All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

1. fdlh rki ij vkxZu xS l flfyaMj eas v.kqvksa dh 1. At what temperature is the root mean square
Vrms -230C ij ghfy;e xSl ijek.kqvksa dh Vrms ds speed of an atom in an argon gas cylinder equal
to the rms speed of a helium gas atom at -230C?
cjkcj gkssxhA ¼Ar dk ijek.kq nzO;eku = 40 u, ,oa (atomic mass of Ar = 40 u, of He = 4.0u)
ghfy;e dk ijek.kq nzO;eku = 4.0 u½
(1) 25000C
(1) 25000C
(2) 22270C
(2) 22270C
(3) -2700C (3) -2700C
(4) -2300C (4) -2300C
2. dFku & A 2. Statement - I
ifjiFk vo;oksa dh fdlh laf/k ij vkxr /kkjkvksa At any junction of circuit element, the sum of
dk ;ks x fuxZ r /kkjkvks a ds ;ks x ds rq Y ; gks u k currents entering the junction must equal the sum
pkfg,A of current leaving it.

dFku & AA Statement - II

fdlh cUn ik'k ¼ywi½ ds pkjksa vksj foHko esa ifjorZu The algebraic sum of the changes in potential
around any closed loop must be zero.
dk chtxf.krh; ;ksx 'kwU ; gksu k pkfg,A
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSA (1) Both statement are correct
(2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSaA (2) Both statement are Incorrect
(3) dFku A lgh gS ysfdu dFku AA xyr gSA (3) Statement I is correct But II Incorrect
(4) dFku A xyr ysfdu dFku AA lgh gSA (4) Statement I is incorrect But II correct.
3. fn;s x, ifjiFk eas P fcUnq ij foHko Kkr djsaA 3. Find the potential at point P in given circuit:

540 540 540 540

(1) oksYV (2)
33
oksYV (1) . Volt (2) . Volt
11 11 33

(3) 540 oksYV (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) 540. Volt (4) None of these
4. L YkEckbZ ds ,d yksgs dh NM+ pq Ecd dk pqEcdh; 4. An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M.
vk?kw.kZ M gSA ;g yEckbZ ds e/; ls bl izdkj eksM+k It is bent at the middle of its length Such that the
x;k gS fd nksuksa Hkqtk,a ,d nwljs ds lkFk 900 dk two Arms make an angle 900 with each other.
Magnetic moment of this new magnet is:
dks.k cukrh gSaA bl ubZ pqEcd dk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ
gS A (1) 2M

(1) 2M M
(2)
M 3
(2)
3
M
M (3)
(3) 2
2
M
M (4)
(4) 2
2

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
5. ;ax ds f}&f>jhZ iz;ksx eas  rjaxnS/;Z dk ,d o.khZ; 5. In Young's double slit ex-periment using
monochromatic light of wave length  . The
iz dk'k mi;ksx djus ij ijns ds ,d fcanq ij tgkaa
Intensity of light at a point on the screen where
iFkkarj  gSA iz dk'k dh rhozrk K bdkbZ gSA ml path difference is  is K units what is the intensity
fcanq ij izdk'k dh rhozrk fdruh gksxh tgka iFkkarj of light at a point where path difference is  / 6 .
 / 6 gSA
(1) 4K (2) 3K
(1) 4K (2) 3K
4 3
4 3 (3) K (4) K
(3) K (4) K 3 4
3 4
6. ,d 88 mH dk izjs dRo 220V, 50 Hz vkiwfrZ ls tksM+k 6. A 88 mH inductor is connected to 220V, 50 Hz ac
x;k gS A ifjiFk esa /kkjk esa rms eku dks Kkr supply. Determine the rms value of the current in
the circuit.
dhft,A
(1) 8 Amp (2) 10 Amp
(1) 8 Amp (2) 10 Amp
(3) 6.5 Amp (4) 7 Amp (3) 6.5 Amp (4) 7 Amp

7. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa ,d dks vfHkdFku (A) ds 7. Given below are two statements. One is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
:i esa vafdr fd;k x;k gS vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k (R)
Reason (R).
ds :i esa vafdr fd;k x;k gSA
Assertion (A) : Newton's law of cooling say that the
vfHkdFku (A) : U;wVu ds 'khryu fu;e ds vuqlkj rate of cooling of a body is proportional to the excess
fdlh fi.M ds 'khryu dh nj ifjos'k ds Åij oLrq temperature of the body over the surroundings.
ds rki vf/kdrk ds vuqØekuqikrh gksrh gSA dQ
Reason (R) :  K T2  T1
dQ dt
dkj.k (R) :
dt
 K T2  T1
Where T1 is the temperature of surrounding medium
and T 2 is the temperature of body
;gka T1 ifjos'kh ek/;e dk rki rFkk T 2 fi.M dk
choose the correct answer from the options
rki gSA given below :
(1) vfHkdFku xyr gS] dkj.k lgh gSA
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k xyr gSA
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
lgh O;k[;k gSA explanation of (A)
(4) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA correct explanation of (A)
8. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa ,d dks vfHkdFku (A) ds 8. Given below are two statements. One is labelled
:i esa vafdr fd;k x;k gS vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k (R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
ds :i esa vafdr fd;k x;k gSA Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In a free fall, weight of a body
vfHkdFku (A) : eqDr :i ls fxjus ij fdlh fi.M becomes effectively zero.
dk Hkkj izHkkoh :i ls 'kwU ; gks tkrk gSA Reason (R) : Acceleration due to gravity acting on a
dkj.k (R) : eq D r :i ls fxjus okys fi.M ij body having free fall is zero.
xq:Rokd"kZ.k ds dkj.k yxus okyk Roj.k 'kwU ; gksrk choose the correct answer from the options
gS A given below :
(1) vfHkdFku xyr gS] dkj.k lgh gSA (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k xyr gSA (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
lgh O;k[;k gSA explanation of (A)
(4) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA correct explanation of (A)

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
9. fuEufyf[kr dkWye A vkSj AA dk feyku djsaA 9. Match the following column I and II
¼midj.k½ ¼vYireka d ½ (Instrument) (Least count)

dkWye A dkWye AA Column I Column II

A. ehVj Ldsy 1. 3.08  1016 m A. Meter scale 1. 3.08  1016 m

B. ofuZ ;j dS fyilZ 2. 105 m B. Vernier callipers 2. 105 m

C. LØwxst 3. 103 m to 102 m C. Screwgauge 3. 103 m to 102 m

4. 104 m 4. 104 m

(1) A-3, B-4, C-2 (1) A-3, B-4, C-2

(2) A-3, B-2, C-4 (2) A-3, B-2, C-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2 (3) A-4, B-3, C-2
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3 (4) A-2, B-1, C-3
10. /kkrq dh vk;rkdkj 'khV dh yEckbZ ] pkS M + k bZ o 10. The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular
eksVkbZ Øe'k% 4.567 m, 2.005 m vkSj 3.01 cm gSA sheet of metal are 4.567 m, 2.005 m and 3.01 cm
respectively. Give volume of sheet to correct
mfpr lkFkZ d vadksa rd bl 'khV dk vk;ru Kkr significant figures.
dhft,A
(1) 0.2756 m3
(1) 0.2756 m 3

(2) 0.275 m3
(2) 0.275 m3

(3) 0.276 m3 (3) 0.276 m3

(4) 0.28 m3 (4) 0.28 m3

11. ,d vory niZ.k ftldh Qksdl nwjh f gS ,d oLrq 11. A concave mirror of focal length f, produces an
image P times the size of the object. If the image
dk izfrfcEc P xquk cukrk gSA ;fn iz frfcEc okLrfod
is real, then the distance of the object from the
gks rks oLrq dh niZ .k ls nwjh gksxh% mirror is :
(1) (P – 1)f (1) (P – 1)f
(2) (P + 1)f (2) (P + 1)f

(3) (3)

 P  1
(4) (4)  f
 P 

12. ,d f}mÙky ysl a dh oØrk f=T;k 0.2 m gS bldk 12. Radius of curvature of an equiconvex lens is
viorZukad 1.5 gSA ;fn bl rjg ds nks ysal eq[; 0.2 m. Its refractive index is 1.5. If two such lenses
are kept separated with common principal axis
v{k ij 0.2 m nwjh ij j[ksa tk;sa rks la;qDr ysal dh by a distance of 0.2 m, what will be the effective
Qksdl nwjh D;k gksxh% focal length of the combination :

(1) 20 cm (1) 20 cm

(2) 40 cm (2) 40 cm

(3) 60 cm (3) 60 cm

(4) 30 cm. (4) 30 cm.

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
13. iz dk'k oS|qr iz ;ksx esa vkifrr QksVkWu % 13. The incident photon involved in the photoelectric
(1) iw.kZr;k foyqIr gksrk gS effect experiment :
(1) Completely disappear
(2) c<+h vko`fr ls fudyrk gS
(2) Comes out with increased frequency
(3) ?kVh vko`fr ls fudyrk gS
(3) Comes out with a decreased frequency
(4) fcuk ifjofrZr vko`fr ls fudyrk gS (4) Comes out without change in frequency
14. ;fn m bysDVªku dk nzO;eku rFkk c izdk'k dk osx 14. If m is the mass of an electrons and c is the speed
gks rc E ÅtkZ ds QksV ks u vkS j leku ÅtkZ ds of light, the ratio of the wavelengths of a photon
of energy E to that of the electron of the same
bysDVªkWu dh rajx nSè;Z dk vuq ikr gS % energy is :
2m 2m 2m 2m
(1) c (2) (1) c (2)
E E E E

2m m 2m m
(3) (4) (3) (4)
cE E cE E
15. ,d m nzO;eku dh oLrq i`Foh dh lrg ls h = 3R dh 15. A body of mass m is placed on the earth surface,
which is taken from earth surface to a height of
Å¡ pkbZ rd ys tk;h tkrh gS A xq :Roh; fLFkfrt h = 3R. Then change in gravitational potential
ÅtkZ esa ifjorZ u Kkr dhft;sa% energy :

mgR 2 mgR 2
(1) (2) mgR (1) (2) mgR
4 3 4 3

3 mgR 3 mgR
(3) mgR (4) (3) mgR (4)
4 2 4 2

16. ,d fi.M A ftldk nz O;eku m gS ,d fLiz a x ls 16. Block A is hanging from a vertical spring and is at
rest. Block B strikes the block A with velocity v
ca/kk gq vk gSA ,d vU; fi.M B ftldk nzO;eku m and sticks to it. Then the value of v for which the
gS v osx ls fi.M A ls Vdjkrk gS rFkk fpid tkrk spring just attains natural length is :
gS rks v dk D;k eku gksxk ftlls fd fLizax viuh
izkÑfrd yEckbZ iz kIr dj ysa%

60 mg2
(1)
60 mg2 k
(1)
k
6 mg2
2 (2)
6 mg k
(2)
k
10 mg2
10 mg2 (3)
(3) k
k

(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
17. nks yEch pkyd ifVV~ dkvksa P1 o P2 dks Øe'k% Q1 o 17. Two infinite parallel conductors P1 and P2 have
Q2 vkos'k fn;k x;k gSA i`"B A, B, C vkSj D ij vkos'k charges Q1 and Q2 on them. The charges on the
gks xk % sides A, B and C and D respectively are :

Q1  Q2 Q Q Q1  Q 2 Q1  Q2
(1) QA = QD = vkSj QB = –QC= 1 2 (1) QA = QD = and QB = –QC=
2 2 2 2
Q1  Q 2 Q Q Q1  Q 2 Q1  Q 2
(2) QA = QC = vkSj QB = QD= 1 2 (2) QA = QC = and QB = QD=
2 2 2 2
Q1  Q 2 Q Q Q1  Q 2 Q1  Q 2
(3) QB = QC = vkSj QA = QD= 1 2 (3) QB = QC = and QA = QD=
2 2 2 2
Q1  Q 2 Q1  Q2
(4) QA= QB= QC = QD = (4) QA= QB= QC = QD =
2 2
18. nks ,d tSls pkyd rkj AOB rFkk COD ,d nwljs ij 18. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD
yEcor~ j[ksa gSA O nksuksa dk fLFkj fcUnq gSA nksuksa are placed at right angle to each other, with one
above other such that O is their common point for
rkjksa esa /kkjk I1 rFkk I2 iz okfgr gks jgh gSA fcUnq P, the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents,
O ls d nwjh ij fLFkr gS rFkk yEcor~ gSa fcUnq P ij respectively. Point P is lying at distance d from O
pq E cdh; {ks = gksx k% along a direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the
point P will be :
0  I1 
(1) 2d  I 
 2 0  I1 
(1) 2d  I 
2
0
(2) I1  I2
2d 0
(2) I1  I2
2d
0 2 2
(3) I1  I2 0 2 2
2d (3) I1  I2
2d

0 2 2 1/ 2
(4) I1  I2 0 2 2 1/ 2
2d (4) I1  I2
2d

19. ,d irys fiz Te ds fy, U;wure fopyu dks.k dk 19. The ratio of angle of minimum deviation for a thin
vuq ikr D;k gksxk tc fizTe ok;q es gS vkSj tc ;g prism in respect to air and when it is dipped in
ty esa gS A water will be

 3 4  3 4
 a g  2 ; w 
3 
:  a g  2 ; w  :
3 
a a
 
(1) 4 (2) 1/8 (1) 4 (2) 1/8
(3) 1/3 (4) 1/2 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/2
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025

   
20. nks rajxks dks Øe'k% y1 = a sin   t  , vkSj y2 = a 20. Two waves are repesented by. y1 = a sin   t 
 3   3 
,

cost ls iznf'kZ r fd;k tkrk gS buds vè;kjksi.k ls and y2 = a cos t are superimposed. What will be
their resultant amplitude :
iz kIr rjax dk ifj.kkeh vk;ke gksx k %
(1) a
(1) a

(2) (2) 2a
2a

(3) 3a (3) 3a

(4) 2 a (4) 2 a

21. va r jkdk'k es a mRiUu ,d leku pq E cdh; {ks = 21. A uniform magnetic field B  B0 ĵ exists in space.

B  B0 ĵ gSA nz O;eku rFkk vkos'k q dk ,d d.k x- A particle of mass m and charge q is projected
v{k dh vksj v dk og vf/kdre eku ftlds fy, towards negative x-axis with speed v from a point
d.k (d, 0, 0) ls iznf'kZr fd;k tkrk gS rc v dk og (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for which the
vf/kdre eku ftlds fy, d.k y-z ry ls u particle does not hit the y-z plane is:
Vdjkus ik, gksxk
2Bq
(1)
2Bq dm
(1)
dm
Bqd
Bqd (2)
m
(2)
m
Bd
Bd (3)
(3) 2dm
2dm

Bqd Bqd
(4) (4)
2m 2m

22. nks R1 rFkk f=T;kvksa dh dq.Mfy;k¡ ftuesa Øe'k%

R2 22. Two circular coils of radii R1 and R2 , turns N1 and
N1 rFkk N2 Qsjs gS leku ry ij ldsanzh; gSA ;fn R2 N2 are placed concentrically in the same plane. if
<< R1, rc budk vU;ksU; iz sj.k xq.kkad cjkcj gS% R2 << R1, then the mutual inductance between
them is equal to :
0 R 22
(1)  0 R 22
2R1
(1)
2R1

0 R22N1N2
(2)
2R1  0 R22N1N2
(2)
2R1

0 R2 N1N2
(3)  0 R2N1N2
2R1 (3)
2R1

0 R1 N1N2
(4)  0 R1 N1N2
2R1 (4)
2R1

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
23. fn, x, P-V vkjs [ k dk mi;ks x djrs gq , iFk 23. Using the given P-V diagram, the work done by
ABCD ds lkFk ,d vkn”kZ xSl }kjk fd;k x;k an ideal gas along the path ABCD is:
dk;Z D;k gSA

(1) 3P0 V0
(1) 3P0 V0
(2) 3P0 V0
(2) 3P0 V0
(3) 4P0 V0
(3) 4P0 V0

(4) 4P0 V0 (4) 4P0 V0

24. cksgj ijek.kq ds voLFkk A ls vOkLFkk C esa bysDVªkWu 24. During the transition of electron from state A to
ds laØe.k ds nkSjku mUeqDr fofdj.k dh rjaxnS/;Z state C of a Bohr atom, the wavelength of emitted
0 0
2000 A gS vkS j ;g 6000 A gks tkrh gS tc
0 0 radiation is 2000 A and it becomes 6000 A when
the electron jumps from state B to state C. Then
bysDVªkWu B ls C voLFkk esa dwnrk gSA rks voLFkk A the wavelength of the radiation emitted during
ls voLFkk B esa bys DVªk Wuks a ds laØe.k ds nkS jku the transition of electrons from state A to state B
fofdj.k dh rjaxnS/;Z gSA is:
0 0 0 0
(1) 4000 A (2) 6000 A (1) 4000 A (2) 6000 A
0 0 0
0
(3) 2000 A (4) 3000 A (3) 2000 A (4) 3000 A

25. fdlh /kkjkjs[kh iz Hkko ds vuqfn'k % 25. Along a streamline flow,

(1) fdlh rjy ds d.k dk osx fu;r jgrk gS (1) the velocity of a fluid particles remains constant

(2) fdlh nh xbZ fLFkfr ls xqtjus okys lHkh rjy d.kksa (2) the velocity of all particles crossing a given
dk osx fu;r gksrk gS position is constant

(3) fdlh fn, x, {k.k ij lHkh rjy ds d.kksa dk osx (3) the velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant
fu;r gksrk gS is constant

(4) fdlh rjy ds d.k pky fu;r jgrh gS (4) the speed of a fluid particles remains constant

26. ,d lekukarj IysV la/kkfj= 1 F /kkfjrk ds lkFk 26. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 F is
20 V dk foHkokar j pktZ fd;k x;k gSA IysV ksa ds charged to a potential difference of 20 V. The
distance between plates is 1m . The energy
chp dh nwjh 1m gSA la/kkfj= dh IysVksa ds chp
density between plates of capacitor is:
ÅtkZ ?kuRo gSA
(1) 1.8  10 3 J / m3
(1) 1.8  103 J / m3
(2) 2  102 J / m3
(2) 2  102 J / m3
(3) 2  10 4 J / m3
(3) 2  104 J / m3
(4) 1.8  105 J / m3
(4) 1.8  105 J / m3
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
27. fdlh ,dleku fo|qr {ks= esa fdlh /kukosf'kr d.k 27. A positively charged particle is released from rest
dks eqDr fd;k tkrk gSA vkos'k dh fo|q r fLFkfrt in an uniform electric field. The electric potential
energy of the charge.
ÅtkZ %
(1) remains a constant because the electric field is
(1) fu;r jgrh gS D;kasfd fo|qr {ks= ,dleku gS uniform
(2) c<+ tkrh gS D;kafsa d vkos'k fo|qr {ks= ds vuqfn'k xfr
(2) increases because the charge moves along the
djrk gS electric field
(3) ?kV tkrh gS D;ksfa d vkos'k fo|qr {ks= ds vuqfn'k xfr (3) decreases because the charge moves along the
djrk gS electric field
(4) ?kV tkrh gS D;kasfd vkos'k fo|qr {ks= ds foijhr xfr (4) decreases because the charge moves opposite
djrk gS to the electric field.

28. ,d fo|q r pq a c d h; rj a x d k pq a c d h; {ks = 28. The magnetic field of an E.M. wave is given by
  3    3 
B   ˆi  1 ˆj  30 sin   t  z  B   ˆi  1 ˆj  30 sin   t  z 
2 2    c  S.I. bdkb;ka }kjk 2 2    c  (S.I. Units). The
         
fn;k x;k gSA lacfa /kr fo|qr {ks= S.I. bdkb;ksa esa corresponding electric field in S.I. units is:
gS A
 1 3 ˆ   z 
(1) E   ˆi  j  30c sin   t  
 1 3 ˆ   z  2 2    c 
E   ˆi  j  30c sin   t    
(1) 2 2  
   c 
 1 3 ˆ   z 
 1 3 ˆ   z  (2) E   ˆi  j  30c sin   t  
2 2    c 
(2) E   ˆi  j  30c sin   t    
2 2    c 

  3 
  3  E   ˆi  1 ˆj  30c sin   t  z  
E ˆi  1 ˆj  30c sin   t  z   (3) 2    c 
(3)  2 2    c   2   
   

 3  3 1    z 
1    z  E   ˆi  ˆj  30c cos    t   
(4) E   ˆi  ˆj  30c cos    t    (4)
4 2 c
 4 2    c      

29. vf/kd Hkkjh LFkk;h ukfHkdksa esa U;wVªkWu la[;k izksVkWu 29. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than
protons. This is because of the fact that.
la[;k ls vf/kd gksrh gS] D;ksafd :
(1) neutrons are heavier than protons
(1) U;wVªkWu izksVªkWu ls vf/kd Hkkjh gksrs gS (2) electrostatic force between protons is repulsive
(2) izksVªkWu ds eè; izfrd"kZ.k cy gksrk gS (3) neutrons decay into protons by beta decay

(3) U;wVªkWu -{k; }kjk izksVªkWu esa ifjofrZr gks tkrs gS (4) nuclear force between neutorns is weaker than
protons
(4) U;wVªkWuksa ds eè; ukfHkdh; cy izksVªkWuksa ls de gksrk gS
 V 
30. leqnz Lrj ls 2-5 fdeh xgjkbZ ij ikuh ds va”kkRed 30. The fractional compression   of water at
 V 
 V  the depth of 2.5 km below the sea level is ......%.
lai hM+u  V  dh ek=k ---------- % gSA fn;k x;k Given the bulk modulus of water = 2  109 Nm 2 ,
 
density of water = 103 kg m-3, acceleration due to
gS] ikuh dh vk;ru ekikad = 2  109 Nm 2 ikuh
gravity g = 10 m s-2.
dk ?kuRo = 103 kg m-3 xq:Rokd’kZ.k ds dkj.k Roj.k
g = 10 m s-2 (1) 1.0 (2) 1.25
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.25
(3) 1.75 (4) 1.5 (3) 1.75 (4) 1.5

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
31. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa ,d dks vfHkdFku (A) ds 31. Given below are two statements. One is labelled
:i esa vafdr fd;k x;k gS vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k (R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
ds :i esa vafdr fd;k x;k gSA
Assertion (A) : A simple pendulum is taken to a planet
vfHkdFku (A) : ,d ljy yksy d dks i` F oh dh of m ass and r adius, 4 t imes and 2 t imes,
rqyuk esa 4 xquk nzO;eku vkSj 2 xq uk f=T;k okys xz g respectively, than the Earth. The time period of the
ij ys tk;k tkrk gSA yksyd dk vkorZ dky i` Foh pendulum remains same on earth and the planet.
vkSj xz g ij leku jgrk gSA Reason (R) : The mass of the pendulum remains
unchanged at Earth and the other planet.
dkj.k (R) : yksyd dk nzO;eku i`Foh vkSj xz g ij
viofrZ r jgrk gSA choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) vfHkdFku xyr gS] dkj.k lgh gSA
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k xyr gSA
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
lgh O;k[;k gSA explanation of (A)

(4) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA correct explanation of (A)
 
32. leku ifjek.k ds nks lfn”k A vkSj B gSaA ;fn 32. Two vectros A and B have equal magnitudes. If
     
A  B dk ifjek.k A  B ds ifjek.k ds nksxqus ds
magnitude of A  B is equal to two times the
  
cjkcj gS] rks A vkSj B ds chp dk dks.k gksxkA magnitude of A  B , then the angle between A

and B will be:
1  3 
(1) sin  
5 1  3 
(1) sin  
5

1  1 
(2) sin   1  1 
3 (2) sin  
3

1  3 
(3) cos   1  3 
5 (3) cos  
5

1  1 
(4) cos   1  1 
3 (4) cos  
3

33. ,d m nzO;eku dk d.k {kSfrt ls  dks.k ls v osx 33. A particle of mass m is projected with an initial
ls Qsadk tkrk gSA tc ;g egÙke Å¡pkbZ ij gksrk gS ] velocity v at an angle  with the horizontal. What
rc xq:Ro ds }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z crkb;sa% is work done by force of gravity from the instant of
throw to the instant it reaches the highet point :
(1) mv2 sin 
(1) mv2 sin 
(2) 'kwU;
(2) zero
2
(3) 2mv sin 
(3) 2mv2 sin 

(4)
2 (4)
2
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
34. ,d fi.M ftldk nzO ;eku 1 kg gS ,d fpdus vkur 34. A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane.
lery ij j[kh gq bZ gSA bl ij F = 10 N dk cy The block of mass m is given force F = 10 N
{kSfrt fn'kk esa fp=kuq lkj yxk;k tkrk gSA fi.M horizontally as shown. The magnitude of net
ij yxus okys vfHkyEc iz f rfØ;k cy dk eku normal reaction on the block is :

gks x k%

(1) 10 2 N
(1) 10 2 N
10
10 (2) N
(2) N 2
2
(3) 10 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 20 N (4) 20 N

35. ,d d.k P fn;s x;s fp=kkuq lkj ?kwe jgk gS ftldh 35. Particle P is revolved such that it sweeps out
length s = t3 + 5.Find acceleration of P at t = 2 sec:
nwjh s = t3 + 5 ds vuqlkj gSA P dk Roj.k t = 2 sec ij
gks x k%

(1) 10 m/s2
2
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 14 m/s2
(2) 14 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 25 m/s2. (4) 25 m/s2.

36. M nzO;eku o R/2 f=T;k ds nks Bksl xksys 2R yEckbZ 36. Two solid spheres each of mass M and radius R/2
dh ,d nz O;ekughu NM+ ls la;ksftr gS A are conected with a massless rod of length 2R as
shown in the figure :

fudk; dk NM+ ds yEcor~ vkSj xksys ds dsU nz ls tkus The moment of inertia of the system about an axis
okyh v{k AB ds ifjrk% tM+R o vk?kw.kZ crkb;sa% AB passing through the centre of one of the
spheres and perpendicular to the rod is :
21 2
(1) MR 2 (2) MR2 21 2
5 5 (1) MR 2 (2) MR2
5 5
5 5
(3) MR2 (4) MR 2 5 5
2 21 (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
2 21
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
37. fp= esa rhu ladsfUnz ; /kkrq ds xksyh; dks'k fn[kk;sa 37. Figure shows three concentric metallic spherical
x;s gS ckgjh dks' k dk vkos'k Q2 rFkk lcls vUnj shells. The outermost shell has charges Q2, the
okys dk Q1 tcfd chp okyk dks'k vukosf'kr gSA innermost shell has charge Q1 & the middle shell
is uncharged. The charge density on the inner
lcls ckgjh dks' k ds vUnj okys i` " B dk vkos'k
surface of outermost shell is :
?kuRo gks x k%

Q1 Q1
(1)
(1)
4 r32 4 r32

Q1 Q1
(2) – (2) –
4r32 4r32

(3) 'kwU; (3) Zero

Q1  Q 2 Q1  Q2
(4) (4)
4 r32 4 r32
38. ,d 800 kgdh dkj ,d lM+d ds eksM ij] f=T;k 38. A car of 800 kg is taking turn on a banked road of
300 m eq M jgh gS] dkj ds >qdus dk dks.k 300 gS A radius 300 m and angle of banking 30 0 . If
coefficient of static friction is 0.2 then the
;fn fLFkfrt ?k’kZ.k dk xq.kkad 0-2 gks rc dkj vf/ maximum speed with which car can negotiate the
kdre xfr ys ldrh gSA g  10m / s2 , 3  1.73 turn safely : g  10m / s2 , 3  1.73

(1) 51.4 m/s (1) 51.4 m/s

(2) 102.8 m/s (2) 102.8 m/s
(3) 70.4 m/s (3) 70.4 m/s
(4) 264 m/s (4) 264 m/s
39. /kkjk i ,d yEcs rkj esa cg jgh gSA ,d oxkZdkj ywi 39. Current i flows through a long wire. A square loop
made of conducting wire held below the wire in
bl rkj dh uhps mèokZ/kj ry esa fxj jgk gS A ;fn the same vertical plane is released and allowed
ywi dk Roj.k a gks rks% to fall under gravity. If acceleration of the loop is
a, then :

(1) izsfjr /kkjk okekorZ gksxh rFkk a>g (1) A current is induced in anticlockwise direction and
a>g
(2) izsfjr /kkjk nf{k.kkorZ gksxh rFkk a < g (2) Current is induced in the clockwise direction and a
<g
(3) izsfjr /kkjk okekorZ gksxh rFkka < g (3) Current is induced in anti-clockwise direction and
a<g
(4) dksbZ /kkjk izsfjr ugh gksxh rFkk a=g (4) No current is induced in the loop and a = g
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
40. dk¡p rFkk ty ds eè; Li'kZ dks.k 'kwU; gSA ikuh esa 40. The angle of contact between glass and water is
6 cm ds'kuyh esa p<+rk gS] tc mldk i`"B ruko 70 0o and it rises in a capillary upto 6 cm when its
surface tension is 70 dynes/cm. Another liquid of
dynes/cm gS A ,d vU; nz o dk i` " B ruko 140 surface tension 140 dynes/cm, angle of contact
dynes/cm vkSj LiZ'k dks.k 60o ,oa vkisf {kd ?kuRo 2 60o and relative density 2 will rise in the same
gSA ;g nzo mlh ds'kuyh esa fdruk Åij p<+rk gS% capillary by

(1) 12 cm (1) 12 cm
(2) 24 cm (2) 24 cm
(3) 3 cm (3) 3 cm
(4) 6 cm (4) 6 cm
41. fdlh oLrq ij dk;Zjr cy F blds foLFkkiu s ij 41. A force F acting on a body depends on its
lEcU/k F  S- 1/3 ij fuHkZj djrk gSA F ds }kjk nh displacement s as F  s – 1/3. The power delivered
xbZ 'kfDRk foLFkkiu ij fdl iz dkj fuHkZ j djsxh % by F will depend on displacement as :
(1) s2/3 (1) s2/3
(2) s–5/3 (2) s–5/3
1/2
(3) s (3) s1/2
o
(4) s . (4) s0
42. nks xqVds ftuds nz O;eku leku gSa ,d fLiz x ¼fLizx 42. Two identical blocks A and B are connected by a
fu;rkad 10 N/m) ls ca/ks gq;s gS aA nksuksa xqVds ,d spring (spring constant 10 N/m). The blocks are kept
fpdusa lery ij j[ksa gq ; s gS aA fLiz ax esa egRre on a smooth surface as shown in figure. The
f[kpko gks x k ¼tcfd muds chp vkisf {kd Roj.k elongation in the spring when the relative
acceleration between them is zero
'kwU; gS½

(1) 100 cm (1) 100 cm

(2) 125 cm (2) 125 cm

(3) 150 cm (3) 150 cm

(4) 75 cm (4) 75 cm

43. oxZ ds dsU nz ij oS|qr {ks= gksxk% 43. Find electric field at centre of square :

4q 4q 4q 4q
(1) BD dh rjQ (2) AC dh rjQ (1) BD dh rjQ (2) AC dh rjQ
0 a 2 0 a 2 0 a2 0 a 2

4q q 4q q
(3) AC dh rjQ (4) BD dh rjQ (3) AC dh rjQ (4) BD dh rjQ
0 a 2 0 a 2 0 a2 0 a 2

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
44. ,d gkbMªks tu tS ls ijek.kq ¼ijek.kq Øekad Z) ds 44. The shortest wavelength of the Brackett series of
fy, czSdsV Js.kh dh lcls NksVh rjaxnSè;Z gkbMªkstu a hydrogen like atom (atomic number = Z) is the
same as the shortest wavelength of the Balmer
ijek.kq ds ckWej Js.kh dh lcls NksVh rajx nSè;Z ds series of hydrogen atom. The value of Z is :
cjkcj gS rc Z dk eku gS %
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 4
(3) 4
(4) 6 (4) 6

45. fn;s x;s Mk;ksM ifjiFk esa % 45. In the diode circuit given :

(1) D1rFkk D2 i”pfnf”kd ck;l gSA (1) D1and D2 are reverse biased

(2) D1 rFkk D2 vxzfnf”kd ck;l gSA (2) D1 and D2 are forward biased

(3) D1 vxzfnf”kd ck;l rFkk D2 i”pfnf”kd ck;l gSA (3) D1 forward biased and D2 is reverse biased

(4) D1 rFkk D2 /kkjk dk pkyu ugh djrs (4) D1 and D2 will not conduct

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

46. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gS % 46. Given below are two statements :

dFku : fMcksjus ds lkFk mipkj djus ij izksisu ,d Statement : Propene on treatment with diborane gives
(CH3)2–CH)3 B gSA an addition product with the formula ((CH3)2–CH)3 B.
Statement II : Oxidation of ((CH 3 ) 2CH) 3B with
dFku II : NaOH dh mifLFkfr esa gkbMªkstu isjksDlkbM ds
hydrogen peroxide in presence of NaOH gives
lkFk (CH3)2CH)3B dk vkWDlhdj.k izksius -2-vkWy nsrk gSA propan-2-ol.
mi;qZDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa In the light of the above statements, choose the
esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj pqusa % most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(2) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSS (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

47- lq Ø kst ds gkbMª k s f yfll ls ?kw. kZ u ds fpUg es a 47. Hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in
MsDlVªks (+) ls ysoks (–) rd ifjorZ u gksrk gS vkSj Sign of Rotation from dextro (+) to laevo (–) and
bl çdkj ds fpUg ifjorZ u dks dgk tkrk gSA Such a sign change is known as.

¼1½ jslekbts'ku (1) Racemization

¼2½ O;qRØe.k (2) Inversion

¼3½ mRifjorZu (3) mutarotation

¼4½ buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

LiAlH4
LiAlH4
CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH=N–CH3 
H2 O mRikn 48. CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH=N–CH3 
H2 O Product.

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3 (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH–NH3 (2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH–NH3

(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH=N–CH3 (3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH=N–CH3

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH=N–CH3 (4) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH=N–CH3

NaNO2

Cu/
 mRikn] nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k dk 49. NaNO2

Cu/
 Product,

mRikn gS - product of given reaction is.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
50- vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa ;kSfxd A, B vkSj C lsV }kjk 50. The compound A, B & C in the reaction sequence
are given by the set
fn, x, gS a
HBr Mg (i)CH3  CHO
HBr Mg (i)CH  CHO CH3  CH2  OH  (A)  (B) 
(ii)H O 
(c)
CH3  CH2  OH 

(A)  (B)  3
(ii)H O 
(c)  3
3

(1) CH3–CH2–Br, CH3CH2MgBr, (CH3)3 C–OH (1) CH3–CH2–Br, CH3CH2MgBr, (CH3)3 C–OH

(2) CH3–CH2Br, (CH3 CH2)2 MgBr, (CH3)2CH–CH2–OH (2) CH3–CH2Br, (CH3 CH2)2 MgBr, (CH3)2CH–CH2–OH

(3) CH3CH2Br, CH3CH2MgBr, CH3–CH(OH)CH2–CH3 (3) CH3CH2Br, CH3CH2MgBr, CH3–CH(OH)CH2–CH3

(4) CH3CHBr2, CH3CH(MgBr)2, CH3–CH(OH) CH3 (4) CH3CHBr2, CH3CH(MgBr)2, CH3–CH(OH) CH3

51- fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u lk ,fYMgkbM vk;ksMhu 51. Which of the following aldehydes does not form
iodoform on heating with iodine and alkali:–
vkSj {kkj ds lkFk xeZ djus ij vk;ksMksQkeZ ls ugha
curk gS% & (1)
(1)
(2) I–CH2–CHO
(2) I–CH2–CHO
(3) CH3–CH2–CHO
(3) CH3–CH2–CHO
(4)
(3)

52. The final product in the reaction is:–

52- vfHkfØ;k esa vafre mRikn gS %&
(i)KOH. 
Ph–OH+CCl4   product
Ph–OH+CCl4 
(ii)H
(i)KOH. 
 mRikn (ii)H

(1) Salicylaldehyde
¼1½ lsfylyfYMgkbM
(2) Salicyclic Acid
¼2½ lksfyflfyd ,flM
¼3½ feFkkby lsfyflysV (3) Methyl salicylate

¼4½ csatkby DyksjkbM (4) Benzyl chloride

53- dFku ¼A½% ,Ydkby gSykbM ikuh esa ?kqyu'khy ugha gSaA 53. Statement (A): Alkyl halide are not soluble in water.

dFku ¼B½% ,Ydkby gSykbM ikuh ds v.kq ds lkFkH Statement (B): Alkyl halide does not form H–Bonds

ca/k ugha cukrk gS] gkykafd ,Ydkby gSykbM ç—fr esa with water molecule although allkyl halide is polor in
nature.
/kzqoh; gksrk gSA
¼1½ dFku A½ lgh gS] ¼B½ xyr gSA (1) Statement (A) is correct, B is incorrect.

¼2½ dFku ¼A½ xyr gS] ¼B½ lgh gSA (2) Statement (A) is incorrect, B is correct.

¼3½ nksuksa xyr gSaA (3) Both are incorrect.

¼4½ nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA (4) Both statement are correct.

54- Vksyu vfHkdeZ d ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djus esa l{ke 54. The compound capable in reaction with tollen’s

;kS fxd gS& Reagent is–

¼1½ HCHO (1) HCHO

¼2½ HCOOH (2) HCOOH

¼3½ CH3–CHO (3) CH3–CHO

¼4½ mijksDr lHkh (4) All the above

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
55- dSfutkjks vfHkfØ;k fdlds }kjk nh tkrh gS % 55. Cannizzaro reaction is given by :
¼1½ ,fYMgkbM gkbMªkstu ijek.kq ls cuk gS (1) Aldehyde containing –Hydrogen atom
¼2½ gkbMªkstu ijek.kq ;qDr ,yfMgkbM vkSj dhVksuA (2) Aldehyde & ketone contaning –Hydrogen atom.

¼3½ ,fYMgkbM ;qDr  gkbMªkstu ijek.kq (3) Aldehyde containing – Hydrogen atom

gkbMªkstu ijek.kq ugha gksrk gS (4) Aldehyde not containing –hydrogne atoms

56- ;fn X–2 x+2 esa 56. If no of proton in X–2 is 16. Then no of electron in
bysDVªku dh la[;k gksxh---- x+2 will be....

¼1½ 14 (1) 14

¼2½ 16 (2) 16

¼3½ 18 (3) 18

¼4½ dksbZ ugha (4) None

57- ;g ekurs gq , fd 12C dk ijek.kq Hkkj ijek.kq 57. Assuming that atomic weight of 12C is 150 unit
rkfydk ls 150 bdkbZ gS] rks bl /kj.kk ds vuqlkj from atomic table, then according to this
16
O dk Hkkj fu/kZ fjr djsa % assumption the weight of 16O :

¼1½ 250 ;wfuV (1) 250 Unit

¼2½ 500 ;wfuV (2) 500 Unit

¼3½ 400 ;wfuV (3) 400 Unit

¼4½ 200 ;wfuV (4) 200 Unit

58. vkWDlkfyd vEy ds fo:) lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM 58. Which indicator is used in the titration of sodium
ds vuq ekiu esa fdl lwpd dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk hydroxide against oxalic acid and what is the
gS vkSj vafre fcUnq ij jax ifjorZ u D;k gksrk gS % colour change at the end point :

(1) K2Cr2O7, gjk ls ukjaxh (1) K2Cr2O7, green to orange

(2) {kkjh; KMnO4, jaxghu ls xykch (2) Alkaline KMnO4, colourless to pink

(3) fQuksyQFksfyu] jaxghu ls pmk (3) Phenolphthalein, colourless to pmk

(4) feFkkby vkWjat
s ] ihyk ls xqykch yky jax (4) Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour
Kp=Kc 59. For which of the following reaction Kp= Kc :
gks x kA
(1) H2+I2  2HI
(1) H2+I2  2HI
(2) PCl5  PCl3+Cl2
(2) PCl5  PCl3+Cl2
(3) 2NH3  3H2+N2
(3) 2NH3  3H2+N2
(4) 2SO2+O2  2SO3 (4) 2SO2+O2  2SO3

60. NH4OH + NH4Cl - iz dkj ds cQj dk pH eku ds }kjk 60. The pH of buffer of NH4OH + NH4Cl - type is given
fn;k gS % by :

(1) pH = pKb (1) pH = pKb

(2) pH = 1/2 pKb – 1/2log [yo.k]/[{kkj] (2) pH = 1/2 pKb – 1/2log [Salt]/[base]

(3) pH = 14 – pKb – log [yo.k]/[{kkj] (3) pH = 14 – pKb – log [Salt]/[base]

(4) pH = pOH – pKb + [yo.k]/[{kkj] (4) pH = pOH – pKb + [salt]/[base]

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
eksy cQZ ds lay;u ds fy, ,UVªkih esa ifjorZ u 61. Calculate the change in entropy for the fusion of
K gS vkSj 1 mole of ice. The melting point of ice is 273 K
and Molor enthalpy of fusion of ice = 6 KJ/mol.
cQZ ds lay;u dh eksyj ,UFkSYih 6 KJ/mol gSA

(1) 40.8 JK–1 mol–1 (1) 40.8 JK–1 mol–1

(2) 21.97 JK–1 mol–1

(2) 21.97 JK–1 mol–1

(3) 49.78 JK–1 mol–1 (3) 49.78 JK–1 mol–1

(4) 140 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 140 JK–1 mol–1

,d Lor%LQwrZ vfHkfØ;k ds fy, nwjxkeh fLFkfr;k¡ 62. The favourable condition for a spontoneous
reaction are–
gS a&
(1) TS>H, H= +ve, S=+ve
(1) TS>H, H= +ve, S=+ve
(2) TS>H, H=+ve, S=–ve
(2) TS>H, H=+ve, S=–ve
(3) TS=H, H=–ve, S=–ve
(3) TS=H, H=–ve, S=–ve
(4) TS=H, H=+ve, S=+ve (4) TS=H, H=+ve, S=+ve
63. Oxidation number of Xe in XeF5–1 is:–
XeF5–1 esa Xe dh vkDlhdj.k la[;k gS%&
(1) +1
(1) +1
(2) +2 (2) +2

(3) +3 (3) +3

(4) +4 (4) +4

dkcksZfu;u gS %& 64. Carbanion is a :–

¼1½ csl (1) Base

¼2½ U;wfDy;ksiQkby (2) Nucleophile

¼3½ vEy (3) Acid

¼4½ 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (4) 1 & 2 both

ijek.kq la[;k z okyk rRo gksxk% 65. The element with Atomic number z = 118 will be:

¼1½ ukscsy xSl (1) Noble gas

¼2½ laØe.k /kkrq (2) Transition metal

¼3½ {kkj /kkrq (3) Alkali metal

¼4½ {kkjh; i`Foh /kkrq (4) Alkaline earth metal

H
66.
OH
Cl(g)  e   
 Cl(g) dh iz fØ;k esa H gS 66. In the process of Cl(g)  e   
Cl(g) , H is

¼1½ ldkjkRed (1) Positive

¼2½ udkjkRed (2) Negative

¼3½ 'kwU; (3) Zero

¼4½ dksbZ ugh (4) None

67. H2O, Br3–, H3O+ e dh dsUnzh; ijek.kq 67. No of lone pair e of central atom H2O, Br3–, H3O+
la [ ;k gks x hA are
(1) 3, 1, 2 (2) 2, 1, 3 (1) 3, 1, 2 (2) 2, 1, 3
(3) 2, 3, 1 (4) 1, 2, 3 (3) 2, 3, 1 (4) 1, 2, 3
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
68. ckWUM dh yackbZ dk lgh Øe gS 68. The correct order of Bond length is :

(1) CC C  C  C C (1) CC C  C  C C

(2) C  C CC C C (2) C  C CC C C
(3) C  C  C  C  C C (3) C  C  C  C  C C
(4) CC C  C  C  C (4) CC C  C  C  C
69. fuEufyf[kr esals dkSu lk xyr gS% 69. Which of the following incorrect:

(1) I  Cl > Br2 (DoFkukad) (1) I  Cl > Br2 (Boiling Point)

(2) HF > HI (xyukad) (2) HF > HI (Melting point)

(3) HF > HI (DoFkukad) (3) HF > HI (Boiling Point)
(4) D2O > H2O ¼DoFkukad½ (4) D2O > H2O (Boiling point)
70. dkWEIysDl [CoCl2(en)2] }kjk n'kkZ , x, vkblksesfjTe 70. The type of isomerism shown by complex
dk iz dkj gS% [CoCl2(en)2] is:

(1) T;kferh; leko;ork (1) Geometrical isomerism

(2) leUo; leko;ork (2) Coordinate isomerism

(3) vk;uhdj.k leko;ork (3) Ionization isomerism
(4) fyaxdst vklksesfjTe (4) Linkage isomerism
71. fuEufyf[kr es a ls fdles a lgfØ;kRed  ca /ku 71. Which of the following has best  accepting
cukus dh lcls vPNh Lohdk;Z izo `fRr gS% tendency to form synergic Bond:

(1) CO (2) PPh3 (1) CO (2) PPh3

(3) NO2 (4) en (3) NO2 (4) en

72. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk lcls fLFkj ifjlj gS% 72. Which of the following is most stable complex:

(1) [CO(H2O)6]+3 (1) [CO(H2O)6]+3

(2) [CO(en)3]+3 (2) [CO(en)3]+3
(3) [CO(NH3)4(en)]+3 (3) [CO(NH3)4(en)]+3
(4) [CO(NH3)2(en)2]+3 (4) [CO(NH3)2(en)2]+3
73. ,d izfrfØ;k A  B  C  D ds fy, lfØ;.k 73. For a reaction A  B  C  D the activation
ÅtkZ 32 KJ mol1 gSA foijhr izfrfØ;k ds fy, Ea energy is 32 KJ mol1. for the reverse reaction
58 KJ mol1 gS iz frfØ;k dh izd`fr vkSj H eku fu/ the Ea is 58 KJ mol1 Determine the nature of
kZ fjr djsa\ reaction and H value?

(1) H = -26 KJ mol1 ¼,DlksFkfeZd½ (1) H = -26 KJ mol1 (Exothermic)

(2) H = +26 KJ mol1 ¼,aMksFkfeZd½ (2) H = +26 KJ mol1 (Endothermic)

(3) H = 48 KJ mol1 ¼,DlksFkfeZd½ (3) H = 48 KJ mol1 (Exothermic)

(4) H = 52 KJ mol1 ¼,DlksFkfeZd½ (4) H = 52 KJ mol1 (Exothermic)

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
74. paw fd iz kd` frd voLFkk es a rRoksa dh ,UFkS Yih dks 74. Since Enthalpy of element in their natural state
'kwU ; ekuk tkrk gS] blfy, ;kSfxdksa ds  dk is taken as zero the value of Hf of compounds:
eku%
(1) is always negative
(1) lnSo udkjkRed gksrk gS
(2) is always positive
(2) lnSo ldkjkRed jgrk gS
(3) ldkjkRed ;k udkjkRed gks ldrk gS (3) may be positive or negative

(4) 'kwU; gS (4) is zero

75. vkS j 75. and

| |
Cl H O Cl H O
,d tksM+h dk xBu dj jgs gSaA are constitute a pair of
(1) fLFkfr vkblkselZ (1) Position isomers
(2) esVkelZ (2) Metamers
(3) vkfIVdy vkblkselZ (3) Optical isomers
(4) dk;kZRed lewg vkblkselZ (4) Functional group isomers
76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lcls etcwr {kkj gS% 76. Among the following the strongest base is:

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

77. foukby Dyksj kbM dh dkS u lh iz fr/ofu lajpuk 77. Which resonating structure of vinyl chloride is
lcls de fLFkj gksrh gS least stable

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) lHkh esa leku fLFkjrk gS (4) All have equal stability

78. KMnO4 dks (CH3 )2 C  CH  CH3 ds lkFk mckyus 78. The treatment of (CH3 )2 C  CH  CH3 with
ls mipkfjr gksrk gS boiling KMnO4 produces
(1) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH (1) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH
(2) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO
(3) CH3CHO + CO2 (3) CH3CHO + CO2
(4) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3COCH3 only

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
79. ijek.kq Øekad 58 ls 71 rd rRo j[ks x, gS a 79. From atomic number 58 to 71 element are placed
in
¼1½ 5 oha vof/k vkSj III A lewg
(1) 5th period and III A group
¼2½ NBk vkorZ vkSj III B lewg
(2) 6th period and III B group
¼3½ i`FkDdj.k vof/k vkSj lewg (3) seprate period and group
¼4½ mijksä esa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above
80. sp d 3
gkbfczMkbts'ku esa 'kkfey d vkWfcZVy gS% 80. The d-orbital involved in sp3d Hybridisation is:
(1) dx2–y2 (1) dx2–y2
(2) dz2 (2) dz2
(3) dxy (3) dxy
(4) dxz (4) dxz
81. dSalj jks/kh nok flLIySfVu esa fyxsaM gSa% 81. The ligands in Anticancer drug cisplatin are:
(1) NH3, Cl (1) NH3, Cl
(2) NH3, H2O (2) NH3, H2O

(3) Cl, H2O (3) Cl, H2O

(4) NO, Cl (4) NO, Cl

82- czkmu fjax tfVy xBu ds laca/k esa] fuEufyf[kr esa 82. Regarding Brown Ring complex formation,
ls dkSu lk dFku xyr gS% which of the following statement is wrong:

(1) NO xBu gksxk (1) NO formation takes place

(2) bl izfØ;k esa Fe2(SO4)3 dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS (2) Fe2(SO4)3 is uses in this process

(3) Fe+2 vkSj NO3 nksuksa de gks tkrs gSa (3) Fe+2 and NO3 both are reduced

(4) czkmu fjax dkWEIysDl dk lw= [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2 gS (4) Formula of brown ring complex is[Fe(H2O)5NO]+2

83. laØe.k rRo dk lewg pq usa% 83. Select group of transition element:

(1) Pb, Sc, v (1) Pb, Sc, v

(2) Pd, Cd, Xe (2) Pd, Cd, Xe

(3) Pd, La, Fe (3) Pd, La, Fe

(4) Zn, Pd, Bi (4) Zn, Pd, Bi

84. ikuh esa CO2 ds fy, gsujh dk fuEu fLFkjkad 298 K 84. Henry's low constant for CO2 in water is 1.67×108
ij 1.67×108 Pa gSA 298 K ij 2.5 atm CO2 ncko esa Pa at 298 K. calculate the quantity of CO2 in 1L of
iSd fd, tkus ij 1L lksMk ikuh esa CO2 dh ek=k Soda water when packed under 2.5 atm CO2
pressure at 298K.
dh x.kuk djsaA
(1) 3.65 gm/L
(1) 3.65 xzke@yh
(2) 9.68 gm/L
(2) 9.68 xzke@yh
(3) 12.68 gm/L
(3) 12.68 xzke@yh
(4) 18.94 gm/L
(4) 18.94 xzke@yh

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
85. iz fr fØ ;k Fe  Ce  Fe  Ce
2 4 3 3
ds fy, 85. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the
larqyu fLFkjkad dh x.kuk djsa] reaction Fe  2  Ce 4  Fe 3  Ce 3 ,

[fn;k x;k% ECe 4 3 3

/ Ce  1.44V :, EFe / Fe  0.68V ]
2
[Given: ECe4 / Ce3  1.44V :, EFe3 / Fe2  0.68V ]

2.303RT 2.303RT
250C  0.06 ysa vkSj log 4.68 = 0.67 Take  0.06 at 250C and log 4.68 = 0.67
F F
(1) 4.64 x 1012 (1) 4.64 x 1012
(2) 6.44 x 1012 (2) 6.44 x 1012
(3) 4.64 x 1024 (3) 4.64 x 1024
(4) 6.44 x 1024 (4) 6.44 x 1024
86. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vkn’kZ foy;u ls lEcfU/kr 86. Which of the following is related with ideal
gS : solution :
(1) mix H = 0, mix V = 0 (1) mix H = 0, mix V = 0
(2) mix H < 0 ,oa mix V > 0 (2) mix H < 0 and correspondingly mix V > 0
(3) mix H = 0, mix V > 0
(3) mix H = 0, mix V > 0
(4) mix H < 0 ,oa mixV = 0 (4) mix H < 0 and correspondingly mixV = 0
87- igys Øe dh izfrfØ;k dk 75% 32 feuV esa iwjk 87. 75% of a first order reaction was found to complete
ik;k x;kA ogh izfrfØ;k dk 50% dc iwjk gksxkA in 32 min. When will 50% of the same reaction
complete
(1) 24 feuV (2) 16 feuV
(1) 24 min (2) 16 min
(3) 8 feuV (4) 4 feuV
(3) 8 min (4) 4 min
88- dFku- A: 88. Statement- A:
Zn vkSj Hf dk ijek.kq jfM;l yxHkx leku gS
Zn and Hf have about the same atomic radius
dFku- B: Statement- B:
Zn vkSj Hf ,d gh lewg esa gSa Zn and Hf lies in the same group
(1) dFku A xyr gS (1) Statement A is incorrect
(2) dFku B xyr gS (2) Statement B is incorrect
(3) dFku A vkSj B nksuksa lgh gSa (3) Statement A and B both correct
(4) dFku A vkSj B nksuksa xyr gSa (4) Statement A and B both incorrect
89- fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u lk iz d` fr esa lcls de 89. Which of the following is least Acidic in nature:
vEyh; gS %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

3
3

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025

90- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk lokZf/kd fLFkj gS 90. Which of the following is most stable

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) lHkh leku :i ls fLFkj gSa (4) All are equal stable

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

91. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 91. Select the incorrect match

(1) voFkkbjkbrk – cgjk & xwaxkiu (1) Hypothyroidism – Deaf-mutism

(2) o`f) gkWeksZu dk – vR;f/kd fod`fr (2) Hypersecretion of – Severe disfigurement

vfrlzko.k growth hormone

(3) mPp vkokt eknk f}rh;d ySfxax

– (3) High pitch of – Female secondary sex

dk Lojeku y{k.k voice characters

(4) Xywdksfu;kstsusfll – gkbiksXykblhfe;k esa (4) Gluconeogenesis – Contributes to

;ksxnku nsrk gS hypoglycemia

92. tc ,d CO2 v.kq ,d VªkW ; kst QkWL QsV ds :i 92. When one CO2 molecule is fixed as one molecule
fLFkjhd` r gksrk gS A dkSu lk iz dk'kjklk;fud rjhds of triose phosphate, which of the following
ls fuEufyf[kr curk gS A mPp ÅtkZ jklk;fud photochemically made, high energy chemical
ekè;fed vip;u izkoLFkk esa mi;ksx gksrk gSA intermediates are used in the reduction phase?
(1) 1 ATP + 1 NADPH (2) 1 ATP + 2 NADPH (1) 1 ATP + 1 NADPH (2) 1 ATP + 2 NADPH
(3) 2 ATP + 1 NADPH (4) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH (3) 2 ATP + 1 NADPH (4) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH

93. ekuo efLr"d esa dgk¡ ij Hkw[k dsU nz fLFkr gksrk gS 93. Where is the hunger centre located in human
brain
(1) lsjhcsye (2) iksUl (1) Cerebellum (2) Pons
(3) gkbiksFkSysel (4) esM~;wyk vksCyksUxsVk (3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla ablongata

94. f}rh;d o` f) ds nkS jku laoguh dSfEc;e vkSj ik'ohZ; 94. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium
tM+ksa dh 'kq:vkr dkS u lh dksf 'kdkvksa esa ?kfVr during secondary growth takes place in cells of :
gksrh gSA
(1) bihCysek (2) oYdqV (1) Epiblema (2) Cortex

(3) vUrLRopk (4) ifjjEHk (3) Endodermis (4) Pericycle

95. lwph I dks lwph II ds lkFk lqesfyr djks% 95. Match List-I with List- II
lwph I lwph II List -I List -II
(a) ySd vksisjku esa (i) VªkWUl,lhVkbyst (a) In lac operon (i) transacetylase
i thu dksM
i gene codes for
djrk gSA
(b) In lac operon z (ii) permease
(b) ySd vksisjku esa (ii) ijfe,t
z thu dksM gene codes for
djrk gSA (c) In lac operon y (iii) -galactosidase
(c) ySd vksisjku esa (iii) -xSysDVkslkbtst
gene codes for
y thu dksM
(d) In lac operon a (iv) Repressor
djrk gSA
gene codes for
(d) ySd vksisjku esa (iv) voeand
a thu dksM djrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) (2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii) (3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)

(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii) (4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
96. lwph I dks lwph II ds lkFk lq esfyr djsa 96. Match List-I with List-II
lw ph -I lwph-II List-I List-II

(a) DykWekbMkseksukl (i) ekWl (a) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss

(b) lkbdl (ii) VsjhMksQkbV (b) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyte

(c) flySftusyk (iii) izkfs VLVk (c) Selaginella (iii) Protista

(d) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm
(d) LQsxue (iv) ftEuksLieZ
Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%
below
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv) (4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
97. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 97. Given below are two statements :
dFku - I : DNA ikWyhejst cgqydu dks dsoy ,d fn'kk esa Statement I : DNA polymerases catalyse
mRizsfjr djrk gS] tks fd 5'  3' polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5'  3'
dFku - II : izfrd`fr;u ds nkSjku] ,d LVªSUM ij izfrd`fr;u Statement II : During replication of DNA, on one strand
lrr gksrk gSA tcfd nwljs ij vlrr gksrk gSA the replication is continuous while on other strand it
is discontinuous.
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA correct answer from the options given below :
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
98. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lh QSfeyh iq"ih; fp= dks 98. The Floral Diagram represents which one of the
fu:fir dj jgk gSA following families?

(1) Fabaceae
(1) QSoslh
(2) Brassicaceae
(2) czSlhdslh
(3) lksysul
s h (3) Solanaceae

(4) fyfy,lh (4) Liliaceae

99. ,dy TCA pØ ds nkSjku fdrus ckj vkblkslkbVªsV 99. The number of time(s) decarboxylation of
dk fMdkckZDlhys'ku gksrk gSA isocitrate occurs during single TCA cycle is :
(1) ,d (1) One
(2) nks (2) Two
(3) rhu (3) Three
(4) pkj (4) Four
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
100. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 100. Given below are two statements :

dFku - I : fldy lsy ,uheh;k vkSj fgeksQhfy;k vfyax Statement I : Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia
izHkkoh fo'ks"kd gSA are autosomal dominant traits .

dFku - II : fldy lsy ,uheh;k vkSj fgeksQhfy;k jDr dk Statement II : Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia

fodkj gSA are disorders of the blood.

In the light of the above statements, choose the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa
correctanswer from the options given below :
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
101. (A) 101. Given below are two statements one is labelled
(R) ls yscYM gS asAssertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
vfHkdFku (A) : tc ,d fo'ks"k izfrcU/ku ,Utkbe DNA ds
LVªSUM dks dkVrk gS] yVdrk gqvk foLrkj vFkok fpifpik Assertion (A) : When a particular restriction enzyme
cuts strand of DNA, overhanging stretches or sticky
fdukjk curk gSA
ends are formed.
dkj.k (R) : lHkh izfrcU/ku ,Utkbe iSyhUMªksfed LFky ds
Reason (R) : All restriction enzymes cut the strand of
dsUnz ls ,d FkksM+k nwj DNA ds LVªSUM dks dkVrk gSA
DNA a little away from the centre of palindromic site.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gS (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gS (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
djrk gSA correctexplanation of (A)
(4) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
O;k[;ku ugh djrk gSA correctexplanation of (A)

102. vestu ou esa ik;s tkus okys vuqekfur la[;k ds 102. Give the correct descending order of organisms
with reference to their estimated number found
lUnHkZ esa thoksa ds vojksgh Øe dks lgh ls crk,¡%
in Amazon forest.
(a) ikni (a) Plants
(b) vd'ks:dh (b) Invertebrates
(c) eNyh (c) Fishes
(d) Lru/kkjh (d) Mammals
(e) i{kh (e) Birds

uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) (a) > (b) > (e) > (d) > (c)
(1) (a) > (b) > (e) > (d) > (c)
(2) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
(2) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
(3) (b) > (a) > (e) > (d) > (c) (3) (b) > (a) > (e) > (d) > (c)
(4) (b) > (a) > (c) > (e) > (d) (4) (b) > (a) > (c) > (e) > (d)
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
103. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk o` f) fu;ked ,d ,Mhuhu 103. Which of the following growth regulators is an
O;qRiUUk gksrk gSA adenine derivative ?

(1) vkWDthu (1) Auxin

(2) lkbVksdkbfuu (2) Cytokinin

(3) bZFkkbZyhu (3) Ethylene

(4) ,fClfld vEy (4) Abscisic acid

104. Ård dk izdkj lkekU;r% uV~l ds Qy fnokj esa 104. The type of tissue commonly found in the fruit
ik;k tkrk gSA wall of nuts is :

(1) iSjsudkbek (1) Parenchyma

(2) dksysudkbek (2) Collenchyma

(3) LDysjsudkbek (3) Sclerenchyma

(4) ?kukdkj midyk (4) Cuboidal epithelium

105. ,fUt;ksLieZ esa lkekU;r% Hkz w.kdks"k ds v.M midj.k 105. In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in
feydj cuk gksrk gSA angiosperm consists of :

(1) ,d v.Mdksf'kdk] nks lgk; dksf'kdk] rhu ,UVhiksMy (1) One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells,

dksf'kdk,¡] nks /kzqoh; U;qDyhvkbZ two Polar nuclei

(2) ,d v.Mdksf'kdk] nks lgk; dksf'kdk] nks ,UVhiksMy (2) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells,

dksf'kdk,¡] rhu /kzqoh; U;qDyhvkbZ three Polar nuclei

(3) ,d v.Mdksf'kdk] rhu lgk; dksf'kdk] nks ,UVhiksMy (3) One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal cells,

dksf'kdk,¡] nks /kzqoh; U;qDyhvkbZ two Polar nuclei

(4) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells,

(4) ,d v.Mdksf'kdk] nks lgk; dksf'kdk] nks ,UVhiksMy
two Polar nuclei
dksf'kdk,¡] nks /kzqoh; U;qDyhvkbZ
106. Match List-I with List-II
106. lwph I dks lwph II
List-I LIst-II
lw ph -I lwp h -II
(a) Imbricate (i) Calotropis
(a) dksjNknh (i) dSykVªkWfil
(b) Valvate (ii) Cassia
(b) dksjLi'khZ (ii) dSfl;k
(c) Vexillary (iii) Cotton
(c) oSDthyjh (iii) dikl
(d) Twisted (iv) Bean
(d) O;korhZr (iv) chu
Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv) (1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii) (2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)

(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i) (3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)

(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii) (4) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
107. usÝkWu dk Hkkx lksMh;e ds lfØ; iqujko'kks"k.k esa 107. The part of nephron involved in active
'kkfey gSA reabsorption of sodium is
(1) eSyihft;u ufydk (1) Malpighian tubule
(2) lehiLFk laofyr ufydk (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) cksesUl lEiqV (3) Bowman's capsule

(4) gsUys ywi dh vojksgh Hkwtk (4) Descending limb of Henle's loop

108. ?kVuk ftlds }kjk vfoHkkftr iSjsudkbek dksf'kdk,¡ 108. The phenomenon by which the undividing

ikni Ård lao/kZ u ds nkSjku lelw= h foHkktu ls parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically
foHkkftr djuk vkjaHk djrh gS] dgykrh gS : during plant tissue culture is called as:

(1) foHksnu (1) Differentiation

(2) fufoZHksnu (2) Dedifferentiation

(3) iqufoZHksnu (3) Redifferentiation

(4) f}rh;d o`f) (4) Secondary growth

109. v/kZlw=h foHkktu esa] fofue; vkSj vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ 109. In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic

dk vknku&iznku letkr xq.klw=ksa ds chp ,Utkbe material between homologous chromosomes are

ds }kjk mRizsfjr gksrk gSA catalyzed by the enzyme.

(1) QkLQksjkbyst (1) Phosphorylase

(2) Recombinase
(2) fjdkfEcust
(3) Transferase
(3) VªkUlQjst
(4) Polymerase
(4) ikWyhejst
110. Select the correct match :
110. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
Column-I Column-II Column-III
dkWy e-I dkWy e-II dkWye -III
(A) ketoglutaric 5-C compound TCA
(A) dhVksXywVsjhd 5-C ;kSfxd TCA
acid cycle
vEy pØ
(B) vkDlSykslDlhuhd4-C ;kSfxd ØsCl
(B) Oxalosuccinic 4-C compound Krebs
vEy pØ
acid cycle
(C) ,lhVkby Co-A 2-C ;kSfxd Xykbdksfyfll
(C) Acetyl Co-A 2-C compound Glycolysis
(D) QkWLQksbukWy 3-C ;kSfxd TCA
(D) phosphoenol 3-C compound TCA
ikb:fod vEy pØ
Pyruvic acid cycle
(1) A, B, C
(1) A, B, C
(2) dsoy A
(2) A Only
(3) A, C
(3) A, C
(4) A, B, D
(4) A, B, D

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
111. 2002 esa lrr fodkl ij fo'o lEesyu tksgsUlao xZ 111. The World Summit on sustainable development
esa] ladYi fdlds fy, : held in 2002 in Johannesburg, pledged for:
(1) A significant reduction in the current rate
(1) tSo fofo/krk {kfr ds orZeku nj esa egRoiw.kZ deh of biodiversity loss.
(2) T;knk tSo fofo/krk gkWVLikV dks ?kksf"kr djuk (2) Declaration of more biodiversity hotspots.
(3) Increase in agricultural production
(3) d`f"k mRiknu esa c<+ksRrjh
(4) Collection and preservation of seeds of
(4) O;kolkf;d :i ls egRoiw.kZ ikniksa ds chtksa ds different genetic strains of commercially important
fofHkUu vkuqoaf'kd LVªsu dk laxzg.k vkSj ifjj{k.k plants.

112. d`f=e ladj.k dh izfØ;k esa dsoy okafNr ijkx dks 112. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall on
ofrZdkxz dh lrg ij fxjkus dks fuf'pr djuk gSA the stigma in artificial hybridization process :

(a) ikni dh eknk iq"i dyh ,dfyaxh iq"i mRiUu djrh (a) the female flower buds of plant producing
gSA cSfxax dh vko';drk ugha gS unisexual flower need not be bagged.

(b) p;uhr eknk iSjsUV ds ,dfyaxh iq"iksa dks foiqalu dh (b) there is no need to emasculate unisexual flowers

dksbZ vko';drk ugha gksrh gSA of selected female parent

(c) emasculated flowers are to be bagged
(c) foiaqflr iq"i dks ØkWl ijkx.k ds ckn rRdky cSfxax
immediately after cross pollination
djuk gksrk gS
(d) emasculated flowers are to be bagged after
(d) ijkxdks'k dks gVkus ds ckn foiqaflr ikn~i dks cSfxax
removal of anthers
fd;k tkrk gS
(e) bisexual flowers, showing protogyny are
(e) f}fyaxh iq"i] izkVs ksxkbuh iznf'kZr djrs gSA ØkWl ds
never selected for cross
fy, dHkh Hkh p;fur ugha gksrs gSA
Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only (1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (e) only (4) (a), (d) and (e) only (3) (b), (c) and (e) only (4) (a), (d) and (e) only

113. ?kq yh gq bZ vkWDlhtu vkSj ck;ksd sfedy vkWDlhtu 113. Select the correct statements regarding dissolved
fMekUM ds lUnHkZ esa lgh dFkuksa dk p;u djsa oxygen and Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
(A) BOD ?kqyh gqbZ vkDlhtu ls O;qRØekuqikrh rjhds ls (A) BOD is inversely related to dissolved oxygen.
lEcfU/kr gSA
(B) Only dissolved oxygen are aff ected by
(B) dsoy ?kqyh gqbZ vkWDlhtu dkcZfud inkFkZ dh ek=k
amount of organic matter in the water body.
}kjk izHkkfor gksrh gSA
(C) High BOD leads to high dissolved oxygen.
(C) mPp BOD ds dkj.k mPp ?kqyh gqbZ vkWDlhtu gks
tkrh gSA (D) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are indicator of
(D) nksuksa BOD vkSj ?kqyh gqbZ vkWDlhtu tyk'k; ds health of a water body.
LokLFk dk lwpd gksrh gSA (E) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are affected by
(E) nksuksa BOD vkSj ?kqyh gqbZ vkWDlhtu dkcZfud inkFkZ amount of organic matter in the water body.
dh ek=k }kjk izHkkfor gksrh gSA
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj dk
p;u djsa% options given below

(1) dsoy (A), (B), (C), (E) (1) (A), (B), (C), (E) only

(2) dsoy (A), (D), (E) (2) (A), (D), (E) only

(3) dsoy (A), (B), (C), (D) (3) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(4) dsoy (B), (C), (D), (E) (4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
114. Bt dikl ugha gS: 114. Bt cotton is not:
(1) ,d GM ikni (1) A GM plant
(2) dhV izfrjks/kh (2) Insect resistant
(3) ,d thok.kqoh; thu vfHkO;fDr rU= (3) A bacterial gene expressing system
(4) lHkh dhVuk'kd ds fy, izfrjks/kh (4) Resistant to all pesticides
115. thou dk tSo fodkl iznf'kZ r djrk gS fd thou 115. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend
:i dk ,d ls nwljs dks tkus dh ijEijk gS : of moving from:

(1) dsoy LFky ls dsoy ty dh vksj (1) Only land to only water

(2) 'kq"dLFky ls xhyh LFky (2) dryland to wet land

(3) LoPN ty ls leqnzh ty (3) fresh water to sea water

(4) water to land
(4) ty ls LFky
116. Select the type of proteins/polypeptides
116. izksVhUl @ ikWyhisIVkbM dk p;u djsa
(1) Haemoglobin
(1) gheksXyksfcu
(2) Trypsin
(2) fVªfIlu
(3) Insulin
(3) bUlqfyu
(4) All
(4) lHkh
117. Match List-I with List-II
117. lwph I dks lwph II ls lqesfyr djsa
List- I List-II
lwph- I lwp h -II
(a) Bacteriophage × 174 (i) 48502 base pairs
(a) cSfDVfj;ksQst × 714 (i) 48502 {kkj ;qXe
(b) Bacteriophage lambda (ii) 5386 nucleotides
(b) cSfDVfj;ksQst ySEcMk (ii) 5386 U;qDyh;ksVkbM~l
(c) Escherichia coli (iii) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
(c) bLpsfjfp;k dksykbZ (iii) 3.3 × 109 {kkj ;qXe
(d) Haploid content (iv) 4.6 × 106 base pair
(d) ekuo DNA dk gsIykW;M (iv) 4.6 × 106 {kkj ;qXe of human DNA
lkexzh Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below

(1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv) (1) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
118. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lEHkkfor gSA vxj oSKkfud 118. Which of the following can be expected if

,iksfeDVhd thu dks Qly ds gkbfcz M fdLeksa esa scientists succeed in introducing apomictic gene
iz fo"V djus esa lQy gks tkrk gSA into hybrid varieties of crops ?
(1) cgqHkzw.krk ns[kus dks feyrh gS vkSj izR;sd cht cgqr (1) Polyembryony will be seen and each seed will
lkjh ikniksa dks mRiUu djrh gSA produce many plantlets
(2) gkbfczM ikn~i dk cht yEch izlqfIr iznf'kZr djrh (2) Seeds of hybrid plants will show longer dormancy
gSA
(3) Farmers can keep on using the seeds produced
(3) fdlku izfro"kZ Qly & nj & Qly ladj chtks dk
by the hybrids to raise new crop year after year
mi;ksx tkjh j[k ldrs gS
(4) buds ok¡fNr y{k.kksa dk i`FkDdj.k dsoy izkstuh esa (4) There will be segregation of the desired
gksrk gS characters only in the progeny

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
119. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+s vkSj fn;s x;s fp= esa 119. Read the following statements and identify the
characters related to the alga shown in the
'kSoky ls lEcfU/kr y{k.kksa dks igpkus diagram:

(a) ;g DyksjksQkblh dk ,d lnL; gSA (a) It is a member of Chlorophyceae

(b) Hkkstu LVkpZ ds :i esa lapf;r gksrk gSA (b) Food is stored in the form of starch
(c) ;g ,d eks uks blh;l ikn~ i gSA chtk.M vkS j (c) It is a monoecious plant showing ovules and
,UFkzhMh;e dks iznf'kZr djrk gSA antheridium
(d) Hkkstu ySehusjhu vkSj eSuhVky ds :i esa lapf;r gksrk (d) Food is stored in the form of laminarin or mannitol
gSA
(e) It shows dominance of pigments chlorophyll a, c
(e) ;g DyksjksfQy a, c vkSj ¶;qdkstSUFkhu o.kZd dh izcyrk and Fucoxanthin.
dks iznf'kZr djrk gSA
Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below:
(1) dsoy (a) vkSj (b) (1) (a) and (b) only
(2) dsoy (a), (b) vkSj (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) dsoy (a), (c) vkSj (d) (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) dsoy (c), (d) vkSj (e) (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
120. dkS u ls izdkj dk p;u ekWFk esa fn[kk;h nsus okys 120. Which type of selection explains industrial
b.MfLVª; y feyS fuTe dks mYysf[kr dj jgk gS]
melanism observed in moth, Biston bitularia:
fcLVu fcVqysfj;k :
(1) Stabilising
(1) LFkk;hdkjd
(2) Directional
(2) fn'kkRed
(3) fonkjd (3) Disruptive

(4) d`f=e (4) Artificial

121. vxj ,d eknk lUrfr NksVs xksy flj] thHk esa [kk¡p] 121. If a female individual is with small round
vkfU'kd :i ls [kq yk gqvk eq¡g] pkSM+h gFksyh esa head,furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and
broad palm with characteristic palm crease. Also
vfHkyk{kf.kd ikYe Øht okyh gS A 'kkjhfjd]
the physical,psychomotor and mental
lkbdkseksVj vkSj ekufld fodkl vo:) iz nf'kZr
development is retarded. The karyotype analysis
djrk gSA of such an individual will show :
(1) XXY fyax xq.klw=ksa ds lkFk 47 xq.klw= (1) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
(2) XO xq.klw=ksa ds lkFk 45 xq.klw= (2) 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
(3) XYY fyax xq.klw=ksa ds lkFk 47 xq.klw= (3) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes

(4) xq.klw= 21 dk VªkWblkseh (4) Trisomy of chromosome 21

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
122- vèkZ lw=hfoHkktu ds çksQ+st+ I ds nkS jku gksus okyh 122. Identify the events during Prophase I of meiosis :
?kVukvksa dh igpku djsa (a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(a) letkrh; xq.klw=ksa dk fluSfIll (b) Chromosomes become gradually visible
(b) xq .klw= èkhjs& èkhjs ekbØksL dksi ls fn[kkbZ nsus undermicroscope
yxrs gSa (c) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids
(c) letkrh; xq.klw=ksa ds xSj&larfr ØkseSfVM~l ds chp ofhomologous chromosomes
fofue; (d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) dk,TesVk dk VfeZuyhdj.k (e) Dissolution ofsynaptonemal complex
(e) fluSIVksusey d‚EIysDl dk fo?kVu Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa below:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(3) lHkh (3) All

(4) (a), (c), (d), (e) (4) (a), (c), (d), (e)

123. ikn~i dksf'kdkvksa ls vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ds foyxu ds 123. The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic
fy, ,Utkbe (a) dod ls vkuq o af'kd inkFkZ ds material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for
foyxu ds fy, ,Utkbe (b). isolating genetic material from fungus.
Choose the correct pair of options from the
fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh tksM+s dk fodYi pq us
following :
(1) (a) lsywyst (b) izksVh,t (1) (a) Cellulase (b) Protease
(2) (a) lsywyst (b) dkbVhust (2) (a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase
(3) (a) dkbVhust (b) ykbist (3) (a) Chitinase (b) Lipase
(4) (a) Cellulase (b) Lipase
(4) (a) lsywyst (b) ykbist
124. Select the incorrect match :
124. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa &
lwph-I lwp h -II List-I List-II

(1) ikS/kks ds }kjk PAR – 2 to 10% (1) PAR captured by plants – 2 to 10%
vf/kd`r fd;k gqvk (2) Productivity of ocean – 55 billions tons
(2) leqUnj dh mRikndrk – 55 fcfy;u Vu
(3) Productivity of surface – 65 billions tons
(3) lrg dh mRikndrk – 65 fcfy;u Vu
(4) Productivity of the whole – 170 billions tons
(4) iwjs tho e.My dh – 170 fcfy;u Vu
mRikndrk biosphere

125. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d tSofofo/krk gkWV LikV 125. Which one of the following is not a major
dk izeq[k yk{k.khd xq.k ugha gS characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots?
(1) T;knk la[;k dh tkfr;k¡ (1) Large number of species
(2) LFkkuhd tkfr;ksa dh izpqjrk (2) Abundance of endemic species

(3) m".k dfVcU/k esa T;knkrj fLFkr gSA (3) Mostly located in the tropics

(4) /kzqoh; {ks= esa T;knkrj fLFkr gSA (4) Mostly located in the polar regions

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
126. jlk;u la'ys"kh thok.kq ÅtkZ fdlls iz kIr djrk gS 126. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from
(1) lw;Z (1) Sun
(2) vojDr fdj.k (2) Infrared rays
(3) dkcZfud inkFkZ (3) Organic substances
(4) vdkcZfud jlk;u (4) Inorganic chemicals
127. vxj ykblkslkse esa pH c<+dj {kkjh; gks tk; D;k 127. If the pH in lysosomes is increased to
ifj.kke gksxk ? alkaline,what will be the outcome?
(1) gkbMªkfs yfVd ,Utkbe T;knk n{krk iwoZd dk;Z djrk (1) Hydrolytic enzymes will function more efficiently
gSA
(2) Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive
(2) gkbMªksfyfVd ,Utkbe vfØ; gks tkrs gS
(3) Lysosomal enzymes will be released into
(3) ykblksey ,Utkbe dksf'kdknzO; esa eqDr gksxk the cytoplasm
(4) ykblkslksey ,Utkbe T;knk lfØ; gksxk (4) Lysosomal enzymes will be more active
128. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dkj.k vaxks ds iz R;kjksi.k 128. Which of the following reasons is mainly
esa xz kW¶V fjtsDlu ds fy, eq[; :i ls ftEesnkj responsible for graft rejection in transplantation
gS A of organs ?
(1) xzkgh dh Lo;a vkSj xSj&Lo;a Årdks@dksf'kdkvksa ds (1) Better ability of recipient to differentiate between
chp foHksnu djus dh vPNh {kerk 'self and'non–self' tissues/cells
(2) g;qeksjy izfrj{kh izfrfØ;k (2) Humoral immune response only
(3) Lo&izfrj{kh izfrfØ;k (3) Auto–immune response
(4) dksf'kdk & ekè;hr izfrj{kk (4) Cell–mediated immunity
129. vxj DNA QkLQksjl ds ctk; lYQj j[krk gS vkSj 129. If DNA contained sulphur instead of phosphorus
izksVhu lYQj ds ctk; ^QkLQksjl j[krk gS^ g"ksZ and proteins contained phosphorus instead of
vkSj psl iz;ksx dk D;k ifj.kke gksxk sulphur, what would have been the outcome of
(1) thok.kq dksf'kdkvksa esa dksbZ jsfM;kslfØ; lYQj ugha Hershey and Chase experiment?
gSA (1) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
(2) nksuks jsfM;kslfØ; lYQj vkSj QkWLQksjl thok.kq (2) Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in
dksf'kdkvksa esa gS bacterialcells
(3) jsfM;ks lfØ; lYQj thok.kq dksf'kdkvksa esa gS (3) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells

(4) jsfM;kslfØ; QkWLQksjl thok.kq dksf'kdkvksa esa gSA (4) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells

130. ,d cxhps esa nks frryh ,d iq"i ds ,d gh edjUn 130. Two butterfly species are competing for the same
ds fy, izfrLi/kkZ djrh gSA ,d lkFk lgvfLrRo ds nectar of a flower in a garden. To survive and
fy , v kS j m R rj t h fo r jg us d s f y ,] ; s
iz f rLi/kkZ dks 'kk;n Vky ldrh mlh cxhps es a coexist together, they may avoid competition in
fdlds }kjk the same garden by:
(1) ,d gh le; ij [kkus ls
(1) feeding at the same time
(2) vyx &vyx pkjk [kkstus ds iSVuZ dks pqudj
(2) choosing different foraging patterns
(3) ,d nwljs ij vkØe.k djds le; dh cckZnh dks
c<+kdj (3) increasing time spent on attacking each other
(4) ,d nwljs ij ijHk{k.k djds (4) predating on each other
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
131. i'kqvksa esa eSMdkÅ chekjh vkSj euq ";ksa esa Cr tSdc 131. Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease
chekjh __________________ ds laØe.k }kjk gksrh in humans are due to infection
gS A by__________________ .

(1) thok.kq (1) Bacterium

(2) fo"kk.kq (2) Virus

(3) okbjkbM (3) Viroid

(4) fizvkWu (4) Prion

132. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d vUr%xHkkZ'k; ;qfDr ugha 132. Which of the following is not an Intra Uterine
gS A Device?

(1) ,LVªkstu (1) Estrogen

(2) eYVhyksM 375 (2) Multiload 375

(3) fyisl ywi (3) Lippes loop

(4) izkstsLVklVZ (4) Progestasert

133. lihZ rUrq fl)kUr ds vuqlkj : 133. According to the sliding filament theory:

(1) ,fDVu vkSj ek;kslhu rUrq ,d nwljs ds Åij pyrh gS (1) Actin and myosin filaments slide over each other
lkdksZfe;j dh yEckbZ dks c<+kus ds fy, to increase the length of the sarcomere.

(2) A– iV~Vh dh yEckbZ ugh cnyrh gSA (2) Length of A–band does not change.

(3) I– iV~Vh yEckbZ esa c<+rh gSA (3) I–band increases in length

(4) ,fDVu rUrq A–iV~Vh ls nwj pyh tkrh gSA (4) The actin filaments slide away from A–band
ifj.kkeLo:i lkdksZfe;j NksVk gks tkrk gSA resulting in shortening of sarcomere

134. ikS /kksa }kjk iz dk'k la' ys "k.k ds nkSj ku ,d le; 134. The amount of biomass or organic matter
vof/k esa tSo Hkkj dh ek=k vFkok dkcZfud inkFkZ dk produced per unit area over a time period by
mRiknu dgykrk gS : plants during photosynthesis is called:

(1) f}rh;d mRiknu (1) Secondary production

(2) izkFkfed mRiknu (2) Primary production

(3) ldy izkFkfed mRiknu (3) Gross primary production
(4) usV izkFkfed mRiknu (4) Net primary production
135. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls izdkj dk midyk czkWfUd;ksy 135. Which of the following types of epithelium is
vkSj QSyksfi;u ufydk esa mifLFkr gS? present in the bronchioles and Fallopian tubes?
(1) ljy 'kYdh midyk (1) Simple squamous epithelium
(2) ljy LrEHkkdkj midyk (2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) d'kkHkh; midyk (3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) LVªSVhQkbM 'kYdh midyk (4) Stratified squamous epithelium
136. i'pfo"kk.kq ds lUnHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa: 136. Choose the correct option regarding Retrovirus:
(1) ,d RNA fo"kk.kq gS tks laØe.k ds nkSjku DNA dk (1) An RNA virus that synthesises DNA during
la'ys"k.k djrk gS
infection
(2) ,d DNA fo"kk.kq tks laØe.k ds nkSjku RNA dk
la'ys"k.k djrk gS (2) A DNA virus that synthesises RNA during infection

(3) ,d ,dy LVªSUMsM DNA fo"kk.kq (3) A single stranded DNA virus

(4) ,d dsRNA fo"kk.kq (4) A dsRNA virus

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
137. xkÅV ,d izdkj dk fodkj gS tks fd usr`Ro djrk 137. Gout is a type of disorder which leads to:
gS A
(1) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of
(1) ;qjhd vEy fØLVy ds tek gksus ds dkj.k tksM+ksa esa uric acid crystals
'kksFk
(2) Weakening of bones due to decreased bone mass
(2) vfLFk lkexzh ?kVus ds dkj.k vfLFk dk detksj gksuk
(3) mikfLFk dk fo?kVu tksM+ks ds 'kksFk ds dkj.k (3) Inflammation of joints due to cartilage degeneration

(4) de dSfY'k;e Lrj ds dkj.k vfLFk dk detksj gksuk (4) Weakening of bones due to low calcium level

138. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku tS o {kerk ds 138. Which of the following statements are correct with
lUnHkZ esa lgh gSA respect to vital capacity?

(a) blesa ERV, TV vkSj IRV 'kkfey gS (a) It includes ERV, TV and IRV

(b) ,d O;fDr lkekU; fu%'olu ds ckn dqy ok;q dk (b) Total volume of air a person can inspire after

vk;ru vUr%'olu djrk gS a normal expiration

(c) cyiwoZd fu%'olu ds ckn mPpre ok;q dk vk;ru (c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe

,d O;fDr 'olu ls vUnj ysrk gS in after forced expiration

(d) It includes ERV, RV and IRV.

(d) blesa ERV, RV vkSj IRV 'kkfey gS
(e) The maximum volume of air a person can breath
(e) cyiwoZd vUr% 'olu ds ckn mPpre ok;q dk vk;ru
out after a forced inspiration.
,d O;fDr ckgj Hkstrk gSA
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%
options given below:
(1) (b), (d) vkSj (e)
(1) (b), (d) and (e)
(2) (a), (c) vkSj (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) vkSj (e) (3) (a), (c) and (e)
(4) (a) vkSj (e) (4) (a) and (e)
139. ikpu iFk vkSj ;d` r ds chp ,d vf}rh; laoguh 139. A unique vascular connection between the
tqM+ko dgykrk gS A digestive tract and liver is called _____________.

(1) ;d`r & vXuk'k;h rU= (1) Hepato–pancreatic system

(2) Hepatic portal system
(2) ;d`r fuokfgdk rU=
(3) Renal portal system
(3) fjuy fuokfgdk rU=
(4) Hepato–cystic system
(4) ;d`r&flLVhd rU=
140. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for
140. dqN [kxksy oS K kfud ^iS u&LifeZ ;k* dks vHkh Hkh
viuk euilanhnk fl)kUr ekurs gSa] eryc gS : some astronomers, means :

(1) e`r vkSj lM+rs gq, inkFkZ ls thou dk fuekZ.k (1) Creation of life from dead and decaying matter

(2) jlk;uksa ls thou dk fuekZ.k (2) Creation of life from chemicals

(3) ekuo o`"k.k esa 'kqØk.kq dh mRifRr (3) Origin of sperm in human testes
(4) thou dh bdkbZ ds :i esa i`Foh ds nwljs xzgksa ls (4) Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets
LFkkukUrj.k of Earth
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
141. nqX/k xzfUFk ds vo;o dks O;ofLFkr djsa ¼lehiLFk 141. Arrange the components of mammary gland.
ls nwjLFk½ (from proximal to distal)
(a) Mammary duct
(a) Lru us yh
(b) Lactiferous duct
(b) ySDVhQsjl uyh
(c) Alveoll
(c) dwfidk (d) Mammary ampulla
(d) Lru ,Eiwyk (e) Mammary tubules
(e) Lru ufydk,¡ Choose the most appropriate answer from the

uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% options given below :

(1) (c)  (a)  (d)  (e)  (b) (1) (c)  (a)  (d)  (e)  (b)

(2) (b)  (c)  (e)  (d)  (a) (2) (b)  (c)  (e)  (d)  (a)
(3) (c)  (e)  (a)  (d)  (b) (3) (c)  (e)  (a)  (d)  (b)
(4) (e)  (c)  (d)  (b)  (a) (4) (e)  (c)  (d)  (b)  (a)
142. is Mhxz h fo'ys"k.k es a mi;ksx gksus okys iz rhd ds 142. Select the incorrect match regarding the symbols
lUnHkZ esa xyr vuq :irk dk p;u djsa used in Pedigree analysis:

(1) – fyax dk mYys[k ugha (1) – Sex unspecified

(2) – izHkkfor O;fDr (2) – Affected individual

(3) – lejDr lekxe

(3) – Consanguineous mating

(4) – fcekjh ls izHkkfor uj cPps ds

(4) – Parent with male child affected with
lkFk iSjsUV disease
143. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh fof/k ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa 143. Which of the following methods is not commonly
lkekU;r% ckgjh DNA dks iz fo"V djus ds fy, used for introducing foreign DNA into the plant
bLrseky ugha gksrk gSA cell?
(1) ,xzkscSDVhfj;e ek/;hr :ikUrj.k (1) Agrobacterium mediated transformation
(2) thu xu (2) Gene gun
(3) 'vgkfudkjd jksxtud' okgd (3) 'Disarmed pathogen' vectors
(4) thok.kqHkksth (4) Bacteriophages
144. ekuo efLr"d ds {ks= dks igpkusa tks fd U;weksVSfDld 144. Identify the region of human brain which has
dsUnz j[krk gS tks 'olu nj dks vUr%'olu dh pneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory rate
vof/k dks de djds cnyrk gSA by reducing the duration of inspiration.
(1) esM~;wyk (1) Medulla
(2) iksUl (2) Pons

(3) FkSyes l (3) Thalamus

(4) lsjhcze (4) Cerebrum

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
145. 400 feyh;u LiesZ Vkstksvk dks cukus ds fy, fdrus 145. How many secondary spermatocytes are required
f}rh;d LiesZVkslkbV~ l dh vko';drk gksxh to form 400 million spermatozoa ?

(1) 50 feyh;u (1) 50 million

(2) 100 feyh;u (2) 100 million

(3) 200 feyh;u (3) 200 million

(4) 400 feyh;u (4) 400 million

146. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku is'kh; Ård ds 146. Choose the correct statement about a muscular
fo"k; esa lgh gS : tissue:

(1) dadkyh; is'kh rUrq ,ddsUnzdh; vkSj lekukrj c.Myksa (1) Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and found
esa ik;k tkrk gS in parallel bundles.
(2) Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle cells
vUrZfo"V fMLd ân is'kh dksf'kdkvksa dks ,d bZdkbZ ds
(2)
to contract as a unit.
:i esa ladqfpr djus dh vuqefr nsrh gS
(3) The walls of blood vessels are made up of
(3) jDr okfgdkvksa dh fnokj LrEHkkdkj midyk dk cuk
columnar epithelium.
gksrk gS
(4) Smooth muscles are multinucleated and
(4) fpduh is'kh cgqdsUnzdh; vkSj vuSfPNd gksrh gS involuntary
147. (A) 147. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) ls yscYM gS asAssertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
vfHkdFku (A) : FSH tks fd f>Yyhc) xzkgh ls tqM+k gksrk
gSA y{; dksf'kdk esa cgqr vklkuh ls izos'k djrk gSA Assertion (A) : FSH which interacts with membrane
bound receptors very easily enter the target cell.
dkj.k (R) : FSH dk blds xzkgh ls tqMu+ k f}rh; lUns'kokgd
Reason (R) : Binding of FSH to its receptors generates
¼pØh; AMP½ mRiUu djrk gSA blds tSojklk;fud vkSj
second messenger (cyclic AMP) for its biochemical
dkf;Zdh; izfrfØ;k ds fy,
and physiological responses.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa mostappropriate answer from the options given
(1) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gS below ;
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gS
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
djrk gSA
correctexplanation of (A)
(4) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
O;k[;ku ugh djrk gSA correctexplanation of (A)
148. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 148. Select the incorrect match

(1) Ldkfy;ksMkWu & oVhZczsVk (1) Scoliodon – Vertebrata

(2) fgIiksdSEil & uSFkksLVksesVk (2) Hippocampus – Gnathostomata

(3) dhyksu & ihlst (3) Chelone – Pisces

(4) Vsjksil & VsVªkiksMk (4) Pteropus – Tetrapoda

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
149. (A) 149. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) ls yscYM gS asAssertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
vfHkdFku (A) : xHkkZoLFkk ds nkSjku FkkbjkWfDlu dk Lrj
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of thyroxine
ekr` 'kjhj ds jDr esa c<+ tkrk gSA
is increased in the maternal blood.
dkj.k (R) : xHkkZoLFkk ekrk ds vUnj mikip;h cnyko Reason (R) : Pregnancy is not characterised by
}kjk yk{kf.kr ugha gksrk gSA metabolic changes in the mother.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa mostappropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
djrk gSA
correct explanation of (A)
(2) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
O;k[;ku ugh djrk gSA correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gS (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(4) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gS (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

150. lkbDyksLVksEl ds fy, xyr dFku dk p;u djsa : 150. Select the Incorrect statements with respect to
Cyclostomes :
(a) buds ikl LdsYl vkSj ;qfXer QhUl dk vHkko gksrk
gSA (a) They lack scales and paired fins.

(b) ;s tcM+s ds lkFk pØh; eq[k j[krs gSaA (b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.

(c) ;s 6-15 tksM+s fxYl ds j[krs gSaA (c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.

(d) ;s xgjs leqnz esa v.Ms nsus ds fy, izokl djrs gSaA (d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.

uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj dk Choose the most appropriate answer from the
p;u djsa: optionsgiven below :
(1) (a) vkSj (b) (1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) vkSj (c) (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) vkSj (d) (3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) vkSj (d) (4) (a) and (d) only
151. lgh dFku dk p;u djsa: 151. Choose the correct statements :
(a) vfLFk dksey Årdksa vkSj vaxks dks lgkjk nsrk gS (a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and

(b) Hkkj lgus okys dk;Z ikn vfLFk;ksa }kjk fd, tkrs gS organs
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones
(c) Luk;q jDr dksf'kdkvksa ds fuekZ.k dk LFky gS
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood cells.
(d) olh; Ård olk dk laxzg.k djus ds fy, fo'ks"khd`r
gksrh gS (d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.

(e) d.Mjk,¡ ,d vfLFk dks nwljs ls tksM+rh gSA (e) Tendons attach one bone to another.

uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj dk Choose the most appropriate answer from the
p;u djsa: options given below :

(1) (a), (b) vkSj (d) dsoy (1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) vkSj (e) dsoy (2) (b), (c) and (e) only

(3) (a), (c) vkSj (d) dsoy (3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) vkSj (e) dsoy (4) (a), (b) and (e) only

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
152. ckboSysUV vFkok prq"d dk fuekZ .k ,d yk{k.khd 152. Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a characteristic
xq.k gSA tks fdlds nkSjku ns[kus dks feyrk gSA feature observed during :
(1) ;qXeiV~V voLFkk esa flusIVksuhey lfEeJ (1) Synaptonemal complex in zygotene stage
(2) f}iV~V voLFkk esa dkW,TesVk (2) Chiasmata in Diplotene stage
(3) LFkwyiV~V voLFkk esa flusIVksuhey lfEeJ (3) Synaptonemal complex in Pachytene stage
(4) ;qXeiV~V voLFkk esa dk,TesVk (4) Chiasmata in zygotene stage

153. ,d lkekU; yM+dh ftldh ekrk fgeksQhfyd Fkh dk 153. A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic
fookg ,d uj ds lkFk ftldk dksbZ Hkh fgeksQhfy;k marries a male with no ancestral history of
dk iwoZ t bfrgkl ugha gSA lUrfr dh D;k lEHkkfor haemophilia.What will be the possible
QhuksVkbi gksx h phenotypes of the offsprings ?

(a) fgeksQhfyd iq= vkSj fgeksQhfyd iq=h (a) Haemophilic son and haemophilic daughter.

(b) fgeksQhfyd iq= vkSj okgd iq=h (b) Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.

(c) lkekU; iq=h vkSj lkekU; iq= (c) Normal daughter and normal son.

(d) Normal son and haemophilic daughter.

(d) lkekU; iq= vkSj fgeksQhfyd iq=h
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%
optionsgiven below :
(1) dsoy (a) vkSj (b)
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) dsoy (b) vkSj (c)
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) dsoy (a) vkSj (d) (3) (a) and (d) only
(4) dsoy (b) vkSj (d) (4) (b) and (d) only
154. IUDs IykLVhd vFkok dkWij dk cuk gqvk oLrq gksrk 154. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or
gS tks fd xHkkZ'k;h xq gk esa izfo"V fd;k tkrk gS copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity.
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku IUDs ds fo"k; esa Which of the following statements are correct
lgh gS about IUDs ?

(a) IUDs xHkkZ'k; ds vUnj 'kqØk.kq ds Hk{k.k dks ?kVkrk (a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within
gSA the uterus.
(b) eqDr gqvk dkWij vk;Ul 'kqØk.kq dh xfr'khyrk dks (b) The released copper ions suppress the sperm
voeUnhr djrk gS motility.
(c) IUDs 'kqØk.kq ds fy, xzhok dks izfrdwy ugha cukrh gS (c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
(d) IUDs 'kqØk.kq dh fu"kspu {kerk dks voeUnhr djrk gS (d) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.

(e) IUDs dks xHkkZ'k; xqgk esa izfo"Vh ds fy, 'kY;fØ;k (e) The IUDs require surgical intervention for
gLr{ksi dh vko';drk gksrh gS their insertion in the uterine cavity.
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj dk Choose the most appropriate answer from the
p;u djsa: options given below :
(1) (a), (d) vkSj (e) dsoy (1) (a), (d) and (e) only
(2) (b) vkSj (c) dsoy (2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b) vkSj (d) dsoy (3) (b) and (d) only

(4) (d) dsoy (4) (d) only

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
155. ,xjkst tsy bysDVªksQksjsfll ds fy, fuEufyf[kr 155. Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel
dFkuksa ds lEcU/k esa electrophoresis :
(a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from sea-
(a) ,xjkst ,d izkd`frd ikWyhej leqnzh [kjirokj ls
weed.
izkIr gksrh gSA
(b) The separation of DNA molecules in agarose-
(b) ,xjkst tsy bysDVªkQ s ksjsfll esa DNA v.kqvksa dk vyx gel electrophoresis depends on the size of DNA.
i`FkDdj.k DNA ds vkdkj ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(c) The DNA migrates from negatively-
(c) DNA _.kkRed vkosf'kr bysDVªksM ls /kukRed vkosf'kr charged electrode to the positively-charged
bysDVªksM dh vksj pyrk gS electrode
(d) DNA /kukRed vkosf'kr bysDVªkM s ls _.kkRed vkosf'kr (d) The DNA migrates from positively-charged
bysDVªksM dh vksj pyrk gSA electrode to the negatively-charged electrode.

uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) dsoy (a) vkSj (b)
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) dsoy (a), (b) vkSj (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) dsoy (a), (b) vkSj (d) (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) dsoy (b), (c) vkSj (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
156. lwph-I dks lwph-II ls lqesfyr djsa 156. Match List-I with List-II
lw ph -I lwp h -II List-I List-II

(a) cgq/kzqoh; U;wjkWu (i) dkf;d rfU=dk rU= (a) Multipolar neuron (i) Somatic neural system

(b) f}/kzqoh; U;wjku (ii) lsjhczy cYdqV (b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex
(c) Myelinated nerve (iii) Retina of Eye
(c) ekbyhusVsM rfU=dk (iii) vk¡[k dh jsfVuk
fibre
rUrq
(d) Unmyelinated (iv) Spinal nerves
(d) vuekbyhusVsM (iv) Likbuy rfU=dk
nerve fibre
rfU=dk rUrq
Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
157. dkWdjksp esa lHkh mRltZ u dk dk;Z Z djrs gSA fdldks 157. Excretion in cockroach is performed by all,
Nks M + d j EXCEPT :
(1) ;qjhdksl xzfUFk (1) Urecose glands
(2) eSyihth;u ufydk;sa (2) Malpighian tubules
(3) olk dk; (3) Fat body
(4) fgiSfVd lhdk (4) Hepatic caeca
158. Select the correct statement regarding mutation
158. tSo fodkl ds mRifjorZ u fl)kUr ds lUnHkZ esa lgh
dFku dk p;u djsa theory of evolution.

(1) ;g fl)kUr vYÝsM oSysl ds }kjk fn;k x;k Fkk (1) This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace

(2) fofHkUurk,¡ NksVh fn'kkRed cnyko gksrh gS (2) Variations are small directional changes

(3) ,dy pj.k cM+k mRifjorZu tk¡fr fuekZ.k dk ,d (3) Single step large mutation is a cause of speciation
dkj.k gS
(4) Large differences due to mutations arise gradually
(4) ,d tula[;k esa mRifjorZu ds dkj.k yxkrkj cM+k
in a population
vUrj mRiUu gksrk gSA
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
159. ekuo esa jDr esa laxfBr inkFkZ dks budh izpqjrk ds 159. Arrange the following formed elements in the
vuq lkj ?kVrs gq, Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsa : decreasing order of their abundance in blood in
humans :
(a) IysVysV~l
(a) Platelets
(b) U;wVªkQ
s hYl
(b) Neutrophils
(c) bfjFkzkslkbV~l (c) Erythrocytes
(d) b;kslhuksQhYl (d) Eosinophils
(e) eksukslkbV~l (e) Monocytes
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj dk Choose the most appropriate answer from the
p;u djsa: optionsgiven below :
(1) (c), (a), (b), (e), (d) (1) (c), (a), (b), (e), (d)
(2) (c), (b), (a), (e), (d) (2) (c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
(3) (d), (e), (b), (a), (c) (3) (d), (e), (b), (a), (c)
(4) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e) (4) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
160. ,Utkbe esa tks fd VwVus dks mRiz sfjr djrk gSA 160. In the enzyme which catalyses the breakdown
iz ksLFkS fVd lewg gSA of:
H2O2  H2O + O2 H2O2  H2O + O2
the prosthetic group is :
(1) fudksfVukekbM ,Mhuhu MkbZU;wfDy;ksVkbM
(1) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(2) fge
(2) Haem
(3) ftUd (3) Zinc
(4) fu;klhu (4) Niacin
161. 5' UAC 3', dksM ku ds fo:)] tRNA ij ,UVhdksMku 161. Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be the
dk D;k Øe gksxk sequence of anticodon on tRNA ?
(1) 5' AUG 3' (1) 5' AUG 3'
(2) 5' ATG 3' (2) 5' ATG 3'
(3) 5' GTA 3' (3) 5' GTA 3'

(4) 5' GUA 3 (4) 5' GUA 3

162. lgh dFkuksa dk p;u djsa 162. Select the correct statements.

(a) ,fUt;ksVsUlhu II ,Mªhuy oYdqV dks fØ;k'khy djrk (a) Angiotensin II activates the cortex of adrenal
gS ,YMksLVhjkWu dks eqDr djus ds fy, gland to release aldosterone.
(b) ,YMksLVhjkWu jDr nkc esa c<+ksRrjh djrk gS (b) Aldosterone leads to increase in blood pressure.
(c) ANF jsfuu (renin)-,fUt;ksVsUlhu fØ;kfof/k dks jksdrk (c) ANF acts as a check on renin-
gS angiotensin mechanism.
(d) ADH okfgdk dk izlkj djrk gS (d) ADH causes vasodilation.
(e) oSlksizslhu ,MhuksgkbiksQkbfll ls eqDr gksrk gS (e) Vasopressin is released from adenohypophysis.
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qDr mRrj dk Choose the most appropriate answer from the
p;u djsa: optionsgiven below :
(1) dsoy (a), (b) vkSj (e) (1) (a), (b) and (e) only
(2) dsoy (c), (d) vkSj (e) (2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) dsoy (b), (c) vkSj (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) dsoy (a), (b) vkSj (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c) only

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
163. e/;koLFkk ds lUnHkZ esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk 163. With respect to metaphase, which of the following
dFku xyr gSA statements is incorrect ?

(1) iw.kZ:i ls dsUnzd vkoj.k dk fo?kVu gksrk gS (1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
takes place
(2) xq.klw= T;knk la?kfur gksrh gS
(2) Chromosomes are highly condensed
(3) e/;koLFkk xq.klw= fcUnq ds }kjk ,d lkFk tqM+h gqbZ (3) Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four
pkj lUrfr v/kZxq.klw= ls feydj cuh gksrh gS sister chromatids held together by centromere
(4) xq.klw= dksf'kdk ds Hkweè; ij fLFkr gksrk gS (4) Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell
164. 'kjhj esa ADA ds fuekZ.k dk LFky gS 164. The site of production of ADA in the body is:

(1) bfjFkzkslkbV (1) Erythrocytes

(2) fyEQkslkbV (2) Lymphocytes
(3) jDr IykTek (3) Blood plasma
(4) vkWLVh;ksalkbV~l (4) Osteocytes
165. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 165. Select the correct match
(1) U;weksfu;k gheksQhyl dod (1) Pneumonia Haemophilus Fungi
bU¶yw,Uth influenzae

(2) eysfj;k IykteksMh;e thok.kq (2) Malaria Plasmodium Bacteria

okbosDl vivax

(3) fMlsUVªh ,UVvehck izksVkstksvk (3) Dysentary Entamoeba Protozoa

fgLVksfyfVdk histolytica

(4) nkn ekbØksLiksje fo"kk.kq (4) Ringworm Microsporum Virus

166. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa% 166. Select the incorrect match

A. dksdsu – rfU=dk lapkjh Mksikehu ds A. Cocaine – Inferfere with the transport

ifjogu esa gLr{kssi djrk of the neurotransmitter
gSA dopamine.

B. csUtksMkbtsihUl – ekufld fodkj esa vkS"kf/k B. Benzodiazepenes – Used as medicines in

ds :i esa mi;ksx mental illness
C. rEckdw /kweziku – QsQM+s dk dSUlj C. Tobacco – Lung cancer

D. ekQhZu – lkekU;r% lwW?kdj vkSj smoke

bUtsd'ku }kjk fy;k tkrk D. Morphine – Generally taken by
gSA snorting and injection
(1) A, B, C (1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D (2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D (3) A, C, D

(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
167. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 167. Select the incorrect match
dkWye I dkWye II Column I Column II
(1) ck;ksIlh dSUlj dh igpku (1) Biopsy Cancer detection
(2) fgLVksiSFkksykthdy dSUlj dh igpku (2) Histopathological Cancer detection
vè;;u studies
(3) foMky ijh{k.k dSUlj dh igpku (3) Widal test Diagnosis of cancer
(4) AIDS ejht ekbdkscSDVhfj;e vkSj (4) AIDS patient susceptile for infection
VksDlksIyktek ds laØe.k
of Mycobacterium and
ds fy, laosnu'khy
Toxoplasma
168. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa %
168. Given below are two statements
dFku -I:
Statement I:
ykbdsu  ;g Loiks"kh vkSj fo"keiks"kh tho ds chp Lichen  It is the association between autotrophic
lEcU/k gSA and heterotrophic organism.
dFku - II : Statement II :
dod ewy  ;g Loiks"kh vkSj fo"keiks"kh tho ds chp Mycorrhiza  It is the association between autotrophic
lEcU/k gSA and heterotrophic organism.
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
169. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa %
169. Given below are two statements
dFku -I: Statement I:

 tUeksRrj O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k tuu{ke  Number of post reproductive individual

O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k ls de gksrh gSA are lower than reproductive individual.

dFku - II : Statement II :

 Number of post reproductive individual

 tUeksRrj O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k tuu{ke O;fDr;ksa
are lower than reproductive individual.
dh la[;k ls de gksrh gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
170. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 170. Select the correct match
oSKkfud uke vkMZ j Scientific name Order
A. iSUFksjk ikjMl QsyhMh A. Panthera pardus Felidae
B. lksyus e eSyksutsuk lksyus slh B. Solanum melongena Solanaceae
C. eLdk MksesLVhdk fMIVsjk C. Musca domestica Diptera
D. eSUthQsjk bfUMdk lSfiUMsYl D. Mangifera indica Sapindales

E. gkseks lSfi,Ul izkbesVk E. Homo sapiens Primata

(1) A, C, D, E (2) C, D, E (1) A, C, D, E (2) C, D, E
(3) dsoy D, E (4) B, D, E (3) Only D, E (4) B, D, E
171. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 171. Select the correct match
A. Monera Some member lack a
A. eksujs k dqN lnL; esa ,d dksf'kdk
cell wall
fHkRrh dk vHkko gksrk gS B. Protista Some member are
B. izksfVLVk dqN lnL; izdk'kla'ys"kh gS photosynthetic and some
are saprophytic
vkSj dqN e`rksithoh gS
C. Fungi Some are edible
C. dod dqN [kkus ;ksX; gS D. Animalia All are heterotrophic
D. ,uheSfy;k lHkh fo"keiks"kh gS (1) Only A, B, C
(2) Only B, C, D
(1) dsoy A, B, C (2) dsoy B, C, D (3) Only A, C, D
(3) dsoy A, C, D (4) lHkh (4) All
172. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 172. Select the incorrect match
Column–I Column-II Column-III
dkWy e –I dkWy e -II dkWye -III
(Phylum)
(Qkbye)

A. Echinodermata
A. bdkbuksMesZVk

B. vkFkzksZiksMk B. Arthropoda

C. IySVhgSfYeUFkht C. Platyhelminthes

D. dkMsZVk D. Chordata

(1) A, B (2) dsoy B (1) A, B (2) Only B

(3) A, C, D (4) C, D (3) A, C, D (4) C, D

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
173. QScl
s h ds fy, xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 173. Select the incorrect match for Fabaceae family

(1) iqeax – MkbMsYQl (1) Androecium – Diadelphous

(2) Gynoecium – Monocarpellary
(2) xkbukslh;e – ,dv.Mih
(3) Fruit – Legume
(3) Qy – ysX;we
(4) Flower – Bisexual and
(4) iq"i – f}fyaxh vkSj ,fDVuksekQhZd
Actinomorphic
174. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 174. Select the correct match
dkWye I dkWye II Column I Column II

A. gkbiksxkbul I. fgfcLdl A. Hypogynous I. Hibiscus

B. isjhxkbul II. xqykc B. Perigynous II. Rose

C. Epigynous III. Ray florets of
C. bihxkbul III. gsyh,UFkl dk js ¶yksjsV~l
Helianthus
D. isjh,UFk IV. dSfyDl vkSj dksjksyk
D. Perianth IV. Calyx and corolla
foHksfnr ugha gSA
are not distinct
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
175. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a % 175. Given below are two statements
dFku -I: Statement I:

 dksf'kdk,¡ lkekU;r% leku O;kl dh gksrh gS  Cells are generally isodiametric and

vkSj cgqr lkjs dk;Z djrh gS tSls fd izdk'k la'ys"k.k] performs various functions like photosynthesis,
laxzg.k] lzko.kA storage, secretion.

dFku - II : Statement II :

 dksf'kdk,¡ fcuk dksf'kdknzO; dh gksrh gS vkSj lHkh Cells are without protoplasm and in all vascular

laoguh ikniksa esa ;g eq[; ty ifjogu djus okyk rRo gSA plants it is main water transporting elements.

uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
176. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 176. Given below are two statements

dFku -I: Statement I:

dqN la;ksth Ård esa QSxkslhVhd dksf'kdk;sa mifLFkr gksrh In some connective tissue phagocytic cells are
gSA present.

dFku - II : Statement II :

lHkh la;ksth Ård esa fo'ks"khd`r dksf'kdk;sa lajpukRed In All connective tissue the specialised cells secrete
izksVhUl dh rUrq lzkfor djrh gSA ftls dksyStu vFkok fibers of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
bykLVhu dgrs gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
177. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 177. Given below are two statements
dFku -I: Statement I:
ifjiDou ij bfjFkzkslkbV ds ikl dsUnzd dk vHkko gksrk gS At maturation the erythrocytes lack nucleus and they
vkSj ;s e`r dksf'kdk;sa gks tkrh gSA become dead cells.

dFku - II : Statement II :

ftEuksLieZ dh ifjiDo pkyhuh ufydk dksf'kdkvksa ds ikl Mature seive tube cells of gymnosperm lack nucleus.
dsUnzd dk vHkko gksrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:

(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
178. Select the incorrect match
178. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
(1) No well defined – Cyanobacteria
(1) dksbZ Li"V – lk;ukscSDVhfj;k
nucleus
dsUnzd ugha
(2) Mesosome – Characteristic of
(2) ehtkslkse – izksdSfj;ksV~l dk y{k.k prokaryotes
(3) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k – tsyh eNyh esa ATP (3) Mitochondria and – Site of ATP formation
vkSj gfjryod fuekZ.k dk LFky chloroplasts in jelly fish
(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–42 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /12-Mar-2025
179. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a % 179. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
dFku - I : HkkSfrd izfØ;k  tc cQZ ikuh esa fi?kyrh gS
vFkok tc ty ok"i curh gSA Physical process  when ice melts into water, or when
water becomes a vapour.
dFku - II : jklk;fud izfØ;k  LVkpZ dk Xywdkst esa
Statement II :
futZyhdj.k
Chemical process  Hydrolysis of starch into glucose
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa Choose the correct answer from the option given
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
180. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa% 180. Select the incorrect match
y{k.k C3 ikni C4 ikni Characteristics C3 plants C4 plants
(1) izkFkfed CO2 RuBP PEP
(1) Primary CO2 RuBP PEP
xzkgd
acceptor
(2) izkFkfed CO2 PGA OAA
(2) The primary CO2 PGA OAA
fLFkjhdj.k mRikn
fixation product
(3) dksf'kdk dh izdkj i.kZe/;ksrd c.My
(3) Cell type in which Mesophyll Bundle
ftlesa 'kq:vkrh 'khFk
the initial sheath
dkckZDlhys'ku dksf'kdk,W
carboxylation cells
vfHkfØ;k ik;h
tkrh gSA reaction occurs

(4) izkFkfed CO2 5 3 (4) Number of carbons 5 3

xzkgd esa dkcZu in the primary CO2

ijek.kq dh la[;k acceptor

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