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Cisco 200-301 v2021-04-16 q222

The document provides information about the Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam (200-301) and includes various questions and answers related to networking concepts. It covers topics such as private IPv4 addresses, link aggregation, routing protocols, and network security. The document also includes references to configurations and scenarios relevant to network management and device communication.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

111 views104 pages

Cisco 200-301 v2021-04-16 q222

Uploaded by

Christopher Khylash Maraj

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

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Cisco.200-301.v2021-04-16.

q222

Exam Code: 200-301

Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam
Certification Provider: Cisco
Free Question Number: 222
Version: v2021-04-16
# of views: 992
# of Questions views: 61345
https://www.freecram.com/torrent/Cisco.200-301.v2021-04-16.q222.html

NEW QUESTION: 1
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
B. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts
C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing
D. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 2
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link is becomes an access port.
B. The link becomes a trunk port.
C. The link is in an error disables state
D. The link is in a down state.
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 3
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the
packet?
A. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0
B. 207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0
C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
D. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 4
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.
B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"
C. When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 5
Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns
to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
A. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.
B. Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.
C. Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.
D. Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
NEW QUESTION: 6
Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

A. Switch 3
B. Switch 4
C. Switch 2
D. Switch 1
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 7
By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
A. it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router
B. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric
C. it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the
metric
D. it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 8
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network
device? (Choose two)
A. Enable NTP authentication.
B. Verify the time zone.
C. Disable NTP broadcasts
D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server
E. Set the NTP server private key
Answer: A,D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/8-2glx/configuration/guide/ntp.html To
configure authentication, perform this task in privileged mode:Step 1: Configure an authentication key pair for
NTP and specify whether the key will be trusted or untrusted.Step 2: Set the IP address of the NTP server and
the public key.Step 3: Enable NTP client mode.Step 4: Enable NTP authentication.Step 5: Verify the NTP
configuration.

NEW QUESTION: 9
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz
network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
A. enable RX-SOP
B. enable Band Select
C. enable AAA override
D. enable DTIM
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 10
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other
computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes
this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 11
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other
traffic?
A. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 ip
access-group 100 in
B. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface
GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in
C. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface
GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in
D. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 ip
access-group 100 in
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 13
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface
conditions?(choose two)
A. There is a protocol mismatch
B. The interface is error-disabled
C. There is a speed mismatch
D. The interface is shut down
E. There is a duplex mismatch
Answer: B,C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 14
Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
A. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30
B. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30
C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30
D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32
E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16
Answer: C,D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 15
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
A. 209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
B. 209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0
C. 209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0
D. 209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 16
Refer to the exhibit.

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2.
Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its
internal clock?
A. Router2(config)#ntp passive
B. Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2
C. Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1
D. Router2(config)#ntp master 4
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION: 18
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A. IKEv2
B. IKEv1
C. IPsec
D. MD5
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
A site-to-site VPN allows offices in multiple fixed locations to establish secure connections with each other
over a public network such as the Internet. A site-to-site VPN means that two sites create a VPN tunnel by
encrypting and sending data between two devices. One set of rules for creating a siteto-site VPN is defined by
IPsec.

NEW QUESTION: 19
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Answer:

Explanation
Ansible:- uses SSH for remote device communication- uses YAML for fundamental configuration elements
Chef:- uses TCP port 10002 for configuration push jobs- uses Ruby for fundamental configuration elements
Puppet:- fundamental configuration elements are stored in a manifest- uses TCP 8140 for communication The
focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast, and to require no node agent installation.Thus, Ansible performs
all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby foundation of Puppet and Chef.TCP
port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file .This port
allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.Puppet is an open-source
configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers custom Domain Specific Language
(DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom Puppet language files, offering a declarative-
paradigm programming approach.A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest, and is a file with .pp extension.

NEW QUESTION: 20
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
A. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter
B. Both have a 100 micron core diameter
C. Both have a 9 micron core diameter
D. Both have a 50 micron core diameter
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 21
What is the function of a server?
A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.
B. It provides shared applications to end users.
C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.
D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 22
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
A. OpenFlow
B. NETCONF
C. Thrift
D. CORBA
E. DSC
Answer: A,B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should interact
with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to changing business
requirements.
The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to install, manipulate
and delete configuration to network devices.

NEW QUESTION: 23
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating
conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
A. IS-IS
B. RIP
C. Internal EIGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
With the same route (prefix), the router will choose the routing protocol with lowest Administrative Distance
(AD) to install into the routing table. The AD of Internal EIGRP (90) is lowest so it would be chosen. The table
below lists the ADs of popular routing protocols.
CCNA 200-301 Dumps Full Questions - Exam Study Guide & Free 203
Note: The AD of IS-IS is 115. The "EIGRP" in the table above is "Internal EIGRP". The AD of "External
EIGRP" is 170. An EIGRP external route is a route that was redistributed into EIGRP.

NEW QUESTION: 24
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
B. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client
D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
E. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
Answer: A,B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 25
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of
only one person?
A. intrusion detection
B. network authorization
C. physical access control
D. user awareness
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 26
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2
connectivity to ports on another switch What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the
connection?
A. LLDP
B. LACP
C. Cisco vPC
D. 802.1q trunks
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
NEW QUESTION: 27
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
A. VM configuration file
B. disk
C. applications
D. operating system
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 28
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their
management of networks?
A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.
B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an
organization
C. IT abstracts policy from the actual device configuration
D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 29
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. to pass traffic between different networks
D. forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 30
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration
accomplishes this task?

A. Option D
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option A
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 31
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
A. create
B. update
C. read
D. replace
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 32
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
B. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
C. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
D. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 33
What is a function of a remote access VPN?
A. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel
B. used exclusively when a user is connected to a company's internal network
C. used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously
D. establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 34
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right
Answer:

NEW QUESTION: 35
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee
smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user's smartphone being lost or stolen?
A. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.
B. The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the
smartphone is rebooted.
C. The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.
D. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 36
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask
combination meets this criteria?

A. Option B
B. Option D
C. Option A
D. Option C
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 37
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router
is in the proper mode?
A. Exchange
B. 2-way
C. Init
D. Full
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 38
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 39
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of
authentication
B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload
C. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and
interim commands
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 40
Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent
connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
A. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type
B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA
C. High usage is causing high latency
D. Interface errors are incrementing
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 41
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
B. It provides variable latency
C. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 42
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
A. Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs
B. The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.
C. Network communications are open to eavesdropping.
D. Users experience poor wireless network performance.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 43
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 44
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

A. Switch 1
B. Switch 2
C. Switch 3
D. Switch 4
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 45
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
A. router
B. wireless LAN controller
C. wireless access point
D. firewall
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 46
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
A. JSON
B. Chef
C. Ansible
D. Puppet
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 47
Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
A. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports
B. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
C. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports
D. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 48
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or
desirable mode. What action should be taken?
A. configure switchport mode dynamic desirable
B. configure switchport nonegotiate
C. configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable
D. configure switchport mode dynamic auto
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 49
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted
B. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch
C. Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing
D. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts,
logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This capability protects the network
from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. After enabling DAI, all ports become untrusted ports.

NEW QUESTION: 50
What is a benefit of VRRP?
A. It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.
B. It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.
C. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.
D. It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final
forwarding decision.
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 51
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131
C. ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130
D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 52
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is
automatically distributed?
A. ip helper-address
B. dns-server
C. default-gateway
D. default-router
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 53
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. ASA
B. WSA
C. Firepower
D. FireSIGHT
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 54
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent
interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
A. Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11
B. Switch trunk allowed vlan 12
C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan none
D. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 55
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new
circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the
traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
A. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table
B. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical
C. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
D. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 56
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
A. read
B. update
C. create
D. delete
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
GET: This method retrieves the information identified by the request URI. In the context of the RESTful web
services, this method is used to retrieve resources. This is the method used for read operations (the R in
CRUD).
https://hub.packtpub.com/crud-operations-rest/

NEW QUESTION: 57
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
A. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs
B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs
C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
D. Enable dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 58
Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
A. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+
B. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1
C. This is a root bridge
D. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+
E. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1
Answer: B,D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 59
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment.
Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
A. CDP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. ARP
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between SNMP
managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language used for the
monitoring and management of devices in a network.The SNMP framework has three parts:+ An SNMP
manager+ An SNMP agent+ A Management Information Base (MIB)The Management Information Base (MIB)
is a virtual information storage area for network management information, which consists of collections of
managed objects.With SNMP, the network administrator can send commands to multiple routers to do the
backup

NEW QUESTION: 60
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2
GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B
B. ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B
C. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B
D. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 61
Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

A. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
B. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance
C. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
D. it load-balances traffic between all three routes
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

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NEW QUESTION: 62
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password?
(Choose two.)
A. It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.
B. It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.
C. It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware
functionality
D. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.
E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.
Answer: D,E (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 63
In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
A. data plane
B. control plane
C. policy plane
D. management plane
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 64
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

A. show ip route
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show cdp neighbor
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 65
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
A. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
C. It immediately enables the port in the listening state
D. it enables BPDU messages
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 66
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same
SSID?
A. Probe Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Association Request
D. Authentication Request
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 67
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a
public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

A. Option C
B. Option D
C. Option B
D. Option A
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 68
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 1729.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:
Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges from
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Only
the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

NEW QUESTION: 69
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security
mechanism categories on the right.

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 70
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which
command should be used?
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
C. switchport mode trunk
D. switchport trunk native vlan 10
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 71
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the
right.
Answer:

NEW QUESTION: 72
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured configuration failed to work as
intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while
still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
A. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101
B. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2
C. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic
D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1
E. Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
Answer: A,C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 73
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link
B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a
mobile device
C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen
D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
This is an example of how two-factor authentication (2FA) works:1. The user logs in to the website or service
with their username and password.2. The password is validated by an authentication server and, if correct, the
user becomes eligible for the second factor.3. The authentication server sends a unique code to the user's
second-factor method (such as a smartphone app).4. The user confirms their identity by providing the
additional authentication for their second-factor method.

NEW QUESTION: 74
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
A. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address
B. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
C. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations
D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address
E. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default
Answer: A,D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 75
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast
C. UplinkFast
D. BackboneFast
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 76
What is a DHCP client?
A. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
B. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address
C. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
D. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 77
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol
D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 78
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch.
Which action should be taken?
A. configure IEEE 802.1q
B. configure DSCP
C. configure IEEE 802.1p
D. configure ISL
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 79
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
A. 10.0.1.4
B. 10.0.1.3
C. 10.0.1.50
D. Loopback D
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 80
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.
B. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.
C. It is unreachable and discards the traffic.
D. It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 81
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and
err-disabled
B. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device
has failed and disconnects
C. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated
D. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 82
Refer to the exhibit.
The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two
tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach
one another?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
C. Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
Answer: D,E (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The short syntax of static IPv6 route is:ipv6 route <destination-IPv6-address> {next-hop-IPv6-address | exit-
interface}

NEW QUESTION: 83
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
A. used without tracking or registration
B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number
C. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied
D. composed of up to 65.536 available addresses
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 84
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
A. SAE encryption
B. scrambled encryption key
C. AES encryption
D. TKiP encryption
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 85
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
A. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.
B. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller
C. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the
controller
D. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the
controller.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 86
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
A. reduced operational costs
B. faster changes with more reliable results
C. increased network security
D. reduced hardware footprint
E. fewer network failures
Answer: A,B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 87
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
A. A console password must be configured on the switch
B. The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch
C. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image
D. IP routing must be enabled on the switch
E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch
Answer: B,C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 88
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP
server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and
R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
A. R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)#ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
B. R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)#ip address dhcp
C. R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)#ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
D. R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.0.2.2
E. R1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)#ip address dhcp
R1(config-if)# no shutsown
Answer: C,E (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 89
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

A. The port transitions to STP blocking
B. The port transitions to the root port
C. The port goes into error-disable state
D. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 90
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to
the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 91
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.
D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 92
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?
A. TKIP with RC4
B. RC4
C. AES-128
D. AES-256
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
We can see in this picture we have to type 64 hexadecimal characters (256 bit) for the WPA2 passphrase so
we can deduce the encryption is AES-256, not AES-128.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/67134-wpa2-config.html

NEW QUESTION: 93
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
A. The data can pass through the cladding
B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
C. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections
D. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
E. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
Answer: D,E (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 94
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp client
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 95
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
A. 2002::5
B. FF02::2
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. 2000::/3
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 96
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
A. action
B. data
C. control
D. management
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 97
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Both the line "O 172.16.0.128/25" and "S 172.16.0.0/24" cover the host 172.16.0.202 but with the "longest
(prefix) match" rule the router will choose the first route.

NEW QUESTION: 98
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
A. A network device has restarted
B. An ARP inspection has failed
C. A routing instance has flapped
D. A debug operation is running
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Usually no action is required when a route flaps so it generates the notification syslog level message (level 5).

NEW QUESTION: 99
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
A. smart-relay
B. manual bindings
C. address pool
D. relay agent information
E. database agent
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 100

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented?
(Choose two)
A. runts
B. giants
C. frame
D. CRC
E. input errors
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits
have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in
the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error.
Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS
math detects an error.
The "input errors" includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the "show interface s0/0/0" command:

NEW QUESTION: 101

Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts
A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing
Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration
B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.
C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.
D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 102

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
A. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing
B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11
C. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel
D. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 103

Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
A. modify process ID
B. modify hello interval
C. modify priority
D. modify network type
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 104

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses
192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
A. Option D
B. Option A
C. Option B
D. Option C
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 105

Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server.
Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in
the configuration?
A. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation
B. Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation
C. Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.
D. Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 106

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface
FastEthernet 0/1?
A. DHCP client
B. access point
C. router
D. PC
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 107

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch
B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted
D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Dynamic ARP inspection is an ingress security feature; it does not perform any egress checking.

NEW QUESTION: 108

Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1.
which error must be corrected?
A. There is a native VLAN mismatch
B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.
C. The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN
D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
From the output we see the native VLAN of Switch1 on Gi0/1 interface is VLAN 1 while that of Switch2 is
VLAN 99 so there would be a native VLAN mismatch.

NEW QUESTION: 109

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
A. overlay
B. underlay
C. northbound
D. southbound
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 110

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b
when the table is missing the address?
A. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.
B. lt drops the frame immediately.
C. It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.
D. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 111

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
A. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network
B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network
C. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network
D. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 112

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of
an interface?
A. ipv6 address dhcp
B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The "ipv6 address autoconfig" command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address
autoconfiguration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to
theinterface.Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement
(RA)messages.The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router
(DHCPServer).This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:+ Its interface identifier
(EUI-64 address)+ Link Prefix (obtained via RA)Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and
EUI-64 address

NEW QUESTION: 113

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable
address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
A. interface gi0/0
no cdp advertise-v2
B. interface gi0/1
no cdp enable
C. interface gi0/0
no cdp run
D. interface gi0/1
clear cdp table
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 114

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
A. The source MAC address of the frame is unknown
B. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.
C. The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.
D. The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 115

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
A. lowest neighbor's bridge ID
B. local port ID
C. lowest neighbor's port ID
D. lowest path cost to the root bridge
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 116

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations
team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22
C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22
D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Note : Already a statement is there in last to allow SSH Traffic for network 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127, but Second
statement says deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255, so how it will work once it is denied. So the right answer is
remove the --- no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255.

NEW QUESTION: 117

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685
B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Although the spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary command will ensure a switch will have a bridge priority value
lower than other bridges introduced to the network, the spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 command ensures the
bridge priority takes precedence over all other priorities.

NEW QUESTION: 118

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
A. Facilities communication between the controller and the applications
B. Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware
C. allows application developers to interact with the network
D. integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2995354&seqNum=2#:~:text=The%20Southbound
%20Interfa The Southbound Interface In a controller-based network architecture, the controller needs to
communicate to the networking devices.

NEW QUESTION: 119

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms
B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down
D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Enabling the PortFast feature causes a switch or a trunk port to enter the STP forwarding-state immediately or
upon a linkup event, thus bypassing the listening and learning states.
Note: To enable portfast on a trunk port you need the trunk keyword "spanning-tree portfast trunk

NEW QUESTION: 120

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
A. 1,2,3
B. 5,6,7
C. 1,5,10
D. 1,6,11
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 121

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
A. infrastructure-as-a-service.
B. Software-as-a-service
C. control and distribution of physical resources
D. services as a hardware controller.
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a host computer and allocates physical system
resources to them.

NEW QUESTION: 122

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
A. data plane
B. control plane
C. management plane
D. policy plane
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 123

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the
right.

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 124
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the
router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
A. DHCP Snooping
B. DHCP Binding
C. a DHCP Pool
D. a DHCP Relay Agent
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 125

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
A. give it a value in the private VLAN range
B. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link
C. assign it as VLAN 1
D. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 126

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane
B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management
C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations
D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Most traditional devices use a distributed architecture, in which each control plane is resided in a networking
device. Therefore they need to communicate with each other via messages to work correctly.In contrast to
distributed architecture, centralized (or controller-based) architectures centralizes the control of networking
devices into one device, called SDN controller

NEW QUESTION: 127

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A. SW1
B. SW3
C. SW2
D. SW4
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 128

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation
protocol?
A. on
B. auto
C. active
D. desirable
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The Static Persistence (or "on" mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In
this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.

NEW QUESTION: 129

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
A. route with the shortest prefix length
B. route with the lowest cost
C. route with the next hop that has the highest IP
D. route with the lowest administrative distance
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 130

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
A. CAR
B. CBWFQ
C. PQ
D. PBR
E. FRTS
Answer: B,C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Type of queuing methods are available:* First-In-First-Out (FIFO)* Priority Queuing (PQ)* Custom Queuing
(CQ)* Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)* Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)* Low-Latency Queuing
(LLQ)
https://www.orbit-computer-solutions.com/qos-congestion-management-tools/

NEW QUESTION: 131

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
A. 192.168.16.0/21
B. 192.168.16.0/24
C. 192.168 26.0/26
D. 192.168.16.0/27
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The destination IP addresses match all four entries in the routing table but the 192.168.16.0/27 has the
longest prefix so it will be chosen. This is called the "longest prefix match" rule.

NEW QUESTION: 132

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
A. An ICMP connection has been built
B. A TCP connection has been torn down
C. A certificate has expired.
D. An interface line has changed status
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 133

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?
A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp relay
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 134

Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all
other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switchport access vlan 67
B. switchport private-vlan association host 67
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67
D. switchport trunk native vlan 67
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 135

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
A. Unicode
B. decimal
C. base64
D. ASCII
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 136

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next
configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table
automatically?
A. enable sticky MAC addressing
B. implement static MAC addressing.
C. implement auto MAC address learning
D. enable dynamic MAC address learning
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 137

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the
MAC address of that interface?
A. explicitly assign a link-local address
B. disable the EUI-64 bit process
C. enable SLAAC on an interface
D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 138

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
A. access point
B. switch
C. firewall
D. wireless controller
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 139

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
A. statically assigned route
B. route learned through EIGRP
C. internal BGP route
D. /24 route of a locally configured IP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 140

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the
2.4 GHz frequency?
A. different nonoverlapping channels
B. one nonoverlapping channel
C. one overlapping channel
D. different overlapping channels
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 141

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440
B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422
C. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary
D. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 142

Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a
cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the
network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
A. SW3
B. SW2
C. SW4
D. SW1
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 143

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
A. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
B. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1
C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 144

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on
the right.
Answer:

Explanation

Double-Tagging attack:In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first
tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a
host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the
first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the
frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it
removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between
two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN
access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker
traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a
type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP
allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This results in the linking of an
attacker's MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an
attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2.Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates
ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.

NEW QUESTION: 145

A corporate office uses four floors in a building
* Floor 1 has 24 users
* Floor 2 has 29 users
* Floor 3 has 28 users
*Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router
configuration?
A. 192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor
B. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor
D. l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 146

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
A. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
C. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy
D. connects each switch to every other switch in the network
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 147

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A. Platinum
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Bronze
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
NEW QUESTION: 148
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific
networks?
A. Flex ACL
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS
D. CPU ACL
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 149

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity
on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all
values are used.
Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 150
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
D. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 151

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
A. tracking hosts
B. managing the topology
C. coordinating VTNs
D. protecting against DDoS attacks
E. Layer 2 forwarding
Answer: B,C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 152

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
A. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
B. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
C. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
D. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 153

Which output displays a JSON data representation?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
JSON data is written as name/value pairs.A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes),
followed by a colon, followed by a value:"name":"Mark"JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type
string, number, object, array, boolean or null.For example:{"name":"John","age":30,"cars":[ "Ford", "BMW",
"Fiat" ]}JSON can have empty object like "taskId":{}

NEW QUESTION: 154

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco
Wireless LAN Controller?
A. sniffer
B. local
C. flexconnect
D. mesh
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 155

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3711.0975
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070/AB01
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
With VRRP, the virtual router's MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group.

NEW QUESTION: 156

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not
have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which
cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
A. business process as service to support different types of service
B. platform-as-a-service
C. infrastructure-as-a-service
D. software-as-a-service
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 157

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
A. partial mesh
B. hub-and-spoke
C. full mesh
D. point-to-point
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 158

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
A. on the router closest to the client
B. on every router along the path
C. on the router closest to the server
D. on the switch trunk interface
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 159

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 160

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by
providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
A. control plane
B. policy plane
C. management plane
D. data plane
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 161

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks
B. connect wireless devices to a wired network
C. support secure user logins to devices or the network
D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 162

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
A. register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.
B. use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.
C. send LWAPP packets to access points.
D. monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Lightweight APs (LAPs) is devices require no initial configuration. LAPs use the Lightweight Access Point
Protocol (LWAPP) to communicate with a WLAN controller (WLC), as shown in the below figure.
Controller-based APs are useful in situations where many APs are required in the network. As more APs are
added, each AP is automatically configured and managed by the WLC.

NEW QUESTION: 163

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
A. malware
B. DDoS
C. worm
D. man-in-the-middle
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 164

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device
management? (Choose two)
A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software
B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
E. modular design that is upgradable as needed
Answer: B,D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Cisco DNA Center offers 360-degree extensibility through four distinct types of platform capabilities:+ Intent-
based APIs leverage the controller and enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network
and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation.+ Process adapters, built on
integration APIs, allow integration with other IT and network systems to streamline IT operations and
processes.+ Domain adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other infrastructure domains
such as data center, WAN, and security to deliver a consistent intent-based infrastructure across the entire IT
environment.+ SDKs allow management to be extended to third-party vendor's network devices to offer
support for diverse environments.

NEW QUESTION: 165

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64
bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A. runt
B. CRC
C. collision
D. late collision
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 166

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI
B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers
C. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Answer: B,E (LEAVE A REPLY)
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NEW QUESTION: 167

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
A. local port ID
B. lowest neighbor's bridge ID
C. lowest neighbor's port ID
D. lowest path cost to the root bridge
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 168

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how
does the router respond?
A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed
B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route
C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes
D. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernetO/1
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Our new static default route has the Administrative Distance (AD) of 120, which is bigger than the AD of OSPF
External route (O*E2) so it will not be pushed into the routing table until the current OSPF External route is
removed.For your information, if you don't type the AD of 120 (using the command "ip route 0.0.0.0
0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1") then the new static default route would replace the OSPF default route as the default AD of
static route is 1. You will see such line in the routing table:S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.13.0.1

NEW QUESTION: 169

Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration
commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 170
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)?
(Choose two)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. speaking
D. learning
E. forwarding
Answer: D,E (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 171

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
A. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same
link metric.
B. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.
C. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.
D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a
network.
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.
B. The frame is dropped
C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1
D. The frame is processed in VLAN 11
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 173

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.
C. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.
D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in
desirable or trunk mode?
A. switchport mode dot1-tunnel
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport mode dynamic auto
D. switchport mode dynamic desirable
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 175

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
A. passive
B. mode on
C. auto
D. active
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
From the neighbor status, we notice the "Flags" are SP. "P" here means the neighbor is in Passive mode.In
order to create an Etherchannel interface, the (local) SW1 ports should be in Active mode.Moreover, the "Port
State" in the exhibit is "0x3c" (which equals to "00111100 in binary format).Bit 3 is "1" which means the ports
are synchronizing -> the ports are working so the local ports should be in Active mode.

NEW QUESTION: 176

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being
exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an
SNMP trap?
A. switchport port-security violation access
B. switchport port-security violation protect
C. switchport port-security violation restrict
D. switchport port-security violation shutdown
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/port_sec.h

NEW QUESTION: 177

Refer to the exhibit.
Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
A. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.
B. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.
C. The source MAC address is changed.
D. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 178

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional
configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via
Telnet using a local username and password?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option D
D. Option C
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 179

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
A. facilitates spanning-tree elections
B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
C. processing inbound SSH management traffic
D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 180

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor
relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.
B. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.
C. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.
D. Router2 is using the default hello timer.
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 181

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syslog

Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
A. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
B. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
C. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24
D. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 183

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
A. attaching users to the edge of the network
B. enforcing routing policies
C. applying security policies
D. marking interesting traffic for data polices
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 184

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard
designs are recommended? (choose two.)
A. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.
B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
C. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same
channel.
Answer: A,E (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 185

Refer to exhibit.

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

A. IT is a network IP address.
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It belongs to a private IP address range.
D. It is a broadcast IP address
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 186

What is a DHCP client?
A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address
B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically
C. a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts
D. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 187

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
A. Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for
errors
B. Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes
management function
C. controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.
D. controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs
E. controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.
Answer: A,B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 188

Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing
workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the
configuration issue?
A. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1
B. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2
C. Add the default-information originate command onR2
D. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 189

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment?
(Choose two)
A. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort
B. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes
C. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.
D. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.
E. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network
Answer: C,D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 190

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 34.368 Mbps
D. 43.7 Mbps
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.bsimplify.com/what-is-point-to-point-t1/#:~:text=A%20Point%20to%20Point%20T1,data%20speed
Point to Point T1 A Point to Point T1 service is a private data connection securely connecting two or more
locations with T1 data speeds (1.54Mbps).

NEW QUESTION: 191

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
A. load balancer
B. LAN controller
C. firewall
D. Layer 2 switch
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 192

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL
certificate for GUI access?
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 193

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
A. to mitigate delays over slow links
B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows
C. to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to
D. be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over
increments of time.

NEW QUESTION: 194

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from
the hypervisor
B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage
C. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources
D. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 195

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Answer:
Explanation

Cisco DNA Center Device Management

3. Monitor the cloud for software update
5. Uses CLI templates to apply a consistent configuration to multiple devices at an individual location
6. Uses NetFlow to analyse potential security threats throughout the network and take appropriate action on
that traffic Traditional device management
2. Manages device configuration on a per-device basis
4. Security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS
* Implements changes via an SSH terminal

NEW QUESTION: 196

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.
Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.
B. Administratively shut down the ports
C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99
D. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol
E. Configure the ports as trunk ports
Answer: B,C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 197

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the
primary route fails?
A. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes
secondary.
B. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a
backup
C. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing
table
D. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a
backup
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 198

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
A. WPA2 + AES
B. WPA + TKIP
C. WEP
D. WPA + AES
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 199

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
A. usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain
B. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool
C. a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names
D. a list of statically assigned MAC addresses
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 200

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between
the authentication agent and the user database.
B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users
password
C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization
controls the tasks the user can perform.
D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the
user initiates
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization and Accounting.+ Authentication: Specify who you are (usually
via login username & password)+ Authorization: Specify what actions you can do, what resource you can
access+ Accounting: Monitor what you do, how long you do it (can be used for billing and auditing)An example
of AAA is shown below:+ Authentication: "I am a normal user. My username/password is
user_tom/learnforever"+ Authorization: "user_tom can access LearnCCNA server via HTTP and FTP"+
Accounting: "user_tom accessed LearnCCNA server for 2 hours". This user only uses "show" commands.

NEW QUESTION: 201

What is a DNS lookup operation?
A. DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down
B. DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available
C. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server
D. serves requests over destination port 53
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 202

Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
A. The interface is not participating in OSPF
B. A point-to-point network type is configured
C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use
D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13689-17.html

NEW QUESTION: 203

Refer to Exhibit.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The trunk still forms with mismatched native VLANs and the traffic can actually flow between mismatched
switches. But it is absolutely necessary that the native VLANs on both ends of a trunk link match; otherwise a
native VLAN mismatch occurs, causing the two VLANs to effectively merge.
For example with the above configuration, SW1 would send untagged frames for VLAN 999. SW2 receives
them but would think they are for VLAN 99 so we can say these two VLANs are merged.

NEW QUESTION: 204

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
A. object
B. array
C. Boolean
D. string
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 205

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
B. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
C. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol
D. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
NEW QUESTION: 206
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged
B. It drops the traffic
C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN
D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/vlan/configuration_guid
Untagged traffic from the device attached to the Cisco IP Phone passes through the phone unchanged,
regardless of the trust state of the access port on the phone.

NEW QUESTION: 207

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office
space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two)
A. enable the PortFast feature on ports
B. configure static ARP entries
C. shut down unused ports
D. configure ports to a fixed speed
E. implement port-based authentication
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 208

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
B. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
C. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
D. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 209

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
A. YAML
B. JSON
C. EBCDIC
D. SGML
E. XML
Answer: B,E (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-
x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST
NEW QUESTION: 210
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to
forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
A. metric
B. cost
C. administrative distance
D. longest prefix
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 211

Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
A. Router3
B. Router5
C. Router4
D. Router2
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 212

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
A. outside global
B. outsdwde local
C. inside global
D. insride local
E. outside public
F. inside public
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
NAT use four types of addresses:* Inside local address - The IP address assigned to a host on the inside
network. The address is usually not an IP address assigned by the Internet Network Information Center
(InterNIC) or service provider.This address is likely to be an RFC 1918 private address.* Inside global address
- A legitimate IP address assigned by the InterNIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local
IP addresses to the outside world.* Outside local address - The IP address of an outside host as it is known to
the hosts on the inside network.* Outside global address - The IP address assigned to a host on the outside
network. The owner of the host assigns this address.

NEW QUESTION: 213

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the
CLI?
A. prompts the user to specify the desired IP address
B. continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled
C. initiates a ping request to the URL
D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
NEW QUESTION: 214
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network
using a lightweight access point?
A. wireless access point
B. wireless LAN controller
C. TACACS server
D. RADIUS server
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 215

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
A. in the binding database
B. in the CAM table
C. in the frame forwarding database
D. in the MAC address table
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 216

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the
organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
A. platform-as-a-service
B. software-as-a-service
C. network-as-a-service
D. infrastructure-as-a-service
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Below are the 3 cloud supporting services cloud providers provide to customer:
+ SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed by a thirdparty
vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients' side. Most SaaS applications can be run directly from
a web browser without any downloads or installations required, although some require plugins.
+ PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while providing cloud
components to software. What developers gain with PaaS is a framework they can build upon to develop or
customize applications. PaaS makes the development, testing, and deployment of applications quick, simple,
and cost-effective. With this technology, enterprise operations, or a thirdparty provider, can manage OSes,
virtualization, servers, storage, networking, and the PaaS software itself. Developers, however, manage the
applications.
+ IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): self-service models for accessing, monitoring, and managing remote
datacenter infrastructures, such as compute (virtualized or bare metal), storage, networking, and networking
services (e.g. firewalls). Instead of having to purchase hardware outright, users can purchase IaaS based on
consumption, similar to electricity or other utility billing.
In general, IaaS provides hardware so that an organization can install their own operating system.

NEW QUESTION: 217

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 218
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Answer:
NEW QUESTION: 219
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
A. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts
B. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
C. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization
D. on the public-facing interface of a firewall
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 220

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
A. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic
B. reports device errors to a controller
C. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware
D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 221

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network.
Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224
B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240
D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 222

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Answer:
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