1

HINDU HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL , KIZHAPULIOOR ,

TENKASI.
CLASS : X SUBJECT : SOCIAL SCIENCE
ONE MARK QUESTIONS ALL LESONS
BOOK BACK ONE MARK QUESTIONS

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER

( HISTORY )

1) What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?

a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans

b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy

2) Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close
of nineteenth century?

a) China b) Japan c) Korea d) Mongolia

3) Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?

a) Lenin b) Marx c) Sun Yat-sen d) Mao Tsetung

4) What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?

a) air warfare b) trench warfare c) submarine warfare d) ship warfare

 2

5) To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations

belong?

a) Britain b) France c) Dutch d) USA

6) Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking
Finland?

a) Germany. b) Russia c) Italy d) France

7) With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?

a) Germany b) Russia c) Pope d) Spain

8) With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?

a) Hernan Cortes b) Francisco Pizarro c) Toussaint Louverture d) Pedro I

9) Who made Peru as part of their dominions?

a) English b) Spaniards c) Russians d) French

10) Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin
America?

a) Franklin D. Roosevelt b) Truman c) Woodrow Wilson d) Eisenhower

11) Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?

a) Europe b) Latin America c) India d) China

 3

12) When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?

a) 2 September, 1945 b) 2 October, 1945

c) 15 August, 1945 d) 12 October, 1945

13) Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?

a) Roosevelt b) Chamberlain c) Woodrow Wilson d) Baldwin

14) Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?

a) Battle of Guadalcanal b) Battle of Midway

c) Battle of Leningrad d) Battle of El Alamein

15) Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?

a) Kavashaki b) Tokyo c) Hiroshima d) Nagasaki

16) Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?

a) Russians b) Arabs c) Turks d) Jews

17) Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany ?

a) Chamberlain b) Winston Churchill c) Lloyd George d) Stanley Baldwin

18) When was the Charter of the UN signed?

a) June 26, 1942 b) June 26, 1945 c) January 1, 1942 d) January 1, 1945
 4

19) Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?.

a) Woodrow Wilson b) Truman c) Theodore Roosevelt d) Franklin Roosevelt

20) When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?

a) September 1959 b) September 1948 c) September 1954 d) September 1949

21) The United States and European allies formed to resist any Soviet
aggression in Europe.

a) SEATO b) NATO c) SENTO d) Warsaw Pact

22) Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?

a) Hafez al-Assad b) Yasser Arafat c) Nasser d) Saddam Hussein

23) When was North and South Vietnam united?

a) 1975 b) 1976 c) 1973 d) 1974

24) When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?

a) 1979 b) 1989. c) 1990 d) 1991

25) In which year was Sati abolished?

a) 1827 b) 1829 c) 1826 d) 1927

26) What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?

a) Arya Samaj b) Brahmo Samaj c) Prarthana Samaj d) Adi Brahmo Samaj

 5

27) Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform
Act of 1856?

a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar b) Raja Rammohan Roy

c) Annie Besant d) Jyotiba Phule

28) Whose voice was Rast Goftar?

a) Parsi Movement b) Aligarh Movement

c) Ramakrishna Mission d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha

29) Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?

a) Baba Dayal Das. b) Baba Ramsingh

c) Gurunanak d) Jyotiba Phule

30) Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?

a) Mahadev Govind Ranade b) Devendranath Tagore

c ) Jyotiba Phule d) Ayyankali

31) Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash ?

a) Dayananda Saraswathi b) Iyothee Thassar

c) Annie Besant d) Narayana Guru

32) Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of
territorial aggrandizement?

a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar

c) Velunachiyar d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
 6

33) Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?

a) Velunachiyar b) Kattabomman c) Puli Thevar d) Oomai thurai

34) Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?

a) Kayathar b) Nagalapuram c) Virupachi d) Panchalamkurichi

35) Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?

a) Marudhu brothers b) Puli Thevar

c) Veerapandya Kattabomman d) Gopala Nayak

36) When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?

a) 24 May 1805 b) 10 July 1805 c) 10 July 1806 d) 10 September 1806

37) Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations
in Vellore fort?

a) Col. Fancourt b) Major Armstrong c) Sir John Cradock d) Colonel Agnew

38) Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?

a) Calcutta b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Mysore

39) Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East
Bengal?

a) Wahhabi Rebellion b) Farazi Movement c) Tribal uprising d) Kol Revolt

 7

40) Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was
against divine law?

a) Titu Mir b) Sidhu c) Dudu Mian d) Shariatullah

41) Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins
under Permanent Settlement?

a) Santhals b) Titu Mir c) Munda d) Kol

42) Find out the militant nationalist from the following.

a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) Justice Govind Ranade

c) Bipin Chandra pal d) Romesh Chandra

43) When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?

a) 19 June 1905 b) 18 July 1906 c) 19 August 1907 d) 16 October 1905

44) What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed?

a) Kol Revolt b) Indigo Revolt c) Munda Rebellion d) Deccan Riots

45) Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?

a) Annie Basant b) Bipin Chandra Pal c) Lala Lajpat Rai d) Tilak

46) Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through
his play Nil darpan?

a) Dina Bandhu Mitra b) Romesh Chandra Dutt

c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) Birsa Munda
 8

47) Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?

a) Motilal Nehru b) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew

c) Mohamed Ali d) Raj Kumar Shukla

48) In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation

approved?

a) Bombay b) Madras c) Calcutta d) Lucknow

49) Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?

a) 26th January 1930 b) 26th December 1929

c) 16th June 1946 d) 15th January 1947

50) When was the first Forest Act enacted?

a) 1858 b) 1911 c) 1865 d) 1936

51) On 8 January 1933 which day was observed

a) Temple Entry Day b) Day of Deliverance

c) Direct Action Day d) Independence Day

52) Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?

a) 1858 Act b) Indian Councils Act, 1909

c) Government of India Act, 1919 d) Government of India Act, 1935

53) Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?

a) T.M. Nair b) P. Rangaiah c) G. Subramaniam d) G.A. Natesan

 9

54) Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?

a) Marina b) Mylapore c) Fort St. George d) Thousand Lights

55) Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?

a) Annie Besant b) M. Veeraraghavachari

c) B.P. Wadia d) G.S. Arundale

56) Who among the following were Swarajists?

a) S. Satyamurti b) Kasturirangar c) P. Subbarayan d) Periyar EVR

57) Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?

a) K. Kamaraj b) C. Rajaji c) K. Santhanam d) T. Prakasam

58) Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?

a) Erode b) Madras c) Salem d) Madurai

59) established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.

a) Caldwell b) F.W. Ellis c) Ziegenbalg d) Meenakshisundaram

60) founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.

a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan b) B. R. Ambedkar c) Rajaji d) M. C. Rajah

 10

61) India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in

a) 1918 b) 1917 c) 1916 d) 1914

62) was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of
Government officials.

a) Staff Selection Board b) Public Service Commission

c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board d) Staff Selection Commission

63) was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed class in
Madras Province.

a) M. C. Rajah b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan c) T.M. Nair d) P. Varadarajulu

( GEOGRAPHY )

64) The north-south extent of India is

a. 2,500 km b. 2,933 km c. 3,214 km d. 2,814 km

65) _________ River is known as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.

a. Narmada b. Godavari c. Kosi d. Damodar

66) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _________.

a. Coast b. Island c. Peninsula d. Strait

 11

67) The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _______

a. Goa b. West Bengal c. Sri Lanka d. Maldives

68) The highest peak in South India is

a. Ooty b. Kodaikanal c. Anaimudi d. Jindhagada

69) _____________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.

a. Bhabar b. Tarai c. Bhangar d. Khadar

70) Pulicat Lake is located between the states of

a. West Bengal and Odisha b. Karnataka and Kerala

c. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh d. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

71) Western disturbances cause rainfall in _________.

a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala c) Punjab d) Madhya Pradesh

72) _________ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and
Karnataka.

a) Loo b) Norwester c) Mango showers d) Jet stream

73) _________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.

a) Isohyets. b) Isobar c) Isotherm d) Latitudes

 12

74) Climate of India is labelled as _________.

a) Tropical humid b) Equatorial Climate

c) Tropical Monsoon Climate d) Temperate Climate

75) The monsoon forests are otherwise called as _

a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Deciduous forest

c) Mangrove forest d) Mountain forest

76) Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in _________.

a) Tamil Nadu b) Andhra Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Karnataka

77) ________ is not a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO

A) Nilgir b) Agasthiyamalai c) Great Nicobar d) Kachch

Choose the inappropriate answer

78) Tidal forests are found in and around____.

(a) Desert. (b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra

(c) The delta of Godavari. (d) The delta of Mahanadh

79) Climate of India is affected by__________.

(a) Latitudinal extent (b) Altitude. (c) Distance from the sea. (d) Soil
 13

80) The soil which is rich in iron oxides is __________.

a) Alluvial b) Black c) Red d) Alkaline

81) _________ is the highest gravity dam in India.

a) Hirakud dam b) Bhakra Nangal dam c) Mettur dam d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam

82) __________ is a cash crop.

a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Rice d) Maize

83) Black soils are also called as:

a) Arid soils. b) Saline soils c) Regur soils d) Mountain soils

84) The longest dam in the world is ___________.

a) Mettur dam b) Kosi dam c) Hirakud dam d) Bhakra-Nangal dam

85) Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?

a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Jute d) Tobacco

Pick the odd one out

86) a) Wheat b) Rice c) Millets d) Coffee

87) a) Khadar b) Bhangar c) Alluvial soil d) Black soil

 14

88) a) Inundational canals b) Perennial canals

c) Tanks d) Canals

89) Manganese is used in______.

a) Paper industry b) Steel Making

c) Copper smelting d) Petroleum Refining

90) The Anthracite coal has ___________.

a) 80 to 90% Carbon b) Above 70% Carbon

c) 60 to 70% Carbon d) Below 50% Carbon

91) The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and

a) Oxygen b) Water c) Carbon d) Nitrogen

92) The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is

a) Chennai b) Salem c) Madurai d) Coimbatore

93) The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in

a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Maharashtra. d) Tamil nadu

94) The most abundant source of energy is

a) Bio mass. b) Sun c) Coal. d) Oil

95) The nucleus for the development of the chotanagpur plateau region is

a) Transport b) Mineral Deposits c) Large demand d) Power Availability

 15

96) The scientific study of different aspects of population is called

a) Cartography b) Demography c) Anthropology d) Epigraphy

97) transport provides door to door services.

a) Railways. b) Roadways c) Airways d) Waterways.

98) The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is

a) 5846 km b) 5942 km c) 5630 km d) 5800 km

99) The National Remote sensing Centre(NRSC) is located at .

a) Bengaluru. b) Chennai c) Delhi d) Hyderabad

100) The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is

a) Roadways b) Railways c) Airways d) Waterways

101) Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?

a) Air India b) IndianWaterways. c) Vayudoot d) Pavan Hans

102) The major import item of India is

a) Cement b) Jewells c) Tea d) Petroleum

103) The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is

a) 8°4′N to 13°35′N b) 8°5′S to 13°35′S

c) 8°0′N to 13°5′N d) 8°0′S to 13°05′S
 16

104) The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is

a) 76°18′ E to 80°20′E b) 76°18′ W to 80°20′W

c) 86°18′ E to 10°20′E d) 86°18′ W to 10°20′W

105) The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is

a) Anaimudi b) Doddabetta c) Mahendragiri d) Servarayan

106) Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil

Nadu?

a) Palghat b) Shencottah c) Bhorghat d) Achankoil

107) Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?

a) Periyar b) Cauvery c) Chittar d) Bhavani

108) The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is

a) Ramanathapuram b) Nagapattinam c) Cuddalore d) Theni

109) Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from

a) Arabian sea b) Bay of Bengal c) Indian Ocean d) Timor sea

110) The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is

a) Dharmapuri b) Vellore c) Dindigul d) Erode

 17

111) The delta which is known as Granary of South India is

a) Cauvery delta b) Mahanadi delta

c) Godavari delta d) Krishna delta

112) Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is

a) Pulses b) Millets c) Oilseeds d) Rice

113) A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is

a) Mettur b) Papansam c) Sathanur d) Thungabahdra

114) Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are

a) 3and15 b) 4 and15 c) 3 and16 d) 4 and15

( CIVICS )

115) Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?

(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign

(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, Preamble

116) How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?

(a) Once. (b) Twice. (c) Thrice (d) Never

 18

117) A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through

(a) Descent (b) Registration. (c) Naturalisation (d) All of the above

118) Find the odd one out.

(a) Right to Equality. (b) Right against Exploitation

(c) Right to Property. (d)Cultural and Educational Righout

119) One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms

(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.

(d) Parents property is inherited by their children

120) Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the
heart and soul of the Constitution?

(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality

(c) Right to Constitutional remedies. (d) Right to property

121) How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?

(a) If the Supreme Court so desires

(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
 19

122) We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the

(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution

(c) Russian Constitution. (d) Irish Constitution

123) Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368

124) Which of the following committees/ commissions made recommendations

about the Centre-State Relations?

1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee

3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 & 3 b) 1 & 2. (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3

125) The Constitutional Head of the Union is

a) The President b) The Chief Justice

c) The Prime Minister d) Council of Ministers

126) Who among the following decides whether Bill is a Money Bill or not?

a) The President b) Attorney General

c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
 20

127) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:

a) The President b) Lok Sabha c) The Prime Minister d) Rajya Sabha

128) What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the
Lok Sabha?

a) 18 years. b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years

129) The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?

a) The President b) The Prime Minister

c) State Government d) Parliament

130) Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial

Emergency

a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 356 d) Article 365

131) The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:

a) The President b) TheAttorney General c) The Governor d) The Prime Minister

132) The Governor of the State is appointed by the

(a) Prime Minister. (b) Chief Minister. (c) President. (d) Chief Justicth

133) The Speaker of a State is a

(a) Head of State. (b) Head of government

(c) President’s agent. (d) None of these
 21

134) Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?

(a) Legislative (b) Executive. (c) Judicial. (d) Diplomatic

135) Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the
State Legislative Assembly?

(a) The President (b) The Governor

(c) The Chief Minister. (d) The Speaker of State legislature

136) The Governor does not appoint

(a) Chief Minister. (b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State. (d) Judges of the High Court

137) The State Council of Ministers is headed by

(a) The Chief Minster. (b) The Governor

(c) The Speaker. (d) The Prime Minister

138) The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is

(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years. (d) 35 years

139) Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?

(a) Andhra Pradesh. (b) Telangana. (c) Tamil Nadu. (d) Uttar Pradesh

140) The High Courts in India were first started at

(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta

(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras. (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
 22

141) Which of the following States have a common High Court?

(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. (b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana. (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat

142) The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between

a) India and Nepal b) India and Pakistan

c) India and China d) India and Sri Lanka

143) Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?

a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 52 d) Article 53

144) The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to

a) Trade and Commerce b) Restoration of normal relations

c) Cultural exchange programmes d) The Five Principles of Co existence

145) Which is not related to our foreign policy

a) World co operation b) World peace c) Racial equality d) Colonialism

146) Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?

a) Yugoslavia b) Indonesia c) Egypt d) Pakistan

147) Non-Alliance means

a) being neutral b) freedom to decide on issues independently

c) demilitarisation d) none of the above
 23
148) Non – military issues are

a) Energy security b) Water security c) Pandemics d) All the above.

Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

149) Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct
answer from the code given below.

(i) Panchsheel (ii) China's Nuclear test

(iii) Indo - Soviet treaty (iv) First Nuclear test of India

a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

150) Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom.
Because India had to redeemed from

a) acute poverty b) illiteracy

c) chaotic socio-economic conditions d) all the above

151) Mc Mahon Line is a border between

a) Burma and India b) India and Nepal c) India and China d) India and Bhutan

152) India is not a member of which of the following

1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS

a) 2 only b) 2 and 4 c) 2, 4 and 1 d) 1, 2 and 3

 24

153) OPEC is

a) An international insurance Co. b) An international sports club

c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries d) An international company

154) With which country does India share its longest land border?

a) Bangladesh b) Myanmar c) Afghanistan d) China

155) Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric
project - 3. Afghanistan

iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan

a) 3 1 4 2 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 4 3 2 1

156) How many countries share its border with India?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

157) Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?

a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island

c) Maldieves and Nicobar island d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

158) Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?

a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya c) Mizoram d) Assam

 25

159) How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?

a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two

160) Who drew up the borders for independent Pakistan?

a) Lord MountbatTwo. b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

c) Clement Atlee d) None of the above.

Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

161) The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the

following modes of transport

1. Roads 2. Railways 3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

( ECONOMICS )

162) GNP equals

a) NNP adjusted for inflation

b) GDP adjusted for inflation

c) GDP plus net property income from abroad

d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
 26

163) National Income is a measure of

a) Total value of money

b) Total value of producer goods

c) Total value of consumption goods
d) Total value of goods and services

164) Primary sector consist of

a) Agriculture b) Automobiles c) Trade d) Banking

165) ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to
estimate the value of the final good.

a) Expenditure approach b) Value added approach

c) income approach d) National Income

166) Gross value added at current prices for services sector

is estimated at ______ lakh crore in 2018-19.

a) 91.06. b) 92.26 c) 80.07 d) 98.29

167) India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.

a) 1st b) 3rd c) 4th d) 2nd

168) India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.

a) 65 b) 60 c) 70. d) 55
 27

169) Which one is a trade policy?.

a) irrigation policy b) import and export policy

c) land-reform policy d) wage policy

170) Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)

a) Ministerial conference b) Director General

c) Deputy Director General d) None of these

171) Colonial advent in India

a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French

b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English

d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch

172) GATT’s first round held in

a) Tokyo b) Uruguay c) Torquay d) Geneva

173) India signed the Dunkel proposal in

a) 1984 b) 1976 c) 1950 d) 1994

174) who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632

a) Jahangir b) Sultan of Golconda c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb

175) Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in

a) June 1991 b) July 1991 c) July- Aug-1991 d) Aug 1991

 28

176) Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the
government through the .

a) FCI b) Consumer Cooperatives c) ICICI d) IFCI

177) Which is correct?

i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties
ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System
iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India

a) i and ii are correct b) iii and iv are correct

c) ii and iii are correct d) all are correct

178) extended assistance through its Public Law 480.

a) United States of America b) India c) Singapore d) UK

179) revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency
in food grain production.

a) Blue Revolution b) White Revolution

c) Green Revolution d) Grey Revolution

180) is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.

a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka

 29

181) is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and
growth.

a) Health b) Nutrition c) Sanitation d) Security

182) The three levels of governments in India are

a) Union, state and local b) Central, state and village

c) Union, municipality and panchayat d) None of the above

183) In India, taxes are including

a) Direct taxes b) Indirect taxes. c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

184) Which is the role of government and development policies?

a) Defence b) Foreign policy

c) Regulate the economy d) all of above

185) The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is

a) Service tax b) Excise duty.

c) Income tax d) Central sales tax

186) Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured

a) Value added tax (VAT) b) Income tax

c) Goods and service tax d) Sales tax
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187) Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________ .

a) 1860 b) 1870. c) 1880 d) 1850

188) __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.

a) Income tax b) Wealth tax c) Corporate tax d) Excise duty

189) What are identified as causes of black money?

a) Shortage of goods. b) High tax rate

c) Smuggling d) All of above

190) Which of the following statement is correct about GST?

(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.

(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and
services by the Central and State governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout thecountry.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.

a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) All are correct

191) ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.

a) Tuticorin b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Madurai

192) Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in

a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Dharampuri

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193) ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.

a) agriculture b) industry c) railway d) none of these

194) Tiruppur is known for

a) Leather tanning b) Lock making c) Knitwear d) Agro-processing

195) A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is

a) Hosur b) Dindigul c) Kovilpatti d) Tirunelveli

Pick out odd one

196) Which one of the following is not having leather factories?

a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi

197) Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?

a) TIDCO. b) SIDCO c) MEPZ d) SIPCOT