DNA and RNA Structure Function Practice

MCQ question
1. The concept of nucleic acid was postulated by
a) J F Miescher
b) Frederick Griffith
c) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
d) Watson and Crick

2) Which of the statement is NOT true about Griffith’s transformation experiment

a) Griffith’s in vivo experiments demonstrated transformation in Pneumococcus.
b) Provided no indication as to the molecular basis of the transformation phenomenon.
c) Griffith showed that a transforming substance existed
d) Griffith used P32 and S35 to label bacterial phage nucleic acids and proteins respectively

3) Which of the statement is most CORRECT about the experiments carried out by Avery,
MacLeodand McCarty’s
a) In vitro experiment demonstrated transformation in Pneumococcus
b) Provided proof that the transforming principle is DNA
c) The researcher isolated DNA in “pure” form and demonstrated that it could mediate
transformation
d) a,b and c above

4) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase demonstrated DNA as the genetic material in
bacteriophage
a) Pneumococci
b) T2
c) Lambda phage
d) E.coli

5) Which statement is CORRECT about the differences in the chemical structures of

DNA and protein that allow Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase to label one or the other
of these macromolecules with a radioactive isotope?
a) DNA contains phosphorus but no sulfur
b) Proteins contain sulfur but no phosphorus
c) Both a) and b) are correct
d) None are true

6) Which of the statement is most appropriate about the genetic material

1
 a) RNA is genetic material in some of the algal species
b) DNA is the genetic material in all the eukaryotes and some prokaryotes
c) Some of the prokaryotes have RNA or protein as the genetic material
d) All the above are true

7) The available background information utilized by Watson and Crick for developing a
DNAdouble helix model-
a) The ladder like pattern was known from X-ray diffraction studies
b) Physical data concerning the length of each spiral and the stacking of bases
c) Chemical analyses had shown that a 1:1 relationship existed between adenine
andthymine and between cytosine and guanine.
d) All the above.

8) Indicate which of the following statements about the structure of DNA is FALSE
a) Hydrogen bonding provides stability to the double helix in aqueous cytoplasms.
b) Hydrophobic bonding provides stability to the double helix in aqueous cytoplasms.
c) When denatured , the two strands of a double helix are identical.
d) Once the base sequence of one strand of a DNA double helix is known, the base
sequenceof the second strand can be deduced

9) Which of the statement is correct about DNA double helical structure of DNA
a) The structure of a DNA double helix is invariable.
b) A = G; C = T
c) A+ T = G + C
d) A + G = C + T

10) In which form of DNA, two antiparallel chains are held together by base
pairs?a) A-DNA
b) B-
DNAc)
Z-DNA
d) All of the above

11) RNA was extracted from Manzese virus particles and found to contain 20percent
cytosine, what will be the guanine and thymine contents?
a) 20% G; 30% T
b) 20% G; 60%T
c) 30% G; 30%A
d) 40% G; 30%A

2
 12) If a virus particle contained double-stranded DNA with 200,000 base pairs, how
manynucleotides would be present?
a) 200,000 nucleotide
b) 400,000 nucleotide
c) 100,000 nucleotide
d) None of the above correct

13) The ds DNA consists of 35,000 bp. How many helical turns would be present?

a) 3,500
b) 350
c) 70,000
d) 350,000

14. A ds DNA contain 30,000 base pairs. How many nucleotides.

a) 60,000
b) 15,000
c) 7,500
d) 30,000

15. If the length of DNA has 45,000 bp, then the DNA molecule will have
a) 45 complete turns
b) 4500 complete turns
c) 450 complete turns
d) 225 complete turns

14) DNA was extracted from cells of Escherichia coli and analyzed for base
composition. It was found that 37 percent of the bases are cytosine. What will be
the percentage of adenine present
a) 13%
b) 28%
c) 14%
d) 37%

15) With regards to Chargaff's rule what is NOT correct

a) The base composition of DNA varies from one species to another
b) In all the species number of A+T is equals to the number of G+C
c) The base composition of DNA is the same in a given species
d) In all cellular DNAs, regardless of the species, the number of adenosine residues is
equalto the number of thymidine residues (A = T), and the number of guanosine

3
 residues is equal to the number of cytidine residues (G = C).
e)
16) If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36mm, the number of base pairs in the E.coli is
a) 4 x106 bp
b) 3 x106 bp
c) 2 x106 bp
d) 1.5 x106 bp

17) Which statement is most correct about the structure of DNA

a) DNA is a duplex with antiparallel strands
b) The two variations of the Watson-Crick form (B-DNA) are A- and Z-DNA.
c) DNA strands with appropriate sequences can form hairpin/ cruciform structures
d) a,b,and c
18) Which carbon atom of the ribose sugar is bonded with nitrogenous base in the nucleotide
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C5

19) Which of the carbon atom of the ribose sugar is attached to the phosphate group
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C5

20) Most stable conformation of functional groups in purine and pyrimidine in the Nucleic
acid is
a) Keto and amino
b) Enol and imino
c) Both are correct
d) All the above are incorrect

21) The bond between sugar and nitrogenous base is

a) Phosphoester
b) N-glycosidic
c) O-glycosidic
d) Hydrogen bond

22). The major difference between purines and pyrimidines is , What is TRUE?
A. Purines are constructed using nine-member molecules with four nitrogen atoms

4
 B. Pyrimidines are constructed using just 6 members molecules and two nitrogen atoms
C. Purines occur in DNA and not in RNA
D. a and b

23). Which of the following is true regarding sense and antisense strands?
a) Both the strands are present on RNA
b) Both the strands are present on DNA
c) Sense strand is on DNA and antisense on RNA
d) Sense strand is on RNA and antisense on DNA

24). The strand of DNA, which does not code for anything is referred to as
a) Antisense strand
b) Template strand
c) Coding strand
d) Noncoding strand

25.) In samples of DNA isolated from three unidentified species of bacteria, X, Y and Z,
adenine makes up 32% 29% and 17%, respectively, of the total bases. One of these species was
isolated from a hot spring (64oC). Which species is most likely the thermophilic bacterium?
e) X
f) Y
g) Z
h) a and c

22) Which statement is most correct about the structure of DNA

a) DNA can exist in several structural forms
b) Two variations of the Watson-Crick form (B-DNA) are A- and Z-DNA.
c) DNA strands with appropriate sequences can form hairpin/ cruciform structures or
triplexor tetraplex DNA
d) All are correct

23) Which carbon atom of the ribose sugar is bonded with nitrogenous base in the nucleotide
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C5

24) Which of the carbon atom of the ribose sugar is attached to the phosphate group
a) C1

5
 b) C2
c) C3
d) C5

25) DNA and RNA absorb UV-light at

a) 280 nm
b) 240 nm
c) 260 nm
d) 290 nm
26) Eukaryotic genomic DNA is
a) Linear
b) Circular
c) Hairpin loop
d) All the above

27) Identify the most appropriate statement about the different forms of DNA
a) B form DNA is a 2.0 nm diameter right-handed with 10 bp per helical turn
b) A form DNA is a 2.6 nm diameter right-handed with 11 bp per helical turn
c) Z form DNA is a1.8 nm diameter left-handed with 12 bp per helical turn
d) All of the above are correct

28) In samples of DNA isolated from three unidentified species of bacteria, X, Y and Z,
adenine makes up 32% 29% and 17%, respectively, of the total bases. One of these
species was isolated from a hot spring (64oC). Which species is most likely the
thermophilic bacterium?
a) X
b) Y
c) Z
d) None of the above

29). The strand of DNA acting as template for mRNA transcription is

(a) Coding strand (b) Noncoding strand (c) Sense strand (d) Antisense strand. The correct answer
is
a) a and c
b) a and d
c) b and c
d) b and d

30. How many of the following statements are correct?

6
 a) Coding strand is also called a template strand which gets transcribed to RNA.
b) Template strand is considered as a non-coding strand which gets transcribed to RNA.
c) Coding strand of DNA (sense strand) has the same sequences as transcribed RNA,
except for having thymine in place of RNA’s uracil.
d) The template strand of DNA has the same sequences as transcribed RNA.
b and c

31. How many of the following statements are correct?

a) Coding strand is also called a template strand which gets transcribed to RNA.
Template strand is considered as a non-coding strand which gets transcribed to RNA.
b) Coding strand of DNA (sense strand) has the same sequences as transcribed RNA, except
for having thymine in place of RNA’s uracil.
c) The template strand of DNA has the same sequences as transcribed RNA.
d) Coding strand (sense strand) has the same sequences as transcribed RNA, except for
having uracil in place of RNA’s thymine.

32.How is the extent of supercoiling measured?

a) Lk + Lk0
b) Lk0 – Lk
c) Lk – Lk0
d) Lk + Lk1

33. Which of the following is not true about positive supercoils?

a) Helps to avoid denaturing
b) Over wounded DNA
c) Strand separations require low energy
d) Rare form of DNA supercoiling

34. If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription unit is written as follows
5'-TGAACTGTAGCATGC-3'.Find out the correct sequence of the m-RNA transcribed from it.
a) 5'-UGAACUGUAGCAUGC-3'
b) 3'-CGUACGAUGACAAGU-5'
c) 3'-CGUACGAUGUCAAGU-5'
d) 5'-UGACUGUAGCUUGC-3'

35. In which of the following cases the first base of anticodon pairs with only one codon?
a) When the first base of anticodon is A or C
b) When the first base of anticodon is A or G
c) When the first base of anticodon is inosine
d) When the first base of anticodon is G or U

36. Which of the following is known to relax supercoiled DNA?

a) Nuclease
b) DNase I
c) Endonuclease
d) Topoisomerase

7
37. With respect to topoisomerases which of the following is TRUE?
a) Only of one type
b) Never changes linking number
c) Requires ATP
d) Introduces knots

38. The genetic code translated the language of ____________

a) Proteins into that of RNA
b) Amino acids into that of RNA
c) RNA into that of proteins
d) RNA into that of DNA

39. If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is known as a
____________
a) Silent mutation
b) Frame shift mutation
c) Substitution mutation
d) Insertion mutation

40, Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base?
a) Direct repair
b) Base excision repair
c) Mismatch repair
d) Nucleotide excision repair

41. An alteration in a nucleotide sequence that changes a triplet coding for an amino acid into a
termination codon is ____________
a) Nonsense mutation
b) Mutagenesis
c) Rapid mutation
d) Missense mutation

42. Recombinational repair is often due to ____________

a) Incorporation of many incorrect nucleotides by DNA pol
b) Many cystidine dimer and associated large gaps in a strand
c) Many thymidine dimer formations and associated large gaps in a strand
d) A point mutation.

43. Which of the following is TRUE for the RNA polymerase activity?
a) DNA dependent DNA synthesis
b) Direct repair
c) DNA dependent RNA synthesis
d) RNA dependent RNA synthesis

8
44.Mark the one, which is NOT the transcription inhibitor in eukaryotes.
a) Rifampicin
b) Acridine dye
c) Actinomycin D
d) Rho factor

45.. In both the Eukaryotic cell and Prokaryotic cell, the synthesis of protein chains is started
with the
a) Arginine
b) Serina
c) Methionine
d) Valine
46.In eukaryotes, which RNA polymerase makes rRNA?
a) RNA polymerase III
b) RNA polymerase I
c) RNA polymerase II
d) RNA polymerase IV

47. Which of the following subunits of RNA polymerase is solely required for initiation of
transcription?
a) α (alpha)
b) β (beta)
c) σ (sigma)
d) ω (omega)

48. Which of the following codons is the mRNA start codon that initiates translation?
a) AUG
b) UAA
c) UAG
d) UGA

49. Which of the following best describes the key function of helicases during transcription?
a) Relief of tension in the DNA strands to prevent breakage.
b) Separation of two strands of DNA; "unwinding" gives polymerases access to the strand.
c) Cleaving methyl groups from an unwound DNA strand.
d) Catalyzing the interaction between transcription factors and the DNA strand.

50. Which of the following are methods for termination of transcription in prokaryotes?
I. Release factor binding
II. Rho-mediated termination
III. Hairpin loop (stem loop) formation
a) I, II, and III
b) I only
c) II and III
d) III only

9
51. Which of the following is the smallest of the RNAs?
a) Messenger RNA
b) Transfer RNAs
c) Ribosomal RNAs
d) a and c

52. What modified base is at the 5′ extremity of a capped eukaryotic m-RNA?

a) 1-methyl-guanosine
b) 1-methyl-adenosine
c) 2′-O-methyl-guanosine
d) 7-methyl-guanosine

53, During RNA synthesis, the DNA template sequence 5’Tp Ap Gp Cp 3′ Would be transcribed
to produce which of the following RNA sequence?
a) 5′-Ap Tp Cp Gp-3′
b) 5′-Gp Cp Up Ap-3′
c) 5′-Gp Cp Tp Ap-3′
d) 5′-Ap Up Cp Gp-3′

54. Two features of the tRNA molecule associated, in converting the triplet codon to an amino
acid, are
a) In the T Loop and D stem and loop
b) In the anticodon loop and D stem loop
c) In the anticodon loop and the 3′ CCA end
d) None of the above

55. 2. This force can stabilize a DNA double-helix

A. Hydrophilic sugar-phosphate groups are found on the exterior of the helix where
interaction with water occurs
B. Hydrophobic bases are present in the interior of the helix, each base-pair is stabilized by
the same number of hydrogen bonds
C. Covalent base stacking interactions may take place between neighboring bases within the
same strand in the helix
D. Non-covalent N-glycosidic bonds may form between nitrogenous bases in opposite
strands in the helix

56. In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules, one is purely a new one
and the other is an old one
a) Dispersive
b) Conservative
c) Semiconservative
d) A and B

57. The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as

10
 a) Mutase
b) Ligase
c) Polymerase I
d) Ribonuclease

58. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is permitted to replicate
in an environment that contains non-radioactive thymidine. What is the right number of DNA
molecules which possess some radioactive thymidine post three duplications?
a) One such molecule
b) Two such molecules
c) Four such molecules
d) Eight such molecules

59. If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA will have?
a) ATTGCA
b) UGGACC
c) UAACGG
d) ATCGCC

60. The type of coiling in B DNA is

a) Zig-zag
b) Left-handed
c) Opposite
d) Right-handed

61. The enzyme which breaks the H2 bonds in DNA is

a) Ligase
b) Helicase
c) Topoisomerase
d) Polymerase

62.. The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen bonds. These bonds are
a) Ionic bonds
b) Covalent bonds
c) Non-covalent bonds
d) Van der Waals forces

63. In 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick gave a 3-D model of DNA which has following
characteristics: what is NOT true?
a) It consist of two helical DNA strands wound around the same axisThe hydrophilic
backbones of alternating deoxyribose and phosphate group are on the outside of double
helix
b) Each nucleotide base of 1 strand is paired with the base of another strand in which
adenine bonds to thymine and guanine bonds to cytosine.
c) Adenine is bounded to thymine by 2 hydrogen bonds and guanine is bounded to cytosine
by 3 hydrogen bonds.

11
 d) The two strands of DNA are parallel and their 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds runs in the
same direction

64. Regarding the 3 forms of DNA(A,B and Z) what is NOT true about ther characteristic
features
a) In all 3 forms, two anti-parallel chains are held together by base pairs
b) A-DNA and B-DNA are right handed
c) In B-DNA, base pairs are perpendicular to the helix axis while the A-DNA, base pairs
are tilted 20ͦ degree and not perpendicular
d) Z-DNA is right handed

65. Which of the following nitrogenous base is not present in DNA?

a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Uracil

66.. The nucleotide shown below is found in

a) DNA
b) miRNA
c) siRNA
d) rRNA

67. 45. A piece of DNA was analysed and 15% of its nucleotides were adenine. What percentage
would be uracil?
a) 0%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 50%

68.Which one of the following classes of histones is not a component of the core particle?
a) H1
b) H2A
c) H2B
d) H3

69. Which of the following enzymes is needed only for lagging strandsynthesis at a replication
fork?
a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase III

12
 c) Helicase
d) SSB

70..In prokaryotes, the subunits of the ribosome are disassociated when not involved in
translation. The initiation complex contains all But one of the following:
a) 30S subunit and 50S subunit ,mRNA
b) N-formyl methionine tRNAfmet
c) initiation factors - IF1, IF2, and IF3
d) ATP

71. The energy cost for protein synthesis is very high.An average protein of 300 amino acids
requires the equivalent of ------------------ ATP's(high energy bonds) for peptide bond formation.
a) 300
b) 600
c) 900
d) 1200

72.With regards to the genetic code what is NOTtrue?

a) The code is a triplet. Each codon consists of a unique combination of 3 nucleotides.
b) The code has punctuations only at the ends (start and stop)
c) Only methionine and tryptophan are specified by a single codon.
d) A codon can specify more than one amino acid.

73. Which feature of transcription is NOT also a feature of replication?

a) It results in formation of phosphodiester linkages.
b) It is primer-independent.
c) It proceeds in the 5'-->3' direction.
d) It depends on a DNA template.

74. The DNA sequence of the coding strand of a gene is:

5'-CACTTAGTACTCGGG-3'
Which polypeptide is encoded? Use the genetic code table below.
a) NH2 - pro-glu-tyr-stop
b) NH2 - his-leu-val-leu-gly
c) NH2 - gly-leu-met-ile-his
d) NH2 - val-asn-his-glu-pro

13
75.Puromycin interrupts protein synthesis by
a) Inhibiting fmet-tRNA binding.
b) Modifying the rRNA.
c) Inhibiting EF-Tu.
d) Mimicking an aa-tRNA

76. The _______________consists of approximately 146 base pairs of DNA complexed with an
histone octamer (H2A)2(H2B)2(H3)2(H4)2.
a) Nucleosome core particle
b) Heterochromatin
c) Euchromatin
d) Centromere

77.The template strand of a stretch of double-helical DNA is given. What is the sequence of
mRNA that can be transcribed from this strand? 5’-CTTGGACTAGCGGTCC 3’ DNA template
sequence
a) 5’-CUUGGACUAGCGGUCC
b) 5’-GAACCUGAUCGCCAGG
c) 5’-GGACCGCTAGTCCAAG
d) 5'-GGACCGCUAGUCCAAG

78.Which diagram correctly depicts a ribosome immediately after the peptide bond between
amino acid2 (aa2, ball labelled 2) and aa3 (ball labelled 3) of the nascent protein has formed but
prior to translocation?

14
 a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

79. 23. What feature of an initiating tRNA distinguishes it from other tRNAs?
A. It enters the P-site rather than the A-site on the ribosome.
B. The amino acid is added by the methionyl-tRNA synthetase.
C. It has a 3'-CCA extension.
D. The anticodon is 5'-CAU-3'.
E. It never associates with the ribosome.

80. The site to which the amino acid is attached by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d

81.. The site which base pairs with the codon of the mRNA?

15
 a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

26. Which diagram best depicts the state immediately following peptide bond formation between
the initiating met and the second amino acid (aa2) of the peptide prior to the first translocation
step (movement of the ribosome by one codon toward the 3' end)?

a) a.
b) b
c) c
d) d

16