INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

QUESTIONS

JANUARY 2025

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Table of Contents

1. ECONOMY ......................................................................................................................................... 2

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT .......................................................................................................... 1

3. GEOGRAPHY ...................................................................................................................................... 6

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................... 8

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 14

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 21

7. POLITY ............................................................................................................................................. 24

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 25

9. AGRICULTURE .................................................................................................................................. 27

10. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 28

11. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................. 31

12. MAPS / PLACES ............................................................................................................................. 32

13. MISCELLANEOUS .......................................................................................................................... 33

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Economy
1) The Ramesh Chand Committee was formed 5) Consider the following statements regarding
primarily to: White Goods:
a) Assess the impact of MSP (Minimum 1. White goods, by definition, include large
Support Price) on inflation domestic appliances used for household
b) Develop a roadmap for doubling farmers' tasks.
income 2. Air conditioners under the PLI scheme
c) Transition from the Wholesale Price Index focus on developing components like
(WPI) to the Producer Price Index (PPI) compressors and heat exchangers.
d) Evaluate India’s agricultural export 3. The inclusion of LED lights in white goods
policies is due to their use in essential household
functions.
2) Which of the following is not a feature of the Which of the above statements are correct?
Producer Price Index (PPI)? a) 1 only
a) Tracks price changes before goods reach b) 2 and 3 only
consumers c) 1 and 3 only
b) Includes services sector d) 1, 2, and 3
c) Adheres to the System of National
Accounts (SNA) 6) Consider the following statements regarding
d) Measures changes in consumer Differential pricing
purchasing power Statement-I: Differential pricing helps
businesses cater to different consumer
3) Consider the following statements about segments and maximize profits.
BAANKNET’s significance for Public Sector Banks Statement-II: Differential pricing is
(PSBs): considered unethical in India and is
1. It helps PSBs recover bad loans by prohibited under the Consumer Protection
auctioning distressed properties. Act, 2019.
2. It ensures complete elimination of bad Which one of the following is correct in respect of
debts from PSB balance sheets. the above statements?
3. It enhances investor confidence by a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
ensuring transparency in auctions. correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
4. It provides PSBs with a platform to for Statement-I.
collaborate on the disposal of non- b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
performing assets (NPAs). correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
How many of the above statements are correct? explanation for Statement-I.
a) Only one c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
b) Only two incorrect.
c) Only three d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
d) All four is correct.

4) Which of the following best describes the 7) The "Sachetisation Plan," as introduced by SEBI,
concept of "Blood Money" (Diya) under Islamic primarily targets:
Sharia law? a) High-net-worth individuals investing in
a) A mandatory state-imposed fine for all equity markets.
criminal offenses. b) Foreign portfolio investors.
b) A form of penalty exclusively for crimes c) Institutional investors in debt instruments.
against property. d) Low-income groups investing in mutual
c) Compensation paid by the offender to the funds.
victim or their family in cases of unintentional or
intentional homicide. 8) Consider the following statements about the
d) A fixed sum determined by international Sachetisation Plan:
human rights law.

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. It is inspired by the FMCG sector’s practice allotted shares before official listing
of selling small-sized products for wider d) A grey market mechanism for pre-listing
market penetration. share trading
2. Only Debt and thematic mutual fund
schemes are included under the plan. 12) Consider the following statements regarding
3. The plan is part of SEBI’s financial SEBI's regulatory mechanism:
inclusion initiatives. 1. SEBI regulates both primary and
How many of the above statements are correct? secondary markets in India.
a) Only one 2. SEBI allows T+5 settlement cycles for
b) Only two IPO-listed shares.
c) All three 3. The grey market operates under SEBI’s
d) None supervision and follows formal
regulations.
9) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Enhanced Certificate of Origin (eCoO) 2.0 a) Only one
System? b) Only two
a) It enables the issuance of both c) All three
preferential and non-preferential d) None
Certificates of Origin.
b) It allows the issuance of back-to-back
Certificates of Origin for re-exported goods.
c) It mandates online processing of non- 2. Ecology and
preferential CoOs from January 1, 2025.
d) It provides exporters the option to Environment
authenticate documents using blockchain
technology. 1) What makes the Fishing Cat a significant species
for wetland ecosystems?
10) Consider the following statements regarding a) It acts as an indicator species for wetland
Enhanced Certificate of Origin (eCoO) 2.0 health.
System. b) It is the apex predator in all wetland
Statement-I: The eCoO 2.0 System enhances ecosystems.
the efficiency and transparency of India’s c) It exclusively feeds on aquatic plants.
export certification process. d) It contributes to pollination in mangrove
Statement-II: The system replaces all other ecosystems.
digital platforms under DGFT related to
trade documentation. 2) Consider the following statements regarding
Select the correct answer: Vembanad Lake’s significance:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. It is the largest backwater ecosystem in
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation India.
for Statement-I 2. The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are annually on its waters.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 3. It is separated from the Arabian Sea by
explanation for Statement-I the Western Ghats.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is How many of the above statements is/are correct?
incorrect a) Only one
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II b) Only two
is correct c) All three
d) None
11) Which of the following best describes the
"When-Listed" platform introduced by SEBI? 3) Where is the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary located,
a) A platform allowing the trading of unlisted and what is it known for?
shares after official listing a) Tamil Nadu; famous for grassland
b) A secondary market for shares already ecosystems
listed on stock exchanges b) Andhra Pradesh; supports a thriving
c) A regulated platform for trading IPO- mangrove ecosystem
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) Kerala; home to extensive freshwater Nicobar?
lakes a) Leatherback Turtle
d) Odisha; a critical habitat for Olive Ridley b) Olive Ridley Turtle
turtles c) Hawksbill Turtle
d) Green Turtle
4) Consider the following statements about
incineration: 9) What is the key significance of the discovery of
1. It involves controlled combustion of Homo juluensis?
waste. a) It represents the first human species to
2. It generates energy in the form of heat use fire for cooking.
or electricity. b) It is the only human species found
3. It is effective in reducing wet waste. exclusively in Europe.
Which of the above statements are correct? c) It establishes the direct ancestry of
a) 1 and 2 only modern Homo sapiens.
b) 2 and 3 only d) It provides evidence of coexistence with
c) 1 and 3 only Denisovans during the Pleistocene epoch.
d) 1, 2, and 3
10) Which of the following features makes Umred-
5) What type of waste is least suitable for Pauni-Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary ecologically
incineration? significant?
a) High-calorific-value plastics a) Presence of unique alpine vegetation
b) Wet organic waste b) Exclusive habitat for Gangetic river
c) Hazardous biomedical waste dolphins
d) Paper and cardboard c) It serves as a tiger corridor connecting
Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve
6) Consider the following statements about d) Largest wetland ecosystem in
incineration processes: Maharashtra
1. It reduces the volume of waste by
approximately 90%. 11) Consider the following statements about Umred-
2. It completely eliminates the need for Pauni-Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary:
landfills. 1. It is home to both tigers and leopards.
3. It can recover energy in the form of 2. It is a recognized Ramsar wetland site.
electricity or heat. 3. It provides a habitat for species like Indian
Which of the above statements are correct? gaur and wild dogs.
a) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements are correct?
b) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3 c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3
7) Consider the following statements about nitrate
contamination mitigation strategies: 12) Consider the following features of the
1. Crop rotation and cover cropping reduce Environment Relief Fund (Amendment) Scheme,
nitrate leaching. 2024:
2. Reverse osmosis is an effective method 1. Compensation is paid to victims of
for nitrate removal from drinking water. hazardous chemical exposure.
3. Constructed wetlands increase nitrate 2. Funds are invested in public financial
levels in water bodies. institutions to ensure liquidity.
Which of the above statements are correct? 3. It mandates that SPCBs allocate 10% of
a) 1 and 2 only the fund for public awareness programs.
b) 2 and 3 only 4. The scheme applies to cases registered
c) 1 and 3 only under the Public Liability Insurance Act,
d) 1, 2, and 3 1991.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
8) Which globally endangered species is found on a) Only one
the Little Nicobar Island, a part of Southern b) Only two
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) Only three 2. The lake supports significant fisheries and
d) All four is a source of livelihood for local
communities.
13) With reference to the Flamingo Festival 2025, 3. It is a recognized Ramsar site for its
consider the following statements: ecological importance.
1. The festival celebrates the annual How many of the above statements are correct?
migration of flamingos to Pulicat Lake and a) Only one
Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary. b) Only two
2. Pulicat Lake, one of the key sites for the c) All three
festival, is the largest brackish water lake in d) None
India.
3. Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary is known as the 17) Who was the first chairperson of the Animal
largest breeding site for spot-billed pelicans Welfare Board of India (AWBI)?
in Southeast Asia. a) Smt. Menaka Gandhi
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? b) Dr. Salim Ali
a) 1 and 2 only c) Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale
b) 2 and 3 only d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 18) The Blue Flag Certification is awarded by which
of the following organizations?
14) Which of the following are benefits of the a) United Nations Environment Programme
Miyawaki Technique? (UNEP)
1. It supports biodiversity by creating b) International Union for Conservation of
habitats for various species. Nature (IUCN)
2. It enhances groundwater recharge in c) Foundation for Environmental Education
areas with depleted water tables. (FEE)
3. It significantly lowers the carbon footprint d) Global Environment Facility (GEF)
of the soil preparation process.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 19) Which of the following are correct regarding the
a) Only one structure and operations of Animal Welfare
b) Only two Board of India (AWBI)?
c) All three 1. It functions under the Ministry of
d) None Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. It collaborates with universities to
15) With reference to the Gaddi Dog, consider the promote legal training on animal cruelty.
following statements: 3. It conducts inspections of slaughterhouses
1. The Gaddi Dog is officially recognized as and zoos.
an indigenous breed by the National Bureau How many of the above statements is/are correct?
of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR). a) Only one
2. It is primarily used for guarding b) Only two
agricultural crops in the Himalayan region. c) All three
3. The breed is known for its resilience d) None
against extreme cold and high altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 20) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1 and 2 only Blue Flag Certification.
b) 1, 2, and 3 Statement I: Blue Flag Certification
c) 2 and 3 only emphasizes the use of renewable energy in
d) 1 and 3 only beach operations.
Statement II: Certification criteria include
16) Consider the following statements about Pulicat limiting the number of visitors to reduce
Lake: environmental impact.
1. It is situated at the Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Which of the following are correct?
Nadu border, with a majority of the lake a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
lying in Tamil Nadu. correct, and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 3. Arsenic exposure is associated with kidney
correct, but Statement II is not the correct damage and skin lesions.
explanation for Statement I. 4. Uranium contamination is primarily a
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is result of urban wastewater discharge.
incorrect. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II a) Only one
is correct. b) Only two
c) Only three
21) Which of the following properties of pink fire d) All four
retardant primarily contributes to its
effectiveness in wildfire suppression? 25) Consider the following statements regarding the
a) High water retention capacity Bharat Cleantech Manufacturing Platform:
b) Reflective properties to reduce heat 1. It aims to reduce India's reliance on
absorption imports for renewable energy technologies.
c) Thermal insulation of vegetation 2. It provides financial incentives to Indian
d) Oxygen-blocking chemical coating firms for cleantech manufacturing.
3. It is aligned with India’s Nationally
22) Consider the following statements about the Determined Contributions under the Paris
Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary: Agreement.
1. It is situated along the Brahmaputra River How many of the above statements is/are correct?
in Assam. a) Only one
2. The sanctuary is home to India’s only ape b) Only two
species, the Hoolock Gibbon. c) All three
3. It is a natural habitat for nocturnal d) None
primates like the Bengal Slow Loris.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 26) Which of the following features makes
a) Only one Ranthambore Tiger Reserve unique among
b) Only two India’s tiger reserves?
c) All three a) It contains the Great Boundary Fault,
d) None where the Aravalis meet the Vindhyas.
b) It is located at the confluence of two
23) Consider the following statements about the major river systems.
environmental significance of bacterial c) It is the only tiger reserve in India with a
plasticizer degradation: saline lake ecosystem.
1. It reduces carcinogenic plasticizer d) It is home to the largest population of
contamination in water bodies. Royal Bengal Tigers in India.
2. It prevents the release of microplastics
into the environment. 27) Which of the following accurately describes the
3. It supports the development of concept of Nautor Land?
biotechnological solutions for waste a) Privately owned barren land leased to the
management. government for developmental purposes.
4. It eliminates all harmful by-products of b) Government-owned wasteland allotted
plastic degradation. for cultivation or productive use.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? c) Land acquired by local communities
a) Only one through traditional rights and usage.
b) Only two d) Reserved forest land converted into
c) Only three agricultural zones.
d) All four
28) Which of the following best describes Di-chloro-
24) Consider the following statements about the di-phenyl-tri-chloro-ethane (DDT)’s
health and environmental impacts of environmental impact?
groundwater contamination: a) Rapid degradation in soil, preventing long-
1. Excess fluoride leads to skeletal fluorosis. term contamination.
2. Nitrate contamination can cause algal b) Highly soluble in water, causing
blooms in aquatic ecosystems. widespread contamination of aquatic systems.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) Persistent organic pollutant that c) 3 only
bioaccumulates in the food chain. d) None
d) Short-lived pesticide with minimal
ecological effects. 33) Consider the following statements about the
scope of the Asian Waterbird Census:
29) Consider the following statements about Di- 1. The census is conducted exclusively in
chloro-di-phenyl-tri-chloro-ethane (DDT): Ramsar-designated wetlands.
1. DDT is a fat-soluble compound, leading to 2. It aims to involve local communities and
its accumulation in higher organisms. citizen scientists in its activities.
2. It was primarily banned due to its harmful 3. The AWC monitors the impact of climate
effects on soil fertility. change on waterbird populations.
3. DDT’s degradation in soil can take several Which of the above statements is/are correct?
decades. a) 1 only
How many of the above statements are correct? b) 2 only
a) Only one c) 3 only
b) Only two d) 2 and 3 only
c) All three
d) None 34) Consider the following statements about DDT
contamination and biochar:
30) Which of the following statements best explains 1. DDT contamination is primarily a problem
the phenomenon of "arribada" associated with in temperate climates.
Olive Ridley turtles? 2. Biochar binds DDT, preventing its uptake
a) It is the solitary nesting behavior of turtles by plants and organisms.
along scattered beaches. 3. Biochar is an inorganic material that
b) It is the migration of juvenile turtles from chemically reacts with DDT.
their nesting grounds to the ocean. How many of the above statements are correct?
c) It refers to the synchronized mass nesting a) Only one
of female turtles on specific beaches. b) Only two
d) It describes the basking behavior of c) All three
turtles on coastal shores. d) None

31) Which of the following are threats faced by Olive 35) Consider the following statements about Black
Ridley turtles in India? Panthers:
1. Entanglement in fishing gear 1. They are found across Asia, Africa, and the
2. Coastal development and habitat loss Americas.
3. Predation by invasive species 2. The presence of melanism makes black
4. Rising sea levels due to climate change panthers a separate subspecies.
Select the correct answer code: 3. Black leopards are more common in dense
a) 1, 2, and 3 only tropical rainforests due to better
b) 2, 3, and 4 only camouflage.
c) 1, 3, and 4 only How many of the above statements are correct?
d) All four a) Only one
b) Only two
32) Consider the following statements about the c) All three
ecological significance of the Asan Wetland: d) None
1. It is a natural wetland unaffected by
human intervention. 36) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. The wetland contributes significantly to vegetation and fauna of Surajpur Wetland:
the hydrological balance of the Yamuna 1. The wetland is surrounded by tropical
River basin. moist and dry deciduous vegetation,
3. The Asan Wetland hosts the endangered including Phoenix trees.
Putitor mahseer fish species. 2. Rare bird species like the Sarus Crane and
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Bristled Grassbird are found in the wetland.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. The wetland primarily supports bird
species that are resident breeders, with no 2) Consider the following statements about IMD’s
migratory species. regional centers:
Which of the above statements are correct? 1. They are responsible for localized weather
a) 1 and 2 only forecasts.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. They operate independently from the
c) 1 and 3 only central IMD headquarters.
d) 1, 2, and 3 3. They provide sector-specific weather
services for agriculture and aviation.
37) Which of the following factors has contributed Which of the above statements are correct?
most significantly to the ecological imbalance in a) 1 and 2 only
Lake Victoria? b) 1 and 3 only
a) Decline in rainfall due to climate change c) 2 and 3 only
b) Salinity increase caused by rising ocean d) 1, 2, and 3
levels
c) High levels of volcanic activity beneath the 3) Consider the following statements about the
lake Saraswati River:
d) Introduction of invasive species like the 1. It is mentioned in both the Rigveda and
Nile Perch Mahabharata.
2. It originates near Kailash Mansarovar in the
38) Which of the following statements accurately Himalayas.
describes the primary objective of the Wetland 3. It flows through present-day Gujarat,
City Accreditation (WCA) scheme under the Haryana, and Rajasthan.
Ramsar Convention? Which of the above statements are correct?
a) To mandate urban development projects a) 1 and 2 only
to include wetland restoration plans. b) 2 and 3 only
b) To enforce legal penalties on cities that c) 1 and 3 only
fail to protect their urban wetlands. d) 1, 2, and 3
c) To provide international recognition to
cities that demonstrate exceptional efforts 4) In December, artesian water flow in Taranagar,
in conserving and sustainably managing their Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, revealed unique geological
wetlands. features, dispelling myths like the Saraswati
d) To prioritize funding for infrastructural River. Consider the following statements about
development in cities with significant the artesian condition:
wetland areas. 1. Artesian aquifers must have an overlying
impermeable layer.
2. Artesian water always gushes out with
high force.
3. Geography 3. Artesian conditions can reveal subsurface
hydrogeological structures.
1) Consider the following statements about the How many of the above statements is/are correct?
India Meteorological Department (IMD): a) Only one
1. It is responsible for short-term and long- b) Only two
term weather forecasts. c) All three
2. It operates under the Ministry of d) None
Environment, Forest, and Climate
Change. 5) Consider the following statements about Burkina
3. It conducts research on monsoon Faso’s geography:
dynamics and climate change. 1. It is a landlocked country in West Africa.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. The Niger River forms its northern border.
a) 1 and 2 only 3. Its landscape is predominantly dominated
b) 2 and 3 only by savannahs and plateaus.
c) 1 and 3 only How many of the above statements is/are correct?
d) 1, 2, and 3 a) Only one
b) Only two
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) All three 10) Consider the following statements about rat-
d) None hole mining:
1. It is primarily conducted in the Western
6) With reference to the recalculated coastline of Ghats region of India.
India, consider the following statements: 2. Modern machinery is used extensively to
1. The recalculated length of the coastline improve efficiency.
incorporates estuaries, bays, and inlets, 3. It is considered a sustainable method of
unlike the previous method. coal extraction.
2. Gujarat has the longest coastline among How many of the above statements is/are correct?
all states after the recalculation. a) Only one
3. The recalculation was carried out by the b) Only two
Ministry of Earth Sciences. c) All three
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? d) None
a) Only one
b) Only two 11) Bharathapuzha River originates from which of
c) All three the following regions?
d) None a) Nilgiri Hills
b) Western Ghats, near Agumbe
7) Which of the following best explains the role of c) Anaimalai Hills
the jet stream in polar vortex disruptions? d) Palani Hills
a) It strengthens the vortex by confining cold
air at the poles. 12) Consider the following statements about the
b) It facilitates heat transfer between the Bharathapuzha River:
poles and equator. 1. It is often referred to as the "River of Life"
c) It weakens during Sudden Stratospheric in Kerala.
Warming, causing the vortex to wobble. 2. The river is non-perennial, with significant
d) It intensifies cyclogenesis in tropical flow only during monsoons.
regions. 3. Bharathapuzha supports Kerala’s largest
urban water supply network.
8) Which of the following factors primarily How many of the above statements are correct?
contributes to the formation of sada a) Only one
landscapes? b) Only two
a) Volcanic eruptions leading to basaltic c) All three
layers d) None
b) Erosion and weathering of lateritic soils
over centuries 13) Consider the following features of the Vaigai
c) Deposition of alluvial sediments during River:
monsoons 1. It originates from the Eastern Ghats.
d) Glacial activity in the past geological eras 2. It flows through Tamil Nadu before
emptying into the Arabian Sea.
9) Consider the following statements about the 3. It is mentioned in Sangam literature and
PKC River Link Project: associated with the Pandya kingdom.
1. It diverts water exclusively for drinking 4. The Vaigai Dam is a significant irrigation
water supply. structure on this river.
2. It completely avoids any impact on Which of the above statements are correct?
wildlife habitats. a) 1, 2, and 3
3. It is a transboundary project involving b) 2, 3, and 4
India and Bangladesh. c) 3 and 4 only
How many of the above statements is/are correct? d) 1 and 2 only
a) Only one
b) Only two 14) Which of the following are tributaries of the
c) All three Cauvery River?
d) None 1. Arkavathi River
2. Kabini River
3. Bhima River
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
4. Hemavathi River 18) Which of the following factors was the primary
Select the correct answer: driver behind the rapid intensification of Storm
a) 1, 2, and 4 only Éowyn?
b) 2, 3, and 4 only a) High sea surface temperatures and
c) 1, 3, and 4 only increased latent heat flux
d) All of the above b) A weak jet stream causing stagnation of
the storm system
15) Consider the following statements regarding the c) Absence of temperature contrast between
comparison between seas and oceans: Arctic air and warm ocean air
1. Oceans are deeper than seas, with the d) A slow-moving high-pressure system over
Challenger Deep being the deepest point in the North Atlantic
the ocean system.
2. Seas generally have higher salinity levels
compared to oceans due to evaporation and
minimal water exchange. 4. Government Schemes
3. Both seas and oceans equally influence
global climate regulation by distributing and Programmes
solar energy.
Which of the above statements are correct? 1) Consider the following statements regarding the
a) 1 and 3 only advantages of BAANKNET:
b) 2 and 3 only 1. It provides a centralized platform for e-
c) 1 and 2 only auction processes.
d) 1, 2, and 3 2. It allows international bidders to
participate in property auctions.
16) Which of the following statements about tidal 3. It features an automated payment
flooding are correct? gateway for transparency.
1. Tidal flooding often occurs in areas with Which of the above statements is/are correct?
poor stormwater infrastructure. a) 1 and 2 only
2. Tidal flooding is influenced by b) 1 and 3 only
gravitational forces of the moon and sun. c) 2 and 3 only
3. Coastal erosion exacerbates the impact of d) 1, 2 and 3
tidal flooding.
4. Tidal flooding events are limited to 2) Under the Transgender Persons (Protection of
tropical coastal regions. Rights) Act, 2019, who is responsible for issuing
Select the correct answer code: the identity certificate for a transgender person?
a) 1 and 3 only a) State Human Rights Commission
b) 2, 3, and 4 only b) Registrar of Births and Deaths
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4 c) Ministry of Social Justice and
d) 1, 2, and 3 only Empowerment
d) District Magistrate
17) Consider the following statements about the
impacts of tidal flooding: 3) Consider the following statements regarding the
1. Tidal flooding can result in saltwater scientific and educational significance of Mission
intrusion into freshwater supplies. ShakthiSAT:
2. Tidal flooding always leads to the 1. It will test advanced imaging technologies
permanent submersion of affected areas. for lunar surface mapping.
3. Tidal flooding is always caused by storm 2. The mission is aimed at inspiring young
surges. women to pursue STEM careers.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 3. It is a fully government-funded initiative.
a) Only one 4. The payloads are entirely designed and
b) Only two developed by student teams.
c) All three How many of the above statements are correct?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) Only three c) Emphasizing inclusivity for SC, ST, and OBC
d) All four candidates
d) Barring non-compliant institutions from
4) Which ministry organizes Pravasi Bharatiya Divas UGC funding
(PBD)?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs 8) Consider the following statements about the PLI
b) Ministry of External Affairs Scheme 1.1 for specialty steel:
c) Ministry of Culture 1. It seeks to reduce India’s dependency on
d) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs imports of specialty steel.
2. It mandates the use of 100% indigenous
5) Consider the following statements regarding the raw materials for eligibility.
draft Digital Personal Data Protection Rules. 3. It includes categories like Alloy Steel
Statement-I: The Draft Rules aim to balance Products and Electrical Steel.
regulation with innovation to support Which of the above statements are correct?
startups and MSMEs. a) 1 and 2
Statement-II: The compliance requirements b) 2 and 3
for all data fiduciaries are uniform, c) 1 and 3
regardless of their scale or operations. d) 1, 2, and 3
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? 9) Consider the following statements regarding
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are consumer access to renewable energy under the
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy
for Statement-I Through Green Energy Open Access) Rules,
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2022:
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 1. Consumers can demand green power
explanation for Statement-I from their Discoms.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 2. Consumers using green power are eligible
incorrect for green certificates.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II 3. Open access is available only to
is correct commercial and industrial users.
Which of the above statements are correct?
6) Consider the following statements regarding a) 1 and 2
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD): b) 2 only
1. It promotes partnerships between India c) 2 and 3
and its diaspora for national development. d) 1, 2, and 3
2. Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Awards are
conferred during PBD celebrations. 10) Consider the following statements about the
3. It was initially an annual event but later IndiaAI Mission:
changed to a biennial celebration. 1. It integrates AI solutions into citizen-
4. The event seeks to enhance India’s soft centric sectors like healthcare and
power globally. education.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 2. The mission has established a policy for
a) Only one mandatory data sharing across all
b) Only two government agencies.
c) Only three 3. It includes AI research grants to
d) All four encourage academia-industry collaboration.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
7) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the a) Only one
UGC Draft Regulations 2025 for Vice-Chancellor b) Only two
(VC) appointments? c) All three
a) Allowing only academic professionals to d) None
apply for the post of VC
b) Mandating a search-cum-selection 11) With reference to the Bhashini Initiative,
committee for appointing VCs consider the following statements:

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. It aims to provide AI-based language c) All three
translation tools for all scheduled languages d) None
in India.
2. The initiative is exclusively implemented 15) Consider the following statements about
by the Ministry of Education. National Organ and Tissue Transplant
3. It seeks to make digital services accessible Organisation (NOTTO).
to non-English speaking populations. 1. NOTTO was established under the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Directorate General of Health Services.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. It ensures mandatory organ donation for
b) 1, 2, and 3 all accident victims in India.
c) 2 and 3 only 3. It organizes training programs for
d) 1 and 3 only healthcare professionals in transplantation.
4. It maintains a centralized database for
12) Which of the following are advanced features of tracking organ allocation and distribution.
the Indian Customs Electronic Gateway How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(ICEGATE) platform? a) Only one
1. Real-time tracking of customs clearance b) Only two
processes. c) Only three
2. Automatic error correction in trade data. d) All four
3. Integration with international customs
systems for data sharing. 16) Consider the following statements about De-
4. Providing traders with mobile app support notified Tribes (DNTs):
for documentation. 1. They were denotified after the Criminal
Select the correct Solution: Tribes Act was repealed.
a) 1 and 3 only 2. The Idate Commission recommended a
b) 1, 2, and 4 only sub-quota for DNTs under the SC/ST/OBC
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 categories.
d) 1, 3, and 4 only 3. All De-notified Tribes in India are classified
under the Scheduled Tribes (ST) category.
13) Consider the following statements about the How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Genome India Project: a) Only one
1. It is fully funded by private organizations b) Only two
to avoid governmental influence. c) All three
2. The genetic data collected is stored at the d) None
Indian Biological Data Centre.
3. The project aims to study genetic 17) Which of the following is a key feature of
disorders prevalent in Indian populations. Mission Mausam?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Deployment of advanced weather
a) Only one observation radars and satellites
b) Only two b) Preservation of ancient maritime trade
c) All three routes
d) None c) Creation of a unified global climate change
treaty
14) Regarding the organ transplant framework in d) Establishment of an exclusive task force
India, consider the following statements: for disaster response
1. National Organ and Tissue Transplant
Organisation (NOTTO) establishes guidelines 18) Consider the following statements about
for cadaveric organ transplantation. Mission Mausam:
2. It coordinates with regional and state- 1. It focuses on reviving ancient maritime
level organizations for organ allocation. networks in the Indian Ocean region.
3. NOTTO directly funds the hospitals 2. It is led by the Ministry of Tourism to
performing transplant surgeries. promote cultural exchange.
How many of the above are correct? 3. It includes provisions for a dedicated
a) Only one disaster response unit under the Ministry of Earth
b) Only two Sciences.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 1. To promote research in nuclear science
a) Only one for peaceful purposes.
b) Only two 2. To regulate the disposal of nuclear waste
c) All three in India.
d) None 3. To oversee the development of nuclear
power plants.
19) Consider the following statements regarding the How many of the above statements is/are correct?
composition of the Atomic Energy Commission: a) Only one
1. The Secretary of the Department of b) Only two
Atomic Energy is the Chairperson of the AEC. c) All three
2. It includes eminent scientists and key ex- d) None
officio members from various government
departments. 23) Which of the following are roles of the Pay
3. The Prime Minister of India serves as the Commission in India?
ex-officio President of the AEC. 1. Reviewing salary structures of central
How many of the above statements is/are correct? government employees.
a) Only one 2. Recommending pension revisions for
b) Only two retired employees.
c) All three 3. Addressing wage disparities between
d) None central and state employees.
4. Proposing financial sustainability
20) Which of the following functions are carried out measures for salary revisions.
by the India Meteorological Department (IMD)? Select the correct answer:
1. Issuing disaster warnings for cyclones, a) 1, 2, and 4 only
floods, and heatwaves. b) 1, 3, and 4 only
2. Conducting research on climate change c) 2, 3, and 4 only
impacts on agriculture. d) All of the above
3. Monitoring earthquakes and issuing
alerts. 24) What is the primary aim of the Fast Track
4. Operating India’s Doppler Weather Radar Immigration – Trusted Traveller Programme (FTI-
network. TTP)?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) To facilitate visa-free travel for Indian
a) Only one citizens to select countries.
b) Only two b) To enhance immigration clearance
c) Only three through automated e-gates for faster
d) All four processing.
c) To integrate all immigration systems into a
21) Consider the following statements regarding centralized national database.
India Meteorological Department (IMD): d) To implement biometric verification for all
1. IMD operates under the Ministry of Earth international travelers at departure only.
Sciences.
2. It is the only Indian agency responsible for 25) Which of the following is the primary focus of
satellite-based weather data collection. PM-Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure
3. IMD provides real-time weather data to Mission (PM-ABHIM)?
various sectors, including aviation and a) Universal health insurance for all citizens
shipping. b) Increasing the number of private
Which of the above statements are correct? healthcare facilities in rural areas
a) 1 and 2 only c) Promoting indigenous medicine and
b) 1, 2, and 3 AYUSH practices
c) 2 and 3 only d) Strengthening health systems and
d) 1 and 3 only pandemic preparedness

22) Consider the following statements regarding the 26) Which of the following are features of the
objectives of the Atomic Energy Commission SVAMITVA Scheme?
(AEC):
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. The scheme uses drone technology for How many of the above statements are correct?
property mapping. a) Only one
2. It aims to integrate Gram Panchayat b) Only two
Development Plans (GPDP) with property c) All three
records. d) None
3. The property cards issued are legally
binding documents. 30) Consider the following statements regarding
4. It covers both urban and rural areas for Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan.
property mapping. Statement I: Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan
How many of the above statements is/are correct? aims to promote tourism exclusively in
a) Only one border areas.
b) Only two Statement II: The initiative uses digital
c) Only three technology to provide virtual tours of key
d) All four military sites.
Which of the following is correct?
27) Consider the following statements about Entity a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Locker: correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
1. Entity Locker provides secure, cloud- for Statement-I
based document management for b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
businesses and organizations. correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
2. It offers real-time document access by explanation for Statement-I
integrating with government databases. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
3. The platform ensures legally valid incorrect
document authentication through digital d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
signatures. is correct
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one 31) Consider the following statements about Beti
b) Only two Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme:
c) All three 1. It focuses solely on the financial incentives
d) None for girl child education.
2. It integrates advocacy campaigns to
28) Consider the following statements about the address gender-biased practices.
Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB): 3. It is now part of the broader Mission
1. It was established under the Atomic Shakti program.
Energy Act, 1962. How many of the above statements are correct?
2. It functions as an autonomous body under a) Only one
the Atomic Energy Commission. b) Only two
3. It oversees the safety of nuclear c) All three
installations and radiological facilities in d) None
India.
Which of the above statements are correct? 32) Which of the following is a key objective of the
a) 1 and 2 only National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?
b) 2 and 3 only a) Centralizing the governance of all
c) 1 and 3 only universities under the UGC.
d) 1, 2, and 3 b) Promoting multilingual education at the
primary level.
29) Consider the following statements about the c) Making PhD qualifications mandatory for
recommendations of the Pay Commissions: all academic positions.
1. They directly influence the salaries of d) Granting governors complete autonomy
state government employees. over university governance.
2. They are implemented retroactively from
the date of the announcement. 33) Which of the following are objectives of the PM-
3. They include provisions for revising Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission?
dearness allowance (DA) and pension 1. Establishment of Health and Wellness
structures. Centres in rural and urban areas
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. Construction of Integrated Public Health 37) What is the primary aim of introducing the
Labs in all districts Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)?
3. Creation of mobile hospitals for disaster a) To provide employees with market-linked
response investment options for higher returns
4. Reduction of healthcare costs for b) To replace the National Pension System
economically weaker sections (NPS) entirely with a more flexible alternative
Select the correct answer code: c) To address concerns over market-linked
a) 1, 2, and 3 only returns in NPS by guaranteeing lifelong pensions
b) 2 and 4 only d) To provide a lump sum retirement payout
c) 1, 3, and 4 only instead of monthly pensions
d) All four
38) Consider the following statements regarding the
34) Which of the following best explains the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS):
significance of the Diamond Imprest 1. The UPS will be regulated by the Pension
Authorization (DIA) Scheme for the Indian Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
diamond industry? (PFRDA).
a) Enhances domestic demand for diamonds 2. The scheme guarantees a monthly
by lowering import duties. pension equal to 50% of the employee’s
b) Strengthens India’s position as a global average basic pay over the last 12 months
hub for diamond processing and export. before retirement.
c) Reduces the cost of diamond jewellery for 3. Employees are required to contribute 15%
Indian consumers. of their basic pay under the UPS.
d) Encourages the shift from natural How many of the above statements is/are correct?
diamonds to lab-grown alternatives. a) Only one
b) Only two
35) Consider the following statements about the c) All three
Deep Ocean Mission (DOM): d) None
1. It aims to establish India's presence in the
International Seabed Authority (ISA) by 39) Which of the following statements best
exploring deep-sea mining rights. describes the primary goal of the PM Surya Ghar
2. It is fully funded by the Ministry of Earth Muft Bijli Yojana?
Sciences. a) To replace conventional power grids with
3. Technologies like Matsya6000 and Varaha 100% solar energy-based electricity
are being developed in collaboration with generation.
private industries. b) To provide subsidies for commercial and
4. DOM aligns with India's blue economy industrial solar power projects.
policy for sustainable use of ocean c) To reduce dependence on imported fossil
resources. fuels by mandating solar energy adoption in
Which of the statements are correct? all homes.
a) 1 and 2 only d) To promote rooftop solar energy
b) 1, 3, and 4 only installations and provide free electricity to
c) 2, 3, and 4 only households up to a certain limit.
d) All of the above
40) Which of the following best describes the
36) The primary aim of the Cauvery-South Vellar Link primary objective of the MSME TEAM Initiative?
Project is: a) To provide direct financial subsidies to
a) To generate hydroelectric power for Tamil MSMEs for infrastructure development.
Nadu. b) To integrate MSMEs into a unified digital
b) To regulate water sharing between Tamil ecosystem to enhance market access.
Nadu and Karnataka. c) To establish new manufacturing hubs
c) To divert surplus floodwater for irrigation exclusively in urban areas.
and water conservation. d) To promote traditional marketing
d) To establish water transport channels methods among MSMEs.
across Tamil Nadu.

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
41) Consider the following statements regarding the Living with a Star program.
National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM): 2. The probe was designed to explore the
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Mines magnetic fields of Earth’s atmosphere.
to ensure India's self-reliance in critical 3. The data gathered is crucial for advancing
minerals. space weather forecasting.
2. The mission focuses exclusively on the How many of the above statements is/are correct?
exploration of domestic mineral reserves a) Only one
within India. b) Only two
3. It aims to reduce dependence on China for c) All three
rare earth elements (REEs) and lithium. d) None
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one 3) What is the primary reason for a belly landing of
b) Only two Aircraft?
c) All three a) Pilot error during approach.
d) None b) Deliberate decision during routine
landings.
42) Consider the following statements regarding the c) Landing gear malfunction or emergency
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: conditions.
1. The scheme is implemented by the d) Structural flaws in the fuselage design.
Ministry of Power.
2. Households benefiting from this scheme 4) What is the primary focus of Google’s Willow
can also avail subsidies under other solar quantum processor?
energy schemes. a) Enhancing artificial intelligence
3. The scheme allows households to sell applications.
surplus solar electricity back to the grid. b) Increasing data storage capacity.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? c) Improving quantum error correction and
a) Only one scalability.
b) Only two d) Developing room-temperature quantum
c) All three computing.
d) None
5) Which of the following is the primary goal of
NASA’s Kessler Syndrome Mitigation efforts?
a) To develop reusable launch vehicles for
5. Science and Technology space missions
b) To regulate international cooperation on
1) Consider the following statements regarding space missions
Norovirus infections: c) To prevent cascading collisions in orbit by
1. Norovirus primarily infects individuals limiting debris generation
through vector-borne transmission from d) To remove defunct satellites and large
animals. debris from orbit
2. High-risk locations for Norovirus
outbreaks include isolated rural areas with 6) Consider the following statements regarding
sparse populations. superconducting qubits in the Willow processor:
3. Norovirus infections occur exclusively in 1. They operate at near absolute zero
cold climates. temperatures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 2. They enhance coherence time, enabling
a) Only one longer computations.
b) Only two 3. They use photonic states for quantum
c) All three information processing.
d) None Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2
2) Consider the following statements regarding the b) 2 and 3
Parker Solar Probe: c) 1 and 3
1. The Parker Solar Probe is part of NASA’s d) 1, 2, and 3

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
7) Which of the following is critical for preventing a) Only one
an aircraft from flipping during a belly landing? b) Only two
a) Rapid descent with full throttle. c) All three
b) Complete shutdown of aerodynamic d) None
surfaces.
c) Level alignment with wings parallel to the 12) Which of the following is a unique characteristic
ground. of HMPV compared to other respiratory viruses
d) Full deployment of the landing gear. like Influenza or RSV?
a) It exclusively infects
8) Which of the following factors poses the most immunocompromised individuals.
significant challenge to the widespread adoption b) It lacks any genetic material and replicates
of satellite-based in-flight internet technology? using host DNA.
a) Signal latency due to geostationary c) It replicates only under high-temperature
satellite positioning conditions.
b) Interference from ground-based cellular d) It belongs to the Pneumoviridae family
towers but lacks specific antiviral treatment.
c) Limited compatibility with next-
generation aircraft systems 13) Consider the following statements regarding the
d) High data compression reducing internet administration of tranquilizers:
quality 1. Tranquilizers can be delivered
subcutaneously or intramuscularly using dart
9) Which of the following is the most distinguishing guns.
feature of the Open Data Kit (ODK) platform? 2. Modern tranquilizer darts are powered by
a) Support for cloud-based data analysis compressed air or CO2.
b) Integration with blockchain for secure 3. The dosage of tranquilizers is independent
data storage of the animal's weight and species.
c) Offline data collection capabilities in Which of the above statements is/are correct?
remote areas a) 1 and 2 only
d) Real-time GPS tracking during data b) 1 and 3 only
submission c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
10) Consider the following statements about
satellite-based in-flight internet: 14) Consider the following statements regarding
1. It provides seamless coverage over oceans HMPV transmission and epidemiology:
and remote areas. 1. It primarily spreads through direct person-
2. Signals are transmitted directly from to-person contact.
satellites to passenger devices. 2. It is a leading cause of severe lower
3. It is more suitable for long-haul respiratory infections in children.
international flights than Air-to-Ground 3. It cannot survive on surfaces for more
(ATG) in-flight internet systems. than a few minutes.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one a) 1 and 2 only
b) Only two b) 1 and 3 only
c) All three c) 2 and 3 only
d) None d) 1, 2 and 3

11) Consider the following statements about 15) Consider the following statements about the
injectable hydrogels: POEM-4 mission:
1. They are designed to release drugs in 1. It was ISRO’s first mission to include
response to specific environmental triggers. agricultural experiments in space.
2. They improve drug bioavailability at the 2. The mission marked the first use of India’s
tumor site. space robotic arm.
3. They require continuous external stimuli 3. It demonstrated advancements in space
for drug release. sustainability using modular payload
How many of the above statements is/are correct? designs.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Promoting indigenous AI capabilities and
a) Only one solutions.
b) Only two 2. Accelerating the deployment of AI-based
c) All three healthcare technologies in rural areas.
d) None 3. Establishing India's dominance in the
global AI compute infrastructure market.
16) Consider the following statements about the Select the correct Solution using the code given
evolutionary context of Homo juluensis: below:
1. Homo juluensis is a direct ancestor of a) 1 and 3 only
modern Homo sapiens. b) 2 and 3 only
2. They likely shared genetic material with c) 1 and 2 only
Denisovans. d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Their tool usage indicates advanced
agricultural practices. 21) Which of the following is a unique feature of
Which of the above statements are correct? Community Notes compared to traditional fact-
a) 1 and 2 only checking mechanisms?
b) 2 only a) Exclusively algorithm-driven content
c) 2 and 3 only moderation.
d) 1 and 3 only b) Relying solely on centralized teams for
content verification.
17) What is the primary function of microRNAs c) Mandatory approval from government
(miRNAs) in cellular processes? agencies for all flagged posts.
a) Transcriptional activation of target genes d) Crowdsourced user contributions verified
b) Post-transcriptional regulation of gene for helpfulness.
expression
c) Direct protein synthesis in the cytoplasm 22) Consider the following statements regarding the
d) Repair of DNA damage in the nucleus SSI Mantra Surgical Robotic System:
1. It enables surgeons to operate remotely
18) What is the primary cause of tidal tail formation with ultra-low latency.
in galaxies? 2. It was developed by ISRO for medical
a) Accretion of interstellar gas from applications in space.
neighboring stars 3. It supports minimally invasive procedures,
b) Supernova explosions in the core of the including cardiac surgeries.
galaxy How many of the above are correct?
c) Gravitational interactions during close a) Only one
encounters or mergers of galaxies b) Only two
d) High rotational velocity of spiral galaxies c) All three
d) None
19) AnemiaPhone, a novel diagnostic tool, offers
several advantages in anemia detection. Which
of the following benefits does it provide? 23) Which of the following best describes the
1. Non-invasive anemia detection without primary advantage of Small Language Models
the need for blood samples. (SLMs) over Large Language Models (LLMs)?
2. Immediate results facilitating on-the-spot a) Higher accuracy in solving complex tasks
clinical decisions. b) Wider applicability across diverse
3. Integration with digital platforms for data domains
management and analysis. c) Better performance in multi-task learning
How many of the above statements is/are correct? d) Lower computational requirements and
a) Only one better scalability
b) Only two
c) All three 24) What is the primary significance of the Purulia
d) None Observatory for India’s scientific research?
a) It advances India’s capabilities in radio
20) Which of the following objectives align with the astronomy and exoplanet studies.
Microsoft and IndiaAI partnership? b) It helps integrate India into global
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
networks for transient astronomical 3. The experiment was conducted to test
observations. plant survival without sunlight.
c) It enables satellite tracking and space How many of the above statements are correct?
debris monitoring. a) Only one
d) It provides a unique facility for studying b) Only two
the Earth’s magnetosphere. c) All three
d) None
25) The first private satellite constellation launched
by Pixxel aims to achieve which of the following 29) Consider the following statements.
objectives? Statement I: SpaDeX makes India the first
1. Hyperspectral imaging for resource nation to demonstrate in-orbit satellite
management. docking.
2. Precision agriculture through detailed Statement II: SpaDeX supports future
crop analysis. human spaceflight and satellite servicing
3. Monitoring global carbon emissions using missions.
synthetic aperture radar (SAR). Which of the following is correct?
4. Enhancing military surveillance a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
capabilities globally. correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
Select the correct answer using the codes given for Statement-I
below: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) 1 and 2 only correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
b) 2 and 3 only explanation for Statement-I
c) 1, 2, and 3 only c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
26) What is the primary goal of the “One Rocket, is correct
Two Missions” initiative?
a) To showcase the capabilities of private- 30) Consider the following statements regarding the
sector companies in lunar exploration. Third Launch Pad at Sriharikota:
b) To explore the lunar South Pole using a 1. It will act as a backup for the Second
single spacecraft. Launch Pad.
c) To reduce the cost of interplanetary 2. It is exclusively meant for launching
missions by using a reusable rocket system. NGLVs and human spaceflight missions.
d) To establish a permanent human 3. It is equipped to handle satellite docking
presence on the Moon. experiments like SpaDeX.
How many of the above statements are correct?
27) Which of the following is the primary objective a) Only one
of germinating lobia seeds in microgravity b) Only two
aboard ISRO’s Compact Research Module for c) All three
Orbital Plant Studies (CROPS)? d) None
a) To develop genetically modified seeds for
terrestrial use. 31) Which of the following factors makes a planet
b) To evaluate seed resistance to cosmic parade visible from Earth?
radiation. a) The planets align perfectly in a straight
c) To test plant growth under extraterrestrial line in space.
atmospheric conditions. b) The Earth’s axial tilt allows all planets to
d) To study the effects of gravitational appear simultaneously.
variations on plant biochemistry. c) The gravitational forces between planets
bring them closer together.
28) Consider the following statements regarding the d) Planets are on the same side of the Sun
experiment on lobia seed germination in space: and appear along the ecliptic plane.
1. The experiment required a fully
automated hydroponic system. 32) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. Lobia seeds were selected due to their location for the Satish Dhawan Space Cente.
naturally short lifecycle and rapid growth.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Statement-I: The Satish Dhawan Space Select the correct answer code:
Center’s location allows efficient a) 1, 2, and 4 only
geostationary and polar satellite launches. b) 2, 3, and 4 only
Statement-II: Its proximity to the equator c) 1 and 4 only
reduces the energy required for satellite d) All four
placement.
Select the correct answer: 36) Consider the following statements about
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Advanced Driver Assistance Systems (ADAS)
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation technologies:
for Statement-I. 1. LiDAR technology in ADAS is primarily
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are used for long-range weather predictions.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 2. Radar in ADAS is used to detect objects
explanation for Statement-I. and estimate their speed and distance.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 3. ADAS cameras can identify traffic signs
incorrect. using machine learning algorithms.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II Which of the above statements are correct?
is correct. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
33) Which of the following statements regarding a c) 1 and 3 only
planet parade are correct? d) 1, 2, and 3
1. Planet parades provide opportunities to
study planetary atmospheres using reflected 37) During a planet parade, why do the outer
light. planets (e.g., Jupiter and Saturn) appear to move
2. They are recurring phenomena, occurring slower than inner planets like Venus and
approximately every 100 years. Mercury?
3. The visibility of planets in a parade a) Outer planets have longer orbital periods
depends on their distance from Earth and due to greater distances from the Sun.
the Sun. b) Their visibility is affected by their
4. Planet parades influence tidal forces on retrograde motion.
Earth, leading to extreme weather events. c) Outer planets are more massive and
Select the correct answer code: experience stronger gravitational forces.
a) 1 and 3 only d) Inner planets travel slower because of
b) 2 and 4 only their smaller orbital radii.
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) All four 38) Which of the following factors determine the
efficacy of an antivenom in treating snakebites?
34) What is the primary function of the National 1. The dose of venom injected by the snake.
Internet Exchange of India (NIXI)? 2. The time elapsed between the snakebite
a) To regulate internet access across India and antivenom administration.
b) To route domestic internet traffic within 3. The species of snake responsible for the
India, reducing latency bite.
c) To enforce cybersecurity standards for Select the correct answer:
public organizations a) 1 and 2 only
d) To promote rural broadband connectivity b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
35) Which of the following are functions of the d) 1 and 3 only
National Internet Exchange of India?
1. Managing India’s .IN domain and 39) Which of the following statements best
promoting its adoption describes Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)?
2. Facilitating the exchange of domestic a) It is a chronic autoimmune disease
internet traffic primarily affecting the central nervous system.
3. Supporting cybersecurity for critical b) It is a genetic disorder resulting in muscle
government infrastructures degeneration and atrophy.
4. Allocating IPv4 and IPv6 addresses c) It is an acute autoimmune disorder that
through Internet Registry (IRINN) targets the peripheral nervous system.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
d) It is a bacterial infection leading to Statement I: ADHD is a lifelong disorder that
inflammation of the spinal cord. always worsens with age.
Statement II: Early diagnosis and
40) Consider the following statements regarding intervention can improve outcomes for
Rhodamine B: individuals with ADHD.
1. It is a naturally occurring dye obtained Which of the following is correct?
from plant-based sources. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Its use in food products is banned globally correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
due to its harmful effects. for Statement-I.
3. It has applications in scientific research b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
due to its fluorescent properties. correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
How many of the above statements are correct? explanation for Statement-I.
a) Only one c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
b) Only two incorrect.
c) All three d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
d) None is correct.

41) Consider the following statements regarding 44) Which of the following is the most common risk
Rhodamine B. factor for developing Chronic Pulmonary
Statement-I: Rhodamine B is used in textiles Aspergillosis (CPA)?
and paints due to its vivid coloring a) Recent recovery from tuberculosis or
properties. other lung infections
Statement-II: It is safe to use Rhodamine B b) Exposure to second-hand smoke
in cosmetic products because it is non-toxic c) Long-term use of non-steroidal anti-
to humans. inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Which one of the following is correct in respect of d) High-altitude living with low oxygen levels
the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 45) Consider the following statements about
correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation paraquat poisoning.
for Statement-I. 1. Paraquat is a bipyridyl herbicide
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are commonly used in agriculture.
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct 2. Ingestion of even small amounts of
explanation for Statement-I. paraquat can lead to severe toxicity and
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is multi-organ failure.
incorrect. 3. Pulmonary fibrosis is a delayed but
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II common complication of paraquat
is correct. poisoning.
4. Hemodialysis is an effective method to
42) Which of the following are characteristic eliminate paraquat from the bloodstream.
symptoms of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Disorder (ADHD)? a) Only one
1. Difficulty maintaining focus on tasks or b) Only two
activities. c) Only three
2. Excessive energy and physical d) All four
restlessness.
3. Chronic memory loss. 46) Consider the following statements about Chronic
4. Acting without considering consequences. Pulmonary Aspergillosis (CPA):
Select the correct answer: 1. CPA primarily affects the gastrointestinal
a) 1, 2, and 4 only tract rather than the lungs.
b) 1, 2, and 3 only 2. CPA is caused by inhalation of viral
c) 2, 3, and 4 only particles.
d) All of the above 3. CPA can be effectively treated with a
single dose of antibiotics.
43) Consider the following statements regarding How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). a) Only one
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
b) Only two 51) Consider the following statements regarding
c) All three ISRO's launch vehicles:
d) None 1. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
is the only operational launch vehicle
47) Consider the following statements regarding used for interplanetary missions.
stove lighters: 2. The GSLV Mk III (LVM3) is designed for
1. Piezoelectric lighters use quartz crystals to both heavy satellite launches and human
generate an electric spark. spaceflight missions.
2. Electronic stove lighters require an 3. The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)
external power source such as a battery. uses a hybrid propulsion system with
3. Piezoelectric lighters require regular both solid and liquid fuel stages.
recharging to function properly. How many of the above statements are incorrect?
How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None
52) Consider the following statements regarding
48) Which of the following ISRO launch vehicles has WASP-127b:
successfully demonstrated cryogenic propulsion 1. It is classified as a Super-Earth due to its
technology? rocky composition.
a) PSLV 2. The planet's atmosphere is highly
b) GSLV Mk I and Mk II transparent, making it one of the best
c) GSLV Mk III (LVM3) candidates for spectroscopic studies.
d) Both (b) and (c) 3. It has been detected using the transit
method, where its light curve is
49) Consider the following statements regarding observed as it passes in front of its star.
Bhashini, India's AI-powered translation How many of the above statements are correct?
platform: a) Only one
1. Bhashini is developed by NITI Aayog b) Only two
under the Digital India Initiative. c) All three
2. The platform currently supports only d) None
Hindi and English languages.
3. Bhashini is limited to government use 53) Consider the following statements regarding
only and does not support private ISRO’s future launch vehicle developments:
applications. 1. The Next-Generation Launch Vehicle
How many of the above statements are correct? (NGLV) is planned to replace both PSLV
a) Only one and GSLV for future missions.
b) Only two 2. The Unified Launch Vehicle (ULV) is
c) All three being designed as a modular system to
d) None accommodate different payloads.
3. ISRO has a fully developed reusable
50) Which of the following correctly describes orbital launch system similar to SpaceX’s
"Reinforcement Learning from Human Starship.
Feedback" (RLHF), a technique used in AI models How many of the above statements are correct?
like ChatGPT? a) Only one
a) A supervised learning approach that does b) Only two
not require trial-and-error interactions c) All three
b) A training paradigm that does not involve d) None
reward models or human oversight
c) A method where human evaluators fine- 54) Consider the following statements regarding
tune the AI model by ranking generated responses nuclear fusion:
d) A process where reinforcement learning 1. Nuclear fusion occurs when two heavy
models are trained exclusively using historical data atomic nuclei combine to form a lighter
nucleus, releasing energy.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. The process requires extremely high in the IT sector.
temperatures to overcome electrostatic 2. Employers must prove a lack of available
repulsion between atomic nuclei. qualified U.S. workers to hire H-1B visa holders.
3. Fusion energy produces long-lived 3. H-1B visa holders can work for multiple
radioactive waste, making its disposal a employers without restrictions.
major environmental challenge. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None
3) What is the primary objective of the World
55) Consider the following statements regarding the Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES)?
role of the retina in human vision: a) To address global climate change through
1. The retina converts light into neural media
signals, which are transmitted to the brain b) To regulate intellectual property laws in
via the optic nerve. the entertainment industry
2. Rod cells in the retina are responsible for c) To promote traditional cultural heritage
color vision and function well in bright light. exclusively
3. Retinal diseases primarily affect the d) To position India as a global leader in the
cornea, leading to progressive vision loss. media and entertainment industry
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one 4) The Torrijos-Carter Treaties primarily aimed to:
b) Only two a) Establish joint U.S.-Panama control over
c) All three the Panama Canal
d) None b) End all U.S. military presence in Panama
c) Establish the Panama Canal as a tax-free
56) Which of the following retinal diseases is caused trade zone
by genetic mutations and can lead to progressive d) Transfer full control of the Panama Canal
vision loss? to Panama by a specified date
a) Diabetic Retinopathy
b) Retinal Detachment 5) India has lodged a protest with China over the
c) Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD) establishment of two new counties, He’an and
d) Retinitis Pigmentosa Hekang, in the Hotan Prefecture. Why is Hotan
Prefecture geopolitically significant?
a) It contains the headquarters of the
Chinese Communist Party.
6. International Relations b) It is a hub for oil and natural gas
exploration.
and Organisations c) It includes disputed territories like Aksai
Chin.
1) What was the primary focus of the Carter d) It serves as a critical port for China’s Belt
Doctrine? and Road Initiative (BRI).
a) Promoting nuclear disarmament in the
Middle East 6) The Conference of Speakers and Presiding
b) Advocating for peaceful resolution of Cold Officers of Commonwealth Countries (CSPOC)
War conflicts operates under
c) Establishing diplomatic ties with the a) Commonwealth Parliamentary Association
Soviet Union post-Afghanistan invasion (CPA)
d) Asserting U.S. willingness to use military b) Commonwealth Secretariat
force to defend its interests in the Persian Gulf c) An independent framework with Canadian
secretariat support
2) Consider the following statements about the H- d) Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)
1B visa:
1. The H-1B visa is applicable only to workers
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
7) Consider the following statements about the c) All three
functions of the UN Committee of Experts on Big d) None
Data and Data Science for Official Statistics:
1. It facilitates collaboration among 11) Consider the following statements about the
countries to address data gaps. 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement:
2. It operates under the United Nations 1. It allowed the free movement of goods
Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). and people across the border without
3. It develops innovative methodologies for restrictions.
integrating big data into national statistical 2. It mandated the construction of
systems. permanent fencing along the entire border.
4. It directly funds big data projects in 3. It resolved the dispute over the Tin Bigha
developing countries to improve data Corridor.
collection capabilities. How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) Only three d) None
d) All four
12) Which of the following is a key objective of the
8) What is the primary geopolitical significance of US AI Export Rule?
the Gaza Truce Deal? a) To control the diffusion of advanced AI
a) It resolves the longstanding territorial capabilities to adversarial nations.
dispute between Israel and Palestine. b) To ensure unrestricted global access to AI
b) It leads to the immediate withdrawal of technologies.
all foreign forces from Gaza. c) To ban the export of all AI hardware
c) It highlights the shifting role of Middle regardless of the importing country.
Eastern nations in global diplomacy. d) To encourage unrestricted AI technology
d) It establishes a new governance exchange within Tier 2 countries.
framework for Gaza under international
oversight. 13) What was the primary objective of the 1975
Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement?
9) Which of the following international treaties or a) To establish guidelines for maintaining
agreements is India not a part of, despite the peace and cooperation along the border.
Atomic Energy Commission's involvement in b) To demarcate the maritime boundary
international nuclear diplomacy? between India and Bangladesh.
a) Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of nuclear c) To facilitate the exchange of enclaves
weapons (NPT) between the two nations.
b) Convention on Nuclear Safety (CNS) d) To resolve disputes over river water
c) Joint Convention on the Safety of Spent sharing.
Fuel Management
d) Vienna Convention on Civil Liability for 14) Consider the following statements about the
Nuclear Damage Global Cybersecurity Outlook 2025:
1. The report identifies Africa as the region
10) Consider the following statements regarding the with the highest confidence in cybersecurity
U.S. Entity List: resilience.
1. It applies only to entities involved in 2. It highlights that smaller organizations
nuclear or defense technologies. face significantly more cybersecurity
2. Entities can be added to the list for challenges compared to larger organizations.
activities counter to U.S. foreign policy. 3. The workforce gap in cybersecurity is a
3. Inclusion in the list requires congressional major challenge, especially for the public
approval. sector.
How many of the above statements are incorrect? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) All three d) Presence of dense forests hindering
d) None boundary demarcation.

15) What is the primary aim of Exercise La Perouse? 19) Consider the following statements about the US
a) To promote interoperability and maritime AI Export Rule's impact on India:
security among navies in the Indo-Pacific 1. It places a cap on the number of advanced
b) To conduct anti-piracy drills in the Gulf of AI chips that India can import.
Aden 2. It encourages self-reliance in AI hardware
c) To counter illegal fishing activities in the manufacturing in India.
Indian Ocean 3. It includes India in Tier 1, indicating its
d) To develop multilateral naval strategies strategic partnership with the U.S.
for Arctic exploration How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
16) Consider the following statements about the b) Only two
New Development Bank (NDB): c) All three
1. It was established by BRICS to fund d) None
sustainable development projects in
member countries only. 20) Which of the following accurately describes the
2. It provides loans in local currencies to significance of being removed from the U.S.
reduce dependency on major global Entity List?
currencies like the US dollar. a) Entities are no longer subject to any
3. The NDB has its headquarters in New export restrictions globally.
Delhi, India. b) Entities gain automatic access to U.S.
How many of the above statements are correct? technologies without licensing requirements.
a) Only one c) Removal improves bilateral trade
b) Only two opportunities but does not eliminate all
c) All three restrictions.
d) None d) Removal signifies inclusion in the U.S.-led
military alliances.
17) Consider the following features of the World
Economic Forum (WEF): 21) Which of the following correctly describes the
1. It is headquartered in Geneva, aim of the World Health Organization (WHO)?
Switzerland. a) To develop and regulate medical
2. The WEF’s Global Competitiveness Report technologies exclusively in developed nations.
assesses the economic competitiveness of b) To ensure universal health coverage and
countries. strengthen global health systems.
3. The Energy Transition Index is one of the c) To monitor global financial health and its
WEF’s flagship publications. impact on public health systems.
4. The WEF facilitates global initiatives such d) To coordinate only pandemic-related
as stakeholder dialogues on climate change health responses worldwide.
and technological innovation.
Which of the above statements are correct? 22) Which of the following is NOT a primary
a) 1, 2, and 3 objective of the BRICS bloc?
b) 2, 3, and 4 a) Reforming global governance structures
c) 1, 3, and 4 like the UN and IMF
d) 1, 2, and 4 b) Promoting South-South cooperation
among developing nations
18) What is the primary cause of frequent disputes c) Establishing a unified BRICS currency for
along the India-Bangladesh border? trade settlements
a) Unresolved riverine boundaries and d) Funding infrastructure and sustainable
conflicting claims over enclaves. development projects
b) Military confrontation between the two
nations over the fencing project. 23) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) Illegal arms trade along the border. 14th Amendment of the US Constitution:

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. It guarantees birthright citizenship to all How many of the above statements is/are correct?
persons born in the United States, including a) Only one
children of foreign diplomats. b) Only two
2. It was introduced to address the rights of c) All three
freed slaves after the Civil War. d) None
3. It forms the legal basis for equal
protection under the law in the United 2) Consider the following statements about the
States. procedure for a Private Member’s Bill:
Which of the above statements are correct? 1. It requires a one-month notice before
a) 1 and 2 only introduction in the House.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. The Bill can be referred to a parliamentary
c) 1 and 3 only committee for detailed examination.
d) 1, 2, and 3 3. It must be approved by the President
before introduction in Parliament.
24) Which of the following statements regarding the Which of the above statements are correct?
Paris AI Summit 2025 is correct? a) 1 and 2
a) It is the first global AI Summit focused on b) 2 and 3
AI governance. c) 1 and 3
b) It was co-chaired by India’s Prime Minister d) 1, 2, and 3
and the President of the European
Commission. 3) Consider the following statements about the
c) It aims to establish a global framework for One Nation, One Legislative Platform:
ethical AI regulation and governance. 1. It focuses exclusively on digitizing
d) It focuses solely on European AI Parliament's records.
leadership and does not involve non- 2. It integrates all legislative bodies,
European countries. including local government institutions.
3. It utilizes artificial intelligence to
25) Consider the following objectives of the Paris AI streamline legislative functioning.
Summit 2025: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Establishing an international regulatory a) 1 only
framework for artificial intelligence (AI). b) 2 only
2. Reducing the AI development gap c) 3 only
between developed and developing d) None
countries.
3. Addressing concerns regarding the 4) Which of the following statements is true
monopolization of AI by major tech firms. regarding the constitutional status of whips in
How many of the above statements are correct? India?
a) Only one a) Whips are explicitly mentioned in the
b) Only two Constitution.
c) All three b) The role of whips is defined in the
d) None Representation of the People Act, 1951.
c) Whips operate as a part of internal
parliamentary conventions with no direct
constitutional mention.
d) Whips are only relevant to Rajya Sabha
7. Polity proceedings.
1) Consider the following statements regarding a 5) Consider the following statements about types
Private Member’s Bill: of whips issued by political parties:
1. It can only be introduced by MPs from the 1. A one-line whip requires members to
opposition parties. remain present but allows them to abstain
2. A Private Member’s Bill, if rejected, does from voting.
not affect the government’s stability. 2. A two-line whip directs members to vote
3. Discussion of such Bills is limited to in favour of the party's stance without
specific days in Parliament. exception.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. A three-line whip mandates both How many of the above statements is/are correct?
presence and voting in alignment with party a) Only one
instructions. b) Only two
4. Whips are legally enforceable in all c) All three
parliamentary democracies. d) None
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3 only 2) Consider the following statements.
b) 3 and 4 only Statement-I: The Harappan script is
c) 2 and 4 only primarily undeciphered with no confirmed
d) 1 and 3 only linguistic connections.
Statement-II: It appears only on seals
6) Consider the following statements regarding Ad depicting animal motifs like unicorns and
hoc Judges in India: bulls.
1. Ad hoc Judges are appointed by the Select the correct answer code:
President on the recommendation of the a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
High Court Chief Justice. correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
2. Their tenure is fixed at three years, for Statement-I
extendable by the Supreme Court. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. They enjoy the same powers and correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
privileges as sitting judges during their explanation for Statement-I
tenure. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
How many of the above statements are incorrect? incorrect
a) Only one d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
b) Only two is correct
c) All three
d) None 3) Consider the following statements about the
Indian National Anthem:
7) Consider the following statements about 1. It was first sung at the Indian National
National Voters’ Day: Congress session in 1927.
1. It aims to encourage first-time voters to 2. The Anthem consists of five stanzas, but
participate in elections. only the first stanza is officially recognized.
2. It was first observed in 1951, coinciding 3. The lyrics of the National Anthem include
with India’s first general elections. the word "India" in its original composition.
3. The Election Commission of India presents Which of the above statements are correct?
Best Electoral Practices Awards on this day. a) 2 only
How many of the above statements are correct? b) 1 and 3
a) Only one c) 2 and 3
b) Only two d) 1, 2, and 3
c) All three
d) None 4) Consider the following statements about the
guidelines for singing or playing the National
Anthem:
1. The Anthem must always be sung in a
group setting; individual singing is not
8. History, Art and Culture permitted.
2. The Anthem can be played in instrumental
1) Consider the following statements: form without accompanying vocals.
1. Sree Narayana Guru promoted inter-caste 3. The tempo of the Anthem must conform
marriages to combat caste-based to the officially prescribed timing.
discrimination. Which of the above statements are correct?
2. He actively supported the Vaikom a) 1 and 2
Satyagraha, which aimed to achieve temple b) 1, 2, and 3
entry rights for oppressed communities. c) 1 and 3
3. His teachings included the abolition of all d) 2 and 3
forms of religious practices.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
5) Consider the following statements about Saint How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Narahari Tirtha: a) Only one
1. He was a prominent disciple of b) Only two
Madhvacharya and propagated Dvaita c) All three
philosophy. d) None
2. He composed devotional songs in
Kannada under the pen name 10) Which of the following best describes the
Raghukulatilaka. alignment of the Konark Sun Temple with
3. He established the first Vaishnavite celestial events?
educational institution in Kalinga. a) It is aligned with the Tropic of Cancer.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? b) It is oriented to track the movements of
a) Only one Venus in the night sky.
b) Only two c) It aligns with the position of the Moon
c) All three during the equinox.
d) None d) It is oriented to allow the first rays of the
Sun to illuminate the sanctum.
6) Which of the following Republic Day craft
products is directly linked to a traditional art 11) Which of the following features best
form associated with playing cards? distinguishes Kalaripayattu from other Indian
a) Kalamkari Bamboo Box martial arts?
b) Ganjifa Art Magnet a) It exclusively uses metallic weapons.
c) Screwpine Leaf Bookmark b) It focuses solely on unarmed combat.
d) Ikat Pochampalli Cover c) It prohibits women from training in
combat techniques.
7) What is the primary astronomical factor that d) It integrates physical combat with
determines the timing of the Maha Kumbh traditional medicine and healing practices.
Mela?
a) Conjunction of the Sun, Moon, and Mars 12) Consider the following statements regarding the
b) Alignment of the Sun, Moon, and Jupiter sculptures of the Konark Sun Temple:
in specific zodiac signs Statement-I: The Konark Sun Temple’s
c) Position of Venus in relation to the Moon intricate carvings depict themes of
d) The movement of the Earth around its mythology, daily life, and spirituality.
perihelion Statement-II: These carvings were
influenced by Persian and Central Asian
8) The Kuka Rebellion was unique among 19th- artistic traditions.
century uprisings in India due to its: Select the correct answer code:
a) Focus on modern technology to counter a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
British forces correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
b) Emphasis on religious reform alongside for Statement-I.
political resistance b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) Collaboration with European powers to correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
overthrow British rule explanation for Statement-I.
d) Strong support from princely states c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
aligned with the British incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
9) Consider the following statements about the is correct.
causes of the Kuka Rebellion:
1. The rebellion was a reaction against the 13) Consider the following statements regarding
Permanent Settlement introduced by the Ratnagiri.
British in Punjab. Statement-I: Ratnagiri was one of the most
2. It was fueled by discontent over cow significant centers of Buddhist learning in
slaughter and social vices promoted under India during the medieval period.
British rule. Statement-II: Its strategic location near
3. The Namdhari sect aimed to revive Sikh ancient trade routes contributed to its
practices and oppose colonial oppression.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
development as a hub for the spread of a) Only one
Buddhism to Southeast Asia. b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct? c) All three
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) None
correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I. 17) Which of the following was a key reason why the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Goa Liberation Movement took longer compared
correct, but Statement-II is not the correct to other princely states’ integration into India?
explanation for Statement-I. a) Goa had a separate treaty with India
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is under the Instrument of Accession.
incorrect. b) The Portuguese had strong international
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II support and refused to negotiate.
is correct. c) The Indian government had officially
recognized Portuguese sovereignty over
14) Consider the following statements about the Goa.
suppression of the Kuka Rebellion: d) Goan revolutionaries lacked external
1. Satguru Ram Singh was executed by the support and military capability.
British as part of their crackdown.
2. The British used advanced artillery to 18) Lala Lajpat Rai was instrumental in founding
destroy Namdhari strongholds. which of the following institutions to promote
3. The rebellion ended with a peace treaty financial self-reliance among Indians?
between the Kukas and the British. a) The Punjab National Bank (PNB)
How many of the above statements is/are correct? b) The Imperial Bank of India
a) Only one c) The Indian National Trade Union Congress
b) Only two (INTUC)
c) All three d) The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
d) None
19) Consider the following statements about Lala
15) Consider the following statements about the Lajpat Rai:
Iron Age in India: 1. He played a key role in the establishment
1. The Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture is of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU).
associated with early Iron Age settlements in 2. He was the first Indian to demand
the Ganga-Yamuna plains. complete independence (Purna Swaraj) from
2. Iron tools during this period were British rule.
primarily used for religious rituals. 3. He founded the Servants of the People
3. The Iron Age in South India began earlier Society to promote social reforms.
than in North India. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None

16) Consider the following statements regarding 9. Agriculture

Lezim Dance:
1. Lezim dance was originally developed as a 1) Consider the following statements about
form of martial training among Maratha Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
soldiers. 1. It provides coverage for yield losses caused
2. It is mainly performed by female dancers by natural calamities.
as part of Navratri celebrations in 2. Farmers must pay 10% of the premium for
Maharashtra. horticultural crops.
3. The dance involves synchronized 3. Satellite technology is used for yield
movements accompanied by traditional Dhol estimation.
or Nagara drums.
How many of the above statements are correct?
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Which of the above statements are correct? a) Only one
a) 1 and 2 only b) Only two
b) 2 and 3 only c) All three
c) 1 and 3 only d) None
d) 1, 2, and 3
6) Which of the following is a unique function of
2) Which of the following challenges does Project the National Turmeric Board that differentiates
VISTAAR aim to address most directly? it from similar commodity boards?
a) The lack of mechanization in Indian a) Providing subsidies to turmeric farmers.
agriculture b) Enhancing logistics for turmeric export.
b) Gaps in the dissemination of accurate and c) Promoting research on turmeric-based
timely agricultural information nutraceuticals.
c) Fragmentation of landholdings across d) Creating storage facilities for turmeric in
India every turmeric-growing state.
d) Post-harvest infrastructure bottlenecks
7) Consider the following features of coffee
3) Consider the following statements about Project cultivation:
VISTAAR: 1. Coffee requires acidic soil with a pH of 7–8
1. It provides access to government schemes for optimal growth.
related to agriculture and rural 2. Robusta coffee is mostly grown at lower
development. elevations compared to Arabica.
2. It focuses on integrating sustainable and 3. Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing
climate-resilient farming practices. state in India.
3. It is exclusively implemented by the 4. Coffee plants thrive in regions with well-
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' distributed annual rainfall.
Welfare. Which of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1, 2, and 3
a) Only one b) 1, 3, and 4
b) Only two c) 2, 3, and 4
c) All three d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) None

4) Consider the following statements about the

features of the Organic Fisheries Cluster: 10. Defence and Security
1. It incorporates advanced Biofloc
technology for organic fish farming. 1) What is the primary advantage of an Air
2. It is part of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Independent Propulsion (AIP) system for
Sampada Yojana (PMMSY). submarines?
3. It encourages intensive aquaculture a) Allows submarines to operate at higher
practices to maximize yields. speeds underwater
How many of the above statements is/are correct? b) Reduces the need for conventional fuel in
a) Only one submarines
b) Only two c) Improves surface visibility of submarines
c) All three for better navigation
d) None d) Enables submarines to operate
underwater without surfacing for extended
5) Consider the following statements about durations
turmeric exports from India:
1. India dominates the global turmeric 2) Consider the following statements regarding
market with over 60% share in exports. Scorpene class submarines:
2. The USA is India’s largest turmeric export Statement-I: Scorpene class submarines are
destination. exclusively nuclear-powered vessels.
3. India does not import turmeric as it is self- Statement-II: They are designed to
sufficient in production.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
accommodate Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) 6) Which of the following is a key goal of the "Year
systems as upgrades. of Reforms" initiative in India?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of a) Achieving hypersonic capability in defense
the above statements? b) Modernizing India's agriculture sector
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) Introducing autonomous judiciary reforms
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation d) Streamlining defense procurement processes
for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 7) Consider the following statements about the
correct and Statement-II is not the correct significance of the revamped Army Promotion
explanation for Statement-I Policy:
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 1. It ensures that officers with the best
incorrect performance are promoted to apex-level
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II roles.
is correct 2. It introduces mandatory retirement for
officers who do not meet merit criteria.
3) Consider the following statements about 3. It aligns Army promotion policies with
Exercise Surya Kiran: integrated theatre command requirements.
1. It is an annual bilateral exercise between 4. It applies to all Lieutenant Generals,
India and Nepal. including the Vice Chief of Army Staff.
2. The exercise primarily focuses on How many of the above statements are correct?
maritime security and counter-piracy a) Only one
operations. b) Only two
3. It includes training in jungle warfare and c) Only three
disaster response. d) All four
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one 8) What is the primary feature of the Pig-
b) Only two Butchering Scam?
c) All three a) Victims are lured into fraudulent real
d) None estate schemes
b) Fake profits are shown to victims on
4) Consider the following statements regarding the fabricated online trading platforms
Air Independent Propulsion System (AIP): c) Victims are coerced into smuggling illicit
1. AIP technology is exclusively used in goods
nuclear submarines. d) Scammers steal personal data through
2. AIP systems carry liquid oxygen to enable phishing emails
underwater operations.
3. AIP reduces the detection vulnerability of 9) Consider the following statements about the
submarines. BHARATPOL Portal:
4. The AIP system is less compact compared 1. It facilitates coordination between state
to conventional diesel-electric systems. police departments in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 2. It provides a centralized platform for
a) Only one INTERPOL-related operations.
b) Only two 3. It supports the issuance of color-coded
c) Only three notices like Blue Notices and Red Notices.
d) All four 4. It enhances field-level officers' efficiency
in handling international crimes.
5) Which of the following accurately distinguishes How many of the above statements is/are correct?
6th generation fighter jets from their a) Only one
predecessors? b) Only two
a) Introduction of stealth design c) Only three
b) Incorporation of multi-role capabilities d) All four
c) Use of afterburners for supersonic speeds
d) Development of hypersonic capabilities and AI 10) What makes sonobuoys essential in anti-
integration submarine warfare (ASW)?

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
a) Their ability to detect submarines using for Statement-I.
laser technology b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b) Continuous operation for extended correct, but Statement-II is not the correct
periods without surface support explanation for Statement-I.
c) Deployment of sonar drones for c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
underwater surveillance incorrect.
d) Real-time acoustic signal detection and d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
communication with surface assets is correct.

11) Consider the following statements regarding 14) Consider the following statements about the
Sonobuoys Dhruv Mk-III Helicopter:
Statement-I: Sonobuoys play a critical role in 1. It is equipped with advanced avionics,
enhancing undersea domain awareness including glass cockpit systems.
(UDA). 2. It is primarily used for attack operations in
Statement-II: They are designed to detect, the Indian Army.
track, and classify underwater objects like 3. It includes a fully automated weapon
submarines and torpedoes. targeting system.
Which of the following are correct? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) Only one
correct, and Statement-II is the correct b) Only two
explanation for Statement-I c) All three
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) None
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I 15) Which of the following accurately describes the
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is Nag Mk-2 missile?
incorrect a) A laser-guided missile with underwater
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II strike capabilities
is correct b) A fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile
with advanced imaging systems
12) Regarding the need for the Silver Notice, c) A cruise missile designed for air-to-ground
consider the following statements: operations
1. It helps combat the growing challenge of d) A ballistic missile with a hypersonic
laundering illicit wealth across borders. propulsion system
2. The notice facilitates asset recovery under
national laws of member countries. 16) Consider the following statements regarding the
3. It replaces Interpol’s Red Notice for significance of Armed Forces Veterans Day:
criminal investigations. 1. It strengthens the bond between veterans
How many of the above are correct? and serving personnel.
a) Only one 2. It promotes the integration of retired
b) Only two personnel into civilian roles.
c) All three 3. It marks the day when the first war
d) None memorial for Indian soldiers was
inaugurated.
13) Consider the following statements about the Which of the above statements are correct?
Scorpene-class submarines under Project P-75: a) 1 and 2 only
Statement I: These submarines are b) 1 and 3 only
equipped with advanced stealth technologies to c) 2 only
evade sonar detection. d) 1, 2, and 3
Statement II: Their diesel-electric propulsion
system provides unlimited underwater 17) Consider the following statements about the
endurance. significance of INS Vaghsheer:
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 1. It is equipped with Air Independent
the above statements? Propulsion (AIP) technology from inception.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. It enhances India’s underwater deterrence
correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation capabilities.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. It is the final submarine under Project 75. c) To create a real-time Common
How many of the above statements are correct? Surveillance Picture (CSP) for better decision-
a) Only one making.
b) Only two d) To replace traditional radar systems with
c) All three satellite-based surveillance.
d) None

18) What is the primary objective of Bharat

Ranbhoomi Darshan? 11. Reports and Indices
a) To document the historical significance of
forts and palaces in India. 1) What is the primary aim of the LEADS Report?
b) To promote eco-tourism in border areas. a) Evaluate industrial output of states
c) To enhance awareness of India’s military b) Assess logistics infrastructure and services
history and valor. across states/UTs
d) To facilitate international tourism through c) Measure foreign direct investment inflows
visa-on-arrival schemes. d) Rank states based on per capita income

19) Match the battlefield sites with their historical 2) Consider the following statements regarding
significance: reports published by the World Economic Forum
Battlefield Historical Significance (WEF)?
1. Site of the 2020 India-China clash 1. The Global Gender Gap Report highlights
a) Longewala gender disparities across nations.
in Ladakh
b) Nathu La 2. Major battle site during the Indo- 2. The Energy Transition Index assesses
Pass Pak War of 1971 countries' energy systems for sustainability.
3. The Global Environment Report evaluates
c) Galwan 3. Strategic location connecting
the state of biodiversity worldwide.
Valley Sikkim and Tibet
4. The Global Trade Index ranks countries on
4. Tri-junction between India, trade facilitation and logistics.
d) Doklam
Bhutan, and China How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct match: a) Only one
a) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 b) Only two
b) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2 c) Only three
c) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 d) All four
d) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
3) Consider the following statements about the
20) Which of the following best describes the origin Future of Jobs Report, 2025:
of the M23 Armed Group? 1. It is released annually by the World
a) A splinter faction from the Congolese Economic Forum.
army due to disputes over a peace agreement 2. The report emphasizes the growing
b) A separatist movement aiming for an demand for sustainability-related jobs.
independent state in eastern Democratic 3. It identifies the gig economy as a key
Republic of Congo (DRC) driver of employment growth.
c) A political movement advocating Which of the above statements are correct?
democratic reforms in the Democratic Republic a) 2 and 3 only
of Congo (DRC) b) 1 and 2 only
d) A rebel group formed to resist c) 1 and 3 only
international mining operations in the d) 1, 2, and 3
Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)
4) Consider the following statements regarding
21) What is the primary purpose of the Sanjay Future of Jobs Report, 2025
Battlefield Surveillance System (BSS)? Statement I: The Future of Jobs Report,
a) To integrate missile defense systems 2025, projects that technology adoption will
across the Indian Army. eliminate more jobs than it creates.
b) To enhance border patrolling by deploying Statement II: The report suggests that
advanced drone systems.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
reskilling and upskilling are critical to c) All three
managing the impact of technological d) None
disruptions.
Which of the following are correct?
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, and Statement II is the correct 12. Maps / Places
explanation for Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 1) Which of the following is true regarding the
correct, but Statement II is not the correct geographic location of Trinidad and Tobago?
explanation for Statement I. a) It is located in the Pacific Ocean near the
c) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II coast of South America.
is correct. b) It is a landlocked country in South
d) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is America.
incorrect. c) It lies between the Indian Ocean and the
Arabian Sea.
5) Consider the following statements about India’s d) It is an island nation in the Caribbean,
performance in the QS World Future Skills Index located in the Atlantic Ocean.
2025:
1. India ranked in the top 10 for overall 2) Which geographical feature significantly
preparedness. influences the climate and landscape of Burkina
2. India’s weakest category was Future of Faso?
Work. a) Sahel region
3. The rankings focus exclusively on technical b) Congo Basin
skills like AI and robotics. c) Ethiopian Highlands
How many of the above statements are correct? d) Rift Valley
a) Only one
b) Only two 3) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) All three Z-Morh Tunnel’s strategic importance?
d) None 1. It is critical for the all-weather
connectivity of the NH1 Srinagar-Leh
6) The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 evaluates the Highway.
fiscal health of Indian states using which of the 2. The tunnel bypasses stretches vulnerable
following sub-indices? to avalanches, ensuring uninterrupted
a) Fiscal Deficit, Debt Ratio, and GSDP civilian and military movement.
Growth 3. It supports India’s Act East Policy by
b) Revenue Deficit, Capital Expenditure, and connecting Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh.
Population Density How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
c) Quality of Expenditure, Revenue a) Only one
Mobilization, and Debt Sustainability b) Only two
d) Inflation Rate, Unemployment, and c) All three
Industrial Growth d) None

7) Consider the following statements regarding the 4) Cuba is geographically situated at the confluence
ASER Report 2024: of which three water bodies?
1. The ASER survey is conducted by the a) Atlantic Ocean, Caribbean Sea, and Gulf of
National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). Mexico
2. The 2024 report assesses reading and b) Pacific Ocean, Gulf of Mexico, and
arithmetic skills of children in both rural Caribbean Sea
and urban areas. c) Atlantic Ocean, Gulf of California, and
3. The report evaluates foundational Caribbean Sea
literacy and numeracy (FLN) in children d) Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean, and Atlantic
across three age groups. Ocean
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
5) The Gulf of Mexico is bordered by which of the a) Limpopo River
following countries? b) Zambezi River
a) United States, Mexico, and Cuba c) Niger River
b) United States, Canada, and Mexico d) Congo River
c) United States, Haiti, and Cuba
d) Mexico, Bahamas, and United States 11) Consider the following statements regarding the
geography of the Democratic Republic of Congo
6) Which of the following are features of Diego (DRC):
Garcia Island? 1. The DRC is the second-largest country in
1. It is located south of the equator in the Africa by area.
Indian Ocean. 2. The Congo River is the longest river in
2. It serves as a key refueling and logistics Africa.
hub for U.S. naval operations. 3. The DRC does not have a coastline along
3. It is uninhabited except for military the Atlantic Ocean.
personnel and contractors. How many of the above statements are correct?
4. It is home to one of the largest coral reefs a) Only one
in the world. b) Only two
Select the correct answer: c) All three
a) 1, 2, and 3 only d) None
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
d) 1, 3, and 4 only
13. Miscellaneous
7) The Kumani Bank Mud Volcano, recently in news
is located in which of the following regions? 1) Consider the following statements about the
a) Arabian Sea strategic importance of the Jammu Railway
b) Bay of Bengal Division:
c) Black Sea 1. It enhances regional connectivity in
d) Caspian Sea Jammu and Kashmir.
2. It supports India’s defense logistics in
8) Which of the following statements is correct border areas.
about Mount Ibu, recently in the news? 3. It facilitates eco-tourism by improving
a) It is one of the most active volcanoes in access to remote locations.
Indonesia, situated on Halmahera Island. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
b) It is an active stratovolcano located on a) Only one
Sumatra Island, Indonesia. b) Only two
c) It is a dormant volcanic site in the c) All three
Philippines known for its historical eruptions. d) None
d) It is a volcanic site in Papua New Guinea,
part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. 2) Consider the following statements about the
Southern Nicobarese Tribe:
9) Which of the following is the most significant 1. They are classified as a Particularly
geographical feature of Cabo Verde? Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
a) It is home to the highest mountain range 2. They practice shifting cultivation as their
in West Africa. primary livelihood.
b) It is a landlocked nation in the Sahel 3. Their traditions emphasize sustainable use
region of Africa. of natural resources.
c) It has the largest tropical rainforest in Which of the above statements are correct?
Africa. a) 1 and 3 only
d) It consists of a group of volcanic islands in b) 2 and 3 only
the Atlantic Ocean. c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
10) Which of the following rivers provides the main
navigational and hydroelectric resources for the
Democratic Republic of Congo?
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3) Which unique feature distinguishes the Anji 3. The main goal is to reduce sodium intake
Khad Bridge from other railway bridges in India? to lower cardiovascular risks.
a) It is India's longest railway bridge. How many of the above statements are correct?
b) It is located at the highest altitude for any a) Only one
rail bridge in India. b) Only two
c) It is built entirely of prefabricated steel c) All three
components. d) None
d) It is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge.

4) The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is

given for which of the following criteria?
a) Lifetime contribution to sports
b) Outstanding performance at the state and
national levels
c) Exceptional international performance
over a continuous four-year period
d) Popularity and public votes for
achievements in sports

5) Which of the following are features of the Major

Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
1. The awardees receive a cash prize along
with a citation.
2. It is conferred annually by the President of
India.
3. Only individual athletes are eligible for
this award.
4. It is India’s highest sporting honor.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) All four

6) Consider the following statements about Nautor

Land:
1. It is applicable only to tribal regions in
India.
2. It allows land leasing for non-agricultural
purposes, such as mining.
3. It was first implemented in the Northeast
region of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

7) Consider the following statements regarding

WHO’s new guidelines on table salt:
1. WHO recommends using higher sodium
salt substitutes to improve taste and
health outcomes.
2. The guidelines apply universally,
including pregnant women and children.
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