
trapezium, 122
travel questions, 23–5
triangles, 118–19, 122, 185–6
trigonometric relationships, 119
tRNA, 46
true/false questions, 38

U
UKCAT (United Kingdom Clinical Aptitude Test), ix, xii, 2, 4
ultrasound, 100
ultraviolet radiation, 101
upper bound, 110, 126
upper quartile, 126, 129
uranium-235, 105, 178, 202
urine, 55–7

V
value judgements, 6
vectors, 34, 47, 91, 123
veins, 51, 53
velocity
constant, 93
as rate, 90
terminal, 94–5, 179, 203
as vector, 91–2
velocity–time graph, 92–3
Venn diagrams, 26, 130–1, 183
ventilation, 49–50
villi, 53, 55
visualisation, 29, 31
vocabulary, 137, 140, 149
voltage, 86–90, 174–5, 201

W
water
and acid reactions, 80, 83
and alkali metals, 67
chemical symbol for, 69
and digestion, 54
and hydrocarbon combustion, 81
and osmosis, 37, 39
and renal system, 56–7
and respiration, 50–1
solubility in, 74
wavelength, 98–9, 101–2, 173
waves, 98–102, 173, 199–200
wave-speed, 99
weathering, 60
weight, use of term, 94

X
X-linked dominant traits, 44
X-linked recessive traits, 44
X-rays, 101, 173
Z
zinc, 66, 175, 201