SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

(50 Questions 40 minutes)

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations
and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part. Answer all the
questions on the basis o what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you take the actual TOEFL
test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work on this Model test in the same
way.

PART A

Directions : In part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will
hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the questions and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.

1. A. Car repairs should be done at a garage. 7 A. Dr. Clark is a good teacher

B. The price was not too high B. Statistic is a boring class
C. The garage took advantage of the woman C. Two semesters of statistic are required
D. The car had serious problems D. The students do not like Dr .Clark

2 A. Have a party 8 A. He cannot do them

B. Attend the International Students` B. They are finished
Association C. It will be difficult job
C. Go to work D. They will be ready Saturday afternoon
D. Get some rest

3 A. Leave immediately 9 A. At concert

B. Watch the game on TV B. An art museum
C. Start to play C. A flower shop
D. Eat a sandwich D. A restaurant

4 A. He went to see the foreign student advisor 10 A. He is at lunch

B. He went to Washington B. He is at the office
C. He wrote to the Passport Office C. He is in class
D. He reported it to the Passport Office D. He is at home

5 A. It is the policy of the bank 11 A. Take the ten o`clock bus

B. The man was not helpful at all B. Come back in five minutes
C. Her account at the bank is in order C. Go to New York another day
D. The check should be cashed D. Call the airport

6 A. Ask Dr.Tyler to clarify the assignment 12 A. A teacher

B. Show a preliminary version to Dr.Tyler B. A textbook
C. Let her see the first draft before Dr.Tyler sees C. An assignment
it D. A movie
D. Talk to some of the other students in
Dr.Tyler`s class
13 A. Make corrections on the original 22 A. She does not put much effort in her
B. Make copies studies
C. Deliver the copies to Mr.Brown B. She is very likeable
D. Find the original C. She prefers talking to the woman
D. She has a telephone

14 A. She was Sally Harrison`s cousin 23 A. See the doctor

B. She was Sally Harrison`s sister B. Get another job
C. She was Sally Harrison`s friend C. Go to the counter
D. She was Sally Harrison D. By some medicine

15 A. The desk drawer won`t open 24 A. She will try her best
B. The pen is out of ink B. She has to save her money
C. She cannot find her pen C. She is still undecided
D. She is angry with the man D. She needs an application

16 A. John is usually late 25 A. She is glad to meet Robert

B. John will be there at eight-thirty B. She is surprised to hear from Robert
C. John will not show up C. She does not enjoy talking with Robert
D. John is usually on time D. She was ready to call Robert

17 A. She doesn`t agree with the man 26 A. The man must stop working
B. She needs a larger home B. There is a little more time
C. She regrets the cost of their vacation C. The test is important
D. She thinks that houses are very expensive D. It is time for the test

18 A. He did not make a presentation 27 A. The woman`s roommate took different

B. He got confused during the presentation class
C. He should have spoken more loudly B. The book is very expensive
D. He did a very complete job C. The textbook may have been changed
D. The course is not offered this semester

19 A. He as decided not to mail the invitations 28 A. Sally may get a bike for Christmas
B. He wants to get Janet`s opinion B. Sally already has a bike like that one
C. He is waiting for Janet to answer the phone C. Sally likes riding a bike
D. He does not want to invite Janet D. Sally may prefer a different gift

20 A. The baby is asleep 29 A. He does not want to give Carol a ride

B. The baby is very active B. He does not have a car
C. The baby is not staying with the woman C. He cannot hear well
D. The baby is just about to start walking D. He does not know Carol

21 A. The results of the tests are not available 30 A. Take a break

B. The experiment had unexpected results B. Go to work
C. He has not completed the experiment yet C. Do the other problems
D. It is taking a lot of time to do the experiment D. Keep trying

Continue to the next page.

 PART B

Directions : In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear
several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question. Read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on you test pages.

31 A. Whether to introduce the metric system in 35 A. To change his travel plans

the United States B. To arrange a time to pick up his tickets
B. How the metric system should be C. To reserve a hotel room
introduced in the United States D. To make a plane reservation
C. Which system is better – the English
system or the metric system
D. How to convert measurements from the
English system to the metric system

32 A. Now the weather on radio and TV is 36 A. The man can save money by staying an
reported exclusively in metrics extra night
B. Road signs have miles marked on them, B. The man should have called earlier
but not kilometers C. She needs the man to come into the office
C. Both the English system and the metric D. She will mail the tickets to the man
system are being used on signs, packages,
and weather reports
D. Grocery stores use only metrics for their
packaging

33 A. He thought that a gradual adoption would 37 A. Travel on May 19 as planned

be better for everyone B. Wait for a cheaper fare
B. He thought that only metrics should be C. Stay an extra day in Atlanta
used D. Return on Sunday
C. He thought that only the English system
should be used
D. He thought that adults should use both
systems, but that children should be
taught only the metric system

34 A. Unfriendly 38 A. Go back to his hotel

B. Patronizing B. Pack his suitcase
C. Uninterested C. Call a different travel agent
D. Coorperative D. Go to the travel agent`s office in the
afternoon

Continue to the next page.

 PART C

Directions : in this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on
your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.

39 A. Private industry 45 A. Gold was discovered

B. Advances in medicine B. The Transcontinental Railroad was
C. Space missions completed
D. Technological developments C. The Golden Gate Bridge was constructed
D. Telegraph communication were established
with the East

40 A. Contac lenses 46 A. Eighteen miles

B. Cordless tools B. 938 feet
C. Food packaging C. One mile
D. Ultrasound D. Between five and six miles

41 A. To monitor the condition of astronauts in 47 A. The term “essay”

spacecraft B. Prose writing
B. To evaluate candidates who wante4d to C. Personal viewpoint
join the space program D. Brainstorming
C. To check the health of astronauts when
they returned from space
D. To test spacecraft and equipment for
imperfections
E.
42 A. Archaeologists and astronauts were 48 A. The work of Alexander Pope
compared B. The difference between prose and poetry
B. Astronauts made photographs of the C. The general characteristics of essays
Earth late used by archaeologists D. The reason that the phrase “personal essay”
C. Archaeologists have used advanced in is redundant
medical technology developed for
astronauts
D. Space missions and underwater missions
are very similar

43 A. Transportation on the Pacific coast 49 A. It is usually short

B. History of California B. It can be either prose or poetry
C. Orientation to San Francisco C. It expresses a personal point of view
D. Specifications of the golden Gate Bridge D. It discusses one topic

44 A. Golden Gate 50 A. They will prepare for a quiz

B. San Francisco de Asis Mission B. They will write their first essay
C. Military Post Seventy-six C. They will read works by Pope
Continue to the next page.
 D. Yerba Buena D. They will review their notes

THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION

SECTION 2 : STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

( 40 Questions 25 minutes )

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written
English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each one.

STRUCTURE

Directions : Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or
phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

1 Based on the premise that light was composed of 5 The Internal Revenue Service ________ their tax
color, the impressionist came to the conclusion forms by April 15 every year.
________ not really black. A. make all Americans file
A. which was that shadows B. make all Americans to file
B. was shadows which C. makes the filling of all Americans
C. were shadows D. makes all Americans filling
D. that shadows were

2 ________ a parliamentary system, the prime 6 Although one of his ships succeeded in sailing all the
minister must be appointed on the basis of the way back to Spain past the Cape of God Hope,
distribution of power in the parliament. Magellan never completed the first
A. The considered circumnavigation of the world, and _________.
B. To be considered A. most of his crew didn`t too
C. Considering B. neither most of his crew did
D. Considers C. neither did most of his crew
D. most of his crew didn`t also

3 ________ of the play Mourning Becomes Electra 7 To answer accurately is more important than
introduces that cast of characters and hints at the ___________.
plot. A. a quick finish
A. The act first B. to finish quickly
B. Act one C. finishing quickly
C. Act first D. you finish quickly
D. First act

4 As soon as ________ with an acid, salt, and 8 Weathering _________ the action whereby surface
sometimes water, is formed. rock is disintegrated or decomposed.
A. a base will react A. it is
B. a base reacts B. is that
C. a base is reacting C. is
D. the reaction of a base D. being

Continue to the next page.

9 A telephone recording tells callers __________ 13 Although Margaret Mead had several assistants
A. what time the move starts during her long investigations of Samoa, the bulk of
B. what time starts the movie the research was done by __________ alone.
C. what time does the movie start A. herself
D. the movie starts what time B. she
C. her
D. hers

10 The people of Western Canada have been 14 ________ war correspondent, Hemingway used his
considering ________ themselves from the rest of experiences for some of his most powerful novels.
the provinces. A. But a
A. to separate B. It is a
B. separated C. While
C. separate D. A
D. separating

11 It costs about sixty dollars to have a tooth 15 Thirty-eight national sites are known as parks,
_______ another eighty-two as monuments and
A. filling __________.
B. to fill A. the another one hundred seventy-eight as
C. filled historical sites
D. fill B. the other one hundred seventy-eight as
historical sites
C. seventy-eight plus one hundred more as
historical sites
D. as historical sites one hundred seventy-
eight

12 Not until a student has mastered algebra

________ the principles of geometry,
trigonometry, and physics.
A. he can begin to understand
B. can he begin to understand
C. he begins to understand
D. begins to understand

Continue to the next page.

 WRIITTEN EXPRESSION

Directions : in questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined pars of
the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed
in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the questions and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

16 Interest in automatic data processing has grown rapid since the first large calculators were introduced in 1950.
A B C D

17 Vaslav Nijinsky achieved world recognition as both a dancer as well as a choreographer.

A B C D

18 Airports must be located near to major population centers for the advantage of air transportation to be retained.
A B C D

19 It is said that Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war.
A B C D

20 The plants that they belong to the family of ferns are quite varied in their size and structure.
A B C D

21 Despite of the increase in air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D

22 All of we students must have an identification card in order to check books out of the library.
A B C D

23 Colombus Day is celebrated on the twelve of October because on that day in 1942, Christopher Colombus first
A B C D
landed in the Americas.

24 One of the most influence newspapers in the U.S. is the New York Times, which is widely distributed throughout
A B C D
the world.

25 An unexpected raise in the cost of living as well as a decline in employment opportunities resulted in the rapid
A B C D
creation by Congress of new government programs for the unemployed.

26 It is imperative that a graduate student maintains a grade point average of “B” in his major field.
A B C D

27 Coastal and inland waters are inhabited not only by fish but also by such sea creature as shrimps and clams.

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 A B C D

28 Economists have tried to discourage the use of the phrase “underdeveloped nation” and encouraging the more
A B C D
accurate phrase “developing nation” in order to suggest an ongoing process.

29 A gas like propane will combination with water molecules in a saline solution to form a solid called a hydrate.
A B C D

30 Although it cannot be proven, presumable the expansion of the universe will slow down as it approaches a
A B C D
critical radius.

31 Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for the students to practice
A B C
speaking words.
D

32 A City University professor reported that he discovers a vaccine that has been 80 percent effective in reducing the
A B C
Instances of tooth decay among small children.
D

33 American baseball teams, once the only contenders for the world championship, are now being challenged by
A B C
either Japanese teams and Venezuelan teams.
D

34 When they have been frightened, as, for example, by an electrical storm, dairy cows may refuse giving milk.
A B C D

35 Miami, Florida is among the few cities in the United States that has been awarded official status as bilingual
A B C D
municipalities.

36 No other quality is more important for a scientist to acquire as to observe carefully.

A B C D

37 After the police had tried unsuccessfully to determine to who the car belonged, they towed it into the station.
A B C D

38 Fertilizers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield.

A B C D

39 If the ozone gases of the atmosphere did not filter out the ultraviolet rays of the sun, life as we know it would not
A B C
have evolved on Earth.
D

40 The regulation requires that everyone who holds a nonimmigrant visa reports an address to the federal
A B C D
government in January of each year.
Continue to the next page.
 THIS IS THE END OF THE STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION SECTION.

SECTION 3 : READING COMPREHENSION

(60 Questions 55 Minutes)

Directions : in this section, you will read several passages, each one is followed by a number of questions about
it. For questions 1 – 60, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.

QUESTIONS 1- 10 .

Precipitation, commonly referred to as rainfall, is a measure of the quantity of water in

the form of either rain, hail, or snow which reaches the ground. The average annual
Precipitation over the whole of the United States is thirty-six inches. It should be understood
Line however, that a foot of snow is not equal to a foot of precipitation. A general formula for
(5) computing the precipitation of snowfall is that ten inches of snow is equal to one inch of
precipitation. In New York State, for example, twenty inches of snow in one year would be
recorded as only two inches of precipitation. Forty inches of rain would be recorded as forty
inches of precipitation. The total annual precipitation would be recorded as forty-two inches.

The amount of precipitation is combined result of several factors, including location, altitude,
(10) proximity to the sea, and the direction of prevailing winds. Most of the precipitation in the
United States is brought originally by prevailing winds .from the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of
Mexico, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Great Lakes, Because these prevailing winds generally
come from the West, the pacific coast receives more annual precipitation than the Atlantic
Coast. Along the Pacific Coast itself, however, altitude causes some diversity in rainfall.
(15) The mountain ranges of the United States, especially the Rocky Mountain Range and the
Appalachian Mountain Range, influence the amount of precipitation in their areas. East of the
Rocky Mountains, the annual precipitation decreases substantially from the west of the Rocky
Mountains. The precipitation north of the Appalachian Mountains is about 40 percent less than
that south of the Appalachian Mountains.

1 What does this passage mainly discuss? 4 What is the average annual rainfall in inches in the
A. Precipitation United States?
B. Snowfall A. Thirty-six inches
C. New York State B. Thirty-eight inches
D. A general formula C. Forty inches
D. Forty two inches

2 Which of the following is another word that is 5 If a state has 40 inches, of snow in a year, by how much
often used in place of precipitation? does this increase the annual precipitation?
A. Humidity A. By two feet
B. Wetness B. By four inches
C. Rainfall C. By four feet
D. Rain – snow D. By 40 inches

Continue to the next page.

3 The term precipitation includes 6 The phrase “proximity to” in line 10 is closest in
A. Only rainfall meaning to
B. Rain, hail, and snow A. Communication with
C. Rain, snow, and humidity B. Dependence on
D. Rain, hail, and humidity C. Nearness to
D. Similarity to
7 Where is the annual precipitation highest? 9 The word “substantially” in line 17 could best be
A. The Atlantic coast replaced by
B. The Great Lakes A. Fundamentally
C. The Gulf of Mexico B. Slightly
D. The Pacific Coast C. Completely
D. Apparently

8 Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a 10 The word “that” in line 19 refers to
factor in determining the amount of precipitation A. Decreases
that an are will receive? B. Precipitation
A. Mountains C. Areas
B. Latitude D. Mountain ranges
C. The sea
D. Wind

QUESTIONS 11 – 20

Course numbers are an indication of which courses are open to various categories of students are the
University. Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses
Line appropriate for fresh men or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 – 400 often have
(5) prerequisites and are open to juniors and seniors only. Courses with the number 800 or above are open
only
to graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally those devoted to introductory material, are
numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students.
Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry 500 number for undergraduate
students
and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that
(10) do not carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward
the
number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.

A full time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours.
A full time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Students
(15) holding assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate
students may register for a minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum
number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor. To register for and overload,
students must submit the appropriate approval form when registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not
be
approved under any circumstances.

11 Where would this passage most likely be found? 12 Where is the purpose of the passage?
A. In the syllabus A. To inform

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 B. In a college catalog B. To persuade
C. In an undergraduate course C. To criticize
D. In a graduate course D. To apologize

13 The word “prerequisites” in line 4 is closest in 17 How is a student who registers for eight credit hours
meaning to classified?
A. Courses required before enrolling A. Full-time student
B. Courses needed for graduation B. Graduate student
C. Courses that include additional charges C. Part-time student
D. Courses that do not carry academic D. Non-graduate student

14 The word “those” in line 6 refers to 18 Which of the following courses would not be
A. Graduate students included in the list of courses for graduation?
B. Graduate courses A. English 90
C. Introductory courses B. English 100
D. Course numbers C. English 300
D. English 400

15 Which classification of students would be eligible 19 A graduate student may NOT

to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850? A. Enroll in a course numbered 6010
A. A graduate student B. Register for only one one-hour course
B. A part-time student C. Register for courses if he has an
C. A full-time student assistantship
D. An undergraduate student D. Enroll in an introductory course

16 If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 20 The phrase “under any circumstances” in line 18 is
to register for an accounting course, what number closest in meaning to
would a graduate student probably use to register A. Without cause
for the same course? B. Without permission
A. Accounting 520 C. Without exception
B. Accounting 620 D. Without a good reason
C. Accounting 720
D. Accounting 820

QUESTIONS 21 – 30

During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated in a large
number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system. Improve
Line education, ban the sale of alcohol, and, most importantly, to free the slaves. Some women saw
(5) similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy
Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks.
A number of male abolitionist, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Philips, also
supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally with men in antislavery activities.
Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry
(10) into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and the
Conditions and the conditions of others.

When the Civil War ended in 1865, the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments to the constitution

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 adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women.
Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to
vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states
(15) resisted more stubbornly than before. A women`s suffrage bill had been presented to every
Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the Nineteenth Amendment
granted women the right to vote.

21 With what topic is the passage primarily 26 What had occurred after the Civil War?
concerned? A. The Wyoming Territory was admitted to the
A. The Wyoming Territory Union.
B. The Fourteenth and Fifteenth B. A women`s suffrage bill was introduced in
Amendments Congress
C. Abolitionists C. The Eastern states resisted the end of the
D. Women`s suffrage war
D. Black people were granted the right to vote

22 The word “ban” in line 3 most nearly means to 27 The word “suffrage” in line 12 could best be
A. Encourage replaced by which of the following?
B. Publish A. Pain
C. Prohibit B. Citizenship
D. Limit C. Freedom from bondage
D. The right to vote

23 The word “supported” in line 5 could best be 28 What does the Nineteenth Amendment guarantee?
replaced by A. Voting rights for blacks
A. Disregarded B. Citizenship for blacks
B. Acknowledged C. Voting rights for women
C. Contested D. Citizenship for women
D. Promoted

24 According to the passage, why did women 29 The word “it” in line 16 refers to
become active in politics? A. Bill
A. To improve the conditions of life that B. Congress
existed at the time C. Nineteenth Amendment
B. To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for D. Vote
President
C. To be elected to public office
D. To amend the Declaration of
Independence

25 The word “primarily” in line 9 is closes in meaning 30 When were women allowed to vote thougout the
to United States?
A. Above all A. After 1866
B. Somewhat B. After 1870
C. Finally C. After 187
D. Always D. After 1920

Continue to the next page.

 QUESTIONS 31 – 40

Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements
essential for plant nutrition. Natural substances such as animal droppings and straw have been
used as fertilizers for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced
Line it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, in fact, that chemical fertilizers
(5) became popular. Today, both natural synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms.

A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as
4-8-2 or 3-6-4, which designate the percentage content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and
potash in the order stated.

(10) Synthetic fertilizers are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical
granules are popular because they are easy to store and apply. Recently, liquids have shown
an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used
throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but these were found to be less
convenient than either solids or liquids.

(15) Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are
used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally,
However, farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, damaging not only the crop but also
the animals or humans that eat it. Accumulations of fertilizer in the water supply accelerate
the growth of algae and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the
(20) death of fish. Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants
who drink cow`s milk.

31 With which of the following topics is the passage 34 Which of the following has the smallest percentage
primarily concerned? content in the formula 4-8-2?
A. Local research and harmful effects of A. Nitrogen
fertilizer B. Phosphorus
B. Advantages and disadvantages of liquid C. Acid
fertilizer]a formula for the production of D. Potash
fertilizer
C. Content, form, and effects of fertilizer

32 The word “essential” in line 2 could best be 35 What is the percentage of nitrogen in a 5-8-7
replaced by which of the following? formula fertilizer?
A. Limited A. 3 percent
B. Preferred B. 5 percent
C. Anticipated C. 7 percent
D. Required D. 8 percent

33 In the formula 3-6-4 36 The word “designate” in line 8 could be replace by

Continue to the next page.
 A. the content of nitrogen is grater than that A. modify
of potash B. specify
B. the content of potash is greater than that C. limit
of phosphoric acid D. increase
C. the content of phosphoric acid is less than
that of nitrogen
D. the content of nitrogen is less than that of
phosphoric acid
37 Which of the following statements about fertilizer 39 The word “convenient” in line 14 is closest in
is true? meaning to
A. Powders are more popular than ever A. Effective
B. Solids are difficult to store B. Plentiful
C. Liquids are increasing in popularity C. Easy to use
D. Chemical granules are difficult to apply D. Cheap to produce

38 The word “these” in line 13 refers to 40 What happens when too much fertilizer is used?
A. Powders A. Local research teams provide
B. Solids recommendations
C. Liquids B. Algae in the water supplies begin to die
D. Fertilizer C. Animals and humans may become ill
D. Crops have no harmful effects

QUESTIONS 41 – 50

In 1686, Peter Minuit, governor of the Dutch settlements in North America known as New
Amsterdam, negotiated with Canarsee Indian chiefs for the purchase of Manhattan island for
merchandise valued at sixty guilders or about $24.12. he purchased the island for the Dutch
Line West India Company.

(5) The next year, Fort Amsterdam was built by the company at the extreme southern up of the
island. Because attempts to encourage Dutch immigration were not immediately successful
offers, generous by the standards of the era, were extended throughout Europe. Consequently,
the settlement became the most heterogeneous of the North American colonies. By 1637, the
fort had expanded into the village of New Amsterdam, and other small communities had
(10) grown up around it, including New Haarlem and Stuyvesant`s Bouwery, and New Amsterdam
began to prosper, developing characteristics of religious and linguistic tolerance unusual
for the times. By 1643, it was reported that eighteen different languages were heard in New
Amsterdam alone.

Among the multilingual settlers was a large group of English colonists from Connecticut and
(15) Massachusetts who supported the English King`s claim to all of New Netherlands set out in
a charter that gave the territory to his brother James, the Duke of York. In 1664, when the
English sent a formidable fleet of warships into the New Amsterdam harbor, Dutch governor
Peter Stuyvesant surrendered without resistance.

When the English acquired the island, the village of New Amsterdam was renamed New York
(20) in honor of the Duke. By the onset of the Revolution, New York City was already a bustling
commercial centre. After the war, it was selected as the first capital of the United States.
Although the government was eventually moved, first to Philadelphia and then to Washington
D.C. New York City has remained the unofficial commercial capital.

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 During the 1690s, New York City became a haven for pirates who conspired with leading
(25) merchants to exchange supplies for their ships in return for a share in the plunder. As a colony,
New York exchanged many agricultural products for English manufactured goods. In addition,
trade with the West Indies prospered. Three countries after his initial trade with the Indians,
Minuit`s tiny investment was worth more than seven billion dollars.

41 Which of the following would be the best title for 46 The word “formidable” in line 17 is closest in
this passage? meaning to
A. A history of New York City A. Powerful
B. An Account of the Dutch Colonies B. Modern
C. A Biography of Peter Minuit C. Expensive
D. The First Capital of the United States D. Unexpected

42 What did the Indians receive in exchange for their 47 The name of New Amsterdam was changed
island? A. To avoid a war with England
A. Sixty Dutch guilders B. To honor the Duke of York
B. $24.12 U.S. C. To attract more English colonists from
C. Goods and supplies Connecticut and Massachusetts
D. Land in New Amsterdam D. To encourage trade during the 1690s

43 Where was New Amsterdam located? 48 The word “it” in line 21 refers to
A. In Holland A. Revolution
B. In North America B. New York City
C. ON the island of Manhattan C. The island
D. In India D. The first capital

44 The word “heterogeneous” in line 8 would best be 49 Which city was the first capital of the new United
replaced by States?
A. Liberal A. New Amsterdam
B. Renowned B. New York
C. Diverse C. Philadelphia
D. Prosperous D. Washington

45 Why were so many languages spoken in New 50 On what date was Manhattan valued at $7 billion?
Amsterdam? A. 1626
A. The Dutch West India Company was B. 1726
owned by England. C. 1656
B. the Dutch West India Company allowed D. 1926
freedom of speech
C. the Dutch West India Company recruited
settlers from many different countries in
Europe
D. the Indian who lived there before the
Dutch West India Company purchase
spoke many languages

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 QUESTIONS 51 – 60

Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts,

Dr. James A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at
Line International YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest
(5) in exercise among students during the wintertime. The New England winters were fierce,
and the students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined that
a fast moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the baseball and
football seasons had ended.

(10) First he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but
he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would
have to invent a game.

In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the
gymnasium at the school, and, using a cocker ball and nine players on each side,
(15) organized the first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket
and made running with the ball a violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had
to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.

Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being
(20) played in both the United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament
was staged in New York City, which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.

The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in the
(25) 1897 season. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904
Olympic Games in St. Louis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop
used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.

51 What does this passage mainly discuss? 54 The word “fierce” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. The Olympic Games in St.Louis in 1904 A. Long
B. The development of basketball B. boring
C. The YMCA athletic program C. Extreme
D. Dr. James Naismith D. dark

52 When was the first demonstration game of 55 The word “them” in line 11 refers to
basketball held during the Olympics? A. Indoors
A. 1891 B. Seasons
B. 1892 C. Games
C. 1897 D. areas
D. 1904
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53 The phrase “balked at” in line 6 could best be 56 Where in the passage does the author discuss the
replaced by first basketball championship tournament?
A. Resisted A. Lines 10 – 12
B. Enjoyed B. Lines 13 – 15
C. Excelled at C. Lines 21 - 22
D. Were exhausted by D. Lines 24 - 26

57 What does the author mean by the statement in 59 The author mentions all of the following as typical
lines 24 – 26:”when basketball was introduced as a of the early game of basketball EXCEPT
demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games A. Three points were scored for every basket
in St. Louis, it quickly spread throughout the B. Running with the ball was not a foul
world”? C. Nine players were on a team
A. Basketball was not considered an Olympic D. The ball had to be retrieved from the
sport at the St. Louis games basket after each score
B. Basketball became popular worldwide
after its introduction at the Olympic
Games in St. Louis
C. Basketball players from many countries
competed in the Olympic Games in St.
Louis
D. Basketball was one of the most popular
sports at the Olympic Games in St. Louis

58 Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball? 60 It can be inferred from the passage that the original
A. He did not like soccer or rugby baskets
B. He was tired of baseball and football A. Were not placed very high
C. He wanted his students to exercise during B. Had a metal rim
the winter C. Did not have a hole in the bottom
D. He could not convince his students to play D. Were hung on the same side
indoors

THIS IS THE END OF THE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

GOOD LUCK

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