11-03-2025

1016CMD303031240050 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which part in given graph, represents negative Resistance ?

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) CD
(4) DE

2) All bulbs are identical, compare Brightness of bulb.

(1) B1 = B2 > B4 = B3
(2) B4 > B3 > B1 = B2
(3) B4 = B3 > B1 = B2
(4) B3 > B4 > B1 = B2

3) Find RAB (All resistances are same 'R').

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) In the figure given below, the current passing through 6Ω resistor is :

(1) 0.40 A
(2) 0.48 A
(3) 0.72 A
(4) 0.80 A

5) Find the equivalent resistance RAB :

(1) 1Ω
(2) 2Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 4Ω

6) In the circuit shown, the equivalent resistance RAB is :

(1) R
(2) 2R/5
(3) R/3
(4) 2R

7) In the circuit shown in figure, potential difference between point A and B is 3V. Find the current

passing through 3Ω resistance.

(1) 2A
(2) 27/2A
(3) 3A
(4) 9/2A
8)
If E = 6V, r = 2Ω, then maximum power dissipated through R is :

(1) 18 W
(2) 9 W
(3) 36 W
(4) 3 W

9) For given current carrying conductor, select correct option :-

(1) J1 < J2
(2) E1 < E2
(3)
(4) J1 = J2

10) Resistance of a conductor at 0°C and 200°C are 1Ω and 3Ω respectively, then find temperature
coefficient of resistance :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The V-I curve for a conductor is as shown in the figure. The resistance of the conductor will be :

(1) 10Ω
(2) 10kΩ

(3)

(4) 1Ω

12) The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is stretched to 'n' times its original length, its new
resistance will be :

(1)

(2) n2R

(3)

(4) nR

13) The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 4A
(4) 6A

14) An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and

B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and R2 = 2 ohm :

(1) Infinity
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω

15) Assertion : The average thermal velocity is zero but the average thermal speed of free electron
of a conductor is non zero in absence of applied potential difference.
Reason : Path of free electrons of a conductor in the presence of applied potential difference may be
straight line (between two collisions).

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

16) A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10–4 ms–1 in an electric field of 3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has
a mobility (in m2 V–1 s–1) of :

(1) 2.25 × 10–15

(2) 2.25 × 1015
(3) 2.5 × 106
(4) 2.5 × 10–6

17) In an ammeter, 10% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of
galvanometer is G, then resistance of ammeter is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The resistance of a 20 cm long wire is 5Ω. It is stretched upto 40 cm. The resistance of wire (in
ohm) will now be :

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 200

19) Three bulbs of 40 watt, 60 watt and 100 watt are connected in parallel and then connected to a
main voltage source. The bulb which will glow most, is of :

(1) 40 watt
(2) 60 watt
(3) 100 watt
(4) All will glow equally

20) The potential difference between A and B in the following situation is :

(1) 12V
(2) 7V
(3) 20V
(4) 44V

21) Figure shows a hemisphere of radius "R". A point charge q is kept at distance "y" above the

centre such that y → 0. Electric flux through the curved surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) What is charge on 90 kg of electrons ?

(1) 1.58 × 1013 C

(2) 2.3 × 1012 C
(3) 2.53 × 1012 C
(4) None

23) Two particles having mass m and charge q each are to be placed on a rough horizontal surface
with coefficient of friction µ. What can be minimum separation between them so that they remain

stationary ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Find net force experienced by Q at centre with the help of figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Two charges each of 1 μC are at a distance 1 cm apart in vacuum, the electrostatic force
between them is :-

(1) 9 × 103 N
(2) 90 N
(3) 1.1 × 10–4 N
(4) 104 N

26) If charge q, q, –q are placed at vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ. If and are
the forces on the charges respectively, then select the correct option :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Force between two charges varies with distance between them as :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The principle of superposition in electrostatics states that :-

(1) Force due to multiple charges cancel each other.

(2) Electric field due to multiple charges is zero.
(3) Net force on a charge is the vector sum of forces on it due to individual charges.
(4) Charges always attract each other.

29) Electric flux through a surface is maximum, when the angle between the electric field and the
surface is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

30) If the dipole moment is perpendicular to a uniform electric field . What is the electric
potential energy of the dipole ?

(1) –PE
(2) PE
(3) PE tan θ
(4) Zero

31) A positively charged body A has been brought near a copper cylinder B mounted on a glass
stand, as shown in figure. Then electric potential of B will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) –ve
(3) +ve
(4) ∞

32) A nonconducting solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. For magnitude of the electric
field due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre select true statement/statements.
a. increases as r increases, for r < R
b. decreases as r increases, for 0 < r < ∞
c. decreases as r increases, for R < r < ∞
d. is discontinuous at r = R

(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b
(4) b, d

33) By quantisation of electric charge, it means :-

(1) Charge can occur in any amount

(2) Charge can occur in only small amount
(3) Net charge always zero
(4) Charge can occur only in terms of integral multiple of a fixed amount

34) Find potential difference between point A and B :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) Electric potential in a region is given by, . What is the associated electric
field (A, B are constant) ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Find the potential at C.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

37) In bringing an electron towards another electrons, the electrostatics potential energy of the
system :-

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remains same
(4) becomes zero

38) An electric dipole consists of charges separated by a small distance 2a. Here, A
and B refer to :-

(1) Single, (+q)

(2) Two, (+q and –q)
(3) Triple, (+q, –q and +2q)
(4) All of above

39) The three electrons are brought to corners of an equilateral triangle. (side = 1× 10–10 m). The
workdone in the process is :

(1) 100 eV
(2) 37 eV
(3) 43 eV
(4) 54 eV

40) The radius of a soap bubble, whose potential is 16 V, is doubled ; then new potential of a bubble
is :

(1) 2V
(2) 4V
(3) 8V
(4) 16V

41) Find effective capacitance between A and B :

(1) 0.9μF
(2) 1.5μF
(3) 2μF
(4) 2.5μF

42) Find out equivalent capacitance between x and y :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2ε0A

(4)

43) If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is made
three times, then new capacitance (as compared to initially) becomes :-

(1) 6 times
(2) 2 times
(3) 4 times
(4) No change
44) Find energy stored in the system shown in figure, if VP – VQ = 15 volts.

(1) 2400 ergs

(2) 1800 ergs
(3) 3600 ergs
(4) 5400 ergs

45) In the given combination, if VAB = 100 V, then correct option is :-

(1) VAC = 100 V

(2) VCD = 50 V
(3) VBC = 50 V
(4) Charge on each capacitor is same

CHEMISTRY

1)

In a complex chemical kinetics experiment, the following data was obtained for a reaction at 298K:

[A] mol/L [B] mol/L Initial Rate (M/s)

0.1 0.1 2.0 × 10–5

0.2 0.1 8.0 × 10–5

0.1 0.2 4.0 × 10–5

The rate equation and rate constant for this reaction are:
(1) rate = k[A]2[B], k = 2.0 × 10–3 M–2s–1
(2) rate = k[A]2[B], k = 2.0 × 10–2 M–2s–1
(3) rate = k[A]2[B], k = 2.0 × 10–3 M–2s–1
(4) rate = k[A]2[B], k = 2.0 × 10–4 M–2s–1

2) A reaction follows first-order kinetics with rate constant 0.0231 min–1. If the initial concentration
of the reactant is 0.5 M, the time required for 93.75% completion of the reaction is :

(1) 120 min

(2) 30 min
(3) 60 min
(4) 160 min

3)

For an electrochemical cell:

Pt|H2(g,1atm)|H+(0.01M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu(s)
Given: E°(Cu2+/Cu) = +0.34V
The cell potential at 298K will be :

(1) 0.25V
(2) 0.31V
(3) 0.37V
(4) 0.43V

4) In a concentration cell
Cu|CuSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0M)|Cu,
if the temperature is doubled from 298K to 596K, keeping all other parameters constant, the cell
potential will :-

(1) double
(2) become half
(3) remain same
(4) become zero

5) During the electrolysis of H2SO4 using Pt electrodes, the volume of gas evolved at cathode and
anode are in the ratio :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 1

6) The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of water is 1.86 K⋅kg/mol. A solution containing 0.5
mol of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute in 2 kg of water freezes at –2.79°C. The van't Hoff factor
(i) for the solute is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 4

7) For a reaction A → Products, the half-life changes from 20 minutes to 5 minutes when initial
concentration is increased from 0.1M to 0.4M. The order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

8) For a reaction A + B → Products,

rate = k[A][B]2. When [A] = 0.2M and
[B] = 0.2M, rate = 8.0 × 10–4 M/s.
If both [A] and [B] are doubled, keeping temperature constant, the new rate (in M/s) will be :-

(1) 3.2 × 10–3

(2) 6.4 × 10–3
(3) 1.6 × 10–3
(4) 4.8 × 10–3

9) In the electrochemical cell Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Ag+(0.01M)|Ag, the cell potential at 298K is 1.53V.

Given E°(Ag+/Ag) = 0.80V, the standard reduction potential E°(Zn2+/Zn) is :-

(1) –0.82V
(2) –0.96V
(3) –0.76V
(4) –0.62V

10) A 0.1m aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] is 90% dissociated. The total number of particles
produced from one formula unit and the van't Hoff factor (i) respectively are :-

(1) 5 and 4.6

(2) 7 and 6.4
(3) 5 and 5.6
(4) 7 and 5.4

11) The limiting molar conductivity of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2
mol–1 respectively. The limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH is :-

(1) 390.5 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 390.0 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 391.5 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 389.5 S cm2 mol–1

12) For the redox reaction MnO4– + C2O42– → Mn2+ + CO2, if temperature is increased :

(1) Reaction rate decreases as CO2 solubility increases

(2) Reaction rate increases due to increased kinetic energy
(3) No effect on reaction rate
(4) Reaction becomes thermodynamically unfavorable

13) A solution containing equal masses of urea (M = 60) and glucose (M = 180) in 100g water shows
a depression in freezing point of 0.93°C. The Kf of water is 1.86 K⋅kg/mol. The total number of moles
of solutes is :-

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.05
(4) 1.00

14) During the determination of enthalpy of neutralization of HCl and NaOH :

(1) Temperature rise is independent of acid/base concentration

(2) Temperature rise depends only on acid concentration
(3) Temperature rise depends on both acid and base concentration
(4) Temperature rise depends only on base concentration

15) During electrolysis of 1 litre CuSO4 solution using copper electrodes, the mass of copper
deposited on cathode is 0.63g. The change in concentration of Cu2+ ions in the solution will be :-

(1) Decreases by 0.01 M

(2) Increases by 0.01 M
(3) No change
(4) Decreases by 0.02 M

16) The molality of a solution containing 1.8 g of glucose (M = 180) in 100g of water is :

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.3 m
(4) 0.4 m

17) Assertion (A) :- During electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 using platinum electrodes, pH of the
solution near anode decreases.
Reason (R) :- Oxidation of water at anode produces H+ ions.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

18) Statement I : The conductivity of an electrolyte decreases on dilution.

Statement II : The molar conductivity of an electrolyte increases on dilution.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
19) Statement I :- For a first-order reaction, t99% = 2t50%.
Statement II :- The half-life of a first-order reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

20) Osmotic pressure of a solution (d = 1 g/mL)

containing 3g of glucose (Mw = 180) in 60g of water at 15°C is-

(1) 6.25 atm

(2) 0.65 atm
(3) 0.34 atm
(4) 3.4 atm

21)

Match Column I with Column II :-

Column-I Column-II
P. Chemical kinetics 1. Rate independent of concentration
Q. Zero-order reaction 2. Rate = k[A]2
R. Second-order reaction 3. Study of reaction rates
S. Activation energy 4. Arrhenius equation

Options:
(1) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(2) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(3) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

22) Which of the following statements are correct for the electrochemical cell Zn|Zn2+||Cu2+|Cu?
(A) Electrons flow from Zn to Cu through external circuit
(B) Cu2+ ions are reduced at cathode
(C) Mass of Zn electrode decreases
(D) Cell potential decreases with increase in Zn2+ concentration
(E) Salt bridge maintains electrical neutrality
Options:

(1) A, B, C and E only

(2) B, C, D and E only
(3) A, B, C, D and E
(4) A, C, D and E only

23) In the determination of enthalpy of neutralization between HCl and NaOH, if the initial
temperature of both solutions is 30°C and the final temperature recorded is 35.5°C, what is the
enthalpy of neutralization if 0.1 mole of H2O is formed? (Given: Specific heat capacity of solution =
4.18 J/g/°C, density = 1 g/mL, total volume = 100 mL)

(1) –55.3 kJ/mol

(2) –23 kJ/mol
(3) –46.1 kJ/mol
(4) –57.7 kJ/mol

24) For a zero-order reaction A → Products, if 20% of A decomposes in 20 minutes, the time taken
for 60% decomposition will be :

(1) 40 minutes
(2) 60 minutes
(3) 80 minutes
(4) 120 minutes

25) Statement I :- The EMF of a concentration cell is independent of the nature of electrodes used.
Statement II :- In a concentration cell, the electrode with higher concentration solution acts as
anode.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

26)

Match Column I with Column II:

Column-I Column-II
(A) Zero-order reaction (p) t1/2 ∝ 1/a0
(B) First-order reaction (q) t1/2 ∝ a0
(C) Second-order reaction (r) t1/2 = constant
2
(D) Third-order reaction (s) t1/2 ∝ (a0)

Option :-
(1) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
(2) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p
(3) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s
(4) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q

27) Consider the following statements about solutions:

(A) Raoult's law is valid only for ideal solutions at all concentrations
(B) The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(C) For ideal solutions, ΔH(mixing) = 0
(D) The colligative properties depends on the nature of the solute particles
(E) Henry's law is applicable at high pressures for all gases
Which of the following combinations is correct?
Option :-

(1) A, B, and C only

(2) B, C, and D only
(3) A, B, C, and E only
(4) All statements are correct

28) For the chemical reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) the correct option is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) For a reaction A + 2B → C, rate is given by R = K[A] [B]2. The order of reaction is :

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 7

30) The role of a catalyst is to change ________ .

(1) gibbs energy of reaction

(2) enthalpy of reaction
(3) activation energy of reaction
(4) equilibrium constant

31) In Maxwell and Boltzmann energy distribution curve :

Area ABCD shows :-

(1) e–Ea/RT
(2) Fraction of molecules having sufficient energy for reaction
(3) k/A (Here A = Arrhenius constant, k = rate constant)
(4) All of above

32) How many coulombs of electricity are required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO4– to Mn2+ ?

(1) 96500 C
(2) 9.65 × 106 C
(3) 4.83 × 105 C
(4) 1.93 × 105 C

33) In the process of electroplating, 'm' g of silver is deposited when 4 ampere of current flows 2
minutes. The amount (in g) of silver deposited by 6 ampere of current flowing for 40 seconds will be

(1) 4m

(2)

(3)

(4) 3m

34) At cathode, the electrolysis of aqueous Na2SO4 gives :-

(1) Na
(2) H2
(3) SO3
(4) SO2

35) How many faraday charge is required to convert one mole of C5H12 in to CO2 ?

(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 20
(4) 32

36) Equal quantities of electricity are passed through three voltameters containing FeSO4, Fe2(SO4)3
and Fe(NO3)3. Mark out the correct statement regarding the experiment :

(1) The amount of iron deposited in FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 are equal
(2) The amount of iron deposited in Fe(NO3)3 is two third of the amount of iron deposited in FeSO4
(3) The amount of iron deposited in Fe2(SO4)3 and Fe(NO3)3 is different
(4) The amount of iron deposited in all three voltameter is same

37) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4, 7.8 × 10–4 and
6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at same partial
pressure?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

38)

Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when :

the forces of attractions between like molecules are greater than those between unlike
(1)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
(2)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
(3)
molecules.
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are different.

39) The vapour pressure of a solution

(1) Is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent

(2) Is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.
(3) Is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute.
(4) Is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

40) An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it :-

(1) shows a (+ve) deviation from Raoult's law

(2) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(3) shows (+ve) deviation from Henry's law
(4) shows (–ve) deviation from Henry's law

41) A solution of two volatile liquids form maximum boiling azeotrope at a particular composition,
then select the incorrect statement :-

(1) This solution shows negative deviation from Raoult's law

(2) HNO3 and H2O may form this type of solution.
(3) Vapour pressure of solution at azeotrope composition is maximum
(4) At this composition, components cannot be seperated by fractional distillation.

42) Which of the following forms the maximum boiling azeotrope ?

(1) n-hexane + n-heptane

(2) HNO3 + H2O solution
(3) C2H5OH + H2O solution
(4) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution
43) The reaction mechanism for the reaction P → R is as follows : P 2Q (fast) ; 2Q + P R
(slow), the rate law for the main reaction (P → R) is :

(1) k1[P] [Q]

(2) k1k2[P]

(3)

2
(4) k1k2[P]

44) For a chemical reaction temperature increased from 25°C to 55°C then rate of reaction will be
changed by a factor of (Assume µ = 3) :-

(1) 27
(2) 9
(3) 3
(4) 2

45) Inversion of Cane sugar in dilute acid is :

(1) Unimolecular reaction

(2) Bimolecular reaction
(3) Trimolecular reaction
(4) Pseudo-unimolecular reaction

BIOLOGY

1) In which of the following plant, both Autogamy and Geitonogamy are prevented ?

(1) Date palm

(2) Castor
(3) Coconut
(4) Maize

2) What would be the ploidy of the cells of pollen grain tetrad & cells of the nucellus, respectively?

(1) 2n & n
(2) n & n
(3) n & 2n
(4) 2n & 2n

3) In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within _________ of their
release and in some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, they maintain viability
for __________ respectively.
(1) Months, years
(2) 30 minutes, months
(3) Months, 30 minutes
(4) Few seconds, 30 minutes

4) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement-I : One meiotic and two mitotic divisions are required for the formation of one mature
male gametophyte in a typical angiosperm from a microspore mother cell.
Statement-II : One meiotic and three mitotic divisions are required for the formation of one mature
female gametophyte in typical angiosperm from a megaspore mother cell.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

5) When many embryos are present inside the single seed then it is called :

(1) Polyembryony
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Apomixis

6) In which of the following option labelled part 'A' is correctly identified?

(1) Egg cell

(2) Embryo
(3) Synergids cells
(4) Zygote

7) Which one of the following is an example of Ex-albuminous seed?

(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Coconut
(4) Ground nut

8) Which of the following event is exclusively present in angiosperm plants ?

(1) Development of endosperm
(2) Maturation of ovule into seed
(3) Development of embryo
(4) Maturation of ovary into fruit

9) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of _______ .

(1) Pectin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Callose
(4) Sporopollenin

10) _________ pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers are
packed into an inflorescence.

(1) Wind
(2) Water
(3) Insect
(4) Birds

11) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants.

(2) The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the central cell.
(3) Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
(4) Non albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm.

12) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

The body of ovule

A. Sporopollenin I.
fuses with funicle

Towards
Egg
B. II. micropylar end
apparatus
of embryo sac

Inner wall of
C. Hilum III.
microsporangium

One of the most

D. Tapetum IV. resistant organic
material
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
13) Select incorrect statement?

(1) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous

(2) Self–incompatibility is an out breeding device
(3) Black pepper is an example of perispermic seed
(4) Pea & groundnut are example of albuminous seeds

14) Select erroneous pair?

(1) False fruits – Apple & strawberry

(2) Apomixis – Asteraceae and grasses
(3) Hydrophily – Vallisneria & Hydrilla
(4) Hydrophily – Water hyacinth & waterlily

15) Among, cells of microspore tetrad, embryosac, functional megaspore, cells of the nucellus,
megaspore mother cell, egg cell, pollen grain, how many are haploid?

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Four

16) If more than two leaves arise at a node then the type of phyllotaxy is :

(1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) Valvate

17) In which of the following the seed coat is membranous and generally fused with the fruit wall ?

(1) Maize
(2) Bean
(3) Gram
(4) Pea

18) Drupe is recognised by –

(1) Hard endocarp

(2) Stony mesocarp
(3) Fleshy seed coat
(4) Thin seed coat

19) Development of fruit without fertilisation is known as -

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Apospory
(4) Diplospory

20) The outer covering of endosperm in maize grain separates the embryo by a __A__ layer called
__B__ :-

A B

(1) Lipid Aleurone layer

(2) Proteinaceous Aleurone layer

(3) Proteinaceous Scutellum

(4) Lipid Scutellum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) In pea and bean flowers, the stamens are __A__ and aestivation in petals is __B__. Here A & B
are respectively :

(1) Diadelphous, Vexillary

(2) Monoadelphous, Vexillary
(3) Polyadelphous, Imbricate
(4) Diadelphous, Valvate

22) The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as __A__ while the mode of arrangement of
flower on floral axis is known as __B__.

(1) [A] Aestivation, [B] Placentation

(2) [A] Venation, [B] Placentation
(3) [A] Placentation, [B] Inflorescence
(4) [A] Venation, [B] Aestivation

23) Match the following

I II

(i) Mango (a) Fibrous mesocarp

(ii) Castor (b) Non-endospermous seed

(iii) Coconut (c) Endospermous seed

(iv) Pea (d) Fleshy edible mesocarp

(1) (i) a, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d
(2) (i) c, (ii) d, (iii) a, (iv) b
(3) (i) d, (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) b
(4) (i) b, (ii) a, (iii) d, (iv) c

24) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne on the stem.
(2) Leaf develops at internode and bears a bud in its axil.
(3) The axillary bud later develops into a branch.
(4) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in an acropetal order

25) Assertion (A) : In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the endosperm is not present in mature
seeds.
Reason (R) : Endosperm is consumed during embryo development in plants such as beans, gram
and pea.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explaination for (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

26) Statement–1 :- The flowers of rose are epigynous

Statement–2 :- Apocarpous condition of carpels is found in the gynoecium of rose.

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

(2) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct

27) Study the following statements :

(a) Axillary bud is present at axil of simple leaf and leaflets.
(b) Reticulate venation is present mostly in leaves of dicot plants.
(c) Leaves of monocotyledonous plants generally possess parallel venation.
(d) In palmately compound leaf, a number of leaflets are present on a common axis and the rachis
which represent the midrib of the leaf as in neem.
How many above statement is/are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) three
(4) Four

28) Fill in the blanks and select the correct option for (A) & (B).
The outermost layer of cortex in dicot stem is ....A...... while the innermost layer is ....B.....

(A) (B)

(1) Epidermis Endodermis

 (2) Endodermis Pericycle

(3) Hypodermis Endodermis

(4) Hypodermis Pericycle

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner on
different radii, the arrangement is called ?

(1) Conjoint open

(2) Conjoint closed
(3) Radial
(4) Bicollateral open

30) Which tissue system consists of parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma?

(1) Vascular tissue system

(2) Epidermal tissue system
(3) Ground tissue system
(4) All of the above

31) In dicot stem, in between the vascular bundles there are few layer of radially placed
parenchymatous cells, which constitute _________.

(1) Conjuctive tissue

(2) Cortex
(3) Medullary rays
(4) Bundles sheath.

32) In dicot stem the large number of vascular bundles arrange in _____________ :

(1) Ring
(2) Scattered
(3) Cortex
(4) Hypodermis

33) The hypodermis of monocot stem consist of :-

(1) Parenchymatous cells

(2) Collenchymatous cells
(3) Meristematic cells
(4) Sclerenchymatous cells
34) In which type of leaf, the oval or round and loosely arranged spongy parenchyma is situated
below the palisade cells and extends to the lower epidermis?

(1) Sunflower leaf

(2) Maize leaf
(3) Wheat leaf
(4) Onion leaf

35) __________ is also called as fundamental tissue system :

(1) Ground tissue system

(2) Vascular tissue system
(3) Epidermal tissue system
(4) All of these

36) Epidermal tissue system consist of :-

(1) Epidermis, trichome, stomata and cortex.

(2) Epidermis, trichome, stomata and hypodermis
(3) Hypodermis, trichome, epidermis & pith
(4) Epidermis, trichome, stomata & cuticle

37) Root hairs are -

(1) Multicellular
(2) Unicellular elongated
(3) Originates from epidermis
(4) Both 2 and 3 are correct

38) Assertion (A) :- Vascular bundles are scattered in monocot stem.

Reason (R) :- Size of vascular bundles in monocot stem is variable.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

39) In grasses the guard cells are . The outer wall of guard cells away from the stomatal
pore are and inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are . Select correct option for
A, B & C.

A – Bean shaped, B – thick,

(1)
C – Less thickned
A – Dumb-bell shaped, B – thin,
(2)
C – Highly thickned
A – Kidney shaped, B – thick,
(3)
C – Highly thickned
 A – Dumb-bell shaped, B – thick,
(4)
C – Less thickned

40) Statement I : In a dorsiventral leaf, size of the vascular bundles are dependent on the size of
the veins.
Statement II : In dicotyledonous stem, phloem parenchyma is absent and water containing cavities
are present within the vascular bundles.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

41) Match the column I, II and III and select the correct option:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1. Dicot i. Well develop

a. Polyarch
stem pith

2. Monocot ii. Less develop

b. Sunflower
stem pith

3. Monocot
c. Maize iii. Starch sheath
root

iv.
d. 2 to 4 xylem
4. Dicot root Undifferentiated
patches
ground tissue

Option
(1) 1-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-d-i
(2) 1-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 3-a-i, 4-d-ii
(3) 1-d-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-b-ii, 4-a-i
(4) 1-c-ii, 2-b-i, 3-a-iii, 4-d-iv

42) Identify A, B, C, D and E in figure given below :-

A B C D E

Adaxial Spongy Palisade Abaxial Air

1
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis cavity
 Abaxial Palisade Spongy Adaxial Air
2
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis cavity

Adaxial Palisade Spongy Abaxial Air

3
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis cavity

Abaxial Spongy Palisade Adaxial Air

4
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis cavity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) How many plants in the list given below have twisted aestivation and axile placentation.
Sunflower, Chinarose, Wheat, Cotton, Maize, Grass, Marigold, Parthenium.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

44) Which of the following is floral formula of Brassicaceae family?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Statement – I : Marginal placentation is present in pea and bean.

Statement – II : Trimerous flower is a character of dicot plants.

(1) Both statements I & II are correct

(2) Statement – I is correct & statement – II is incorrect
(3) Statement – I is incorrect & statement – II is correct
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect

46) The type of placenta found in human is formed by interdigitation of :

(1) Umbillical cord and chorionic villi

(2) Myometrium and Endometrial tissue
(3) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
(4) Epithelium of amnion and chorion

47) Parturition is induced by a complex neuro-endochrine mechanism involving many hormones like
:-
(1) hCG, hPL, Estrogen, progesterone
(2) Relaxin, Prolactin, Progesterone
(3) Oxytocin, Relaxin
(4) hCG, LH, Estrogens

48) Assertion : The male accessory reproductive glands include paired seminal vessicles, a prostate
and paired bulbourethral glands.
Reason : The oviducts, utreus, and vagina constitute the female accessory duct.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

49) During which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated ?

(1) Adult stage

(2) Puberty stage
(3) Embryonic development stage
(4) Birth

50) Match the following columns & choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Blastomeres (i) differentiated as the embryo

(b) Morula (ii) 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells

(c) Trophoblast (iii) 8 to 16 blastomeres

Inner cell
(d) (iv) Outer layer
mass
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

51) Which is not the male sex accessory duct ?

(1) Rete testis

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Epididymis

52) How many testicular lobules are present in male testes ?

(1) 250
(2) 500
(3) 1-3
(4) 15-20

53) How many of the following are correctly matched?

(i) After one month-Heart formed
(ii) End of second month-Limbs and digits
(iii) First trimester-Major organ systems
(iv) During fifth month-First movement
(v) End of second trimester-Fine hairs on body
Find the correct option :-

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 2

54) Match the following columns by using the suitable option –

Column-I Column-II

(i) Male germ cell a Provides nutrition

(ii) Sertoli cell b Testosterone

Between seminiferous
(iii) Leydig cell c
tubules

Immunological
(iv) d Spermatogenesis
competent cells
(1) (i) - d, (ii) - a, (iii) - c, (iv) - b
(2) (i) - d, (ii) - a, (iii) - b, (iv) - c
(3) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - d, (iv) - c
(4) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c, (iv) - d

55) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :- At the start of oogenesis, there are few million oogonia in each ovary and at
puberty only 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.
Reason (R) :- There is degeneration of the primary follicles from birth to puberty by follicular
atresia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

56) Some structures of female reproductive system are given below :

(a) Clitoris (b) Cervix
(c) Labia majora (d) Hymen
(e) Vagina (f) Mons pubis
Which of the above structure are considered as female external genitalia.

(1) (a), (c), (d) and (e)

(2) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (f)

57) Read the following statement carefully and choose the correct answer.
Statement-I : Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends
between menopause to menarche.
Statement-II : The function of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by the testicular
hormones.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

58) Read the following terminology of column-I, column-II and column-III and identify their correct
match :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Primary sex
A P Unpaired (i) External genetalia
organs

Middle thick
B Prostate gland Q (ii) Formation of semen.
layer of uterus

Strong contraction
C Clitoris R Ovaries (iii) during delivery of
the body

Tiny finger like

D Myometrium S (iv) Produce gamete
structure
(1) A-R-iv, B-P-ii, C-Q-iii, D-S-i
(2) A-R-iv, B-P-ii, C-S-i, D-Q-iii
(3) A-R-iv, B-P-ii, C-S-iii, D-Q-i
(4) A-R-iv, B-P-ii, C-Q-i, D-S-iii

59) Read the following statements & choose incorrect statements.

a. Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
b. The myometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
c. MTPs are considered safe during the first trimester of pregnancy.
d. Hepatitis-B is completely curable if detected early.
Choose the correct options :-
(1) a, c, d
(2) b, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, d

60) Select the correct statement from the followings-

(1) Primary oocyte formed after Ist meiotic division.

(2) Oogonia is diploid while primary oocyte and secondary oocyte are haploid
(3) All oogonia are formed in fetal life
(4) First polar body formed at the time of birth

61) Identify the A, B from the graph?

(1) A-FSH, B-LH

(2) A-Estrogen, B-LH
(3) A-LH, B-Progesteron
(4) A-LH, B-FSH

62) Epididymis is responsible for which phenomenon?

(1) Formation of spermatid

(2) Functional maturation of sperm
(3) Spermiogenesis
(4) Spematocytogenesis

63) What will happen if receptors for LH are removed from leydig cells ?

(1) Production of androgens will stop.

(2) Spermatogenesis will slow down.
(3) Complete spermatogenesis will not occur.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

64) The region outside the seminiferous tubules contain :-

(1) Blood vessels

(2) Leydig cells
(3) Stromal tissue
(4) All of the above
65) What will be the result of lack of progesterone and estrogen in female during menstrual cycle ?

(1) Degeneration of corpus luteum.

(2) Disintegration of endometrium.
(3) It will lead to menstruation.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

66) Meiosis-I of primary oocyte which takes place during oogenesis in human females is :-

(1) Reductional division with unequal cytokinesis

(2) Equational division with unequal cytokinesis
(3) Reductional division with equal cytokinesis
(4) Equational division with equal cytokinesis

67) Which of the following function is not associated with placenta?

(1) Endocrine tissue

(2) Facilitation of O2 and nutrient supply to embryo
(3) Blood transportation from mother to embryo
(4) Removal of CO2 and excretory waste of embryo

68) If sperms are present in testis but not transported in epididymis, then which of the following
duct could be blocked ?

(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Vas deferens
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Urethra

69) In uterus and fallopian tube the outer most layer of visceral-peritoneum is -

(1) Serosa
(2) Muscle layer
(3) Mucosa
(4) None of these

70) Muscles associated with mammary glands are-

(1) Pectoralis minor

(2) Pectoralis major
(3) Gluteus maximum
(4) Intercostal muscles

71) Which placental hormone act as LH and maintain the corpus luteum in ovary of a pregnant
female.
(1) Relaxin
(2) hCG
(3) hPL
(4) Progesterone

72) Select correct option.

(1) Seminal plasma is the fluid of seminal vesicles

(2) Prostate gland helps in the lubrication of penis
(3) Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzyme
(4) Both 2 & 3

73) Select the incorrect statement -

(1) The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts.
(2) Fimbriae of fallopian tube helps in collection of the ovum after ovulation.
(3) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
(4) A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all mammals

74) Statement-I : The oviduct, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts.
Statement-II : Mons pubis include in external genitalia of female.

(1) Both statement I and II are false

(2) Both statement I and II are true
(3) Statement I is false and statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true and statement II is false

75) Identify the site of presence of immunologically competent cells in seminiferous tubule :-

(1) A-Interstitial space

(2) C-Inside seminiferous tubule
(3) A-Leydig cells
(4) B-Spermatogonia

76) Choose the correct match :

A B

(a) Test tube baby (i) ZIFT

 (b) Upto 8 blastomere (ii) IUT

(c) More than 8 blastomere (iii) IVF

(d) Fertilisation with in body (iv) In vivo

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

77) __A__ programme create awareness among people about various reproductive related aspects
and provides facilites for build up a reproductive healthy society.

(1) Family planning programme

(2) Reproductive and child health care (RCH)
(3) Contraceptive methods
(4) Lactational amenorrhea

78) Which of the following is not a copper releasing IUD ?

(1) Cu T
(2) Cu 7
(3) LNG 20
(4) Multiload 375

79) Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used by females as __(A)__ or
__(B)__ under the skin ?

A : Pills
(1)
B : LNG-20
A : Implants
(2)
B : Progestasart
A :Injection
(3)
B : Implant
A : Injection
(4)
B : Cu 7

80) Assertion :- IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

Reason :- Copper-releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility by releasing copper ions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

81) Statement I : MTP was legalised in 1971.

Statement II : MTP is a safe during Ist trimester.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

82) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding given contraceptive methods and their
actions ?

(1) Barrier methods-prevents fertilization

(2) Hormonal IUDs- prevents implantation
(3) Oral pills-prevents ovulation
(4) Vasectomy-prevents spermatogenesis

83) Ideal contraceptive method for female who want to delay pregnancy or space children is :

(1) Condoms
(2) I.U.D.
(3) Cervical caps
(4) Hormonal pills

84) Which of the following is the least effective method of birth control :

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Saheli
(3) Condoms
(4) Periodic abstinence

85) Which of the following method is non hormonal ?

(1) LNG-20
(2) Oral contraceptive
(3) Multiload 375
(4) Lactational amenorrhea.

86) The major tasks of the RCH programmes is :

(1) Building up a reproductively healthy society

(2) Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) To promote scientific research in rural hospitality

87) Which of the following disorder is not identified by amniocentesis ?

(1) Down Syndrome

(2) Haemophilia
(3) Heart disorder
(4) Sickle-cell Anemia

88) Which of the following natural contraceptive method is consider to be effective only upto a
maximum period of six months following parturition.

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Barrier method
(4) Lippes loops

89) The reason for infertility could be ?

(1) Physical
(2) Congenital
(3) Psychological
(4) All of these

90) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) In coitus interruptus method male partner abstain coitus from day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle.
(b) Condoms are made of thin rubber which are used to cover vagina and cervix in female just before
coitus.
(c) LNG-20 is a copper releasing IUD.
(d) Vasectomy is a method of terminal sterilization in males.

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 2 1 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 1 1 1 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 1 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 4 4 1 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Slope of I-V graph represents reciprocal of resistance.

For CD Region, it is negative.

2)
Brightness
So, B3 > B4 > B1 = B2.

3) Apply Ist symmetry, then balanced bridge.

4)

5)
6) The circuit given in question can be reduced to :

⇔
RAB = R

7)

8)

For max Power,

P = 32 × 1 = 9W

9) J ⇒ J 1 > J2 ,

E ⇒ E1 > E2 ,

Vd ⇒

10) RT = R0 (1 + αT)
3 = 1[1 + α(200)]
200α = 2

α=

11) Slope of V-I represent 'R'

R=
12) R ∝

⇒ R' = n2R
Aliter :
Volume of wire is constant, so
R ∝ ℓ2

⇒ R' = n2R

13)
Req = 1.5

I=
= 4A

14)

2x + 2 + x = 2x + x2
x2 – x – 2 = 0

x=
x = 2, –1
So, Req = 2Ω

15) Without battery displacement is zero. So, average velocity is zero, but average speed is
non-zero as it travel distance. Path of electrons is parabolic and it may be straight line.

16)
= 2.5 × 106 m2 V–1 s–1
17)

RA =

18) R ∝ ℓ2 (∵ Volume of wire is constant)

R = 20 Ω

19) For parallel combination of bulbs,

PC ∝ ∝ (VR → same)
So, PC ∝ PR

20)
VA – 10 + 10 – 7 – 5 = VB
VA – VB = 12 V

21) y → 0 (tends to zero)

Flux through hemispherical surface

= × flux through spherical surface.

22) Charge on 90 kg of electron =

= 1.76 × 1011 × 90
= 1.58 × 1013

23) F = f
24)

F' = F4 – F2 =

( Where, )

= 4F

Fnet =

25) F = 9 × 109 × = 90 N

26)

27)

F∝

29) ϕ = E A cos θ
(cos 0)max = 1

30) U = –PE cos θ

U = –PE cos =0

34)

35)

36)

39) W = U12 + U23 + U31 =

=
≈ 43 eV

40) V =

41)

The circuit given in equation can be reduced to :

 42)

C=

43) C =

44) Ceq =

U=
= 180 × 10–6 J = 1800 ergs

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Compare rates when [A] doubles (4 × faster) → order w.r.t A is 2.

When [B] doubles (2 × faster) → order w.r.t B is 1.
Calculate k using rate = k[A]2[B]

47) For first-order reaction, t = (2.303/k)log[1/(1 – x)].

For 93.75% completion, x = 0.9375. Plug in k = 0.0231 min–1.

48)

E = E° – (0.0591/n)log([H+]2/[Cu2+]) = 0.34 – (0.0591/2)log[(0.01)2/0.1] = 0.43V

49) For concentration cell, E = (RT/nF)ln(C2/C1). When T doubles, potential doubles as other
terms remain constant.

50)

Cathode : 2H+ + 2e– → H2

Anode : 2H2O → O2 + 4H⁺ + 4e–
Volume ratio follows mole ratio & gm equivalents are same

51)

ΔTf = iKf × m × (w2/M2) 2.79 = i × 1.86 × (0.5/2) Solve for i.

52)

For nth order, t1/2 ∝ [A0]1 – n

20/5 = (0.4/0.1)1 – n
Solve for n = 2.

53)

When [A] doubles → rate doubles,

when [B] doubles → rate increases 4 times.
Overall rate increases 8 times.
Initial rate = 8.0 × 10–4 M/s
New rate = 8 × (8.0 × 10–4) = 6.4 × 10–3 M/s

54)

E = E° + (0.0591/n)log([Ag+]2/[Zn2+])1.65 = (E°Ag+/Ag – E°Zn2+/Zn) + (0.0591/2)log(0.01/0.1)

Solve for E°Zn2+/Zn

55)

K4[Fe(CN)6] → 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4– (5 particles)

i = 1 + (n – 1)α = 1 + (5 – 1)0.9 = 4.6

56)

Use Kohlrausch's law

λ∞(CH3COOH) = λ∞(HCl) + λ∞(CH3COONa) – λ∞(NaCl)

57) Temperature increase raises kinetic energy of particles, leading to more effective
collisions.

58)
ΔTf = Kf(n1 + n2)/w
0.93 = 1.86(x/60 + x/180)/0.1
where x is mass of each solute

59)

A higher conc. of acid / base leads to more heat released per unit volume of reaction mixture &
vice-versa.

60)

At Cu anode : Cu → Cu2+ + 2e–

At Cu cathode : Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu
Net change in [Cu2+] = 0 as dissolution equals deposition

61)

Molality =

62)

At anode : 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e–

The production of H⁺ ions at anode directly leads to decrease in pH near anode region.

63) Conductivity (κ) decreases on dilution due to fewer ions per unit volume, while molar
conductivity (λm) increases due to reduced inter-ionic interactions.

64) For first order reaction, t99% = 6.65t50% (not 2t50%). Half-life is independent of initial
concentration as t1/2 = 0.693/k.

66)

- Chemical kinetics is study of reaction rates

- Zero-order reaction rate is independent of concentration
- Second-order reaction rate depends on square of concentration
- Activation energy appears in Arrhenius equation

67)

All statements are correct for Daniell cell:

- Electrons flow from anode (Zn) to cathode (Cu)
- Cu2+ reduction occurs at cathode
- Zn oxidation at anode decreases its mass
- Higher [Zn2+] decreases cell potential (Nernst equation)
- Salt bridge maintains charge balance

68)

S × m × ΔT = –ΔH × n
4.18 × 100 × 5.5 = –ΔH × 0.1
ΔH = –23.00 kJ/mol

69)

For zero-order, time is directly proportional to percentage decomposition

20% in 20 min →60% will take

= 60 minutes

70)

EMF depends only on concentration difference, and higher concentration metal electrode acts
as cathode

71) Based on mathematical derivation of half-life expressions for different orders

72) D is false (depend on number not nature), E is false (only at low pressures)

73) N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3

rate of reaction is given as

74)

Order = 1 + 2 = 3

75) Catalyst is used to decrease the activation energy so as to increase the rate of reaction.

76) Class - XIIth, NCERT

Chemical kinetic
Arrhenius equation
fig. 4.9

77)
Number of moles × V.F. =
V.F. = Change in O.N. of Mn

1×5=
Q = 482500 C
= 4.83 × 105 C

78)

79)

At Cathode
2H2O(ℓ) + 2e– → H2 + 2OH– ; E°RP = – 0.828 V
e– + Na+(aq) → Na(s) ; E°RP = – 2.71 V
∴ H2 will be liberated

80)

V.F.=
= 32

= 1 × 32
Hence 32 faraday charge is required.

81)

Same amount of electricity (charge) will deposit same equivalents of metal.

By 1F charge, deposited iron in -

(i) FeSO4 solution ⇒

(ii) Fe(NO3)3 solution ⇒

(iii) Fe2(SO4)3 solution ⇒

82) Since solubility of gas decrease with increasing KH.

83) Raoult's law is followed by ideal solution.

 84)

The vapour pressure of a solution is proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent.

85)

As per definition

86) At maximum boiling point composition, vapour pressure of solution will be minimum.

87)

The one which shows negative deviation from raoults law form maximum boiling azeotropes.

88)

From slow step r = k3(Q)2 (P) ...(i)

from reversible step ...(ii)

from (i) & (ii)

89)

rnew = rold × µΔT/10

ΔT = 55 – 25 = 30

90) C12H22O11 + H2O C6H12O6 + C6H12O6

r = k[C12H22O11] [H2O] [H2O] = excess
r = k[C12H22O11]

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