01/03/2025 A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Work Energy and Power
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Laws of Motion
CHEMISTRY:
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Hydrocarbons
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Tissues
BOTANY:
Organisms and Populations
Microbes in Human Welfare
ZOOLOGY:
Biomolecules
Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues)

PHYSICS

1. A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration 3. The theorem of perpendicular axes for moment of inertia
about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is zero. In the is applicable for
first second, it rotates through an angle θ1 and in the first
(A) Planar bodies
2 seconds, it rotates through an angle θ2. The ratio of θ2
and θ1 is (B) 3-dimensional bodies
(C) Both 3-dimensional and planar bodies
(A) 4 : 1
(D) Both 3-dimensional and linear bodies
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 1 4. Two persons of masses 60 kg and 80 kg respectively, are
at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is
(D) 5 : 1 4.0 m and weighs 100 kg. Both persons move towards
each other and sit in the middle of the boat. The centre of
2. A particle has instantaneous velocity mass of the system shifts by (neglect water friction)
→
v = (5 î + 2 ĵ ) m/s under the influence of a constant force
(A) 0.25 m
→
F
ˆ ˆ ˆ
= (2 i + 5 j − 10k) N. The instantaneous power (B) 0.5 m
(C) 0.75 m
applied is
(D) Zero
(A) 30 W
5. Angular momentum of the body is equal to the product of
(B) 20 W
(A) Mass and angular velocity
(C) 5 W
(B) Centripetal force and radius
(D) 10 W
(C) Linear velocity and angular velocity
(D) Moment of inertia and angular velocity

1
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

6. The centre of mass, of the system of three particles 10. A body of mass 1 kg is moving with velocity
having masses and locations as shown in the figure, has ˆ ˆ
(4 i + 3 j ) m/s which changes to ˆ ˆ
(−6 i + 2k) m/s, by a
coordinates (in m)
force. The work done by the force in changing the velocity
is
(A) 6 J
(B) 7.5 J
(C) 10 J
(D) 12.5 J

11. The angular position of a point over a rotating flywheel is

changing according to the relation, θ = (2t3 – 3t2 – 4t – 5)
radian. The angular acceleration of the flywheel at time, t
(A) (1.2, 2.4) = 1 s is
(B) (2.4, 2.4) (A) Zero
(C) (1.2, 1.2) (B) 4 rad/s2
(D) (2.4, 1.2)
(C) 6 rad/s2
7. A particle of mass m is moving in the y-z plane with a
velocity v0 along the straight line AB. The angular (D) 12 rad/s2
momentum of the particle with respect to origin O
12. A block is kept on the floor of an elevator at rest. The
elevator starts descending with an acceleration of 15
m/s2. Speed of block at the end of one second after the
start w.r.t ground is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 15 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(A) Will increase (D) 5 m/s
(B) Will decrease 13. The moment of inertia of a uniform rectangular door of
(C) Remains constant mass m, length 2l and width l about its longer side is

(D) Will be zero (A) 11 m ℓ

2

24

8. A block of mass 5 kg is kept on the floor of a freely falling 2

lift. During the free fall of the lift the block is pulled (B) 5 mℓ

horizontally with a force of 10 N. If μs = 0.6, then the 24

frictional force acting on the block will be (C) mℓ

2

3
(A) 10 N
2

(B) 30 N (D) 4m ℓ

(C) 20 N
14. A particle moves under the action of a force
(D) Zero →
F
ˆ ˆ
= (20 i + 15 j ) N along a straight line 3y + 4x = 5.
9. In which type of collision, the momentum of system is
conserved just after and before the collision? Work done by the force F is (x and y are in m)
(A) Perfectly elastic (A) Zero
(B) Perfectly inelastic (B) 125 J
(C) Inelastic (C) 120 J
(D) All of these (D) 100 J

15. A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity increases uniformly

and becomes 50 rad/s after 10 s. The total angular
displacement in 10 s is
(A) 100 rad
(B) 150 rad
(C) 250 rad
(D) 300 rad

2
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

16. A body is thrown from ground for horizontal range 100 m. 21. A solid body rotates about a stationary axis so that the
If the body breaks into two fragments of mass in the ratio angular position θ varies with time as θ = 6t – 2t3 radian.
1 : 2 at the highest point and smaller mass stops there The angular acceleration at the moment when the body
and comes vertically downward, then horizontal range of stops is (here t is in second)
the centre of mass of the body is
(A) 6 rad/s2
(A) 50 m
(B) 150 m (B) 12 rad/s2
(C) 200 m (C) –12 rad/s2
(D) 100 m (D) Zero
17. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically upward with a 22. Ten seconds after an electric fan is turned on, the fan
velocity 10 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after rotates at 300 rev/min. Its average angular acceleration
attaining a height of 4 m. How much energy is lost due to
is
air friction? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 30 rev/s2
(A) 5 J
(B) 20 J (B) 3.14 rad/s2

(C) 30 J (C) 0.5 rad/s2

(D) 10 J (D) 1800 rev/s2
18. Moment of inertia of a semicircular disc of mass M and
23. If the linear momentum P of a particle is given by, P = 3 +
radius R about an axis passing through centre of
curvature and perpendicular to the plane of disc is 2t2, then net force acting on the particle is (Where t is
time)
2

(A) 2M R

3 (A) 4t
(B) MR2 (B) 4t2

(C) 2t2
2

(C) 2M R

(D) Zero
(D)
2
MR

24. The co-ordinates of centre of mass of the system formed

19. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on the periphery of a by two uniform rod of mass m and length l as shown in
rotating rough circular table of radius 50 cm as shown in figure is
the figure. Angular velocity of the table is 4 rad/s. The
minimum value of coefficient of friction between the
contact such that there is no relative slipping is (g = 10
m/s2)

(A) l,
l

(B) l
,
l

(A) 0.8 2 2

(B) 1.6 (C) 3

l
,
l

(C) 0.4
(D) 4
l
,
l

(D) 0.2
25. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) attract
20. Assertion (A): Mass and moment of inertia have same each other with a force inversely proportional to square of
dimensional formula. distance between them. The particles are initially at rest
Reason (R) : Mass and moment of inertia are same and then released. Which one is correct?
quantities.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (A) The centre of mass moves towards m1
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (B) The centre of mass moves towards m2
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (C) The centre of mass remains at rest
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) The centre of mass will move in any direction
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

3
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

26. Moment of inertia of a uniform rectangular lamina of mass 31. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of mass m and
m and side lengths l and 2l, about the longer edge is length l about an axis perpendicular to its length and at
2
distance
(A) ml
l
from its one end will be
3
4

(B) 2ml

3 (A) 2ℓ√
−
−
7

(C)
2
4ml
−
−
3
(B) ℓ√
7

(D)
2
ml

4 −
−
(C) 1

4
√
7

27. The moment of inertia of a ring of radius R and mass m

about an axis passing from the edge of ring and normal to −
−

the plane of ring is (D) 1

2
√
7

(A) mR2 32. When an external force is applied at the centre of mass of
the system of an object, then it undergoes
(B) 2mR2
(A) Only translatory motion

(C) (B) Only rotatory motion

(C) Both translatory and rotatory motion
(D) 3mR2 (D) An oscillatory motion
28. A uniform rod of mass 10 kg and length 3 m is pivoted at 33. A block of mass m is pulled in the direction shown in the
its end. Angular acceleration of rod about pivot, just after figure on a rough horizontal ground with a constant
it is released from rest in the horizontal position as shown acceleration of magnitude a, the magnitude of the
in the figure is (rad/s2) frictional force is (μk is coefficient of kinetic friction)

(A) 2
–
(B) √2

–
(C) √5
(A) Tcosθ – ma
(D) 5
(B) μkmg
29. A body is in pure rotation. The linear speed v of a particle,
the distance r of the particle from the axis of rotation and (C) μk (T – mg)
the angular velocity are related as ω = . Thus,
v

r
(D) μkT sinθ
(A) ω ∝
1

r 34. The theorem of perpendicular axes for moment of inertia

(B) ω ∝ r is applicable for
(A) Planar bodies
(C) ω ∝ r2
(B) 3-dimensional bodies
(D) ω is independent of r
(C) Both 3-dimensional and planar bodies
30. A thin rod has a mass M and length 2L. I1, I2, I3 and I4
(D) Both 3-dimensional and linear bodies
are the moments of inertia of the thin rod about the axes
1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively. Which of the following relation 35. In the given figure, friction force between the block of
is correct? mass m = 1 kg and the inclined plane is

(A) I4 > I3 > I2 > I1

(B) I2 > I3 > I1 > I4 (A) 8 N

(C) I3 < I1 < I4 < I2 (B) 6 N

(D) I4 > I1 > I3 > I2 (C) 10 N

(D) 5 N

4
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

36. A person is standing on a rotating platform, with his arms 40. A particle P of mass m moves along line AB with velocity
at his sides. If he stretches his arms, then which of the v as shown. What is the angular momentum of the particle
following statements is correct? about A?

The ratio [
I
] remains constant, where I is the
(A) K

moment of inertia & K is the kinetic energy

(B) Rotational inertia decreases
(C) Kinetic energy increases
Kinetic energy decreases, because work is done by
(D)
the muscles of the person

37. In the figure, a ladder AB of mass m is shown leaning

against a wall. It is in static equilibrium making an angle θ (A) mvL
with the horizontal floor. Normal force exerted by wall on
the ladder is (B) mvl
(C) mvr
(D) Zero

41.
A force ˆ ˆ ˆ
(2 i + 4 j + α k) N act on a body whose velocity is

ˆ
( î + ĵ + 2k) m/s. If the power delivered by force is 6 W,
then
(A) α = 1
(B) α = 2

mg
(C) α = 4
(A) tan θ
(D) α = 0
mg
(B) 2 tan θ 42. Select the incorrect statement.

(C)
2mg
For a system of particles under central force field, the
tan θ
(A) total angular momentum about the centre is
(D) Zero conserved

38. The magnitude of work done by a force If there is no external torque on a body about its
(B) centre of mass, then the velocity of centre of mass
(A) Depends on frame of reference remains constant
(B) Does not depend on frame of reference Angular velocity of any point on a rotating rigid body
(C)
about any other point on it is same for all pairs
(C) Can’t be calculated in non-inertial frame of reference
For a uniform rigid rod, that rotate about a fixed
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(D) symmetry axis, the total angular momentum is parallel
39. Two balls approach each other with same speed and to the angular velocity
undergo head on elastic collision after which ball of mass
43. Choose the correct alternatives
3 kg comes to rest. The mass of the other ball is
(a) Newton’s first law is law of inertia.
(A) 1 kg (b) Generally action and reaction act simultaneously.
(c) Area under force – time graph gives impulse.
(B) 3 kg
(d) Newton’s first law states if net force on a system is
(C) 4 kg zero, acceleration of any particle of the system is zero.

(D) 6 kg (A) a and b only

(B) a, c and d
(C) a, b and c
(D) b and d only

5
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

44. Assertion (A) : When net external torque on a body is

zero, then its linear momentum must remains constant.
Reason (R) : When net force acting on a body is zero,
then its angular momentum must remain constant.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(A)
of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(B)
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are false

45. A motorcyclist is moving in a circular turn of radius 20 m,

with uniform speed of 36 km/h. The minimum value of
coefficient of friction between road and tyre is (g = 10
m/s2)
(A) 1
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.25

6
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

CHEMISTRY

46. Isopropylbenzene 51. A : Nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides are

1. air +
facilitated by the presence of nitro group.
⟶ −
2.H

⟶
A+ B R : The intermediate carbanion formed during the
(Aromatic compound) nucleophilic substitution reaction in aryl halides is
A gives a positive stabilised due to presence of nitro group.
(A) Tollen’s test Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Fehling’s test
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(C) Lucas test (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) Iodoform test (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
47. The correct order of reactivity of the given acid derivatives (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction is
52. Least reactive nucleophile in polar aprotic solvent is
(A) RCOCl > RCONH2 > (RCO)2O
(A)
(B) RCOCl > (RCO)2O > RCONH2

(C) RCONH2 > RCOCl > (RCO)2O (B)

(D) RCONH2 > (RCO)2O > RCOCl

(C)
48. Correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction of the
following molecules is (D)

53. The heating of benzyl methyl ether with HI produces

majorly
(A) Benzyl iodide and methanol
(B) Benzyl alcohol and iodomethane
(C) Benzyl alcohol and methanol
(D) Benzyl iodide and methane
(A) II > III > I > IV 54. Acetamide on reaction with LiAlH4 followed by aqueous
(B) IV > III > I > II work-up gives
(C) IV > III > II > I (A) Methyl amine
(D) III > II > I > IV (B) Ethyl amine
49. Which of the following reactions gives Acetamide? (C) Methanol

(A) Hydrolysis of CH3CH2CH2CN (D) Ethanol

Heating CH3COOH with NH3 followed by further 55. Arrange the following derivatives of phenol in decreasing
(B) order of acidic strength.
heating
(C) Reaction of CH3CH2CN with LiAlH4 followed by H2O

(D) Reaction of CH3CN with Na(Hg) and C2H5OH

50. Diethyl cadmium reacts with acetyl chloride to produce a. b.

(A) Propanol
(B) Propanone
(C) Butanone
(D) Acetophenone c. d.
(A) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b)
(B) (a) > (d) > (c) > (b)
(C) (d) > (a) > (b) > (c)
(D) (b) > (a) > (d) > (c)

7
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

56. The compound(s) which will not show optical isomerism 59. A : Molecules that are not superimposable on their mirror
is images are chiral.
R : All chiral molecules have chiral centres.
(A) CH3 – CH = C = CH – CH3
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(B) All of these (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

60. An ether which cannot be directly prepared by

WiIliamson’s synthesis method is
(A) CH3 – O – CH3
(D)
(B) Ph – O – CH2 – Ph

(C) (CH3)3C – O – C2H5

(D) CH3 – CH = CH – O – CH = CH2

57. Major product of the following reaction is
61. Conc.H2 SO4

Phenol + Phthalic anhydride −−−−−→ forms an acid base

Δ

indicator which is
P (Major)
(A) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br

(A)
(B)

(C)

(B)
(D)

58.

A and B respectively are (C)

(A)

(B) (D)

(C)

(D)

8
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

62. 65. Which keto acid shown will not undergo decarboxylation
easily on heating?

(A)
are

(A)
(B)

(B)
(C)

(C)

(D)
(D)
66. Major product of the given reaction is

63. Which among the following is strongest nucleophile in

ethanol ?

(A) C2H5O–
(A)
(B) Cl–

(C)
(B)
(D)

64. Major product of the following reaction is

(C)

(D)

(A) 67. Rate of dehydration of alcohols using conc. is

(A) 1o alcohol < 2o alcohol < 3o alcohol

(B) 1o alcohol < 3o alcohol < 2o alcohol

(B)
(C) 3o alcohol < 2o alcohol < 1o alcohol

(D) 3o alcohol < 1o alcohol < 2o alcohol

68. The relative order of elimination reactions of following

(C) compounds with alcoholic KOH is
A. CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
B. CH3CH2CHBrCH3
C. (CH3)3CBr
(D) (A) A > B > C
(B) A > C > B
(C) C > A > B
(D) C > B > A

9
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

69. The major products C and D formed in the following 73. Among the following most reactive compound towards
reaction respectively are nucleophilic addition reaction is
(A) HCHO
(B) CH3 CHO

(C) CH3COCH3
(D) PhCHO
(A)
74. Select the reaction representing incorrect major product

(B) (A)

(C)

(B)

(D)

(C)
70. Phenol decolourises bromine water and gives white
precipitate by which reaction mechanism
(A) Electrophilic addition reaction
(B) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(C) Electrophilic aromatic substitution (D)

(D) Nucleophilic aromatic substitution

71. Most stable product formed on acidic dehydration of

75. Among the following the most reactive alkyl halide
towards SN2 reaction is
is
(A) CH3CH2I

(B) (CH3)3CI
(A)
(C) (CH3)2CHI

(D) CH3I
(B)
76.

(C)

(D)

72. Strongest acidic compound among the following is

(A) CH3OH
above elimination reaction is known as
(B) CH3COOH (A) E1
(C) HCOOH (B) E2
(C) E1cB
(D) (D) α–elimination

10
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

77. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 80. Product obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). semicarbazide is
Assertion (A) : (CH3)3C – Cl undergoes hydrolysis
(A) CH3CH = N – NH2
reaction by SN1 mechanism.
⊕

Reason (R) : (CH ) C

3 ​ is very stable carbonium ion.
3
(B)
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (C)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (D)

(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

81. In the following reaction,
78. Compound which forms an orange red precipitate with 2,
4 – DNP reagent and gives yellow precipitate on heating
with iodine in the presence of sodium hydroxide is

, the major product P is

(A)

(A)

(B)
(B)

(C) (C)

(D)

(D)

79.

82. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as

Assertion and other is labelled as Reason (R).
gives ‘X’ as the major product when heated with conc. Assertion (A) : Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.
H2SO4. ‘X’ is Reason (R) : Phenoxide ion is more stable than ethoxide
ion.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option.
(A)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(C) (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false

(D)

11
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

83. 86.

A and B are Compound A is

(A) Optical isomers

(B) Functional isomers (A)
(C) Position isomers
(D) Chain isomers (B)
84. Consider the following reaction

(C)
, Product P is

(A)
(D)

(B)
87. Which of the following reaction mixtures does not
produce 1° alcohol?
(C)
(A) HCHO + RMgX; followed by hydrolysis
(B) R – CHO + H2; over palladium
(D)
(C) R – CHO + RMgX; followed by hydrolysis
85. Consider the given molecules CH3 – CH = CH2 + B2H6; followed by oxidation in
(D)
the presence of H O /OH
2 2
⊖

88. SOCl2 H2 , Pd

CH3CH2COOH −−→ A −−−−−−−−−→ B

BaSO4 − CaCO 3

Product B in the above reaction is

(A) CH3CH2CHO
The correct order of melting point will be
(A) I > III > II (B) CH3COCH3

(B) III > II > I (C) CH3CH2CH3

(C) II > III > I (D) CH3CH2CH2OH

(D) I > II > III

12
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

89.

Above reaction proceeds via formation of which

electrophile?

(A) : CCl2

(B) +

CH3

(C)
+

CCl3

(D) Cl
+

90. Major product of the given reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

BOTANY

91. Which of the following is an example of ‘‘Sexual deceit’’? 96. Viruses belonging to genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus are
the important component of IPM because
(A) Pronuba moth and Yucca plant
(A) They are wide spectrum bioinsecticides
(B) Cuckoo bird and crow
They conserve beneficial insects being a species
(C) Chathamalus and Clown fish (B)
specific insecticide
(D) Ophrys and a bee species
(C) They have side effects on plants and animals
92. Identify the parts A, B and C w.r.t biogas plant and select (D) They are not species specific
the correct option.
97. Chemical used to suppress the immunity in organ-
transplant patients is
(A) Streptokinase
(B) Cyclosporin A
(C) Statins
(D) HMG CoA reductase

98. In order to save major rivers of our country from water

pollution, Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan
has been initiated by
International Union for Conservation of Nature and
(A)
Natural Resources
(A) A – Sludge, B – N2, C – Gas holder
(B) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(B) A – Gas holder, B – H2, H2S, C – Digester
(C) Forest Research Institute
(C) A – Digester, B – N2O2, C – Gas holder
(D) World Conservation Union
(D) A – Digester, B – H2S, C – Sludge
99. Rhizobium is
93. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. antibiotics. (A) Free living nitrogen fixer
(A) Used to treat deadly disease like leprosy, diphtheria (B) Found in paddy fields
They are ‘pro-life’ with reference to disease causing (C) Found in root nodules of legumes
(B)
organisms
(D) Parasite on roots of non legumes
Produced by some microbes that can kill or retard
(C)
growth of other microbes 100.The intrinsic rate of natural increase in population is
called
First antibiotic was discovered by chance, by
(D)
Alexander Fleming (A) Standing state
94. A population 'X' was reported with the following data. (B) Carrying capacity
a. Number of pre-reproductive individuals = 9,875
(C) Standing crop
b. Number of reproductive individuals = 18,960
c. Number of post-reproductive individuals = 11,500 (D) Biotic potential
Which of the following conclusions can be withdrawn
from the above data? 101.If 5 individuals of a population of 50 fruit flies died in an
interval of one week, the death rate of the population
(A) Such population shows bell-shaped pyramid during this period (in terms of individuals per fruit fly per
week) will be
(B) Above population will decline with time
(A) 0.2
(C) This is a stable population
(D) This population will keep on growing always (B) 0.1
(C) 0.11
95. Which adaptation is not seen in parasites?
(D) 0.15
(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(B) Presence of adhesive organs
(C) Low reproductive capacity
(D) Loss of digestive system

14
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

102. 109.Number of deaths in the population during a given period

The equation dN
= rN (
K−N
) describes the Verhulst-
dt K is called
Pearl logistic growth of population. In this equation K
represents (A) Natality
(B) Mortality
(A) Available nutrient resources
(C) Immigration
(B) Population density at a particular time
(C) Intrinsic rate of increase in population (D) Emigration

(D) Carrying capacity 110.Swiss cheese is ripened by

103.Which of the following statements is incorrect about (A) Penicillium roquefortii

biofertilizers? (B) Penicillium camembertii
(A) These are organisms that enrich the soil with nutrients (C) Propionibacterium sharmanii
In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important (D) Penicillium notatum
(B)
biofertilizer
111. If 'N' is the population density at time t, then its density at
Apart from being a biofertilizer, mycorrhiza also time 't + 1' will be
(C)
provide resistance to root borne pathogens in plants
(A) Nt+1 = Nt × [(B+I) – (D+E)]
(D) Azotobacter is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing microbe
(B) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+I) – (D+E)]
104.Gause’s principle is related to
(A) Competitive exclusion (C) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B+I) + (D+E)]

(B) Population density (D) Nt+1 = Nt × [(B+D) + (I+E)]

(C) Competitive co-existence 112.Which of the given attribute is not applicable for an
(D) Resource partitioning individual organism?
(A) Birth
105.Select the mismatched pair.
(B) Sex
(A) Azospirillum – Free living N2-fixing bacteria in soil
(C) Mortality
(B) Glomus – Form mycorrhiza
(D) Age
(C) BGA – Reduce alkalinity of soil
113.Which among the following represent correct sequential
Azotobacter – Form symbiotic association for N2- order w.r.t. levels of ecological organisation?
(D)
fixation
Organisms →population → biological community
(A)
106.In which of the given population interactions, the → ecosystem → landscape → biome →biosphere
interacting species are in obligate association?
(B) Organisms → landscape → ecosystem → biosphere
(A) Mutualism
Organisms → ecosystem → community → biome
(C)
(B) Protocooperation → biosphere

(C) Amensalism Organisms →population →landscape → ecosystem

(D)
→ community → biome → biosphere
(D) Commensalism
114.Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select
107.Logistic growth of a population the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and
(A) Is shown by a sigmoid curve which one are false (F).
(A) Milk is more nutritious than curd.
(B) Occurs when resources are unlimited (B) Beverages like whisky, brandy and rum are distilled
(C) Never shows an asymptote product.
(C) Acetobacter aceti is a source of acetic acid.
(D) Also called exponential growth (D) Yeast is used in production of lipase and pectinase.
108.Read the following statements and choose the correct
option. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Statement-A : Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack (1) F T T T
insects and other arthropods. (2) T T F F
Statement-B : Free living fungi Trichoderma are very
(3) F T T F
common in the root ecosystems.
(4) F F T F
(A) Only A is correct
(A) (1)
(B) Only A is incorrect
(B) (2)
(C) Both A and B are incorrect
(C) (3)
(D) Both A and B are correct
(D) (4)

15
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

115.Find the correct match. 122.Find the odd one w.r.t. mutualism
(A) Streptococcus – Streptokinase (A) Lichens
(B) Acetobacter – Butyric acid (B) Mycorrhizae
(C) Clostridium – Acetic acid (C) Fig and fig wasp
(D) Rhizopus – Gluconic acid (D) Barnacles on whale
116.Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly known as 123.Flocs are masses of
(A) Brewer’s yeast (A) Algae and fungi
(B) Baker’s yeast (B) Bacteria and fungi
(C) Both (1) and (2) (C) Viruses and algae
(D) Organism of thermal vents (D) Fungi and viruses
117.Which microbe is responsible for producing large holes in 124.A : Ladybird is useful in controlling aphids.
Swiss cheese? R : Dragonflies are useful to get rid of mosquitoes.
(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Propionibacterium sharmanii
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(C) Penicillium camembertii (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
118.In a population of rabbit it is observed that average (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
natality is 150, average mortality is 100, immigration is 50
and emigration is 20. What will be the net population after 125.Statin acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme
time t, if initial population had 200 individuals? responsible for synthesis of
(A) 520 (A) Citric acid
(B) 1600 (B) Lactic acid
(C) 280 (C) Acetic acid
(D) 680 (D) Blood cholesterol
119.Read the following statements w.r.t. population 126.In how many of the given interactions, at least one
interactions and choose correct option. species is harmed?
A Some prey species show similarity to the objects found Mutualism, Competition, Predation, Parasitism,
in the surrounding to avoid being detected easily by the Commensalism, Amensalism, Protocooperation
predators.
B Interaction between fig and fig wasp is an example of (A) Three
mutualism.
(B) Four
(A) Only A is correct
(C) Five
(B) Only B is correct
(D) Two
(C) Both A & B are incorrect
127.Which of the given is basic unit of study in ecology?
(D) Both A & B are correct
(A) Population
120.Both the interacting species are benefitted in ___ and
harmed in ___ (B) Organisms

(A) Predation, Parasitism (C) Ecosystem

(B) Mutualism, Amensalism (D) Biological community

(C) Mutualism, Competition 128.Which of the given relationships or associations may

show co-extinction if one partner is eliminated in nature?
(D) Commensalism, Amensalism
(A) Fig and fig wasp
121.Statins produced by yeast Monascus purpureus is a
(B) Nile perch and cichlid fish
Competitive inhibitor of enzyme responsible for
(A) (C) Water hyacinth and aquatic organism
synthesis of cholesterol
(B) Clot buster (D) African catfish and Indian catfish

(C) Immunosuppressive agent

(D) Blood cholesterol increasing agent

16
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

129.Choose the correct statement w.r.t. competition. 133.Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming, while
working on
(A) It is positive population interaction
(A) Rhizopus stolonifer
(B) It represents ‘+’ and ‘–‘ population interaction
(B) Streptococci bacteria
(C) It is similar to amensalism
(C) Clostridium butylicum
(D) It is detrimental for both the competitive species
(D) Staphylococci bacteria
130.Species facing competition might evolve mechanisms
that promote co-existence. Which of the following is a 134.Aeration tanks show the vigorous growth of
strategy that will facilitate it?
(A) Harmful anaerobic microbes
(A) Interference competition
(B) Useful aerobic heterotrophic microbes
(B) Competitive release
(C) Useful aerobic chemotrophic microbes
(C) Resource partitioning
(D) Phototrophic, oxygenic bacteria
(D) Brood parasitism
135.In competition, herbivores are more adversely affected
131.Which of the following pairs of organism breed only once than carnivores because
in their life time?
Former have less alternative resources for their
(A)
(A) Most Birds, Mammals survival as compared to carnivores
(B) Most Birds, Pacific salmon fish (B) Resources are never limiting for herbivores
(C) Bamboo, Pacific salmon fish Herbivores are always fewer in number than
(C)
carnivores
(D) Mammals, Bamboo
Later being at higher trophic levels have high number
132.Read the statements and mark the correct option (D)
of predators
Statement A : Ladybird, a beetle with red and black
markings, is useful in controlling aphids.
Statement B : Dragonflies are useful to get rid of
mosquitoes.
(A) Only statement A is correct
(B) Both statements A and B are correct
(C) Only statement B is correct
(D) Both statements A and B are incorrect

17
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

ZOOLOGY

136.The structures that contain polysaccharides are 140.Read the following statements.
a. Plant cell wall (a) Ground substance is hard and non-pliable.
b. Fungal cell wall (b) Rich in collagen fibres and calcium salts.
c. Exoskeleton of arthropods Identify the tissue on the basis of given characteristics
and choose the correct option from the given diagrams
(A) Only a
(B) Only b
(C) Only a and c
(D) All a, b and c (A)
137.Tendons and ligaments are examples of
(A) Loose connective tissue
(B) Specialized connective tissue
(C) Dense regular connective tissue
(D) Dense irregular connective tissue

138.A living tissue is grinded with trichloroacetic acid. Mark (B)

the biomolecule which will be absent in acid insoluble
fraction.
(A) Cytosine
(B) Collagen
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Chitin (C)

139.A : Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular

temperature called optimum temperature.
R : Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a
temporarily inactive state.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (D)
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
141.Which of the following does not show presence of
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false connective tissue fibres of collagen and elastin?
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (A) Bone
(B) Blood
(C) Cartilage
(D) Tendon
142.Read the following statements w.r.t. cartilage and choose
the correct option.
Statement A : The matrix of cartilage is solid, pliable and
resists compression.
Statement B : Osteocytes lie in lacunae in groups of two
or four.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(D) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect

18
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

143.Select the option representing the biomolecule that are 150.Which among the following is not a secondary
not strictly biomacromolecules but are obtained in acid metabolite?
insoluble fraction.
(A) Carotenoids
(A) Nucleic acids
(B) Abrin
(B) Lipids
(C) Haem
(C) Amino acid
(D) Concanavalin A
(D) Simple sugars
151.Most abundant tissue in humans is
144.Biomicromolecule present in acid soluble pool is a
(A) Nervous tissue
(A) Nucleic acid
(B) Muscular tissue
(B) Nucleotide
(C) Connective tissue
(C) Protein
(D) Epithelial tissue
(D) Polysaccharides
152.Type of cartilage present in/at pubic symphysis is also
145.A secondary metabolite among the following which is present in/at
considered as a toxin is
(A) Tip of nose
(A) Morphine
(B) Intervertebral discs
(B) Abrin
(C) Rings of trachea
(C) Concanavalin A
(D) Epiglottis
(D) Curcumin
153.Read the following statements carefully and choose the
146.A : The external segmentation of earthworm’s body correct option.
corresponds to the internal segmentation.
Ribozymes and Ribonuclease P are DNA based
R : The body of earthworm, an annelid, is metamerically (A)
enzymes
segmented.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (B) Fructose is a polymer of inulin
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion Apoenzyme is the non-proteinaceous part of
(C)
enzymes
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion 2+ acts as
(D) Zn an inorganic cofactor for
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false carboxypeptidase.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements 154.Read the given statements.
a. For B-DNA, the rise per base pair is 3.4 Å
147.Read the following given statements and choose the b. For human DNA, if [A] = 30% then purine content will
correct option. be 50%
Statement A : All the carbon compounds that we get from c. The first digit of enzyme commission number for
living tissues can be called biomolecules. enzyme 'ligase' will be 4
Statement B : Living organisms do not possess Select the correct statements.
inorganic elements.
(A) a, b & c
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) a & c
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) a & b
(C) Only statement A is correct
(D) b & c
(D) Only statement B is correct
155.A co-factor is
148.Km represents the substrate concentration at which the
rate of reaction is (A) Holoenzyme – Apoenzyme

(A) Half of its maximum velocity (B) Apoenzyme + Co-enzyme

(B) At its maximum value (C) Conjugated enzyme + Proenzyme

(C) Zero (D) Proenzyme + Prosthetic group

(D) At its minimum value 156.Which one is not the example of simple lipids?

149.Which of the following metabolites is alkaloid in nature? (A) Waxes

(A) Abrin (B) Lecithin

(B) Rubber (C) Cutin

(C) Codeine (D) Suberin

(D) Curcumin

19
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

157.Read the statement A and B carefully and select the 163.A : New born mammals generally do not shiver inspite of
correct option lower temperature outside.
Statement-A: In cardiac muscular tissue, when one cell R : Brown fat which is particularly found in new born
receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also babies has a larger capacity for generating heat.
stimulated to contract.
Statement-B: Intercalated discs at some fusion points Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(A)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
allow the cells to contract as a unit.
(A) Both the statements are correct Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(B)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Both the statements are incorrect
(C) Both Assertion & Reason are false statements
(C) Statement A is correct
(D) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Statement B is correct
164.Arachidonic acid is a
158.The substrate concentration at which the chemical
(A) Twenty carbon saturated fatty acid
reaction catalyzed by an enzyme attains half of its
maximum velocity is termed as (B) Twenty carbon unsaturated fatty acid
(A) 1/2Km (C) Eighteen carbon unsaturated fatty acid
(D) Nineteen carbon unsaturated fatty acid
(B) Km
165.The most abundant chemical in living organisms could be
(C) 1/2Vmax
(A) Protein
(D) Vmax (B) Water
159.Proteins can be described as all of the following, except (C) Sugar
(A) Homopolymers (D) Nucleic acid
(B) Polymer of different amino acids 166.In the following questions , a statement of assertion (A) is
(C) Macromolecules followed by a statement of reason (R).
A : Oils have lower melting point than ghee
(D) Heteropolymers R : Oils are polymers of glycerol and unsaturated fatty
acids while ghee is a polymer of glycerol and saturated
160.Read the following statements and choose the correct
fatty acids.
option.
Statement A : Multi-unit smooth muscles have a number Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
of muscle fibres closely joined by gap junctions. the correct explanation of the assertion
Statement B : All the fibres of these muscles contract
rhythmically and automatically as a single unit. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(A) Both statements are correct.
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(B) Both statements are incorrect.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(C) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
167.Which of the following is a derived monosaccharide?
(D) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
(A) Glucose
161.Which of the following is not a fatty acid?
(B) Fructose
(A) Uridylic acid
(C) Ribose
(B) Palmitic acid
(D) Deoxyribose
(C) Stearic acid
168.A : Non-competitive inhibition is recognized by its
(D) Arachidonic acid characteristic effect on Vmax.
162.Category of biomolecules which functions as knowledge R : Non-competitive inhibitor decreases the Vmax of the
transfer molecules and as energy currency in a cell is reaction.
(A) Carbohydrates Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Nucleic acids
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(C) Proteins (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) Lipids (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

20
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

169.Choose the incorrect feature of B-DNA. 174.Choose the correct statement w.r.t. lipids.
(A) The rise per base pair is 34 Å (A) Oil and fats can be triglycerides
(B) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm (B) Oil and fats are always phospholipids
There are two hydrogen bonds between adenine and (C) Oil and fats are definitely water soluble
(C)
thymine
(D) Oil and fats are essentially compound lipids
One full turn of the helical strand would involve ten
(D) 175.Biomolecule named lecithin can be categorised as a/an
base pairs
(A) Phosphoprotein
170.Choose the correct option in order to complete the
analogy w.r.t secondary metabolites. (B) Phospholipid
Pigment : Carotenoid : : Lectin : _________.
(C) Amino acid
(A) Anthocyanin
(D) Fatty acid
(B) Concanavalin A
176.In the following questions , a statement of assertion is
(C) Abrin followed by a statement of reason.
(D) Morphine A : Glucose is converted to lactic acid under anaerobic
conditions and into CO2 and H2O under aerobic
171.A : Epithelial tissue is derived from mesoderm only. conditions.
R : Squamous epithelium is vascular in nature and helps R : Depending upon the condition, different products can
in gas exchange in alveoli. be formed from a particular substrate.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B) (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
172.Given diagram represents connective tissue. Identify A, B, 177.A : Butter is a neutral fat.
C & D and choose the correct option for them R : Cholesterol is most abundant steroid in the animal
tissue.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
178.Competitive inhibition of enzyme activity is shown in the
case of inhibition of
A–Granular cells, B–Phagocytic cell, C–Elastin fibre,
(A) (A) Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
D–Fibroblast
(B) Threonine deaminase by isoleucine
A–Macrophage, B–Adipocyte cell, C–Fibroblast, D–
(B)
Collagen fibre (C) Synthesis of folic acid in bacteria by sulpha drugs
A–Cell with serotonin, B–Macrophage, C–Fibroblast, (D) The activity of cytochrome oxidase by cyanide.
(C)
D–Collagen fibre
A–Histamine releasing cell, B–Fibroblast, C–
(D)
Phagocyte, D–Collagen fibre
173.Choose incorrect statement.
The living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be
(A)
able to perform work
Collagen and starch are glucan polymers and give
(B)
blue-black colour with iodine
(C) ATP is a nucleotide, is called universal energy carrier
There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in
(D)
living system

21
PRE-FTS PRACTICE PAPER 02 A

179.Which of the following statement is incorrect for

astrocytes?
(A) They are found in both grey and white matter of CNS
(B) They are least numerous of the neuroglial cells
They are wrapped around the blood capillaries and
(C) isolate neurons of the CNS from various potential
harmful substance
(D) They provide nutritional support to neurons
180.The acid-soluble pool produced during acid analysis of
living animal tissue would contain all of the following,
except
(A) Lysine
(B) GTP
(C) Fructose
(D) DNA

22