TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2023

CLASS : ENTHUSIAST (XII) (PHASE – I & II) A

INTERNAL TEST - 06 DATE : 14 - 09 - 2022

SYLLABUS
Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current
Physics :
(Alternating Current And Voltage)

Alcohol, Ether & Phenol (Complete), Aldehyde & Ketone

Chemistry :
(Upto GMP of Both Aldehyde & Ketone)

Genetics-2 -Molecular Basis Of Inheritance

Botany :
(1.Nucleic acids TO 6. DNA Replication)

Zoology : Origin and Evolution of Life- Complete

 CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2023
CLASS : ENTHUSIAST (XII) (PHASE – I & II) A
TEST TYPE: TEST DATE : 14.09.2022 TEST PATTERN:
Time : 3 Hours 20 minutes INTERNAL TEST - 06 Maximum Marks : 720

SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)  

Sol.   B.A
 This section contains 35 questions.
 For each question, darken the bubble  
 4iˆ  kˆ .0.1kˆ
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one  0.1
of the following categories : 3. Magnetic flux linked through the coil changes with
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble respect to time according to following graph, then
induced emf v/s time graph for coil is :-
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is 
darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. A coil of N turns, A area is placed in uniform t
transverse magnetic field B. If it is turn through
e
180 about its one of the diameter in 2 seconds.
Find rate of change of magnetic flux through the
coil. (1) O t

NBA
(1) –2NBA (2)
2 e
BA
(3) (4)  NBA (2) O t
2
Ans. 4
Sol.   NBA cos 0  NBA e
2  NBA cos180   NBA
(3) O t
 2  1 2NBA
    NBA
t t 2
e
2. The magnetic field in a certain region is given by

 
B  4iˆ  kˆ tesla. How much magnetic flux (4) O t
passes through the loop of area 0.1 m2 in this region
if the loop lies flat in xy plane ? Ans. 3
(1) 0.4jˆ (2) 0.4

(3) 0.1 ˆi (4) 0.1

Ans. 4

(1)
 L  A     3  4
Sol. 
L1 .hb
a b  b  b  3b  4b
L2 4.4b.4h
c t
O L1 1
 h   h  3h  4h
L 2 64
d
e
dt L 2  64L1
from o to a, e = constant & –ve
L 2  L1  63L1
from a to b, e = 0
from b to c, e = constant & +ve 6. A coil of inductance 8.4 mH and resistance 6 is
connected to a 12V battary in series. The current
e in the coil is 1.0A at approximately the time :-
(1) 500s (2) 20s
O a t
b c (3) 35ms (4) 1ms
Ans. 4
4. If instantaneous current is given by
8.4 mH 6
i  4cos  t    amperes, then the r.m.s. value
of current is
1Amp
(1) 4 amperes (2) 2 2 amperes
Sol.
(3) 4 2 amperes (4) Zero amperes
Ans. 2 12V
I0
I rms  I  I 0 1  e 
t
Sol. 
2  

4 V 12
 I0   2
2 R 6

2 2 L 8.4
   1.4m sec.
5. A solenoid wound over a rectangular frame. If all R 6
the linear dimensions of the frame are increased
I  I 0 1  e 
t
by a factor 3 and the number of turns per unit 
 
length remains the same, the self inductance


increased by a factor of :-
1  2 1  e
t
1.4
(1) 3 (2) 9 
(3) 27 (4) 63
t 1
Ans. 4 e 1.4

2
0 N2 A
Sol. L  t
  1m 2  t  1.4  2.303  0.3010
1.4
L  0 n 2 A  1ms

(2)
 Sol.
7. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a
1   1    1
1 At t  600 s E  20sin 100  600   20sin  6   20  2  10V
uniform magnetic field of wb / m 2 in such way    

 10. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2  104 turns
that its axis makes an angle of 60 with B . The
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid a coil of
magnetic flux linked with the disc is :-
100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis
(1) 0.08 wb (2) 0.01 wb coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in
(3) 0.02 wb (4) 0.06 wb the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from
Ans. 3 4A in 0.05s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 2  ,
Sol.   BA cos  the total charge flowing through the coil during this
time is :-
1
 .   0.2  .cos 60 (1) 16 C (2) 32 C
2


(3) 16 C (4) 32 C
1
 0.04  Ans. 2
2

 0.02 Sol. q 
R
8. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform
magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular N  B2  B1  A
to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts 
R
shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop
when the radius is 2 cm is :- N
 . 0 n  I 2  I1  .A
(1) 1.6 V (2) 3.2 V R
(3) 4.8 V (4) 0.8 V 100  4  107  2  10  4     0.01
2

q 
Ans. 2 102
d  32 C
Sol. e  
dt 11. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical
dA resistors with resistance R  9.0  each, two
 B identical inductors with inductance
dt
L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf
d 2
 B. .r   18 V . The current ‘i’ through the battery just
dt
after the switch closed is, ......:-
dr
e   B.2r
dt + R
 L R
2
 0.04  2  2  10  2  10 3 –
 3.2V R L
9. If E  20sin 100t  volt then calculate value of
1 (1) 0.2 A (2) 2 A
E at t  s (3) 0 ampere (4) 2 mA
600
Ans. 2
(1) 5 (2) 10
Sol. Just after closing switch
(3) 10 3 (4) 5 3
 18
Ans. 2 i ;   2A
R 9

(3)
12. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
i1  1.5 1  e R /L   1.5 1  e2 
inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor
is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance :-
i 1 e2
(1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H  
i 1  e 2 e2  1
(3) 1.389 H (4) 13.89 H
15. If an A.C. main supply is given to be 220 V. What
Ans. 4
would be the average e.m.f. during a positive half
1 cycle :-
Sol. U  LI 2
2 (1) 198 V (2) 386 V
(3) 256 V (4) None of these
1
25  103   L60  103  60  103 Ans. 1
2
Sol. Vrms  220V
25  10 3  2
L V0
60  6 0  220
2
L  13.89 H
13. A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with V0  220 2
constant angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a region
2
of magnetic field of 0.1 T which is perpendicular Vavg  .V0

to the plane of the wheel. The EMF generated
16. One conducting U tube can slide inside another as
between its centre and the rim is, shown in figure, maintaining electrical contacts
(1) 0.25 V (2) 0.125 V between the tubes. The magnetic field B is
(3) 0.5 V (4) Zero perpendicular to the plane of the figure. If each
Ans. 2 tube moves towards the other at a constant speed
v, then the induced emf in the circuit, where  is
Bl 2 the width of each tube :-
Sol. e
2
    
0.1  10   0.5 
2

    
 A B
2
 V 
 V  
 0.125V
14. An e.m.f. of 15 volt is applied in a circuit containing
5 henry inductance and 10 ohm resistance. The
ratio of the currents at time t   and at t = 1
  D    C 
second is :-
1 (1) 2 Bv (2) Zero
e 2
e2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3)  Bv (4) Bv
e 2
1 e 1
Ans. 1
(3) 1  e 1 (4) e 1
Sol. Let Vrel be the relative velocity of one tube with
Ans. 2 respect to the other.
Sol. i  i 0 1  e  Rt / L  Then
e  B  width of the tube  v rel
E
i0   steady current  when t  
R  B     v    v  

E 15  2Bv
i 
R
1  e    1.5
10

(4)
17. An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor 19. A conducting loop of radius R is present in a
(R = 100 ) and a battery (E = 100 V) are initially uniform magnetic field B perpendicular the plane
connected in series as shown in the figure. After a of the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time
long time the battery is disconnected after short ‘t’, as R  R 0  t . The e.m.f induced in the loop
circuiting the points A and B. The current in the is
circuit 1 ms after the short circuit is :-
     
L      
     
R      
    R 
A B   B  
     
E      
(1) 1A (2) 1/e A
(1) 3  R 0  t  B (2)   R 0  t  B
(3) e A (4) 0.1 A
Ans. 2 (3) 2  R 0  t  B (4) Zero
E Ans. 3
Sol. I0 
R Sol.   BA cos 

  B  R 0  t 
R 2
 .t
I  I0 e L

d
 2B  R 0  t 
100
100 100103 1103 e
I .e dt
100

1 20. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current

i  e1A 
e i each circulating in the same direction. If the loops
18. A small, circular loop of wire is placed inside a approach each other
long solenoid carrying a current. The plane of the (1) The current in each will decrease
loop contains the axis of the solenoid. If the current (2) The current in each will increase
in the solenoid is varied, the current induced in the
(3) The current in each will remain the same
loop is :
(1) Anticlockwise (4) The current in one will increase and in other
will decrease
(2) Clockwise
Ans. 1
(3) Zero
Sol. As the two identical coaxial circular loops carry a
(4) Clockwise or anticlockwise depending on current i each circulating in the same direction,
whether the resistance is increased or their flux add each other. When the two are brought
decreased closer, the total flux linkage increase. By Lenz’s a
Ans. 3 law a current will be induced in both the loops such
Sol. Magnetic field is along axis of solenoid. The area that it opposes this change in flux. As the flux
vector of the loop is perpendicular to the loop so increases, the current in each loop will decreases
angle between magnetic field and area vector is so as to decrease the increasing flux.
90 as plane of the loop contains the axis of
solenoid.
So, magnetic flux through loop is
  BA cos90  0
As magnetic flux through loop is zero so no
current is induced in loop.

(5)
21. In the arrangement shown in given figure current 23. A wire of length  is moved with a constant
from A to B is increasing in magnitude. Induced 
velocity  in a magnetic field. A potential difference
current in the loop will appears across the two ends.
   
(1) If   (2) If  B
 
(3) If   B (4) None of these
Ans. 4

B  
A Sol.   B
(1) Have clockwise direction So, option 3 is not correct
(2) Have anticlockwise direction and,
(3) Be zero   or if   ,
If    B
(4) Oscillate between clockwise and
anticlockwise d
Ans. 1 Then is zero.
dt
Sol. The direction of the induced current is as shown Hence, potential difference is zero.
in the figure, according to Lenz’s law which states
So, option 1 & 2 are not correct.
that the indeed current flows always in such a
direction as to oppose the change which is giving 24. The two rails of a railway track, insulated from
rise to it. each other and the ground, are connected to
millivoltameter when a train passes at a speed of
180 km/hr along the track, given that the vertical
component of earth’s magnetic field
0.2  104 Wb / m 2 and rails are separated by 1
metre, then reading of millivoltmeter is
(1) 102 volt (2) 10 mV
A B
(3) 1 volt (4) 1 mV
22. There are two coils A and B as shown in fig. What Ans. 4
is the direction of the momentary current induced
in coil B, when switch S is pressed Sol.   Blv

  0.2  104  1180  5 / 18 

B  103 V
A
–  1mV
+ 25. A rectangular coil of single turn, having area A,
S rotates in a uniform magnetic field B an angular
velocity  about an axis perpendicular to the field.
(1) Anticlockwise If initially the plane of coil is perpendicular to the
(2) Clockwise field, then the average induced e.m.f. when it has
rotated through 90 is
(3) No current is induced
(4) Alternating current in B BA BA
(1) (2)
Ans. 1  2
Sol. As swich is closed, current in A is clockwise, so BA 2BA
indeed magnetic field will be outward current in B (3) (4)
will be ACW. 4 
Ans. 4

(6)
Sol. Initially flux,   BA cos 0  BA Ans. 2
Sol. For Loop 1
After rotating through an angle 90 .
Flux through the coil is zero. d  dB  2  dB 
ind    A   cos 0  r  
So,   BA dt  dt   dt 

2 For Loop 2, ind  0 as no flux linkage

Angular speed =  , so, time period  T
28. An alternating voltage is represented as

E  20sin 300t . The average value of voltage
T over one cycle will be
is time taken to rotate 90 .
4 (1) Zero (2) 10 volt
 BA 2BA 20
So,  
t T / 4  (3) 20 2 volt (4) volt
2
26. If I  2 t ampere then calculate rms values over Ans. 1
t = 2 to 4 s 
29. Assertion : An emf E is induced in a closed loop

(1) 2 4 A (2) 3 2 A where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E is
not a conservation field.
(3) 2 3 A (4) 2 2 A 
Reason : The line integral E.dl around the closed
Ans. 3
loop is non zero.
Sol.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
 2 t 
4 2 4

4
dt 4tdt  t2  assertion.
I rms  2
4
 2
 2    2 3A
2  2 2 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
 dt2
reason is not the correct explanation of the
27. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a assertion.
region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
dB (4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
time at a rate . Loop l of radius R > r encloses Ans. 1
dt
the region r and Loop 2 of radius R is outside the Sol. Induced electric field is non conservative. Also
region of magnetic field as shown in the figure  d 
below. Then the e.m.f. generated is :  E.dl   dt  E.ds  0
30. A current in circuit is given by i  3  4sin t .

 Then the effective value of current is :
    r
     
     
    R R (1) 5 (2) 7

1 2 (3) 17 (4) 10
Ans. 3
dB 2
(1)  R in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 Sol. I  a  b sin t
dt

dB 2 b2
(2)  r in loop l and zero in loop 2 I rms  a 2 
dt 2
(3) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 I  3  4sin t
dB 2 dB 2 42
(4)  R in loop 1 and  R in loop 2  32  ;  98 ;
dt dt  17
2
(7)
31. Assertion : An induced emf is generated when (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
magnet is withdrawn from the solenoid. (4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
Reason : The relative motion between magnet Ans. 4
and solenoid induces emf.
Sol. Like direct current, an alternating current also
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and produces magnetic field. But the magnitude and
the reason is the correct explanation of the direction of the field goes on changing continuously
assertion. with time.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but 35. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete
reason is not the correct explanation of the cycle is always zero.
assertion.
Reason : Average value of ac is always defined
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. over half cycle.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Ans. 1 the reason is the correct explanation of the
Sol. Conceptual assertion.
32. Assertion : An electric motor will have maximum (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
efficiency when back e.m.f. is equal to applied reason is not the correct explanation of the
e.m.f. assertion.
Reason : Efficiency of electric motor is depends (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
only on magnitude of back e.m.f. (4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and Ans. 2
the reason is the correct explanation of the Sol. The mean average value of alternating current (or
assertion.
emf) during half cycle is given by I m  0.636I 0
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the (or E m  0.636E 0 ) During the next half cycle, the
assertion. mean value of ac will be equal in magnitude but
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. opposite in direction. For this reason the average
value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
So the average value is always defined over a half
Ans. 4 cycle of ac.
Sol. Efficiency of electric motor is maximum when the
back emf set up in the armature is half the value SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
of the applied battery emf.
 This section contains 15 questions.
33. Frequency of A.C. in India is -  Attempt any 10 questions.
(1) 45 Hz  For each question, darken the bubble
(2) 60 Hz corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(3) 50 Hz  For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(4) None of the above of the following categories :
Ans. 3 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
34. Assertion : An alternating current does not show corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
any magnetic effect. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Reason : Alternating current does not varies with darkened.
time. Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.

(8)
36. Self induction of solenoid is : (keeping number of 38. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel
turn constant) and a time varying current i flows as shown. The
(1) Directly proportional to current flowing ratio of currents i1/i2 at any time t is (No mutual
through the coil. inductance)
(2) Directly proportional to its length.
L1
(3) Directly proportional to area of cross
section. i1
(4) Inversely proportional to the area of cross
i i
section.
Ans. 3 i2 L2
N2A
Sol. L  0 A L1 L2
 (1) L (2) L
2 1
37. If a step up transformer have turn ratio 5,
frequency 50 Hz root mean square value of
L21 L22
potential difference on primary 100 volts and the (3) (4)
 L1  L2   L1  L2 
2 2
resistance of the secondary winding is 500  then
the peak value of voltage in secondary winding Ans. 2
will be (the efficiency of the transformer is hundred Sol. Since L1 and L2 are connected in parallel. Potential
percent) difference across L1 is equal to that across L2 i.e.
(1) 500 2 (2) 10 2 1   2

(3) 50 2 (4) 20 2 di1 dI

Or  L1  L2 2
Ans. 1 dt dt

Ns Or L1  di1  L 2  di 2
Sol. 5 Ns  N p
Np
Or L 2i 2  L1i1
f  50Hz
i1 L 2
Vp  100V R s  500 Or i  L
2 1

 39. The mutual inductance of an induction coil is 5 H.

rms
In the primary coil, the current reduced from 5 A
Ns Vs  rms  to zero in 10–3 s. What is the induced e.m.f. in the
 secondary coil.
N p Vp  rms 
(1) 2500 V (2) 25000 V
Vs (3) 2510 V (4) Zero
5
100 Ans. 2

Vs  500  rms value di

Sol. EMF  L
dt
V0
Vrms 
2 5
 5
103
V0  2Vrms
= 25000V
 2  500

(9)
40. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is
given by the equation   5t 2  3t  16 A B
The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at the
fourth second will be
(1) 33 V (2) 43 V O
(3) 108 V (4) 10 V
Ans. 2
S
Sol.   5t 2  3t  16
(1) Respectively clockwise and anticlockwise
d
  10t  3 (2) Both clockwise
dt
(3) Both anticlockwise
At t  4sec (4) Respectively anticlockwise and clockwise
  40  3  43 volt Ans. 4
Sol. Conceptual
41. A conducting ring of radius r is placed
perpendicular inside a time varying magnetic field 44. A conducting wire frame is placed in magnetic field
which is directed into the paper. The magnetic field
given by B  B0  t wherer B0 and  are
is increasing at a constant rate. The direction of
positive constants. Emf induced in the ring is induced current in wire AB and CD are
(1) r (2) r 2
   C
(3)  2 r 2 (4)  2 r
Ans. 2 A   

Sol. e
d dB
 A B   
dt dt
   D
 r 2
42. For an alternating current I  I0 cos t . What is (1) B to A and D to C
the rms value and peak value of current :- (2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
I0 I0
(1) I0 , (2) , I0 (4) B to A and C to D
2 2
Ans. 1
I0 I0 Sol. Lenz law
(3) I0 , (4) 2I0 ,
2 2 45. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the
Ans. 2 same plane. The current in outer loop is clockwise
and increasing with time. The induced current in
43. As shown in figure, A and B are two coaxial
the inner loop is
conducting loops separated by some distance.
When the switch S is closed, a clockwise current (1) Clockwise
I flows in A (as seen by O) and an induced current (2) Zero
I1 flows in B. The switch remains closed for a (3) Anticlockwise
long time. When S is opened, a current I2 flows in (4) In a direction that depend on the ratio of the
B then the direction of I1 and I2 (as seen by O) are loop radii
Ans. 3
Sol. Conceptual

(10)
46. A coil. of resistance 400 is placed in a magnetic 49. Assertion : Soft iron is used as a core of
transformer.
field. If the magnetic flux   Wb  linked with the
Reason : Area of hysteresis loop for soft iron is
coil varies with time t (sec) as   50t 2  4. small.
The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is : (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) 2 A (2) 1 A the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) 0.5 A (4) 0.1 A
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
Ans. 3 reason is not the correct explanation of the
47. Assertion : A metal piece and a non-metal (stone) assertion.
piece are dropped from the same height near (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
earth’s surface. Both will reach the earth’s surface
simultaneously. (4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
Reason : There is no effect of earth’s magnetic Ans. 1
field on freely falling body. Sol. Hysteresis loss in the core of transformer is directly
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and proportional to the hysteresis loop area of the core
the reason is the correct explanation of the material. Since soft iron has narrow hysteresis loop
assertion. area, that is why soft iron core is used in the
transformer.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the 50. Assertion : RMS value of current is the value of
assertion. DC which would give same amount of charge
through a circuit.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason : RMS value of current in circuit is equal
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false. to average value of current.
Ans. 4 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Sol. When a metal piece falls from a certain height the reason is the correct explanation of the
then eddy currents are produced in it due to earth’s assertion.
magnetic field. Eddy currents oppose the motion (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
of piece. Hence metal piece falls with a smaller reason is not the correct explanation of the
acceleration (as compared to g). But no eddy assertion.
currents are produced in non-metal piece. Hence
it drops with acceleration due to gravity. Therefore (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
non-metal piece will reach the earth’s surface (4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
earlier. Ans. 4
48. Assertion : A trasformer cannot work on dc Sol. Both assertion and reason false.
supply.
Reason : dc changes neither in magnitude nor in SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)
direction.  This section contains 35 questions.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
 For each question, darken the bubble
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion. corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but  For each question, marks will be awarded in one
reason is not the correct explanation of the of the following categories :
assertion. Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Ans. 1 darkened.
Sol. Transformer works on ac only, ac changes in Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
magnitude as well as in direction.

(11)
51. Assertion : Phenoxide ion is a poor nucleophile (2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct
than a methoxide ion. explanation of A
Reason : In methoxide ion oxygen is attached to (3) A is correct R is incorrect
sp3 carbon.
(4) A & R are incorrect
(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct
Ans. 1
explanation of A
Sol. t-butyl methyl ether is prepared by action of methyl
(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct bromide with ter. butoxide
explanation of A 55. Which of the following compounds shows
(3) A is correct R is incorrect intramolecular hydrogen bonding :
(4) A & R are incorrect (1) p-Nitrophenol (2) Ethanol
Ans. 2 (3) o-Nitrophenol (4) Methanamine
Sol. In phenoxide ion e pair involved in resonance Ans. 3
52. Assertion : Anisole on reaction with HI gives OH
phenol and CH 3 I . Sol. Intramolecular
H-bond
Reason : Phenyl-oxygen bond is stronger than NO
methyl-oxygen bond in anisole and hence is not O
cleaved by HI.
(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct 56. H 2 COH.CH 2 OH on heating with periodic acid
explanation of A gives :
(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct H
(1) 2 C=O (2) 2CO 2
explanation of A H
(3) A is correct R is incorrect CHO
(4) A & R are incorrect (3) 2HCOOH (4)
CHO
Ans. 1 Ans. 1
53. Assertion : Ethyl alcohol gives haloform test but
not methyl alcohol HIO 4
CH 2  CH 2   2 HCHO  2H 2 O
Sol.
OH OH OH
Reason : Alcohols having CH 3  CH 57. Consider the following reaction,
PBr3 alc.KOH  2 4 i H SO room temp.
group gives haloform test ethanol   X   Y 
 ii  H O
 Z;
2
(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct
The product Z is :
explanation of A
(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct (1) CH 3CH 2 OH
explanation of A (2) CH 2  CH 2
(3) A is correct R is incorrect
(3) CH 3CH 2  O  CH 2  CH 3
(4) A & R are incorrect
Ans. 1 (4) CH 3  CH 2  O  SO 3 H
54. Assertion : t-butyl methyl ether is prepared by Ans. 1
reaction of t-butoxide with methyl bromide. Sol. X  C2 H5 Br
Reason : Reaction follow SN2-mechanism.
(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct Y  CH 2  CH 2
explanation of A Z  CH 3  CH 2

OH

(12)
58. Consider the following reaction : Ans. 4
Zn dust
Phenol  X  3 CH Cl
 Y 
2 2 2
Z
i) CrO Cl in CS Sol. Conceptual
 Anhydrous AlCl ii)H O
3 3
61. When vapours of a secondary alcohol is passed over
the product Z is heated copper at 573 K, the product formed is :-
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene (1) A carboxylic acid (2) An aldehyde
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid (3) A ketone (4) An alkene
Ans. 3 Ans. 3
Sol. X  C6 H 6 OH O

Y  C6 H 5 CH 3 Sol. CH 3  CH  CH 3 
Cu / 57 3k
 CH 3  C  CH 3

Z  C6 H 5CHO 62. The major products C and D formed in the following

reactions respectively are :
59. Consider the following reaction :
H3C  CH 2  CH 2  O  C  CH3 3 
excess HI

C  D
COCl
H
 'A ' (1) H 3C  CH 2  CH 2  I and I  C  CH 3 3
2
Pd  BaSO 4

(2) H 3C  CH 2  CH 2  OH and I  C  CH 3 3
The product 'A' is :
(1) C6 H 5 COCH 3 (2) C6 H 5 Cl (3) H 3C  CH 2  CH 2  I and HO  C  CH 3 3

(3) C6 H 5 CHO (4) C6 H 5 OH (4) H 3C  CH 2  CH 2  OH and HO  C  CH 3 3

Ans. 3 Ans. 1
Sol. Rosenmunds reduction 63. Statement - I : 3-methylbut-1-ene on reaction with
60. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the O3 followed by Zn / H 2 O gives formaldehyde and
following sequence of reaction : 2-methyl propanal as products.
Anh ydrous
Statement - II : Ozonolysis is used to find out position
AlCl3
 CH 3CH 2 CH 2 Cl   2
 P  Q  R
i O of double bond.
ii H O  /    3

P Q R (1) Both statement I and statement II are

incorrect
CH 2 CH 2CH 3 CHO (2) Statement I is correct but statement II are
incorrect
(1) (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
CH 3 CH 2  OH
, , correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Ans. 4
CH 2 CH 2CH 3 CHO COOH
O

(2) Sol. H 2C  CH  CH  CH3  (i) O 3

i i Zn , H O
 HCH
2

, , CH 3 Formaldehyde

O  CH  CH  CH 3
CH CH 3 2 OH
CH 3
(3) , CH 3CH OH CH 3
, 2- Methylpropanal

OH
CH CH 3 2

(4) CH 3  CO  CH 3
, ,

(13)
64. Which of the following alcohols gives a red colour 67. Nitration of phenol with conc. nitric acid gives :-
in Victor Meyer test OH
(1) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  OH NO 2

(2) CH 3  CH  OH (1)
CH 3

(3)  CH3 3 C  OH OH

(4) CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 3
OH (2)
Ans. 1
NO 2
Sol. 1° - alcohols gives blood red colour
2° - alcohols gives blue colour
OH
3° - alcohols gives no colour
65. Consider the following reaction :
C 2 H 5 OH  H 2SO 4  Pr oduct
Among the following, which one cannot be formed (3)
as a product under any conditions ?
NO 2
(1) C 2 H 5 OSO 3 H
(2) H 2 C  CH 2 OH

(3) HC  CH O2 N NO 2

(4) CH 3  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH 3
Ans. 3 (4)
Sol. Conc. H 2SO 4 /  is dehydrating agent.
NO 2

H 2 SO 4 Ans. 4
A 68. In the reaction :
443K
66. CH 3 CH 2 OH CH 3
H 2 SO 4
B CH 3  CH  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH3  HI 
 ......
413K
which of following compounds will be formed :
A and B are (respectively)
(1) CH 3  CH  CH 3  CH 3  CH 2  OH
(1) O , CH 2  CH 2
CH 3
(2) O , O
(2) CH 3  CH  CH 2  OH  CH 3  CH 3
(3) CH 2  CH 2 ,CH 2  CH 2
CH 3
(4) CH 2  CH 2 , O
Ans. 4 (3) CH 3  CH  CH 2  OH  CH 3  CH 2  I

Sol. Conc. H 2SO 4 /  is dehydrating agent, at 443 k CH 3

alkenes and 413 k ether are formed

(4) CH 3  CH  CH 2  I  CH 3  CH 2  OH
CH 3

(14)
Ans. 3
Br Br
Sol. Follows SN 2 mechanism
69. Given below are two statements : Br
(3) (4)
Statement - I : The acidic strength of
monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol
because of electron withdrawing nitro group.
Ans. 3
Statement - II : o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol will
have same acidic strength as they have one nitro 
CH 2 OH C H2
group attached to the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given H


below :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are Ring
incorrect Sol. expansion
Br
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II are 
incorrect 
HBr

(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct 72. Oxonium ion of ether has the structure :
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) C 2 H 5  O  CH  O   H
Ans. 2
CH 3 H
Sol. o-nitrophenol is more acidic than m-nitrophenol
70. In the reaction sequence
(2) CH 3  CH 2  O   CH 2  CH 3
HBr C2 H5 ONa
A 
 B  Ethoxyethane H
A and B are :
(3)  C 2 H 5 2 O  O
(1) C 2 H 6 ,C 2 H 5 Br
(4) CH 3  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH 2  O   O  H
(2) CH 4 , CH 3 Br
H
(3) CH 2  CH 2 ,C 2 H 5 Br
Ans. 2
(4) CH  CH,CH 2  CHBr
Sol. The general form is R  O  R / R
Ans. 3
H
Sol. Conceptual
73. Ketones can be prepared by :-
CH 2  OH (1) Friedal crafts acylation
(2) Etard reaction
71. 
(3) Reimer - Tiemann reaction
H


HBr
A  B (4) Gattermann-Koch reaction
Ans. 1
What is the structure of B :- Sol. Conceptual
74. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
CH 3 CH 2  Br
RCH 2 OH 
 RCHO
Br Br
(1) (2) (1) KMnO 4
(2) K 2 Cr2 O7
(3) PCC (Pyridium chloro chromate)
(4) LiAlH4

(15)
Ans. 3 78. IUPAC name of a   hydroxybutyraldehyde
Sol. PCC converts 1  OH 
 Aldehydes
(1) 1–hydroxy butanal
(2) 2–hydroxy butanol
2  OH 
 Ketones (3) 2 –hydroxy butanal
75. Oxidation of toluene with CrO 3 in presence of (4) 2–hydroxy butyraldehyde
Ans. 3
 CH3CO 2 O gives a product (A) which on
 
hydrolysis forms Benzaldehyde A is ___ 
Sol. CH 3  CH 2  CH  CHO
(1) Chromium complex
OH
(2) Benzylidene diacetate
79. Stephens reduction is used in the preparation of
(3) Benzophenone
(1) Carboxylic acids (2) Ketones
(4) Benzal chloride
(3) Alcohol (4) Aldehydes
Ans. 2
Ans. 4
CH 3 CH OCOCH 3 2
CH3CO 2 O Sol. C  N 
SnCl2 / HCl
CHO
Sol.  CrO 3 

80. Acetone can not be obtained from
CHO (1) Hydrolysis of isopropylidene chloride
H 2O /H 

 (2) Hydration of propyne
(3) Dehydrogenation of isopropyl alcohol
76. Which of the following on heating with aq KOH (4) Hydrolysis of ester
produces butanal Ans. 4
(1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Cl Sol. Hydrolysis of esters in presence of acids gives
carboxylic acids and alcohols.
(2) CCl3CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 81. Catalytic poison in Rosemunds reduction
(3) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHCl 2 (1) BaSO4 (2) Pd

(4) CH 3CCl 2 CH 2 CH 3 (3) CH 3COCl (4) CuSO 4

Ans. 3 Ans. 1
Sol. It reduces further reduction of aldehydes
Sol. CH 3CH 2 CH 2  CH  Cl  2 
aq KOH

Cu
82. Ethyl alcohol 
300 C
A  B
CH3CH 2CH 2 CH  OH 2 
 H2 O
 What are A & B
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO (1) Acetaldehyde, Acetone
(2) Acetone, Water
 i  DIBAL  H
77. CH3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CN   ii  H2 O
 (3) Acetaldehyde, H2
(1) CH 3  CH  CHCH 2 CH 2 COOH (4) Acetone, H2
Ans. 3
(2) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO
Sol. 1° – OH gives aldehydes
(3) CH 3  CH  CHCH 2 CH 2 CHO 2° – OH gives ketones

(4) CH3  CH  OH   CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO

Ans. 3
Sol. DIBAL-H converts -CN to CHO without effecting
double bond

(16)
83. Which of the following alkene is most suitable for SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
the preparation of butanone by Ozonolysis  This section contains 15 questions.
 Attempt any 10 questions.
(1)  For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
(2) of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(3) Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
(4) OH

Ans. 1 86. Zinc powder + 

 X.

In the above reaction, product ‘X’ will be

Sol.  2-butanone
(1) O3
(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Benzene
2  H2O / Zn
(3) Anisole (4) Phenyl acetate
84. Identify the final product, Ans. 2
Cl2 /H2O aq. KOH
CH 2  CH 2  X  Y OH
Zn
(1) 2-chloroethanol (2) 2-chloromethanol Sol.  + ZnO.
(3) 1-chloroethanol (4) Ethylene glycol
Ans. 4 87. Correct order of acidity is

OH OH OH OH
Electrophilic
addition Cl CH 3
Cl2 /H2 O | (1)
Sol. CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2 CH 3
HOCl |
OH CH 3
OH   Cl 
OH OH OH OH
CH 3
OH (2)
|
aq., KOH CH 3
 C H 2  CH 2
SN 2
| CH 3
OH
85. Phenol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol by OH OH OH OH
all reagents except CH 3
(1) NaOH (2) FeCl3 (3)
(3) Br2/H2O (4) Na CH 3
Ans. 4 CH 3
Sol. Both phenol and alcohol reacts with ‘Na’ and gives
‘H2(g)’.

(17)
 OH OH OH OH (1) Both statement I and statement II are
CH 3 incorrect
(4) (2) Statement I is correct but statement II are
incorrect
CH 3
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
CH 3
correct
Ans. 1 (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
M  H  I Ans. 2
Sol. Acidic strength  Sol. Conceptual
M  H  I
91. Which of the following substituted phenols is the
88. Electrophile in Reimer - Tiemann reaction strongest acid ?
(1) CHCl3 (2) : CH 2
(3) : CCl2 (4) CO 2 OH OH
Ans. 3
Sol. CHCl3  KOH 
 : CCl2  KCl  H 2 O (1) (2)
HI/ 
89. CH3  O  CH 2 CH3 
Excess
 (A)  (B). Product
CH 3 NO 2
(A) and (B) are
(1) CH 3 OH  CH 3CH 2 I OH OH
(2) CH 3 I  CH 2 CH 2 OH
(3) CH 3 I  CH 3 CH 2 I (3) (4)
(4) CH 3 OH  CH 3CH 2 OH
OCH 3 C 2 H5
Ans. 3
Ans. 2
H
Sol. CH 3  O  CH 2  CH 3  Sol. NO 2 is EWG

CH 3 ,C 2 H 5  OCH 3 are ERG

H
| Acidic nature  E.W.G
I
CH 3  O  CH 2  CH 3  B2 H 6
 92. CH 3CH 2 CH  CH 2 
H 2 O,H 2 O 2 ,OH 
 Z what is Z ?

HI
CH 3 I  CH 3  CH 2  OH  CH 3  CH 2  I (1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 3

90. Given below are two statements : (2) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH

Statement - I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary
(3) CH 3 CH 2 CHCH 3
and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis
of their reactivity with conc. HCl  ZnCl 2 , known OH

as Lucas Reagent. (4) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO

Statement - II : Primary alcohols are most reactive Ans. 2
and immediately produce turbidity at room Sol. In this process alkenes are converted into alcohol.
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. The alcohol so formed looks as if it has been formed
In the light of the above statements, choose the most by addition of water to alkenes by anti markovnikov’s
appropriate answer from the options given below : rule

(18)
 (1) i  ii  iii (2) ii  i  iii
ONa Cl
heat
93. 
 Product. (3) iii  ii  i (4) iii  i  ii
Ans. 4
Product of the reaction is
Sol. BP
O
(1) CH 3  CH 2 3 CH 3 : 309.1K

C 2 H 5  O  C 2 H 5 : 307.6K
OH
(2) CH 3  CH 2 3  OH : 390K
97. Statement I : The order of bond angles of XOX is
O Cl
(3) water < phenol < methoxy methane
Statement II : In all above compounds O-atom
(4) No reaction exhibits sp3 hybridisation
Ans. 4 (1) Both statement I and statement II are
Cl
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II are
incorrect
Sol. In , C – Cl has double bond character so, it
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
is very difficult to be substituted (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
94. Anisole with HNO3 and conc. H 2SO 4 gives Ans. 4
(1) Phenol Sol. S-I is true ; S II is true
(2) Nitrobenzene Water = 104°
(3) o- and p-nitroanisole Phenol = 109°
(4) m-nitroanisole Methoxymethane = 111.7°
Ans. 3 98. Assertion : Phenol does not react with NaHCO 3
Sol. OCH 3 is o, p - directing group Reason : Phenol is less acidic than H 2 CO 3
95. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is: (1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct
O explanation of A
(1)
H H (2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct
O explanation of A
(2) H C H
3 (3) A is correct R is incorrect
O
(4) A & R are incorrect
(3) H C Ans. 1
3 CH 3
99. Assertion : Alcohols cannot be used as a solvent
O for Grignard reagent
(4) Ph H Reason : R– of Grignard reagent abstracts proton
Ans. 4 for alcohol.
Sol. Lp of e–’s on oxygen are used is resonance (1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct
96. What is the correct order of boiling point of following explanation of A
compounds (2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct
(i) CH 3  CH 2 3 CH 3 (ii) C 2 H 5  O  C 2 H 5 explanation of A
(3) A is correct R is incorrect
(iii) CH 3  CH 2 3  OH (4) A & R are incorrect

(19)
Ans. 1 103. Tm (melting temperature) value of DNA is high when
100. Which of the following gives primary alcohol on its contains
reaction with Grignard reagent followed by (1) A + T > G + C (2) G + C > A + T
hydrolysis in presence of acids (3) A + T = G + C (4) A + G = T + C
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO Ans. 2
Sol. Allen module pg no. 103
O
104. Select an incorrect statement regarding RNA
(3) CH 3  C  CH 3 (4) All the aobve molecule :
Ans. 1 (1) It has highly reactive 2  OH group
O (2) It shows higher rate of mutation than DNA
Sol. H  C  H  R MgX  (3) It is genetic material in some viruses
(4) It follows Chargaff rule
O Mgx
 Ans. 4
H2 O /H
H  C  H   R CH 2 OH
Sol. Allen module pg no. 103
R 105. The number of ori–site(s) in E.coli is:
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Numerous
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140)
Ans. 1
 This section contains 35 questions.
 For each question, darken the bubble Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 106
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. 106. If a hybrid DNA molecule labelled with N15 is
allowed to replicate twice in a normal culture
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
medium then the percentage of hybrid DNA will
of the following categories :
be:
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(1) 50% (2) 12.5%
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(3) 25% (4) 75%
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Ans. 3
darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 105
101. Radioactive element used to label DNA of 107. Suppose 75 heavy dsDNA molecules replicate
bacteriophage in experiment of Hershey and Chase twice in a medium containing N14. Which of the
was : following is true?
(1) S35 (2) P32 (1) 150 hybrid and 150 normal dsDNA are
produced
(3) N15 (4) C14
(2) 75 hybrid and 75 normal dsDNA are produced
Ans. 2
(3) 150 hybrid and 75 normal dsDNA are
Sol. Allen module pg no. 103 produced
102. Bonding between deoxyribose and base in (4) 75 hybrid and 150 normal dsDNA are
pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is : produced
(1) 1  1 glycosidic linkage Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 105
(2) 1  6 glycosidic linkage
108. The model for semi –conservative DNA replication
(3) 1  9 glycosidic linkage was initially put forward by:
(4) 1  4 glycosidic linkage (1) Meselson and Stahl
(2) Watson and Crick
Ans. 1
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
Sol. Allen module pg no. 103
(4) Nirenberg and Matthaei
Ans. 2
(20)
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 104 (3) Some RNAs are catalytic
109. The experimental proof of semiconservative DNA (4) All of the above
replication was given by: Ans. 4
(1) Meselson and Stahl in E.coli Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 103, 104
(2) Watson and Crick in E.coli 115. Read the following statements:
(3) Wilkins and Franklin in Salmonella (i) RNA is chemically more stable than DNA
(4) Nirenberg and Matthaei in Salmonella
(ii) The presence of thymine at the place of uracil
Ans. 1 destabilizes DNA
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 105 (iii) RNA being stable mutates faster
110. DNA replication occurs at which phase of cell cycle: (iv) DNA is preferred for storage of genetic
(1) S-phase of a somatic cell material and for transmission of genetic
(2) S-phase of a meiocyte information, RNA is better
(3) G2–phase of a cell (v) RNA was the first genetic material to evolve
(4) More than one option is correct Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. 4 (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii) only
Sol. Allen module Pg. No.104 (3) (iv) only (4) (iv) and (v)
111. The semi-conservative DNA replication in Ans. 4
chromosomes was experimentally proven in 116. Which of the following provides some evidence that
eukaryotes (Vicia faba) by : RNA probably evolved before DNA?
(1) Taylor using H3 (1) RNA polymerase makes single stranded
(2) Taylor using N15 molecule
(3) Meselson and Stahl using H3 (2) DNA polymerase uses primer made of RNA
(4) Meselson and Stahl using C14 (3) DNA polymerase has proof reading activity
Ans. 1 (4) RNA polymerase does not require localised
unwinding of the DNA
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 106
Ans. 2
112. RNA is the genetic material in:
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 104
(1) TMV
117. The percentage of adenine in DNA isolated from
(2) QB bacteriophage
human liver is observed to be 30.7%. What is the
(3) Ebola virus and SARS virus expected percentage of thymine, guanine and
(4) All of the above cytosine?
Ans. 4 (1) T = 19.3%, G = 19.3%, C = 30.7%
Sol. Allen module (2) T = 19.3%, G = 30.7%, C = 19.3%
113. Proteins cannot act as genetic material because: (3) T = 30.7%, G = 19.3%, C = 30.7%
(1) It is not a macromolecule (4) T = 30.7%, G = 19.3%, C = 19.3%
(2) It is chemically highly unstable Ans. 4
(3) It cannot generate its own replica Sol. Allen module Pg. No. 98
(4) None of these AG 3
118. If in one of the strands of a ds DNA 
Ans. 3 TC 5
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 104 AG
then, what will be the ratio of in the other
114. RNA was not selected as genetic material in most TC
organisms because: strand?
(1) It is chemically unstable 5 2
(1) (2)
3 3
(2) The 2 OH group present at every nucleotide
3 1
in RNA is a reactive group (3) (4)
2 5
(21)
Ans. 1 124. Find out the number of phosphodiester bonds (PDB)
Sol. Allen module Pg. No. 98 and N–glycosidic bonds (NGB) in the polynucleotide
chain provided below:
119. The number of nucleotides present in the DNA
wrapped around a histone octamer in a nucleosome 5 phosphate
is: 3 hydroxyl
(1) 400 (2) 200
(3) 250 (4) 530
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99 (1) PDB = 4, NGB = 4
120. The daimeter of B–type DNA is (2) PDB = 3, NGB = 3
(1) 20 Å (2) 2 Å (3) PDB = 4, NGB = 3
(3) 20 nm (4) 0.2 nm (4) PDB = 3, NGB = 4
Ans. 1 Ans. 4
121. The experimental bacteria in Griffith’s experiment Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 98
was: 125. What is true regarding the left hand side (LHS) and
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae right hand side (RHS) of the Hershey and Chase’s
(2) Bacillus experiment after centrifugation step is complete?
(3) Escherichia
(4) Pseudomonas pneumoniae
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 100
122. The biochemical characterisation of ‘transforming
substance’ in Griffith’s experiment was done by:
(1) Avery, Leod and Carty, who proved the
transforming substance is DNA
(2) Hershey and Chase, who proved the
transforming substance is DNA
(3) Chargaff, who proved the transforming
substance is DNA LHS of the experiment RHS of the experiment
(4) Avery, Leod and Carty, who proved the
(1) LHS = Radioactivity detected in supernatant
transforming substance is protein
but not in cells
Ans. 1
RHS = Radioactivity detected in supernatant
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 101 but not in cells
123. In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is (2) LHS = Radioactivity detected in cells but not
the genetic material of phages, Hershey and Chase in supernatant
made use of which of the following facts?
RHS = Radioactivity detected in cells but not
(1) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does in supernatant
not
(3) LHS = Radioactivity detected in supernatant
(2) DNA includes deoxyribose sugars but protein but not in cells
does not
RHS = Radioactivity detected in cells but not
(3) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein in supernatant
does not
(4) LHS = Radioactivity detected in cells but not
(4) DNA contains sulphur, whereas protein does in supernatant
not
RHS = Radioactivity detected in supernatant
Ans. 3 but not in cells
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 102
(22)
Ans. 3 131. In DNA purine nitrogen bases are :
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 102 (1) Uracil and Guanine
126. Meselson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative (2) Guanine and Adenine
DNA replication by using : (3) Adenine and cytosine
(1) Radioactive nitrogen (4) None
(2) Heavy isotope of nitrogen Ans. 2
(3) Radioactive carbon Sol. Allen module pg no. 140
(4) Heavy isotope of carbon 132. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked with:
Ans. 2 (1) Peptide bond
Sol. NCERT Pg. No.102 (2) Disulphide bond
127. Meselson and Stahl while experimentally proving (3) Hydrogen bond
semi-conservation DNA replication, separated light,
heavy and hybrid DNA molecules with the help of : (4) Phosphodiester bond
(1) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation Ans. 4
(2) NaCl density gradient centrifugation Sol. Allen module pg no. 140
133. A: Watson and Crick provided experimental proof
(3) MgCl2 density gradient centrifugation
of semiconservative nature of DNA
(4) CsCl density gradient centrifugation replication.
Ans. 4 R: DNA polymerase binds nucleotides in
Sol. NCERT Pg. No.102 replication.
128. The average rate of DNA polymerisation in (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
prokayotes (E.coli) is : reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion then mark
(1) 10,000 bp/sec (2) 4,000 bp/sec (2) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(3) 200 bp/sec (4) 2,000 bp/sec reason is not the correct explanation of the
Ans. 4 assertion, then mark
Sol. Allen module No.105 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false, then
mark
129. During DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
triphophates serve the dual purpose of :
statements then mark
(1) Acting as substrate and has enzymatic activity Ans. 4
(2) Acting as transducer and has enzymatic Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 104
activity 134. A: In Griffith’s experiment, a mixture of heat killed
(3) Acting as substrate and provides energy for SIII strain of Streptococcus and RII alive
polymerisation bacteria when injected into mice, the mice
(4) Acting as enzyme and provide energy for died.
polymerisation R: The ‘transforming substance/principle’ from
heat killed SIII got transferred into RII
Ans. 3 transforming RII into SIII.
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 106 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
130. If base order in one chain of DNA is “ATCGA” reason is the correct explanation of the
then how many no. of H-bond found in DNA duplex assertion then mark
: (2) If both assertion and reason are true but the
(1) 20 (2) 12 reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark
(3) 10 (4) 11
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false, then
Ans. 2 mark
Sol. Allen module pg no. 140 (4) If both assertion and reason are false
statements then mark
Ans. 1
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 100

(23)
135. Assertion : The DNA replication is 137. Which of the following is found in a DNA?
semiconservative in nature. (1) dATP
Reason : As a result of replication two copies are (2) GMP
produced, each contains one of the original
(3) dUMP
strands and one new strand.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the (4) Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphates
reason is the correct explanation of the Ans. 4
assertion then mark Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 97
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but the 138. Which of the following is not found in a
reason is not the correct explanation of the deoxyribonucleotide?
assertion, then mark
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false, then (1) Phosphodiester bond (2) Phosphoester bond
mark (3) Glycosidic bond (4) Covalent bond
(4) If both assertion and reason are false Ans. 1
statements then mark Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 98
Ans. 1
139. What will be the number of N-glycosidic bonds
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 104 (NGB) and phosphodiester bonds (PDB) in the
nucleoid of E.coli made of 4.6  106 bp ?
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
 This section contains 15 questions. (1) NGB  9.2  106 , PDB  9.2  103
 Attempt any 10 questions.
 For each question, darken the bubble (2) NGB  4.6  106 , PDB  4.6  103
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (3) NGB  4.6  106 , PDB  4.6  106
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
of the following categories : (4) NGB  9.2  106 , PDB  9.2  106
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble Ans. 4
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 98
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is 140. Watson and Crick gave the famous double helix
darkened. DNA model based on ______produced by _____:
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (1) Density gradient centrifugation; Meselson and
136. Match the column: Stahl
(2) Density gradient centrifugation; Maurice
Column – I Column – II
wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
A   174 DNA (i) 3.3  109 bp
(3) X–ray diffraction; Meselson and Stahl
B   phage DNA (ii) 4.6  106 bp
(4) X–diffraction; Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind
C E.coli DNA (iii) 48502 bp Franklin
Haploid content 5386
D (iv) Ans. 4
of human DNA nucleotides
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 97
(1) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)
(2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(3) A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(4) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii)
Ans.1
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 96

(24)
141. Identify, A, B and C of nucleosome: Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 97, 98
A B
145. The length of dsDNA double helix in a human
somatic cell is approximately:
(1) 3.3  109 bp (2) 6.6  109 bp
C (3) 3.3  106 bp (4) 6.6  106 bp
Ans. 2
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99
146. The prokaryotic DNA is nucleoid which is organised
in large loops held by:
(1) A = Histone core, B = DNA, C = H1 (1) Positively charged polyamines (positively
(2) A = DNA, B = Histone octamer, C = H1 charged proteins)
(3) A = DNA, B = H1, C = Nu-body (2) Negatively charged proteins
(4) A = DNA, B = Histone core, C = H1 (3) Neutral amino acids
Ans. 3 (4) RNA only
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99 Ans. 1
142. Which of the following is not a criteria for a molecule Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99
to act as genetic material? 147. How many nucleosomes (beaded structure) are
(1) It should be able to generate its replica approximately present in a human somatic cell made
(2) It should be able to pass itself to the next of 6.6  109 bp ?
generation
(3) It should provide the scope for fast change (1) 3.3  109 (2) 6.6  109
(fast mutation) (3) 6.6  105 (4) 3.3  107
(4) It should be structurally stable Ans. 4
Ans. 3 Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 101 148. In a nucleosome, the histone core is made of:
143. One of the hallmarks of Watson and Crick (1) 2(H2A + H2B + H3 + H4)
proposition for DNA structure was:
(2) 2(H1 + H2 + H3 + H4)
(1) Base pairing between the two strands of
polynucleotide chains (3) 4(H2A + H2B + H3 + H4)
(2) The discovery of nitrogenous bases (4) 8(H2A + H2B + H3 + H4)
(3) The presence of ribonucleotides Ans. 1
(4) All of the above Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99
Ans. 1 149. A typical nucleosome contains ________ of DNA
helix:
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 97
(1) 400 bp (2) 600 bp
144. Which of the following is correct for a dsDNA
molecule? (3) 200 bp (4) 500 bp
(1) The two chains have antiparallel polarity Ans. 3
which means one chain has the polarity Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99
5'  3' and other also has 5'  3' polarity 150. Which of the following is not incorrect?
(2) It is a polymer of deoxyribonucleoside (1) Nucleosomes is made up of DNA and histone
triphosphates proteins
(2) Histones are rich acidic amino acids like
(3) The pitch of helix is 3.4 Ao
lysines and arginines
(4) The backbone is constituted by sugar–
phosphate and bases project inside

(25)
 (3) The nucleoid of E.coli is made of
153. Mutations are A while Darwinian variations are
4.6  103 bp
B.
(4) After the formation of chromatin further
packaging does not occur Options :
Ans. 1 (1) A  small and directional
Sol. NCERT Pg. No. 99 B  random and directionless
(2) A  small and directional
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) B  random and directional
 This section contains 35 questions.
(3) A  random and directionless
 For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. B  small and directional
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one (4) A  random and directional
of the following categories : B  small and directional
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
Ans. 3
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
154. According to Hugo de Vries, speciation is due to
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is mutation is also knows as 'Saltation' which
darkened. means :
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (1) Single step variation
(2) Variations at regular intervals
151. Two key concepts of Darwin theory of evolution (3) Single step large mutation
are :
(4) Huge change due to natural selection
(1) Saltation and natural selection
Ans. 3
(2) Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution
155. All of the following conditions were created in
(3) Branching descent and natural selection laboratory by S.L.Miller except?
(4) Natural selection and divergent evolution (A) Electric discharge in closed flask
Ans. 3 (B) Water vapour
152. Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg (C) High temperature
equilibrium. These five factors in given list :
(D) Oxidising atmosphere
(a) Genetic drift
(1) A & B (2) A, B and C
(b) Natural selection
(3) D only (4) C & D only
(c) Adaptive evolution
Ans. 3
(d) Mutation
Sol. NCERT Page no. 127
(e) Convergent evolution
(f) Gene migration 156. The first A forms of life could have
(g) Genetic recombination originated B years back.
(h) Branching descent
A B
Options : (1) Non cellular 2 billion
(1) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, d, e, f (2) Cellular 3 billion
(3) a, c, d, g, h (4) a, b, d, f, g (3) Non cellular 3 billion
Ans. 4 (4) Cellular 4 billion
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT Page no. 127

(26)
157. The most apparent change during the evolutionaary 163. Which is correct order in evolutionary history of
history of Homo sapiens is traced in : man ?
(1) Loss of body hair (1) Peking man  Habilis man  Neanderthal
(2) Walking upright man  Cromagnon man
(3) Shortening of the jaws (2) Peking man  Heidelberg man 
(4) Remarkable increase in the brain size Neanderthal man  Cromagnon man
Ans. 4 (3) Peking man  Neanderthal man  Homo
158. The first human like being the hominid was sapiens  Heidelberg man
called :
(4) Peking man  Homo sapiens 
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus
Neanderthal man  Cromagnon man
(3) Homo habilis (4) Homo sapiens
Ans. 2
Ans. 3
164. Species separated by geographical barriers are
159. The vertebrate hearts and brains are included under
called :
the examples of
(1) Sympatric (2) Allopatric
(1) Analogous organs
(3) Sibling (4) Endemic
(2) Vestigial organs
Ans. 2
(3) Atavism
165. Which is incorrect match w.r.t. convergent
(4) Homologous organs
evolution?
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 130 (1) Anteater Numbat
160. Identify the following (2) Lemur Spotted cuscus
(3) Mole Marsupial mole
(4) Wolf Tasmanian tiger cat
Ans. 4
A
Sol. NCERT Page no. 134
B 166. Which of the following factor does not affect the
A and B of above diagram explains Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(1) Analogous organs (1) Gene flow
(2) Homologous organs (2) Genetic drift
(3) Vestigial organs (3) Genetic recombination
(4) Convergent evolution (4) Random mating
Ans. 2 Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 131 Sol. NCERT Page no. 137
161. Unit of natural selection is : 167. Match the following w.r.t Evolution
(1) Individual (2) Population A. First cellular (i) 500 mya
(3) Species (4) Mutation forms
B. Invertebrates (ii) 350 mya
Ans. 1
C. Jawless fishes (iii) 2000 mya
162. Which of the following were showing camouflage D. Fish like (iv) 200 mya
in Industrial areas of England? reptiles
(1) Lichens (2) Finches
A B C D
(3) Apes (4) Moths
(1) iv i ii iii
Ans. 4 (2) iii ii i iv
Sol. NCERT Page no. 132 (3) iii i ii iv
(4) i iii iv ii
(27)
Ans.3 173. Match the following
Sol. NCERT Page no. 138 A. Dryopithecus (i) Essentially
168. Which fossil man had cranial capacity almost equal ate fruit
to modern man ? B. Neanderthal (ii) Cranial
(1) Australopithecus (2) Cromagnon man man capacity
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Peking man 900 cc
Ans. 3
C. Australopithec (iii) Buried their
ines dead
169. All of the following were ancesters to mammals,
D. Homo erectus (iv) ape - like
except?
(1) Therapsids (2) Pelycosaurs A B C D
(3) Synapsids (4) Thecodonts (1) iv ii i iii
(2) ii iii i iv
Ans. 4
(3) i ii iii iv
Sol. NCERT Page no. 139 (4) iv iii i ii
170. Which of the following is not ancestor to conifers?
Ans. 4
(1) Psilophyton
Sol. NCERT Page no. 140 & 141
(2) Rhynia – type plants
174. The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an
(3) Tracheophyte ancestor evidence in favour of :
(4) Zosterophyllum (1) Special Creation
Ans. 4 (2) Evolution due to Mutation
Sol. NCERT Page no. 138 (3) Retrogressive Evolution
171. Which of the following is not an example of natural (4) Biogeographical Evolution
selection?
Ans. 4
(1) Industrial melanism
175. Which of the following is an example of parallel
(2) Different breeds of dogs evolution?
(3) Herbicide resistant varieties in plant (1) Human Heart & Lungs
(4) Drug resistance in microbes (2) Human Language & Skills
Ans. 2 (3) Human Brain & Language
Sol. NCERT Page no. 132 (4) Human Skull & Brain
172. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined Ans. 3
by radio-carbon method and other methods involving
radioactive elements found in the rocks. More Sol. NCERT Page no. 142
precise methods, which were used recently and led 176. Identify the option based on following characters?
to the revision of the evolutionary A. It was about 20 feet in height
periods for different group of organisms B. It had huge fear some dagger like teeth
include :
(1) Therapsids (2) Pelycosaurs
(1) Study of the conditions of fossilization
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Tyranosaurus rex
(2) Electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA
Ans. 4
(3) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
Sol. NCERT Page no. 140
(4) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils
Ans. 2

(28)
177. Identify the correct option based on below diagram 181. First amphibians that lived on both land and water
of natural selection? were evolved from?
(1) Coelacanth (2) Lobe fins
(3) Jawless fishes (4) Both (1) & (2)
Two peaks formed
Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT Page no. 138
182. Rocky mountain revolution took place between :
(c) (1) Palaeozoic and mesozoic era
(1) More individuals acquire mean character (2) Archaeozoic and proterozoic era
value (3) Mesozoic and coeonzoic era
(2) More individuals acquire peripheral character (4) Proterozoic and palaezoic era
value at both ends of distribution curve Ans. 3
(3) More individuals acquire value other than the 183. Improved varieties of pigeons are developed by :
mean character value (1) Natural selection
(4) Few individuals acquire peripheral character (2) Environmental selection
value
(3) Artificial selection
Ans. 2
(4) Protective selection
Sol. NCERT Page no. 137
Ans. 3
178. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared
to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, 184. Pre–historic cave art developed about
it can be called as? A years ago & Agriculture came around
(1) Divergent evolution B years back
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation (1) 10,000 18,000
(4) Convergent evolution (2) 18,000 10,000
(3) 75,000 10,000
Ans. 4
(4) 10,000 75,000
Sol. NCERT Page no. 135
Ans. 2
179. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it
Sol. NCERT Page no. 141
is observed that it passes through a two chambered
fish like heart, three chambered frog like heart and 185. Match the following
finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis (A) Thecodont (i) Fish like
can this above statement be approximated : reptile
(1) Biogenetic law (B) Ichthyosaurs (ii) Ancestor to
(2) Hardy Weinberg law Dinosaurs
(C) Coelacanth (iii) First mammals
(3) Lamarck's principle
(D) Shrew like (iv) Fish with stout
(4) Mendelian principle & strong fin
Ans. 1
A B C D
180. Which of the following horse fossil had no splint (1) i iii ii iv
bones? (2) ii iv i iii
(1) Mesohippus (2) Merychippus (3) ii i iv iii
(3) Pliohippus (4) Equus (4) i ii iii iv
Ans. 2 Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT Page no. 140, 138

(29)
 correct explanation of (A).
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) (3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false.
 This section contains 15 questions. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
 Attempt any 10 questions. Ans. 1
 For each question, darken the bubble 191. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. by
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one (1) Oparin
of the following categories : (2) Karl Ernst Von Baer
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (3) Alfred Wallace
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(4) Charles Darwin
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
Ans. 2
darkened.
Sol. NCERT Page no. 129
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
192. Assertion : Evolution is not occuring at present.
186. Peripatus is a connecting link between
Reason : Evolution takes a very long time to occur.
(1) Mollusca and Arthropoda
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(2) Flatworms and annelida
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Annelida and Arthropoda
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) Reptilia and mammalia correct explanation of (A).
Ans. 3 (3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false.
Sol. Allen Module Page no. 129 (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
187. Mammals like reptile originated in Ans. 4
(1) Jurassic (2) Triassic 193. Assertion : Branching descent and Natural
(3) Cretaceous (4) Permian selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian
Ans. 4 theory or evolution.
Sol. Allen Module Page no. 131 Reason : Darwinism is able to explain the presence
188. Genetic drift rapidly operates in of vestigeal organ.
(1) Small isolated population (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Large isolated population
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) Fast reproductive population
correct explanation of (A).
(4) Slow reproductive population
(3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false.
Ans. 1
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Sol. Allen Module Page no. 134
Ans. 3
189. Ancestor of man who first stood erect was
194. When reptiles came down which animals took over
(1) Australopithecus (2) Cromagnon man the earth?
(3) Java man (4) Peking man (1) Birds (2) Dinosaurs
Ans. 1 (3) Mammals (4) Amphibians
Sol. Allen Module Page no. 138 Ans. 3
190. Assertion : Evolution is not a directed process in Sol. Allen Module Page no. 154
the sense of determination.
195. Man who first believed in immortality of soul was
Reason : It is a stochastic process based on chance
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Cromagnon
events in nature and chance mutation in the
organisms. (3) Java man (4) Peking man
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Ans. 1
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the

(30)
Sol. Allen Module Page no. 157 Ans. 1
196. Assertion : Among the primates, chimpanzee is 198. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend
the closest relative of the present day humans. of moving from:–
Reason : The banding pattern in the autosome (1) Land to water
numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee is (2) Dry land to wet land
remarkably similar.
(3) Fresh water to sea water
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(4) Water to land
correct explanation of (A).
Ans. 4
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). Sol. Allen Module Page no. 151
(3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false. 199. Appearance of antibiotic–resistance bacteria is an
example of:–
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(1) Adaptive radiation
Ans. 1
(2) Transduction
197. Which kind of mimicry is shown by viceroy butterfly
and monarch butterfly ? (3) Pre–existing variation in population
(1) Batesian mimicry (4) Divergent evolution
(2) Aggressive mimicry Ans. 3
(3) Mullerian mimicry Sol. Allen Module Page no. 151
(4) Both (1) and (2) mimicry 200. If a population is in genetic equilibrium the sum total
of all allelic frequencies is
(1) Less than 1 (2) Equal to 1
(3) Greater than 1 (4) Zero
Ans. 2
Sol. Sum total of all allelic frequencies in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium is 1.

(31)