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16-03-2025 - Sr.S60 - Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs - Jee-Main-GTM-25&20 - Q.Paper

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the JEE-MAIN examination conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy on March 16, 2025. It includes details on the test duration, marking scheme, question types, and rules for candidates during the exam. Additionally, it provides a brief overview of the subjects covered, which are Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, with specific instructions on how to answer questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
93 views24 pages

16-03-2025 - Sr.S60 - Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs - Jee-Main-GTM-25&20 - Q.Paper

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the JEE-MAIN examination conducted by Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy on March 16, 2025. It includes details on the test duration, marking scheme, question types, and rules for candidates during the exam. Additionally, it provides a brief overview of the subjects covered, which are Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, with specific instructions on how to answer questions.

Uploaded by

xyz65214
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI


A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs JEE-MAIN Date: 16-03-2025
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm GTM-25/20 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 Questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 25 Questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 05 Numerical Value Type Questions.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted Question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown belo w
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P

.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________

Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
16-03-2025_Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs_Jee-Main-GTM-25/20_Test Syllabus
MATHEMATICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : TOTAL SYLLABUS

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
 ˆ v  2iˆ  ˆj  k,        
1. Let u  ˆi  ˆj  2k, ˆ v.w  2 and v  w  u   v. -Then u.w is equal to :

3 2
1) 1 2) 3) 2 4) 
2 3
2. Let a tangent to the curve y2  24x meet the curve xy = 2 at the points A and B. Then the
mid points of such line segments AB lie on a parabola with the
1) directrix 4x = 3 2) directrix 4x = – 3
3
3) Length of latus rectum 4) Length of latus rectum 2
2
3. Let ‘N’ denote the number that turns up when a fair, die is rolled. If the probability that the
system of equations
x+y+z=1
2x + Ny + 2z = 2
3x + 3y + Nz = 3
k
Has unique solution is , then the sum of value of ‘k’ and all possible values of ‘N’ is
6
1) 18 2) 19 3) 20 4) 21
4. The area enclosed by the curves y2  4x  4 and y  2x  2 is :
25 22 23
1) 2) 3) 9 4)
3 3 3

 1 3   84 3 
  sec   is equal to
1 1
5. tan 
 3  3   6  3 3 
 
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 3 6
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P
6. Let PQR be a triangle. The points A, B and C are on the sides QR, RP and PQ respectively
QA RB PC 1 area  PQR 
such that    . Then is equal to :
AR BP CQ 2 area  ABC 

5
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4)
2
7. The mean and variance of the marks obtained by the students in a test are 10 and 4
respectively. Later, the marks of one of the students is increased from 8 to 12. If the new
mean of the marks is 10.2, then their new variance is equal to :
1) 4.04 2) 4.08 3) 3.96 4) 3.92

8. The vector a  ˆi  2jˆ  kˆ is rotated through a right angle, passing through the y-axis in its
   
way and the resulting vector is b . Then the projection of 3a  2 b on c  5iˆ  4ˆj  3kˆ is

1) 3 2 2) 1 3) 6 4) 2 3
9. Let x = 2 be a local minima of the function f  x   2x 4  18x 2  8x  12, x   4, 4  . If ‘M’ is
local maximum value of the function, ‘f’ in (-4, 4), then M =
33 31 33 31
1) 12 6  2) 12 6  3) 18 6  4) 18 6 
2 2 2 2
1
10. Let f :  0, 1   be a function defined by f  x   and g  x    f   x   f  x   .
1  e x
Consider two statements
Statement-I: ‘g’ is an increasing function in (0,1)
Statement-II: ‘g’ is one-one in (0,1)
Then.
1) Only Statement I is true
2) Only Statement-II is true
3) Neither Statement -I nor Statement - II is true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
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z  2i
11. Let ‘z’ be a complex number such that  2. z  i. Then ‘z’ lies on the circle of radius
zi
2 and centre
1) (2, 0) 2) (0, 0) 3) (0, 2) 4) (0, -2)
12. Let f :    be a function defined by f(x) = log m  
2  sin x  cos x   m  2 , for some
‘m’, such that the range of ‘f’ is [0, 2]. Then the value of ‘m’ is ……….
1) 5 2) 3 3) 2 4) 4
x 1 y 1 z 1
13. The foot of perpendicular of the point (2, 0, 5) on the line   is  ,  ,   .
2 5 1
Then which of the following is NOT correct?
 4    5
1)  2)  8 3)  5 4) 
 15    8
14. Three urns A, B and C contain 7 red, 5 black, 5 red, 7 black and 6 red, 6 black balls,
respectively. One of the urn is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If the ball
drawn is black, then the probability that it is drawn from urn A is :
4 5 7 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
17 18 18 16
 2, 2  x  0 2
15. Let f  x    and h  x   f | x |  | f  x  | . Then  h  x  dx is equal to :
 x  2, 0  x  2 2

1) 2 2) 4 3) 1 4) 6
16. A square is inscribed in the circle x 2  y2  10x  6y  30  0 . One side of this square is

parallel to y = x + 3. If  x1, y1  are the vertices of the square, then x 2


1  y12  is equal to :

1) 148 2) 156 3) 160 4) 152


17. The coefficients a, b, c in the quadratic equation ax 2  bx  c  0 are choose from the set
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}. The probability of this equation having repeated roots is :
3 1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
256 128 64 128
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18. Let a circle ‘C’ of radius 1 and closer to the origin be such that the lines passing through the
point (3, 2) and parallel to the coordinate axes touch it. Then the shortest distance of the
circle ‘C’ from the point (5,5) is:
1) 2 2 2) 5 3) 4 2 4) 4
19. Let the line 2x + 3y – k = 0, k > 0, intersect the x-axis and y-axis at the point A and B,
respectively. If the equation of the circle having the line segment AB as a diameter is
m
x 2  y2  3x  2y  0 and the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse x 2  9y 2  k 2 is ,
n
where ‘m’ and ‘n’ are coprime, then 2m + n is equal to :
1) 10 2) 11 3) 13 4) 12
20. Match the following Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I Column – II


A) The distance between the line r  2iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ  P)
25
3 14

   
 ˆi  ˆj  4kˆ and plane r. ˆi  5jˆ  kˆ  5

 
B) Distance between parallel planes r. 2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ  4 Q)
13
7
 ˆ ˆ ˆ
 
r. 6i  3j  9k  13  0 is
10
C) The distance of a point (2, 5, -3) from the plane R)
3 3
 ˆ ˆ
 
r. 6i  3j  2kˆ  4

D) The distance of a point (1, 0, -3) from the plane S) 7


x – y – z – 9 = 0 measured parallel to the line
x2 y2 z6
 
2 3 6
1) A – R; B – P; C – S; D – Q 2) A – R; B – P; C – Q; D – S
3) A – R; B – Q; C – S; D – P 4) A – R; B – Q; C – P; D – S
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SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
x 2 y2
21. Let ‘C’ be the largest circle centred at (2, 0) and inscribed in the ellipse   1. If
36 16

1,   lies on ‘C’, then 10 2 is equal to ……


2023
22. Suppose r
r 0
2 2023
C r  2023    22022. Then the value of  is …..

23. The number of 9 digit numbers, that can be formed using all the digits of the number

123412341 so that the even digits occupy only even places, is …..

1
24. The 4th term of GP is 500 and its common ratio is , m  N. Let Sn denote the sum of the
m

1
first ‘n’ terms of this GP. If S6  S5  1 and S7  S6  , then the number of possible values
2

of ‘m’ is …….

 
25. Let S     0, 2  : tan  cos    tan  sin    0 . Then  sin 2
    is equal to
S  4

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. If q f is the free charge on the capacitor plates and q b is the bound charge on the dielectric
slab of dielectric constant ‘k’ placed between the capacitor plates, then bound charge can be
expressed as :
 1   1
1) q b  q f  1   2) q b  q f  1  
 k  k
 1   1
3) q b  q f  1   4) q b  q f  1  
 k  k
27. Two ideal electric dipoles A and B, having their dipole moment p1 and p 2 respectively are
placed on a plane with their centres at O as shown in the figure. At point C on the axis of
dipole A, the resultant electric field is making an angle of 37 0 with the axis. The ratio of the
p1  3
dipole moment of A and B, is :  take sin 37 0  
p2  5

3 3 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 2 3 3
28. For a gas CP  CV  R in a state P and CP  CV  1.10 R in a state Q, TP and TQ are the

temperatures in two different states P and Q respectively. Then


1) TP  TQ 2) TP  TQ 3) TP  0.9 TQ 4) TP  TQ

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29. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass 'M' and radius 'R' about X, Y
axes (passing through its plane) and Z-axis which is perpendicular to its plane were found to
be Ix , I y and Iz respectively. The respective radii of gyration about all the three axes will be
the same.
Reason R : A rigid body making rotational motion has fixed mass and shape. In the light of
the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
2) A is not correct but R is correct.
3) A is correct but R is not correct.
4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
30. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area 'A' and distance of separation 'd' is filled with a
dielectric. What is the capacity of the capacitor when permittivity of the dielectric varies as :
 d
  x    0  kx, for  0  x  
2 
d 
  x    0  k  d  x  , for   x  d 
2 
2/kA
 kd  kA kA  2 0 
1)   0   2) 3) 0 4) ln  
 2   2 0  kd  2  2 0  kd 
2ln  
 2 0 
31. In the Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits varies in time as
d  t   d 0  a 0 sin  t ; where d 0 ,  and a 0 are constants. The difference between the largest
fringe width and the smallest fringe width obtained over time is given as :
2 D  d 0  2 Da 0 D D
1) 2) 3) a0 4)
d 2
0  a 02   d 02  a 02  d 02 d0  a 0

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32. A linearly polarized electromagnetic wave in vacuum is

E  3.1 cos 1.8  z   5.4  106  t  ˆi N / C

is incident normally on a perfectly reflecting wall at z = a. Choose the correct option


1) The wavelength is 5.4 m
2) The frequency of electromagnetic wave is 54  104 Hz

3) The transmitted wave will be 3.1cos 1.8  z   5.4  106  t  ˆi N / C

4) The reflected wave will be 3.1cos 1.8  z   5.4  106  t  ˆi N / C

33. An electron and proton are separated by a large distance. The electron starts approaching the
proton with energy 3 eV. The proton captures the electrons and forms a hydrogen atom in
second excited state. The resulting photon is incident on a photosensitive metal of threshold
0
wavelength 4000 A . What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron?
1) 7.61 eV 2) 1.41 eV
3) 3.3 eV 4) No photoelectron would be emitted
34. One mole of an ideal gas is taken through an adiabatic process where the temperature rises
from 270 C to 370 C . If the ideal gas is composed of polyatomic molecule that has

4 vibrational modes, which of the following is true? [R = 8.314 J mol1 k 1 ]


1) work done by the gas is close to 332 J
2) work done on the gas is close to 582 J
3) work done by the gas is close to 582 J
4) work done on the gas is close to 332 J

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P
35. Match the following Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I Column – II
a) Capacitance, C i) M1L1T 3A 1

b) Permittivity of free space,  0 ii) M 1L3T 4 A 2

c) Permeability of free space, 0 iii) M 1L2T 4 A 2

d) Electric field, E iv) M1L1T 2 A 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below


1) (a)  (iii), (b)  (ii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (i)
2) (a)  (iii), (b)  (iv), (c)  (ii), (d)  (i)
3) (a)  (iv), (b)  (ii), (c)  (iii), (d)  (i)
4) (a)  (iv), (b)  (iii), (c)  (ii), (d)  (i)
36. Given below is the plot of a potential energy function U(x) for a system, in which a particle
is in one dimensional motion, while a conservative force F(x) acts on it. Suppose that
E mech  8 J , the incorrect statement for this system is :

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P
1) at x  x 4 , K.E. is constant throughout the region.
2) at x < x1 , K.E. is smallest and the particle is moving at the slowest speed.
3) at x = x 2 , K.E. is greatest and the particle is moving at the fastest speed.
4) at x = x 3 , K.E. = 4 J
37. Consider a tank made of glass(refractive index 1.5) with a thick bottom. It is filled with a
liquid of refractive index . A student finds that, irrespective of what the incident angle i
(see figure) is for a beam of light entering the liquid, the light reflected from the liquid glass
interface is never completely polarized. For this to happen, the minimum value of  is :

3 5 5 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 3 3 3
38. Consider the following statements :
A) Atoms of each element emit characteristics spectrum.
B) According to Bohr's Postulate, an electron in a hydrogen atom, revolves in a certain
stationary orbit.
C) The density of nuclear matter depends on the size of the nucleus.
D) A free neutron is stable but a free proton decay is possible.
E) Radioactivity is an indication of the instability of nuclei.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) A, B, C, D and E 2) A, B and E only
3) B and D only 4) A, C and E only
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39. A particle of mass M originally at rest is subjected to a force whose direction is constant but
magnitude varies with time according to the relation
  t  T 2 
F  F0 1    
  T  
Where F0 and T are constants. The force acts only for the time interval 2T. The velocity v of
the particle after time 2T is :
1) 2F0T / M 2) F0T / 2M 3) 4F0T / 3M 4) F0T / 3M
40. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : The reactance of an ac circuit is zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a
capacitor and an inductor.
Statement-II : In ac circuit, the wattless component of current delivered by the source never
becomes zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true but Statement II in false.
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
41. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for a
moving charged particle.
Reason (R) : Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its
direction of motion.

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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 16-03-25_ Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs _Jee-Main_GTM-25/20_Q.P
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
42. Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are connected in parallel across a parallel combination
of two resistors each of resistance 20. A voltmeter connected in the circuit measures 1.2 V.
The internal resistance of each cell is
1) 2.5  2) 4  3) 5  4) 10 
43. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a medium of relative permeability 1.61 and relative
permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity is 4.5  102 Am1 at a point, what will
be the approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at that point ?
(Given : permeability of free space 0  4  107 S.I units , speed of light in vacuum

c  3  108 ms1 )

1) 16.96 Vm 1 2) 2.25 102 Vm1 3) 4.2 106 Vm1 4) 6.75 106 Vm1
44. Identify the correct Logic Gate for the following output (Y) of two inputs A and B.

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1) 2)

3) 4)
m
45. Two masses m and are connected at the two ends of a massless rigid rod of length l. The
2
rod is suspended by a thin wire of torsional constant k at the centre of mass of the rod-mass
system(see figure). Because of torsional constant k, the restoring torque is   k for
angular displacement 0. If the rod is rotated by  0 and released, the tension in it when it
passes through its mean position will be:

3k 02 k 02 2k  02 k 02


1) 2) 3) 4)
l 2l l l
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
27
46. From the given data, the amount of energy required to break the nucleus of aluminium 13 Al
is ……….. x  103 J
Mass of neutron = 1.00866 u
Mass of proton = 1.00726 u
Mass of Aluminium nucleus = 27.18846 u
(Assume 1 u corresponds to x J of energy)
(Round off to the nearest integer)

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47. A circular conducting coil of radius 1 m is being heated by the change of magnetic field B
passing perpendicular to the plane in which the coil is laid. The resistance of the coil is
2  . The magnetic field is slowly switched off such that its magnitude changes in time as
4  t 
B  10 3 T  1  
  100 
The energy dissipated by the coil before the magnetic field is switched off completely is
E = ……… mJ.
48. The value of aluminium susceptibility is 2.2  105 . The percentage increase in the magnetic
x
field if space within a current carrying toroid is filled with aluminium is 4 . Then the value
10
of ‘x’ is ………..
49. In the given figure, two wheels P and Q are connected by a belt B. The radius of P is three
times as that of Q. In case of same rotational kinetic energy, the ratio of rotational inertias
 I1 
  will be x : 1. The value of x will be ……….
 I2 
I1 is rotational inertia of P, I2 is rotational inertia of Q

50. A swimmer wants to cross a river from point A to point B. Line AB makes an angle of 300
with the flow of river. Magnitude of velocity of the swimmer relative to water is same as that
of the river. The angle  with the line AB that the swimmer should swim should be ………
(in degrees), so that the swimmer reaches point B.

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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
51. An aromatic compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C9 H10O gives the following chemical
tests:
I) forms 2, 4-DNP derivative
II) reduces Tollens’ reagent
III) undergoes Cannizzaro reaction and
IV) on vigorous oxidation, 1, 2-benzenedicarboxylic acid is obtained, X is

1) 2) 3) 4)
52. Which of the following compound cannot show geometrical isomerism?

1) 2) 3) 4)
Hg 2 / H 
53. In the reaction Ph  C  C  CH 3   A, A is
Ph

OH
H 2C
1) 2) 3) 4)
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54. For electrometry reaction :
H 2  g   F  g   HF  g   H  g  H  140 kJ / mol
Activation energy is 80 kJ/mol. Then correct energy diagram is :

1) 2)

3) 4)
55. Column – I contains four entries and Column – II contain four entries. Entry of Column – I
are to be matched with only one entry of Column – II
Column – I Column – II
A) Phenol + Aniline P) +ve deviation from Raoult’s law
B) Ethanol + Acetone Q) Ideal solution
C) n-hexane + n-heptane R) Colligative property
D) Osmotic pressure S)  ve deviation from Raoult’s law
1) A – S; B – P; C – Q; D – R 2) A – R; B – S; C – Q; D – P
3) A – Q; B – R; C – S; D – P 4) A – P; B – S; C – Q; D – R

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56. Find true and False from the following statements regarding carbohydrates
Statement – I : Bromine water can be used to differentiate between aldoses and ketoses
Statement – II : A pair of diastereomeric aldoses which differ only in configuration at C-2
are anomers.
1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. An amine is treated with HNO 2 and subsequently further treated with few drops of phenol
and con H 2SO 4 . A blue green colour is developed on adding water it changes to red by
adding NaOH, it further changes to dark blue the amine is.
1) Aniline 2) N-methyl aniline
3) O-methyl aniline 4) N, N-methyl aniline
58. An exothermic reaction is represented by the graph :

1) 2)

3) 4)

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59. Assertion (A) : Higher the R f value of a substance, greater is the time taken by it for
elution.
Reason (R) : The time taken by a substance for elution is greater when it is adsorbed more
strongly on the absorbent.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect 4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
60. Which of the following element shows maximum valency?
1) Carbon 2) Barium 3) Nitrogen 4) Sulphur
61. Find the correct order of electron gain enthalpy of the given elements:(consider magnitude
only)
1) O > B > C > N 2) O > C > N > B 3) O > C > B > N 4) O > N > C > B
62. Which compound is called as inorganic benzene?
1) B3 N 3H 6 2) B3 N 3H 3 3) BN 3H 3 4) B6 N 3H 3
63. For the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R), the correct option is :
Assertion (A) : The pH of water increases with increase in temperature
Reason (R) : The dissociation of water into H  and OH is an exothermic reaction.
1) (A) is false but (R) is true
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3) Both (A) and (R) are false
4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
64. Statement – I:

 i  CH3I
 ii  Ag 2O
 iii  H2O / 
N CH 2  CH 2 +
(major)
(minor)
Statement – II : It follows Hofmann’s elimination by E 2
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1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
65. Pressure of 10 moles of an ideal gas is changed from 2atm to 1atm against constant external
pressure without change in temperature. If surrounding temperature (300 K) and pressure
(1atm) always remains constant then calculate total entropy change  Ssystem  Ssurrounding 

for given process.


[Given: ln2 = 0.70 and R = 8.0 J/mol/K]
1) 56 J/K 2) 14 J/K 3) 16 J/K 4) None of these
66. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure
by 0.50 mm Hg?
(Assume dilute solution is being formed)
Given: Vapour pressure of pure water is 65.5 mm Hg at room temperature. Molar mass of
glucose is 180g mol1 .
1) 4.69 g 2) 3.69 g 3) 2.59 g 4) 7.63 g
67. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes combustion in the presence of air, it required 7.5
equivalents of oxygen and produces 3 equivalents of water. What is the molecular formula
of A?
1) C8 H 6 2) C9 H 9 3) C 6 H 6 4) C9 H 6

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68. Radius of the first excited state of Helium ion is given as :

a 0  radius of first stationary state of hydrogen atom.

a0 a0
1) r  2) r  3) r  4a 0 4) r  2a 0
2 4
69. The primary and secondary valencies of copper respectively in Cu  NH3 4  Cl2 are :

1) 3 and 5 2) 2 and 6 3) 2 and 8 4) 2 and 4


70. A solution of aluminium chloride is electrolysed for 30 minutes using a current of 2A. The
amount of the aluminium deposited at the cathode is ……

[Given : molar mass of aluminium and chloride are 27 g mol1 and 35.5 g mol1 respectively,
Faraday constant = 96500 C mol1 ]

1) 1.660 g 2) 1.007 g 3) 0.336 g 4) 0.441 g


SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
3
71. If the CFSE of  Ti  H 2O 6  is  192 kJ / mol, this complex will absorb maximum at

wavelength …….. nm. (nearest integer)


Assume Planck’s constant  h   6.4  1034 Js speed of light (c) = 3.0 108 m / s and

Avogadro’s constant  N A   6  1023 / mol .

72. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 20 min 1 . The time required for the initial
1
concentration of the reactant to reduce to its level is ….. 102 min. (Nearest integer)
64

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73. The metal M can exist in two oxidation states + 2 and +3. In the sample of M 0.83 O1.00 , the
percentage of metal ions existing in +2 oxidation state is ….. % (nearest integer)

74. At 298 K
 2NH 3  g  , K1  8  105
N 2  g   3H 2  g  

 2NO  g  , K 2  1.6  1012


N 2  g   O 2  g  

1  H 2O  g  , K 3  2  10 13
H 2  g   O 2  g  
2
Based on above equilibria, the equilibrium constant of the reaction,
5  2 NO  g   3H 2 O  g  is ......  10  33 (nearest integer)
2 NH 3  g   O 2  g  
2
75. How many geometrical isomers of major product (A) are possible?

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