Physics

Question 1:

ML 2
Which of the following units denotes the dimensions of where Q denotes the
Q2
electric charge.

a. Wb/m²

b. Henry (H)

c. H/m²

d. Weber

Question 2:

A stone dropped from a ballon which is at a height h reaches the ground after t
seconds. From the same balloon if two stones are thrown, one upwards and other
downwards with same velocity u and they reach the ground after t1 and t2 seconds
respectively, then

a. t = t 1 − t 2

t1 + t2
b. t = 2

c. t =
√t1t2
2 2
d. t = t 1t 2

Question 3:

Two bodies a and b have masses M and m respectively, where M > m, and they are
at a distance d apart. Equal force is applied to them do that they approach each
other. The position where they hit each other is

a. Nearer to B

b. Nearer to A

c. At equal distance from A and B

d. Cannot be decided

Question 4:

A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in
extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is
 a. 16 J

b. 8 J

c. 32 J

d. 24 J

Question 5:

The centripetal force for a vehicle moving on a track is provided by:

a. Friction of tyres

b. Brakes

c. Driver

d. Steering wheel

Question 6:

If the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is 9.8 ms-2 and the mass
of earth is 80 times that of moon and radius of earth is 4 times that of moon, the
value of G at moon’s surface is:

a. 9.8 ms-2

b. 1.96

c. 4.9

d. None of these

Question 7:

The stress for elastic limit of a material is 3.5 x 108 Nm2. The minimum diameter of
a rod made of this material which can support 500 N load without exceeding elastic
limit will be:

a. 1.35 cm

b. 1.35 mm

c. 1.35 x 10-6m

d. 2 mm

Question 8:

Heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods A and B of same material having same
temperature difference between their ends. The diameter of the rods A and B are in
ratio 1 : 2 and their length in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of heat flow in rod A to that in B
is:

a. 1 : 2

b. 2 : 3

c. 4 : 1

d. 1 : 8

Question 9:

If masses of all molecules of a gas are halved and their speeds doubled, the ratio of
initial and final pressure is:

a. 1 : 2

b. 2 : 1

c. 4 : 1

d. 1 : 4

Question 10:

The net external force acting on the disc when its centre of mass is at a
displacement x with respect to its equilibrium position is:

a. –kx

b. -2kx

2kx
c. − 3

4kx
d. − 3

Question 11:

If the temperature increases, the frequency of sound produced by organ pipe

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Remains same

d. Not definite

Question 12:
Force acting upon a charged particle kept between plates of a charged condenser is
F. If one of plates of condenser is removed, force acting on the same particle will
become:

a. Zero

F
b. 2

c. F

d. 2F

Question 13:

The current in a series circuit is 5A. when an additional resistance of 2Ω is inserted,

the current drops to 4A. The original resistance of the circuit in Ohms is:

a. 1.25

b. 8
c. 10
d. 20

Question 14:

A galvanometer can withstand safely a maximum current of 5 mA. It is converted

into a voltmeter reading up to 20 V connecting in series an external resistance of
3.96 kΩ. The resistance of galvanometer is

a. 36Ω

b. 40Ω

c. 44Ω

d. 48Ω

Question 15:

Gauss ‘ law should be invalid if:

a. There were magnetic monopoles

b. The inverse square law were not exactly true

c. The velocity of light were not a universal constant

d. None of these

Question 16:

If N is the number of turns in a coil, then self inductance varies as:

 a. N0

b. N2

c. N3

d. N

Question 17:

A Short circuited coil is placed in a time varying magnetic field. Electrical power is
dissipated due to the current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were
quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the electrical power dissipated would be:

a. Halved

b. The same

c. Doubled

d. Quadrupled

Question 18:

Usually, microwave signals are not used for ionospheric propagation. The reason is:

a. Ionospheric layers absorb microwaves tremendously

b. Drastic dispersion takes place for microwave signals in ionosphere

c. Scattering prevents propagation of microwaves through ionosphere

d. Microwaves penetrate through ionosphere layers

Question 19:

A person is suffering from far sightedness. When an object is placed closet to the
eye which of the following lens is used?

a. Image formed beyond retina, converging lens

b. Image formed in front of retina, converging lens

c. Image formed in front of retina, diverging lens

d. Image formed beyond retina, diverging lens

Question 20:

A double slit interference experiment is set up in a chamber that can be completely

evacuated with monochromatic light, an interference pattern is observed when the
container is open to the air. As the container is evacuated, a careful observer will not
that the interference fringes:
 a. don't change at all

b. move slightly farther apart

c. move slightly closer together

d. disappear completely

Question 21:

A limit on the performance of a resolving instrument is set by:

a. Quantum nature of light

b. Interference of light

c. Diffraction of light

d. Polarization of light

Question 22:

The wavelength of yellow line of sodium is 5896 A°. Its wave number will be

a. 50883 x 1010

b. 16961 per cm

c. 17581 per cm

d. 50883 per cm

Question 23:

One mg of substance has 2.68 x 1018 nuclei. Its half life is 1620 years. After 3240
years how many nuclei would have integrated?

a. 1.82 x 1018

b. 1.34 x 1018

c. 0.67 x 1018

d. 2.01 x 1018

Question 24:

The electron in Bohr’s orbit has:

a. Kinetic energy greater than potential energy

b. Potential energy greater than kinetic energy

 c. Both have same values

d. None of the above

Question 25:

A N-P-N transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in which collector

supply is 8volt and the voltage drop across the load resistor of 800ohm connected
25
to the collector circuit is 0.8volt. If current amplification factor α is 26 and the input
resistance of the transistor is 200ohm then the collector emitter voltage, base
current, the voltage and power gain are:

a. 3.5 V, 2 × 10 − 5 A and A V = 50 V, A P = 6500

b. 7.5 V, 4 × 10 − 5 A and A V = 100 V, A P = 2500

c. 4.5 V, 3 × 10 − 5 A and A V = 50 V, A P = 6500

d. 5.6 V, 3 × 10 − 5 A and A V = 60 V, A P = 7500

Question 26:

Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the
sphere. The net charge on the sphere is then:

a. Negative and distributed uniformly over the surface of the sphere

b. Negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closet to the point
charge

c. Negative and distributed non uniformly over the entire surface of the sphere

d. Zero

Question 27:

A hydrogen atom and Li2+ ion are both in the second excited state. if lH and lLi are
their respective electronic angular momenta and EH and ELi their respective
energies, then:

a. lH > lLi and |EH| > |ELi|

b. lH = lLi and |EH| < |ELi|

c. lH = lLi and |EH| > |ELi|

d. lH < lLi and |EH| < |ELi|

Question 28:
A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1 is emclosed in a cylinder fifted
with a frictionless piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a
temperature T2 by releasing the piston suddenly. If L1 and L2 are the lengths of the
gas column before and after expansion respectively, then T1/T2 is given by:

()
2
L1 3
a. L2

L1
b. L
2

L2
c. L
1

()
2
L2 3
d. L1

Question 29:

A hollow double concave lens is made of very thin transparent material. It can be
filled with air or either of two liquids L1 and L2 having refractive indices n1 and n2
respectively (n2 > n1 > 1). The lens will diverge parallel beam of light if it is filled with:

a. Air and placed in air

b. Air and immersed in L1

c. L1 and immersed in L2

d. L2 and immersed in L1

Question 30:

One quarter section is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R. This section has
a mass perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the original disc.
Its moment of inertia about axis of rotation is:

1
a. 2 M 2

1
b. 4 MR 2

1
c. 8 MR 2

d. √2MR 2
 Chemistry

Question 1:

Yellow precipitate in the detection of phosphorous when an organic compound is

heated with Na 2O 2 and then boiled with conc. HNO 3 followed by the addition of
ammonium molybdate is due to the formation of_______.

(
a. NH 4
3)⋅ PO 4 ⋅ 12MoO 3

(
b. NH 4
3)⋅ PO 4 ⋅ 6MoO 3

(
c. NH 4
3)⋅ PO 4 ⋅ 12MoO 2

( )
d. NH 4 PO 4 ⋅ 6MoO 2
3

Question 2:

Which of the following polymer is used in making crockery?

a. Melamine polymer

b. Bakelite

c. Teflon

d. All of above

Question 3:

A pan containing a liquid (b.pt.127°c) is placed over a strong flame capable of

heating upto 600°C. Which of the following statements is correct about the liquid ?

a. Temperature of boiling liquid can rise above 127°C during boiling.

b. Average K.E. of liquid molecules will increase during boiling.

 c. Temperature of boiling liquid will remain 127°C.

d. All the above are correct.

Question 4:

The standard heat of formation of a compound is the enthalpy change for :

a. Formation of 1 mol. Of a substance at BTP.

b. Formation of 1 mol of a substance at O°C and 1 atm. Pressure from its

elements

c. Formation of 1 mol of a substance at 298 K and 1 atm. Pressure from its

elements

d. Formation of 1 mol of a substance an any reaction at 298K and 1 atm.

Pressure.

Question 5:

Which of the following statements on the atomic wave function Ψ is not correct?

a. Ψ may be a real valued wave function

b. Ψ may be in some cases be a complex function

c. Ψ has a mathematical significance only

d. Ψ is proportional to the probability of finding an electron

Question 6:

An aqueous solution of NaCl freezes at − 0.816 ∘ C. The elevation in boiling point of

this solution is:

− 1 and
(
Given that K b H O
) = 0.512Kkgmol K f ( H O ) = 1.86 K kg mol − 1.
2 2

a. 0.0585 0C

b. 0.2246 0C

c. 1.864 0C

d. 0.0265 ∘ C

Question 7:

In paper chromatography:

a. Mobile phase is liquid and stationary phase is solid

 b. Mobile phase is solid and stationary phase is liquid

c. Both phases are liquids

d. Both phases are solids

Question 8:

An antigen is:

a. Small fragment of a antibiotic

b. A steroidal hormone

c. A foreign molecule that while entering an organism induces certain

responses

d. A drug taken against a particular allergy.

Question 9:

What is vat dye?

a. A dye that can be applied directly on a fibre sample taken in vat.

b. A colourless compound in the reduced state and coloured in the oxidized

state.

c. Dye that can be applied only to fibres.

d. Dye that changes the colour with the change in pH of solution.

Question 10:

When two solutions (having the same temperature) are mixed, the temperature
during mixing decreases.

a. The chemical reaction is exothermic

b. The chemical reaction is absorbing energy

c. The chemical reaction is releasing energy

d. The energy released could be found by multiplying the temperatures

together

Question 11:

If the radius of an atom of an element is 75 pm and the lattice is body-centred cubic,

the edge of the unit cell will be :

a. 32.475pm

b. 173.2pm
 c. 37.5pm

d. 212.1pm

Question 12:

When HCl gas is passed through a saturated solution of common salt, pure NaCl is
precipitated because:

a. HCl is highly ionized in solution

b. HCl is highly soluble in water

c. The solubility product of NaCl is lowered by HCl

[
d. The ionic product of Na + ][Cl ]exceeds the solubility product of NaCl
−

Question 13:

Which of the following will have lower pKa than benzoic acid?

a. p - nitrobenzoic acid

b. p - hydroxybenzoic acid

c. p - aminobenzoic acid

d. All of these

Question 14:

Which reaction sequence would be best to prepare 3-chloroaniline from benzene?

a. Chlorination, Nitration, Reduction

b. Nitration, Chlorination, Reduction

c. Nitration, Reduction, Chlorination

d. Nitration, Reduction, Acetylation, chlorination, hydrolysis

Question 15:

Gold number is the unit of:

a. Coagulation power of an electrolyte.

b. Coagulation power of gold ions.

c. Protective capacity of hydrophilic sol.

 d. Protective capacity of hydrophobic sol

Question 16:

Point out incorrect statement:

a. Alkali metals are more electropositive than alkaline earth metals

b. Alkali metals are less dense than alkaline earth metals

c. Sodium combines with oxygen at 575K to from mainly sodium peroxide.

d. Alkali metals are good oxidizing agents.

Question 17:

During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H 2SO 4, the initiation
step is:

a. Elimination of water

b. Formation of an ester

c. Formation of carbocation

d. Protonation of alcohol molecule

Question 18:

The density of CO 2 gas at 27 ∘ C and 1 atm pressure is (gram/litre).

a. 1.78

b. 1.52

c. 1.96

d. 1.20

Question 19:

The pH of a buffer solution prepared by mixing 50ml of 0.2MCH 3COOH and 25ml
of CH 3COON is 4.8. What is the concentration of CH 3COONa ? [pKa of

CH 3COOH = 4.8 ]
a. 0.2M

b. 0.4M

c. 0.5M
 d. 0.8M

Question 20:

When three parts of conc. HCl and one part of conc. HNO 3 is mixed, a compound ' X
' is formed. The correct option related to ' X ' is:

a. ' X ' is known as aqua-regia

b. ' X ' is used for dissolving gold

c. ' X ' is used for decomposition of salts of weaker acids

d. Both (A) and (B)

Question 21:

Intake of CO by haemoglobin in blood:

a. Increases efficiency of haemoglobin

b. Causes loss of oxygen carrying capacity of blood.

c. Causes reduction of haemoglobin.

d. All of these

Question 22:

End-product of the complete hydrolysis of XeF 6 is:

a. XeF 4O

b. XeF 2O 2

c. XeO 3

−
d. XeO 3

Question 23:

What is the half-life of a radioactive substance if 87.5% of any given amount of the
substance disintegrate in 40 minutes?

a. 160 min

b. 10 min

c. 20 min
 d. 13 min

Question 24:

How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules are required to make

an octahedral complex with a Ca 2 + ion?

a. Two

b. Six

c. Three

d. One

Question 25:

Aluminium easily liberates hydrogen gas on reaction with:

a. Concentrated sulphuric acid

b. Concentrated nitric acid

c. Dilute hydrochloric acid

d. None of the above

Question 26:

The oxide of nitrogen which forms dimer is __________.

a. nitrogen oxide

b. nitrous oxide

c. nitrogen dioxide

d. none of the above

Question 27:

An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is:

a. Cobaltocene

b. Ruthenocene

c. Grignard's reagent

d. Ferrocene
Question 28:

What will happen when diethyl ether is treated with hot and concentrated HI?

a. Ethyl alcohol

b. Ethyl iodide

c. Methyl iodide

d. Methanol

Question 29:

Which of the following halides is not oxidized by MnO 2:

a. F −

b. Cl −

c. Br −

d. I −

Question 30:

The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction, A → B is E a in forward

direction. The activation energy for the reverse reaction:

a. is negative of E a

b. is always less than E a

c. can be less than or more than E a

d. is always double of E a

Mathematics
Question 1:

Which of the following is the empty set

a. {x : x is a real number and x2 - 1 = 0}

b. {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}

c. {x : x is a real number and x2 - 9 = 0}

d. {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}

Question 2:

Let = {(x, y); x2 + y2 = 1, x, y ∈ R}, then P is:

a. Reflexive

b. Symmetric

c. Transitive

d. Anti symmetric

Question 3:

Let ƒ(x2) = |x - 1|, then:

a. ƒ(x2) = [ƒ(x)]2

b. ƒ(|x|) = |ƒ(x)|

c. ƒ(x + y) = ƒ(x) + ƒ(y)

d. None of these

Question 4:

1 + √3i
The amplitude of is:
√3 + 1
π
a. 3

π
b. − 3

π
c. 6

d. None of these
Question 5:

If sin α, sin2α, 1 are in A.P. where – π < α < π, then lies in the interval:

−π π
a. ( 2 , 2 )

−π π
b. ( 3 , 3 )

−π π
c. ( 6 , 6 )

d. None of these

Question 6:

x 2 − 2x + 4
If y = where x can take real values, then:
x 2 + 2x + 4

1
a. 3 ≤ y ≤ 3

b. 3 < y ≤ 5

c. 5 < y ≤ 7

d. 7 < y ≤ 9

Question 7:

How many 10 digits numbers can be written by using the digits 1 and 2:

a. 10C1

b. 210

c. 10C2

d. 10!

Question 8:

The greatest integer less than or equal to (√2 + 1)6 is

a. 196
b. 197
c. 198
d. 199

Question 9:
 1 1 1 1 1 1
The sum of the series 1 + 3 ⋅ 4 + 5 ⋅ 2 + 7 ⋅ 3 …∞ is:
4 4

a. log e1

b. log e2

c. log e3

d. log e4

Question 10:

If A is an orthogonal matrix , then value of ∣A∣ is equal to:

a. ±3

b. ±4

c. ±2

d. ±1

Question 11:

| | | |
a b c a 2 − bc b 2 − ca c 2 − ab
If Δ = c a b , then the value of c 2 − ab a 2 − bc b 2 − ca is:
b c a b 2 − ca c 2 − ab a 2 − bc

a. Δ 2

b. 2Δ 2

c. Δ 3

d. None of these

Question 12:

The image of the point (−8, 12) with respect to the line mirror 4x+ 7y + 13 = 0:

a. (−16,−2)

b. (−8,−1)

c. (16, 8)

d. None of these
Question 13:

The locus of a point which moves such that the tangents from it to the two circles x2
+ y2 -5x - 3 = 0 and 3x2 + 3y2 + 2x + 4y - 6 = 0 are equal, is given by:

a. 4x + 3y + 7 = 0
b. 17x + 4y + 3 = 0
c. 7x + 9y + 11 = 0
d. 13x + 4y + 15 = 0

Question 14:

The mid point of the chord 2x + y - 4 = 0 of the parabola y2 = 4x is

5
a. ( 2 , − 1)

5
b. ( − 1, 2 )

3
c. ( 2 , − 1)

d. None of these

Question 15:

The ellipse x2/a2 + y2/b2 = 1 and the straight line y = mx + c intersect in real points
only if

a. a2m2 < c2 - b2

b. a2m2 > c2 - b2

c. a2m2 ≥ c2 - b2

d. c ≥ b

Question 16:

( √1 + x 2 − 1
) ( )
√
2x 1 − x 2
The derivative of tan − 1 x
w.r.t. tan − 1 at x = 0 is:
1 − 2x 2

1
a. 8

1
b. 4

1
c. 2
 d. 1

Question 17:

The slope of tangent to the curve x = t 2 + 3t − 8, y = 2t 2 − 2t − 5 at the point (2, − 1)

is:

22
a. 7

6
b. 7

c. -6

d. None of these

Question 18:

The function ƒ(x) = cot-1 x + x increases in the interval:

a. (1, ∞)

b. (−1, ∞)

c. (−∞, ∞)

d. (0, ∞)

Question 19:

The maximum value of

()
1
x
2x 2
is:

a. e

b. ee

c. 1

s
d. √e

Question 20:

Evaluate: ∫ cos 3xe log sin xdx

cos 4 x
a. − 4
+C

sin x
b. +C
x2
 sin 3 x
c. − 3
+C

d. None of these

Question 21:

x
If f(x) = ∫ − 1 | t | dt, then for any x ≥ 0, f(x) equals:

( )
1
a. 2 1 − x 2

1
b. 2 x 2

( )
1
c. 2 1 + x 2

d. None of these

Question 22:

In the interval
[ ] π
0, 2 area lying between the curve y = tanx, y = cotx and x-axis is:

a. log2

1
b. 2 log2

c. 2log
()
1

√2

d. None of these

Question 23:

→
The projection of the vector a = 4 î − 3 ĵ + 2k̂ on the vector making equal angles
(acute) with coordinate axes having magnitude √3 is:

a. 3

b. √3

c. 2√3

d. None of these
Question 24:

The equation of the plane through the point (2, 2, 1) and (9, 3, 6) and perpendicular to
2x + 6y + 6z - 1 = 0 is:

a. 3x + 4y + 5z = 9

b. 3x + 4y - 5z = 9

c. 3x + 4y - 5z + 9 = 0

d. None of these

Question 25:

Dialing a telephone number an old man forgets the last two digits remembering only
that these are different dialed at random. The probability that the number is dialed
correctly is:

1
a. 10

1
b. 45

1
c. 90

d. None of these

Question 26:

π π π
The maximum value of sin(x + ) + cos(x + ) in the interval (0, ) is attained at:
6 6 2

π
a. 12

π
b. 6

π
c. 4

π
d. 3

Question 27:

The equation sin − 1x − cos − 1x = cos − 1

( )
√3
2
has:

a. No solution
 b. Unique solution

c. Infinite number of solutions

d. None of these

Question 28:

If 1 + sinθ + sin 2θ + … upto ∞ = 2√3 + 4, then θ = :

π
a. 6

π
b. 4

π
c. 3

3π
d. 4

Question 29:

If x is real number then the solution of 5x − 3 < 3x + 1 is

a. 0

b. (0, ∞)

c. (−∞, 0)

d. (−∞, 2)

Question 30:

Out of 5 men and 2 women, a committee of 3 is to be formed. If at least one women

is to included then number of ways committee can be formed is:

a. 20
b. 25
c. 27
d. 30
 Answers Physics

1 : (b) 2 : (c) 3 : (b) 4 : (b) 5 : (a) 6 : (b)

7 : (a) 8 : (d) 9 : (a) 10 : (d) 11 : (a) 12 : (b)
13 : (b) 14 : (b) 15 : (a) 16 : (b) 17 : (b) 18 : (d)
19 : (a) 20 : (b) 21 : (c) 22 : (b) 23 : (d) 24 : (a)
25 : (b) 26 : (d) 27 : (b) 28 : (d) 29 : (d) 30 : (a)

Explanations

Question 1 :

Weber = ML 2 T − 2I − 1

= ML 2 T − 2Q − 1 T = ML 2 T − 1Q − 1 (I = QT ) −1

Henry H is SI unit of inductance.

H = ML 2 T − 2I − 2 also I = QT − 1

so H = ML 2 T − 2Q − 2 T 2 = ML 2Q − 2

Question 2 :

Height of the building = h

Time taken to reach the ground = t

Two other balls are thrown in upward and downward directions simultaneously.

Taking downward as positive

1
For first case of dropping the stone, h = gt 2
2

1 2 1
For second case of downward throwing h = ut 1 + 2 g 1 = 2 g 2

Or we can write

⇒ ut 1
1
( )
2
= 2 g t 2 − t 1 ……. (i)

1 2 1
For third case of throwing upwards h = − ut 2 + 2 gt 2 = 2 gt 2

Or we can write

( )
1 2
⟹ ut 2 = 2 g t 2 − t 2 …(ii)
On solving (i) and (ii) we get,

2
t1 t2 − t1
t2
=
t 22 − t 2

Or,

t=
√t1t2

Question 3 :

Here forces are applied in opposite directions. So net external force is zero. Their centre of mass will remain at
rest and finally they will meet at centre of mass. And centre of mass lies closer to M.

Question 4 :

The work done is stored as elastic potential energy in the spring.

It is given by

( )
1
W = 2 × k x 2 − x 21

x 1 = 5 cm

x 2 = 15 cm

N 800 N N
k = 800 m = 100 cm = 8 cm

( )
1 1
W = 2 × 8 15 2 − 5 2 = 2 × 8(225 − 25)

1 N
= 2 × 8 × 200 = 800 cm

N N
W = 800 cm = 8 m = 8 J

Question 5 :

The force of friction between the tyres and the road provides the necessary centripetal force to the car to take a
turn on a level road.

Question 6 :

GM e
Here, the acceleration at the earth's surface is g = g e = 2 and the
Re

GM m
acceleration at the moon's surface is g m = 2
Rm
Here, M e = 80M m or M e / M m = 80 and R e = 4R m or R e / R m = 4

gm 1
So,
ge (
= Mm / Me )(Re / Rm ) 2 = ( 80 )(4)2 = 0.2
or g m = 0.2g = 0.2(9.8) = 1.96 m / s 2

Question 7 :

F
A
= stress

400 × 4
= 379 × 10 6
πd 2

1600
d2 = = 1.34 × 10 − 6
π × 379 × 10 6

d= √1.34 × 10 − 3 = 1.15 × 10 − 3 m

Question 8 :

Diameters are in ratio 1 : 2, so areas are in ratio 1 : 4

Lengths are in ratio 2 : 1

Hence, AL ratio is 1 : 8

Since other factors are constant, ratio of heat flow is 1 : 8

Question 9 :

Consider a box of length ′l′

A molecule bounces elastically of the wall and to the other side and back.

21
Time it takes to come back is t = v

Δp 2mv mv 2
Force because of change in momentum when it hits the wall t = t
= l

Pressure is force per area, but we see that the pressure is directly proportional to mass and directly proportional
to square of velocity.

1
Hence if mass is halved and velocity doubled the pressure changes by 2 × 2 × 2 = 2times,

Hence pressure doubles.

Question 10 :
2kx − f = ma

MR 2
Since we know that Γ = Iα For disk, I = 2

Also, a = Rα

4kx
Hence, ma = 3

Question 11 :

Frequency of sound produced by organ pipe

1v
v = 2L

But velocity of sound in air depends on temperature,

V∝ √T
⇒ v ∝ √T
Hence the frequency of sound produced in organ pipe increases with the increase in temperature.

Question 12 :

The Electric field between oppositely charged plates of a capacitor is twice that due to one plate .Hence ,when
F
one plate is removed,the electric field becomes half and hence ,the force reduces by half ,i.e becomes 2 .

Question 13 :

Given:

I1 = 5 A

R ′ = 2Ω

I2 = 4 A

Let the original resistance of the circuit be R.

Voltage given by the battery is same in both the circuits i.e., V 1 = V 2

∴ I R = I (R + R )
1 2
′

∴ 5R = 4(R + 2)
R = 8ohm

Hence, the correct option is (b).

Question 14 :

Given, max. current, t g = 5 mA = 0.005 A

voltrmeter reading, V = 20 V.

Series resistance,

R = 3.96 KΩ

R = 3960Ω

So, we have

V = (R + G)Ig

[ ∵ It is connected in sEries
so, 20 = (3960 + G) × 0.005

20 × 10
3960 + G = 0.005 = 4000

G = 4000 − 3960

G = 40Ω

Question 15 :

Gauss ‘ law should be invalid if there were magnetic monopoles.

Gauss's law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in the Coulomb's law. Any
violation of Gauss's law will indicate departure from the inverse square law.

Question 16 :

Self Inductance is directly proportional to the square of the Number of Turns in the coil.

Self-induction of a solenoid L = μ 0n 2πR 2l

l → length of solenoid

Question 17 :

e2
P= R

dϕ
where, ε = inducedemf = − dt

ϕ = NBA
dB
ε = NA dt
also, R ∝ 1
r2

where, R=resistance and r=radius of wire

P ∝ N 2r 2
12

P1
P2
=1

P1 = P2

This means if the number of turns were quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the electrical power dissipated
would remain same.

Question 18 :

The microwave frequency range lies between 300 MHz to 300GHz.

Beyond 40 MHz, frequency doesn’t get reflected back by the ionosphere, it can pass through the ionosphere, due
to this microwave frequencies are not suitable for ionospheric propagation. Microwave frequencies are used in
Satellite communication.

Question 19 :

A person suffering from myopia (near-sightedness) can see only nearby objects clearly and it is corrected by
using a concave lens. Whereas a person suffering from hypermetropia (long-sightedness) can see only distant
objects clearly and it is corrected by using a convex lens.

Thus if a person suffers from both, then he must be using a concave lens to see distant objects and a convex
lens to see nearby objects (especially for reading). Hence his spectacles would be made of a concave lens as
the upper lens and convex lens as the lower lens.

Question 20 :

The wavelength as well as the speed of light is maximum in vacuum, as compared to that in any other medium.

Dλ
The fringe width in a double slit setup is given by β = d

where λ is the wavelength of light in the medium.

Hence, the fringe width, and thus the interference fringes are farther apart in vacuum as compared to that in air.

Question 21 :

Resolving power or limit of resolution is the ability to distinguish two close objects as distinct. It is calculated by
the formula 0.61 λ/ numerical aperture, where λ is the wavelength of light and numerical aperture is the light
collecting ability of lens. Actually after calculations the value comes out to be 0.5 λ or one half the wavelength
of illuminating light. The average wavelength of light used in microscopes is 500 - 600 nm. It gives a maximum
resolution of 250 - 300 nm or 0.25 micrometer to 0.3 micrometer.
Question 22 :

1 1
Wave number v
ˉ= λ =
5896 × 10 − 8

= 16961 per m

Question 23 :

3240
Number of half lives in 3240 years = 1620 = 2

Amount of radium left after two half lives = 1 ×

()
1
2
2
= 0.25mg

Amount of radium disintegrated = (1 − 0.25) = 0.75mg

Number of atoms which have disintegrated = 0.75 × 2.68 × 10 18 = 2.01 × 10 18

Question 24 :

Energy of electron in Bohr orbit is equal to sum of kinetic and potential energy

ΔE = KE + PE

Because of orbital energy is PE and electron revolving energy is kinetic energy

Question 25 :

V CE = 8

R = 800

V C = 0.8

α = 0.96

Ib = ?

B=
( )
1−α
α 0.96
= 1 − 0.96 = 24

V
IC = R =
( )
0.8
800
5
= 8 × 10 − 3

5
= 8 × 10 − 3

I b = 26μA
or 2.6 × 10 − 5

Question 26 :

As the sphere is isolated, so the total charge on it will remain same, which is zero.

Presence or absence of any external charge nearby cannot change its total charge. But, Presence of external
charge will induce charges on the sphere as shown in the figure, this induction happens due to redistribution of
charges within the sphere only. As positive charge(+q ) will attract negative charges of the sphere. So, the
negative charge will move towards right and positive charges will move towards left.

Question 27 :

Given Z H = 1, Z Li = 3 and n H = n Li = 3

1. Angular momentum is independent of Z, therefore 1 H = 1 Li

2. Energy is directly proportional to square of atomic number, hence E H < E Li

Question 28 :

γ−1
In an adiabatic process T 1 V 1 = T 2 V γ2 − 1

For an ideal mono atomic gas the no of degrees of freedom is 3.

2 2
γ=1+ f =1+ 3

( ) ( ) ()
2 2
T1 V2 γ−1 V2 3 L2 3

T2
= V1
= V1
= L1
since volume is proportional to length due to area being constant.

Question 29 :

For diverging beam of light i.e., bending away from the normal, the ray has to be passes from denser medium μ 2
to lighter medium μ 1, Hence it has to be filled with L 2 and immersed in L 1.

Question 30 :

For complete disc with mass ' 4M ′, M.I. about given axis = (4M)
()
R2
2
= 2MR 2

Hence, by symmetry, for the given quarter of the disc

MR 2 1
M.I. = 2
4
= 2 MR 2
 Answers Chemistry

1 : (a) 2 : (a) 3 : (d) 4 : (c) 5 : (d) 6 : (b)

7 : (c) 8 : (c) 9 : (b) 10 : (b) 11 : (b) 12 : (d)
13 : (a) 14 : (b) 15 : (c) 16 : (d) 17 : (d) 18 : (a)
19 : (b) 20 : (d) 21 : (b) 22 : (c) 23 : (d) 24 : (d)
25 : (c) 26 : (c) 27 : (c) 28 : (b) 29 : (a) 30 : (c)

Explanations

Question 1 :

fusion
2P + 3Na 2O 2 + O 2 ⟶ 2Na 3PO 4
air

( 3 ) 3 ( )
Na 3PO 4 + 12 NH 4 MoO 4 + 21HNO 3 ⟶ NH 4 PO 4 ⋅ 12MoO 3 + 21NH 4NO 3 +

12H 2O

The organic compound is fused with sodium peroxide. The fused mass is then extracted with water. The
aqueous solution so obtained is boiled with concentrated nitric acid, and ammonium molybdate solution is
added to it.

A yellow solution or precipitate indicates the presence of phosphorus in the organic compound. The yellow
precipitate is of ammonium phosphomolybdate.

Question 2 :

Melamine-formaldehyde polymer is used for making unbreakable crockery.

Bakelite is used for making combs, electrical switches, handles of utensils and computer discs.

Teflon is used in making oil seals and gaskets and also used for non – stick surface coated utensils.

Question 3 :

A pan containing a liquid (b.pt.127°c) is placed over a strong flame capable of heating upto 600°C. The
temperature of boiling liquid can rise above 127°C during boiling, average K.E. of liquid molecules will increase
during boiling, temperature of boiling liquid will remain 127°C is correct about the liquid.

Question 4 :

The standard heat enthalpy of a compound is equal to its standard heat of formation.

When a compound is formed from its constituent elements in their standard states 25 ∘ C and 1 atm pressure),
the heat of the reaction is the standard heat enthalpy or the standard heat of the formation.

Question 5 :
The correct statement is: Ψ 2 is proportional to the probability of finding an electron. Ψ represents the wave
function or the amplitude function.

Question 6 :

ΔT f = iK fm…(1)

ΔT b = iK bm……(2)

Divide equation (2) by equation (1)

ΔT b Kb
ΔT f
= K
f

ΔT b 0.512
0.816
= 1.86

ΔT b = 0.2246 0C

Question 7 :

The principle of paper chromatography is partition chromatography, wherein the substances are distributed or
partitioned between the liquid phase and the stationary phase. hence, here the mobile phase is liquid and
stationary phase is solid.

Question 8 :

An antigen is a foreign molecule that while entering an organism induces certain responses.

An antigen is any substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies against it. This means your
immune system does not recognize the substance, and is trying to fight it off. An antigen may be a substance
from the environment, such as chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or pollen.

Question 9 :

Vat dye a colourless compound in the reduced state and coloured in the oxidized state.

Vat dye, any of a large class of water-insoluble dyes, such as indigo and the anthraquinone derivatives, that are
used particularly on cellulosic fibres. The dye is applied in a soluble, reduced form to impregnate the fibre and
then oxidized in the fibre back to its original insoluble form.

Question 10 :

When 2 solutions having same temperature are mixed then the temperature during mixture decreases. This can
happen only when the reaction absorbs energy from surroundings and thus lowers the surrounding i.e, mixture
temperature.

Question 11 :
For body centered cubic lattice, the relationship between the edge length a and the radius r is as given below:

4r
a=
√3

Substituting values in the above expression, we get

4 × 75
a= = 173.2pm
√3

Question 12 :

[ ] [ ]
HCl disassociates as H + + Cl − and common salt (NaCl) disassociates as

[Na ] + [Cl ]
+ −

[ ]
As HCl is passed through NaCl, Cl − increases since it is formed as a product of disassociation of HCl as well

as NaCl

Due to this "common ion effect" operates to balance concentration of Cl − .

Therefore, the disassociation of either NaCl or HCl ceases and one of these start to precipitate.

AsK sp(NaCl) < K sp(HCl), therefore NaCl precipitates first.

The precipitation starts when the ionic product of NaCl exceeds the solubility product.

Question 13 :

p - nitrobenzoic acid will have lower pKa than benzoic acid

pK a value of 4-nitrobenzoic acid (3.41) is lower than that of benzoic acid (4.19).

Lower is the pK a value, greater is the acid strength. The electron withdrawing nitro ( − NO2 ) group increases
the acidity of benzoic acid.

Question 14 :

( )
First we add nitro group NO 2 to the benzene ring to form nitrobenzene through nitration of benzene as
nitration of benzene will give nitro benzene as a product. Then, we will treat nitro benzene with ferric chloride in
the presence of chlorine gas which will give 3- chloro nitro benzene. In the last step, the reduction of nitro group
in 3-chloro nitro benzene by lithium aluminium hydride which will give us 3-chloro aniline.

Since the nitro group is a meta director, we can then add Cl through chlorination. After that, we can reduce the
NO 2 Group to NH 2 Group.

Question 15 :
The number of milligrams of protective colloid which is just sufficient to prevent the coagulation of 10 ml
standard gold solution when 1 ml of 10% solution of sodium chloride is added to it, is called gold number.

The Gold Number is the minimum weight (in milligrams) of a protective colloid required to prevent the
coagulation of 10 ml of a standard hydro gold sol when 1 ml of a 10% sodium chloride solution is added to it. It
was first used by Richard Adolf Zsigmondy in 1901.

Question 16 :

Alkali metals are good oxidizing agents is the incorrect statement.

Alkali metals, are more electropositive due to low ionisation potential.

Alkaline earth metals are less electropositive because of the smaller size and higher ionisation enthalpies of
alkaline earth metals as compared to alkali metals.

Question 17 :

Dehydration of alcohol to alkene in presence of concentrated H 2SO 4 involves following steps :

Thus, the initiation step is protonation of alcohol.

Question 18 :

PV = nRT

⇒1×V= m
44
× 0.0821 × 300

⇒d= m
V

⇒d= 44
0.0821 × 300

density = 1.78 g / Litre

Question 19 :

( [ CH3COONa ]
)
V×
pH = pK a + log
V × [ CH 3COOH ]

Substituting values in the above expression, we get,

 ( [ CH3COONa ]
)
25 ×
4.8 = 4.8 + log 50 × 0.2

[CH3COONa ] = 0.4M

Question 20 :

Aqua regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid in the molar ratio of 1:3. Aqua regia is a yellow-
orange fuming liquid. Aqua regia is used for the decomposition of weak acids.

Question 21 :

Intake of CO by haemoglobin in blood causes loss of oxygen carrying capacity of blood.

The CO molecule binds to hemoglobin at a much higher preferential rate compared to oxygen (≈240:1). Tying up
the oxygen carrier in the blood, hemoglobin results in COHb not easily releasing the carbon monoxide.
Therefore, hemoglobin will not be available to transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body.

Question 22 :

XeF 6 + 3H 2O → XeO 3 + 6HF

XeF6 is one of the three binary fluorides formed by the xenon. The complete hydrolysis of XeF6 produces XeO3
which is xenon trioxide. This xenon trioxide is highly explosive and acts as a powerful oxidising agent in
solution.

Question 23 :

Radioactive reacting have order one so

[ R ]0
Kt = 2.303log [ R ]
t

[ R ]0
K × 40 = 2.303log 12.5 [ R ] × 100
0

K = 0.052 min − 1
0.693
t 50% = K

0.693
t 50% = 0.052

t 50% = 13.32 min

Question 24 :
EDTA is a hexadentate ligand. It has 6 donor atoms. These six donor atoms form octahedral environment
around central metal atom.

Hence, one molecule of EDTA is required to form an octahedral complex with Ca 2 + ion.

Question 25 :

A. Concentrated sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium to produce sulphur dioxide and aluminium sulphate.

B. Aluminum react with nitric acid to produce aluminum nitrate, nitrogen dioxide and water.

C. Aluminium metal react with dilute HCl to give a salt and hydrogen gas.

2Al + 6HCl (dil) → 2AlCl 3 + 2H 2 ↑

Question 26 :

NO 2 exists as dimer N 2O 4.

The lewis structure of nitrogen dioxide requires that the central atom nitrogen be bonded to one oxygen through
a double covalent bond and to another oxygen through a three electron bond. So one electron remains unpaired.
If two nitrogen dioxide units dimerize through N − N bonds formation the odd electron on N couples with that of
another molecule. So it is dimagnetic in nature.

Question 27 :

An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is grignard's reagent. Grignard's reagent is

represented by R − MgX. An example is methyl magnesium iodide. A sigma bond is present between C atom
and Mg atom.

Question 28 :

Let us now look into the mechanism of the given reaction:

Firstly the HI given will get ionized:

HI → H + + I −

The iodide ion produced will attack one of the Carbon-oxygen bonds, gets attached to carbon, the hydrogen ion
produced in the first step will get attached to a negatively charged oxygen atom:

CH 3CH 2O − CH 2CH 3 + HI → CH 3CH 2OH + I − CH 2 − CH 3

The ethanol produced in the above step still has a carbon-oxygen bond and we are provided with an excess of
HI (concentrated), so the iodide ion will now attack the carbon-oxygen bond of ethanol similarly, and the
hydrogen ion will get attached to hydroxide ion produced:

CH 3CH 2 − OH + HI → CH 3CH 2 − I + H 2O

Thus, the overall reaction between diethyl ether and hot and concentrated HI will be:

CH 3CH 2OCH 2CH 3 + 2HI → 2CH 3CH 2I + H 2O

Means, the given reaction will give two moles of ethyl iodide.

Question 29 :

Fluoride ions are difficult to oxidize into fluorine because the size of fluoride ions is so small that the electrons
present in the orbitals experience strong repulsive forces from each other. Due to these repulsions, the effect of
the electrons outweighs their closeness with the nucleus and it becomes very easy to remove an electron.
Hence, it takes very less energy to remove an electron from a fluoride ion.

Hence, the fluoride ion is the strongest oxidizing agent and a weak reducing agent i.e., fluoride ion itself gets
reduced by gaining electrons and oxidizing other molecules. Therefore, the halide which is not oxidized by

MnO 2 is fluoride ion i.e., F − .

Question 30 :

As we know,

ΔH = E a − E a ; if ΔH = − ve, E a > Ea
(f) (b) (b) (f)

if ΔH = + ve, E a < Ea
(b) (f)

Answers Mathematics

1 : (b) 2 : (b) 3 : (d) 4 : (a) 5 : (a) 6 : (a)

7 : (b) 8 : (b) 9 : (c) 10 : (d) 11 : (a) 12 : (a)
13 : (b) 14 : (a) 15 : (c) 16 : (b) 17 : (b) 18 : (c)
19 : (c) 20 : (b) 21 : (c) 22 : (b) 23 : (b) 24 : (b)
25 : (c) 26 : (a) 27 : (b) 28 : (a) 29 : (d) 30 : (b)

Explanations

Question 1 :

x2 + 1 = 0

⇒x = −1
2

⇒x= ±i
i.e., x is an imaginary number.

}
Hence {x : x is a real number and x 2 + 1 = 0 is an empty set.

Question 2 :

Obviously, the relation is not reflexive and transitive but it is symmetric, because

x2 + y2 = 1 ⇒y 2 + x 2 = 1.
Question 3 :

f(x) = [x − 1]

( )
f x 2 = (f(x)) 2

|x 2 −1 |≠x 2 + 1 − 2x

f(x) = | f(x) | = f(x)

||x | − 1 | = | x − 1 |

x= −5≠6

Question 4 :

1 i

√3 + 1
+
√3
√3 + 1

√3
√3 + 1
tan − 1( 1 )
√3 + 1

= tan − 1(√3)

π
= 3

Question 5 :

We have,

sinα, sin 2α, 1, sin 4α and sin 5α in A.P.

Then,

First term a = sinα

Commondifference=Secondterm-firstterm

Where

T 1 = First term

T 2 = Second term

T 3 = Third term

Then, we know that,

If the series in an A.P.

T2 − T1 = T3 − T2 = T4 − T3 = T5 − T4

sin 2α − sinα = 1 − sin 2α = sin 4α − 1 = sin 5α − sin 4α

⇒ sin α − sinα = 1 − sin α

2 2

⇒ sin α + sin α − sinα = 1

2 2

⇒ 2sin α − sinα − 1 = 0
2

⇒ 2sin α − (2 − 1)sinα − 1 = 0
2

⇒ 2sin α − 2sinα + sinα − 1 = 0

2

⇒ 2sinα(sinα − 1) + 1(sinα − 1) = 0
⇒ (sinα − 1)(2sinα + 1) = 0
⇒ sinα − 1 = 0, 2sinα + 1 = 0
⇒ sinα = 1, sinα = −1
2

⇒ sinα = sin π
2
, sinα = − sin 6
π

⇒α= π
2
, sinα = sin π + 6
( ) π
∵ sin(π + θ) = − sinθ
⇒α= π
2
, α= 6
7π

Similarly we can show that,

π
α= − 2

Hence, α =
( π π
− 2, 2
)
Question 6 :

x 2 − 2x + 4
y=
x 2 + 2x + 4

x 2y + 2xy + 4y = x 2 − 2x + 4

x 2(y − 1) + 2x(y + 1) + 4y − 4 = 0

Since x is real, D ≥ 0

4(y + 1) 2 − 4(4y − 4)(y − 1) ≥ 0

4y 2 + 8y + 4 − 16y 2 + 16y − 16 + 16y ≥ 0

− 12y 2 + 40y − 12 ≥ 0
3y 2 − 10y + 3 ≤ 0

(3y − 1)(y − 3) ≤ 0
1
Hence, 3 ≤ y ≤ 3

Question 7 :

Each place of a ten digit number can be fixed by any of the two digits. So, the number of ways to form a ten digit
number is 2 10.

Question 8 :

(√2 + 1) 6 = A

[A] is the greatest integer less than A.

Let f be some unknown fraction.

Hence, we can write [A] + f = A.

Now, (√2 − 1) < 1

(√2 − 1) 6 < 1

Let, (√2 − 1) 6 be denoted by f 1.

So, (√2 + 1) 6 + (√2 − 1) 6 = [A] + f + f 1

⇒ 2 ( C ⋅ (√2) + C ⋅ (√2) + C ) = [A] + f + f

6
0
6 6
2
4 6
6 1

⇒ 2(8 + 60 + 31) = [A] + f + f 1

⇒ 198 = [A] + f + f 1

Now, 0 < f < 1

0 < f1 < 1

0 < f + f1 < 2

But as 198 − [A] = f + f 1, So, f + f 1 has to be an integer.

As, the only integer in (0, 2) is 1 , hence f + f 1 = 1

So, [A] = 197

Question 9 :

Since, log(1 + x) − log(1 − x)

=
[ x2 x3
1 + x + 2 + 3 + …∞ − 1 − x + 2 − 3 + …∞
][ x2 x3
]
[
= 2 x + 3 + 5 + …∞
x3 x5
]
1
Put x = 2 on both sides, we get

log 2
() ()
3
− log 2
1
( 1
2
1
2
1
= 2 2 + 3 ⋅ 3 + 5 ⋅ 5 + …∞
1 1
)

()
3

⇒ log e
2
1
1 1
=1+ 3 ⋅ 4 + 5 ⋅ 2 +…
4
1 1

⇒ log 3 = 1 +
e
1 1
⋅ + 5 ⋅ 2 + …∞
3 4 4
1 1

Question 10 :

Given that matrix A is orthogonal matrix

Orthogonal matrix is a square matrix with real entities whose columns and rows are orthogonal unit vectors

⇒ AA T
=I

Apply det on both sides, we get | A | × |A | = | I |

T

⇒ |A| = 1 2

⇒ |A| = ± 1

Question 11 :

| |
a b c
Δ= c a b
b c a

( ) (
= a a 2 − bc − b − b 2 + ac + c c 2 − ab ) ( )
= a 3 − abc − abc + b 3 + c 3 − abc

= a 3 + b 3 + c 3 − 3abc
Now,

| |
a 2 − bc b 2 − ac c 2 − ab
c 2 − ab a 2 − bc b 2 − ac
b 2 − ac c 2 − ab a 2 − bc

| | | |
a2 b2 c2 bc ca ab
= c2 a2 b2 − ab bc ac
b2 c2 a2 ac ab bc

( ) (
= a 2 a 4 − b 2c 2 − b 2 − b 4 + a 2c 2 + c 2 c 4 − b 2a 2 ) ( )
{ ( ) (
− bc b 2c 2 − a 2bc − ac acb 2 − a 2c 2 + ab b 2a 2 − abc 2 ) ( )}
(
= a 3 + b 3 + c 3 − 3abc ) 2
= Δ2

Question 12 :

( )
Here x 1, y 1 is ( − 8, 12)

a = 4, b = 7 and c = 13
α+8 β − 12 − 2 { 4 ( − 8 ) + 12 ( 7 ) + 13 }
4
= 7
=
( − 8 )2 + ( 7 )2

α+8 β − 12 − 2 ( 65 )
4
= 7
= 65

⇒ = − 2, = − 2
α+8
4
β − 12
7

⇒ α = − 8 − 8, β = − 14 + 12
⇒ α = − 16, β = − 2
So, the image of the point is ( − 16, − 2).

Question 13 :

Given, 3x 2 + 3y 2 + 2x + 4y − 6 = 0

⇒x 2
+ y2 +
() ()
2
3
x+
4
3
y − 2 = 0 (1)

and x 2 + y 2 − 5x − 3 = 0 (2)
solving (1) and (2) we locus, i.e., x 2 + y 2 − 5x − 3 = x 2 + y 2 +
() ()
2
3
x+
4
3
y−2

⇒ 17x + 4y + 3 = 0

Question 14 :

Let (h, k) be the mid-point of the chord 2x + y − 4 = 0 of the parabola y 2 = 4x. Then, its equation is
ky − 2(x + h) = k 2 − 4h

[using T = S ′ ]

⇒ 2x − ky + k 2 − 2h = 0 (i)

Eq. (i) and 2x + y − 4 = 0 represent the same line.

∴ − k = 1 and k 2
−2h= −4

⇒ k = − 1, h = 5
2

Hence, the required mid-point is

( )
5
2
, −1 .

Question 15 :

x2 ( mx + c ) 2
+ =1
a2 b2

⇒ x2
a2
+
m 2x 2
b2
+
c2
b2
+
2cmn
b2
=1

⇒b x 2 2
(
+ a 2 m 2x 2 + 2cmn + c 2 = a 2b 2 )
⇒ x (b 2 2
) ( )
+ a 2m 2 + x 2cma 2 + a 2c 2 − a 2b 2 = 0

for x to be real,

(2cma ) 2 2
(
≥ 4 b 2 + a 2m 2 )(a c2 2
− a 2b 2 )
⇒ 4c m a ≥ 4a b c − a b + a m c − a b m
2 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 2

⇒a c m ≥b c −b +a m c −a b m
2 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 2

⇒0≥c −b −a m ⇒a m ≥c −b
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

Question 16 :
Let y = tan −1
( √1 + x 2 − 1
x ) Put x = tanθ

∴ y = tan −1
( √1 + tan2 θ − 1
tan θ )
= tan − 1
( ) sec θ − 1
sin θ
cos θ

= tan − 1
( 1 − cos θ
sin θ )

( )
θ
2sin 2 2
= tan − 1 θ θ
2sin 2 cos 2

( )
= tan − 1 tan 2
θ θ 1
= 2 = 2 tan − 1x

∴ dy
dx
=
2 ( 1 + x )2
1

( ) √
2x 1 − x 2
Let z = tan − 1 Put x = sinϕ
1 − 2x 2

∴ z = tan −1
( 2sin ϕcos ϕ
1 − 2sin 2 ϕ )
( )
= tan − 1 cos 2ϕ
sin 2ϕ
= 2ϕ

∴ z = 2sin −1
x ∴ dz
dx
=
2

√1 − x 2
1

(
2 1 + x2 ) √1 − x 2
∴ dy
dz
= 2 =
√1 − x 2 (
4 1 + x2 )
 dy √1 − 0 1
At x = 0, dz = 4 ( 1 + 0 ) = 4

Question 17 :

Given curves are x = t 2 + 3t − 8… (i) and y = 2t 2 − 2t − 5… (i)

At (2,−1), From (i)

t 2 + 3t − 10 = 0 ⟹ t = 2 or t = − 5

From (i)

2t 2 − 2t − 4 = 0 ⟹ t 2 − t − 2 = 0 ⟹ t = 2 or t = − 1

From both the solutions, we get t=2

Differentiating both the equations w.r.t. t, we get

dx
dt
= 2t + 3……. . (ii)

dy
dt
= 4t − 2…… (iii)

dy
dy dt
Now, dx = dx
dt

4t − 2
= 2t + 3 …. From (iii) and (iv)

∴ dy
dx
4t − 2
= 2t + 3 is the slope of tangent to the given curve

∴ | | dy
dx
(2, −1)
=
| | 4t − 2
2t + 3
t=2
8−2 6
= 4 + 3 = 7 is the slope of tangent to the given curve at (2,−1).

Question 18 :

f(x) = cot − 1x + x
d d
f ′(x) = dx cot − 1x + dx (x)

−1
= +1
1 + x2

− 1 + 1 + x2
=
1 + x2

=
x2
1 + x2
≥ 0, ∀x ∈ R
So f(x) is increasing on ( − ∞, ∞).
Question 19 :

Let

y=
()
1
x
2x 2

Or

lny = − 2x 2lnx

Now

y ′ = − y[4xlnx + 2x]

() 1 2x 2
= − x
(4xlnx + 2x)

Now

()1
x
2x 2
cannot be equal to zero.

Hence 4xln(x) + 2x = 0

Or

2x(2ln(x) + 1) = 0

Or

⇒x=
−1 1
x = 0 or lnx = 2 e−2

Now f(0) is not defined.

Hence

1
y = ee

Question 20 :

I = ∫ cos 3xe log sin xdx

I = ∫ cos 3xsinxdx

Putting cosx = t and − sinxdx = dt

or, sinxdx = − dt, we get,

t4 cos 4 x
I = − ∫ t 3dt = − 4 + C = − 4
+C
Question 21 :

{
x
∫ − 1 − tdt −1 ≤ x ≤ 0
0 x
∫ − 1 − tdt + ∫ 0tdt x≥0
f(x) =

(1 − x ),
1
2 −1 ≤ x ≤ 0
2

{ (1 + x ),
1
2 x≥0
= 2

Question 22 :

C 1 → y = tanx, x ∈ [− π π
,
3 3 ]
C2 → y = x ∈[ π π
,
6 6 ]
π π
The region is symmetric about lines x = 4 and its first portion is bounded between the lines x = 0 and x = 4

π
Required Area = 2∫ 04 tanxdy

π π
= 2[log(sec)] 0y = 2[log(sec ) − log(sec0)]

= 2log√2 = log2 sq unit

Area = log2Sq. unit

Question 23 :

→
a = 4 î − 3 ĵ + 2k̂

→ 1̂
Let b = x 1 + y ĵ + zk̂

it masses equal angles with coordinate axes.

⇒ x
= cosθ x = cosθ y =
y
= cosθ z =
z

√x 2 + y 2 + z 2 √x 2 + y 2 + z 2 √x 2 + y 2 + z 2
⇒x=y=z
∴ b = x( î + ĵ + k̂)
¯
|b| = √3
⇒ √x + x + x = √ 3
2 2 2

⇒ 3x = 3 2

⇒k= ±1
∴ b = î + ĵ + k̂ or b = − ( î + ĵ + k̂)
→ →

Projection of a or b
→ →
⇒ a⋅b
| bˉ |

⇒ x(4−3+2)

√3

⇒± (3)

√3
= ± √3

Question 24 :

Equation of a plane passing through (2, 2, 1) is a(x − 2) + b(y − 2) + c(z − 1) = 0… (i)

This passes through (9, 3, 6) and is perpendicular to 2x + 6y + 6z − 1 = 0

∴ 7a + b + 5c = 0 and 2a + 6b + 6c = 0
On solving above equations by cross-multiplication, we get

⇒ a
6 − 30
−b
= 42 − 10 = 42 − 2
c

⇒ a
− 24
= − 32 = 40
b c

⇒ a
−3
= −4 = 5
b c

On substituting the values of

a,b and c in Eq. (i),

we get − 3(x − 2) − 4(y − 2) + 5(z − 1) = 0 or 3x + 4y − 5z − 9 = 0

Question 25 :

Total permutations = 10C 2 × 2 ! = 90 Correct number = 1

⇒P= 1
90

Question 26 :

The given equation is:

 ( ) ( )
f(x) = sin x + 6
π
+ cos x + 6
π

Differentiating once w.r.t to x and equating it to zero to get the extremum points we get,

⇒ f (x) = cos (x +
′
π
6 ) ( )
− sin x + 6
π

Equating f ′(x) = 0 we get,

⇒ cos (x + π
6 ) ( )
− sin x + 6
π
=0

⇒ cos (x + π
6 ) ( )
= sin x + 6
π

⇒x+ π
6
= 4
π

⇒x= π
12

Again differentiating to perform double derivative test and check whether the extremum gives a maximum or
minimum

⇒ f (x) = − sin (x +
′′
π
6 ) ( )
− cos x + 6
π

⇒f (′′
π
12 ) (
= − sin 12 + 6
π π
) ( π
− cos 12 + 6
π
)
⇒f (′′
π
12 ) π
= − sin 4 − cos 4
π

⇒f ( ′′
π
12 ) = − √2

⇒f ( ′′
π
12 ) <0

π
Hence the point x = 12 is a point of maxima.

Question 27 :

Given sin −1
x − cos −1
x = cos −1
( )
√3
2
⇒ sin − 1x
π
− cos − 1x = 6 …… (i)

π
But sin − 1x + cos − 1x = …… (ii)
2

π
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get sin − 1x = 3

∴x= √
π 3
and cos − 1x = is the unique solution.
6 2

Question 28 :

1 + sinθ + sin 2θ + ………… = 2√3 + 4

LHS is an infinite G.P. with common ratio sinθ and first term 1

⇒ 1
1 − sin θ
= 2√3 + 4 = 2(√3 + 2)

⇒ 1 − sinθ = 1
2 ( 2 + √3 )

2 − √3
⇒ 2(1 − sinθ) = 1
2 + √3
⋅
2 − √3

2 − √3
⇒ 2 − 2sinθ = 4−3
= 2 − √3

√3
⇒ sinθ = 2

⇒θ= π
3

Question 29 :

We have 5x − 3 < 3x + 1

⇒ 5x − 3 + 3 < 3x + 1 + 3
⇒ 5x < 3x + 4
⇒ 5x − 3x < 3x + 4 − 3x
⇒ 2x < 4 ⇒ x < 2
(i) When x is an integer the solutions of the given inequality are {. . , − 4, − 3, − 2, − 1, 0, 1}

(ii) When x is a real number the solutions of the inequality are given by x < 2 i.e. all real number x which are less
than 2 Therefore the solution set of the inequality is x ( − ∞, 2) ∈

Question 30 :
We may have:

(i) 1 woman and 2 men or (ii) 2 women and 1 man.

∴ required number of ways = ( C 2

1 ) ( ) ( 5×4
× 5C 2 + 2C 2 × 5C 1 = 2 × 2 × 1
) + (1 × 5)

= (20 + 5) = 25