ADAMJEE GOVT. SC.

COLLEGE KARACHI
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1 A B C D 51 A B C D 101 A B C D 151 A B C D

2 A B C D 52 A B C D 102 A B C D 152 A B C D

3 A B C D 53 A B C D 103 A B C D 153 A B C D

4 A B C D 54 A B C D 104 A B C D 154 A B C D

5 A B C D 55 A B C D 105 A B C D 155 A B C D

6 A B C D 56 A B C D 106 A B C D 156 A B C D

7 A B C D 57 A B C D 107 A B C D 157 A B C D

8 A B C D 58 A B C D 108 A B C D 158 A B C D

9 A B C D 59 A B C D 109 A B C D 159 A B C D

10 A B C D 60 A B C D 110 A B C D 160 A B C D

11 A B C D 61 A B C D 111 A B C D 161 A B C D
12 A B C D 62 A B C D 112 A B C D 162 A B C D
13 A B C D 63 A B C D 113 A B C D 163 A B C D
14 A B C D 64 A B C D 114 A B C D 164 A B C D
15 A B C D 65 A B C D 115 A B C D 165 A B C D
16 A B C D 66 A B C D 116 A B C D 166 A B C D
17 A B C D 67 A B C D 117 A B C D 167 A B C D
18 A B C D 68 A B C D 118 A B C D 168 A B C D
19 A B C D 69 A B C D 119 A B C D 169 A B C D
20 A B C D 70 A B C D 120 A B C D 170 A B C D
21 A B C D 71 A B C D 121 A B C D 171 A B C D
22 A B C D 72 A B C D 122 A B C D 172 A B C D
23 A B C D 73 A B C D 123 A B C D 173 A B C D
24 A B C D 74 A B C D 124 A B C D 174 A B C D
25 A B C D 75 A B C D 125 A B C D 175 A B C D
26 A B C D 76 A B C D 126 A B C D 176 A B C D
27 A B C D 77 A B C D 127 A B C D 177 A B C D
28 A B C D 78 A B C D 128 A B C D 178 A B C D
29 A B C D 79 A B C D 129 A B C D 179 A B C D
30 A B C D 80 A B C D 130 A B C D 180 A B C D
31 A B C D 81 A B C D 131 A B C D 181 A B C D
32 A B C D 82 A B C D 132 A B C D 182 A B C D
33 A B C D 83 A B C D 133 A B C D 183 A B C D
34 A B C D 84 A B C D 134 A B C D 184 A B C D
35 A B C D 85 A B C D 135 A B C D 185 A B C D
36 A B C D 86 A B C D 136 A B C D 186 A B C D
37 A B C D 87 A B C D 137 A B C D 187 A B C D
38 A B C D 88 A B C D 138 A B C D 188 A B C D
39 A B C D 89 A B C D 139 A B C D 189 A B C D
40 A B C D 90 A B C D 140 A B C D 190 A B C D
41 A B C D 91 A B C D 141 A B C D 191 A B C D
42 A B C D 92 A B C D 142 A B C D 192 A B C D
43 A B C D 93 A B C D 143 A B C D 193 A B C D
44 A B C D 94 A B C D 144 A B C D 194 A B C D
45 A B C D 95 A B C D 145 A B C D 195 A B C D
46 A B C D 96 A B C D 146 A B C D 196 A B C D
47 A B C D 97 A B C D 147 A B C D 197 A B C D
48 A B C D 98 A B C D 148 A B C D 198 A B C D
49 A B C D 99 A B C D 149 A B C D 199 A B C D
50 A B C D 100 A B C D 150 A B C D 200 A B C D
 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
PHYSICS-II (MCQs)
1 The mean translational K.E. of a molecule of an ideal at temperature T is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)KT4
2 The normal human body temperature is:
(a)98.6 0F (b)99.6 °F (c)100.4 0F (d)101 0F
3 If the absolute temperature of a gas is increased 3 times, the r m s velocity of the molecules will be:
(a)3 times (b)9 times (c)√3 times (d)5
4 The Fahrenheit and Celsius scales of temperature coincide at
(a)0° (b)273° (c)–273° (d)– 40°
5 A refrigerator has a performance coefficient of 5. Calculate the ambient heat discharged if the temperature inside
the freezer is -20 oC
(a)11 ℃ (b)41 ℃ (c)21℃ (d)31 ℃
6 A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 927 C and a sink temperature of 27 oC. What
o

will be the maximum efficiency of the heat engine?

(a)100 % (b)60 % (c)75 % (d)10 %
7 If radium has a half-life of 5 years. Thus, for a nucleus in a sample of radium, the probability of decay in ten
years is:
(a)50% (b)75% (c)100% (d)60%
8 The half-life period of a radioactive element is 100 days. After 400 days, 16 g of the element will be reduced to
(a)8g (b)4g (c)2g (d)1g
9 What will be the rest of the energy of an electron?
(a)0.41 MeV (b)0.51 MeV (c)0.61 MeV (d)0.71 MeV
10 The carbon dating technique is used to estimate the age of
(a)rocks (b)soil (c)fossils (d)buildings
11 The half-life of radium is 1600 years. After 6400 years, the sample of the surviving radium would be its:
(a)1/4 (b)1/8 (c)1/16 (d)1/2
12 The ratio of kinetic energy to total energy for an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
(a)1: -1 (b)2:3 (c)1:2 (d)2:1
13 The Bohr radius increases as the principal quantum number:
(a)increases (b)decreases (c)remains constant (d)oscillates
14 Which of the following spectral lines of X-rays is more intense?
(a) (b) (c) (d) ℎ
15 The lifetime of an electron in a meta stable state is of the order of
(a)10-9 S. (b)10-3 S. (c)10-8 S. (d)10-7 S
16 Fahrenheit and Celsius scales of temperature coincide at
(a) 0° (b) 273° (c) –273° (d) –40°
17 During the adiabatic change, the pressure and the volume formula of a gas is given by:
(a)PV = constant (b) = (c) = (d) ( ) =
18 If we reverse the direction of the electric current, then the direction of the magnetic field will be:
(a)Same (b)Reversed (c)Tangent (d)Normal
19 If the charge on a particle is doubled, and its velocity remains the same, how then the magnetic force on the
particle will be:
(a)doubled (b)halved (c)Is the same. (d)quadrupled
20 Which is not a magnetic material?
(a)silver (b) nickel (c) cobalt (d)iron
21 1 gauss is equal to
(a)104 T (b)10– 4 T (c)103 T (d)10 -3 T
22 Which of the following in motion can NOT be deflected by the magnetic field.
(a)positron (b)cathode rays (c)neutron (d)proton
23 A charge particle moving at right angle to the uniform magnetic field follows
(a)circular path (a) linear path (a) parabolic path (a) hyperbolic path
24 In step down transformer;
(a) NS > NP (b) NS < NP (c) NS = NP (d) NP = NS
25 For the first time e/m of electron was determine by
(a)Faraday (b) Rutherford (c) Coulomb (d) J. J Thomson
26 The practical application of the phenomenon of mutual inductance is:
(a) AC generator (b) transformer (c)rectifier (d)dynamo
27 The direction of the induced current is given by:
(a) Faraday’s law (b) Lenz’s law (c) Snells’s Law (d) Ampere Law
28 Transformer ratings are given in _____________
(a)kVA (b)HP (c)kVAR (d)kW
29 The most common type of core material used in voltage transformers is:
(a) Air (b) Iron (c)Copper (d)Aluminum
30 The frequency of standard household alternating current in Pakistan is:
(a)50 Hz (b)60 Hz (c)100 Hz (d)120 Hz
31 Which phenomenon primarily contributes to the core losses in a voltage transformer?
(a)Eddy currents (b)Hysteresis (c)Both A and B (d)Neither A nor B
32 A 100 turn coil of area 0.1 m2 rotates at half a revolution per second. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of
0.01 T perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil. Calculate the maximum voltage generated in the coil?
(a)256.33 V (b)89.12V (c)0.314 V (d)3.1455 V
33 Identify the principle behind the working of an a.c. generator.
(a)Eddy currents (b)Faraday’s law (c)Lenz’s law (d)Electromagnetic
induction
34 In alternating current, the flow of electric charge periodically reverses direction. The term for this specific
phenomenon is:
(a)Alternation (b)Oscillation (c)Cycle (d)Resistance
35 A device used to measure the root mean square (RMS)value of an AC voltage or current 1s:
(a)Voltmeter (b)Oscilloscope (c)Ammeter (d)AVO meter
36 What is the power factor of a purely resistive circuit?
(a)0 (b)0.5 (c)1 (d)-1
37 The property of a body by virtue of which it tends to regain its original size and shape when the applied force is
removed is called
(a)Elasticity (b)Plasticity (c)Rigidity (d)Compressibility
38 Substances that can be stretched to cause large strains are called
(a)Brittle (b)Ductile (c)Plastic (d)Elastomer
39 The expression × = , represents:
(a) Stefan’s law (b) Wein’s Displacement law (c) Rayleigh-lean’s Formula (d) Planck’s law
40 Pair product is only possible when incident photon has the energy greater or equal to:
(a)0.51 MeV (b)0.051 MeV (c)1.02 MeV (d)10.02 MeV
41 In the Compton Effect, the scattered photons have:
(a)greater frequency and smaller wavelength (b)smaller frequency and greater wavelength
(c)greater frequency and greater wavelength (d)smaller frequency and smaller wavelength
42 The Hydrogen atom spectrum consists of lines in;
(a) ultraviolet region (b) visible region (c) infrared region (d) all of them
43 The radius of Bohr’s second orbit in hydrogen atom is
(a)0.539 A0 (b)2.116 A0 (c)0.2116 A0 (d)4.2116 A0
44 The energy of electron in second shell of hydrogen atom is
(a)+3.4 eV ` (b)-3.4 eV (c)-13.6 eV (dc)+ 13.6 eV
45 An electron jumps from 9th orbit to 5th orbit. The spectral line corresponding to this transition will be observed
in
(a) Lyman series (b) Paschen series (c) P’fund series (d) Brackett series
46 The atomic number of a radioactive element is increased as a result of:
(a)" -particle (b)-rays (c)-particle (d)pair production
47 An alpha particle consists of two protons and two neutrons. What is the charge of an alpha particle?
(a)1.25 × 1019 C (b)6.40 × 10–19 C (c)2.0 × 10–14 C (d)3.20 × 10–19 C
48 In binary representation, the correspondence of '0' in digital electronics is:
(a)Low state (b)High state (c)Open circuit (d)Closed circuit
49 Which logic gate combination produces an output of '1' when at least one input is '1'?
(a)AND (b)OR (c)XOR (d)NOT
50 The behavior of 2 input AND gate, when both switches are closed, Lamp is
(a)OFF (b)ON (c)blinking (d)flickering
 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
MCQ's - XII Chemistry
51 This one of the following elements has the highest ionization energy
a.K b.Cs c.Li d.Rb
52 The general valence shell electronic configuration of alkali metals is
a.ns¹ b.ns² c.ns²,np¹ d.ns²,np²
53 From Li to Cs, ionization energy
a.Varies irregularly b.Increases c.Decreases d.Remains the same
54 This is the strongest reducing agent
a.HI b.HF c.HCl d.HBr
55 The following elements is the diagonal pair
a.Li – Na b.Na-Mg c.Be – Mg d.Be- Al
56 The last transition element in 4d series is
a.Zn b.Cd c.Hg d.Cn.
57 The element which do not form colourful complexes.
a.Zn b.Cu c.Cr d.Fe
58 EDTA is an example of :
a.Monodentate ligand b.Bidentate Ligand c.Tridentate Ligand d.Hexadentate Ligand
59 The hieghst oxidation state if Mn is
a.+5 b.+6 c.+7 d.+4
60 The oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CO)5] is
a.II b.III c.v d.zero
61 The functional group present in R- COO- R is
a.Amide b.Acyl c.Aldehyde d.Ester
62 The liquid state of petroleum is called
a.Natural gas b.Crude oil c.Asphalt d.Wax
63 The process to increase the octane number is called
a.Cracking b.Polymerization c.Reforming d.Catenation
64 The following is not the crystalline allotropes of carbon
a.Diamond b.Graphite c.Bucky ball d.Charcoal
65 The first synthetic organic compound is prepared from
a.Ammonium carbonate b.Ammonium sulphate c.Ammonium cyanate d.Ammonium oxalate
66 The IUPAC name of glycerol is
a.1,2-ethandiol b.1,2,3-butantriol c.1,2,3-propantriol d.2,3-butandiol
67 The functional group of Acyl halide is
a.RCOR b.RCOOR c.RX d.RCOX
68 The common name of phenol is
a.Catechol b.Resorcinol c.Carbolic acid d.Benzoic acid
69 The correct alkyl group in the following is
a.C3H5- b.C3H3- c.C3H7- d.C3H9-
70 The common name of six members carboxylic acid compound is
a.Butyric acid b.Valeric acid c.Caproic acid d.Acetic acid
71 The bond length of C-C in benzene is
a.1.54A⁰ b.1.34A⁰ c.1.20A⁰ d.1.39A⁰
72 On ozonolysis Ethyne form
a.Formaldehyde b.glyoxal c.Acetone d.Acetaldehyde
73 The following is not the O-P director in benzene
a.-Cl b.-OH c.-R d.-NO2
74 Markovnikov's rule is applicable in
a.CH2=CH2 b.CH3- CH=CH-CH3 c.CH2=CHBr d.CH3- CH3
75 TNT is formed by the nitration of.
a.Phenol b.Toluene c.Benzoic acid d.Benzene sulphonic acid
76 At hight temperature alkyl halides undergoes
a.Elimination reaction b.Substitution reaction c.Both d.None
77 Grignard reagent undergoes addition reaction with Carbon dioxide to form
a.Acetic acid b.Acetone c.Acetaldehyde d.Acetal
78 The bond angle in tertiary amine is
a.104.5⁰ b.107⁰ c.108⁰ d.109.5⁰
79 The reduction of Alkyl cyanide produce
a.Amine b.Amide c.Alcohol d.Alkane
80 The molecular formula of thionyl chloride is
a.SO2Cl b.SOCl2 c.SO2Cl2 d.S2Cl2
81 The following is a trihydric phenol
a.Catechol b.Resorcinol c.Pyrogallol d.Cresol
82 Oxidative cleavage of ethandiol occur in the presence of
a.Nitric acid b.Potassium permanganate c.Nitric acid d.Periodic acid
83 Lucas reagent is mixture of
a.Zn and Hg b.Zn and HCl c.ZnCl2 and HCl d.NaOH and CaO
84 The reduction of aldehyde and ketone in the presence of Zn/ Hg and Conc.HCl is called
a.Dow's process b.Clemmensen reduction c.Wolf Krishner reduction d.Cope reduction
85 The mild Oxidising agent is.
a.H2CrO4 b.KMnO4 c.K2Cr2O7 d.HNO3
86 In carbonyl group carbon atom is
a.Sp hybridized b.Sp² hybridized c.Sp³ hybridized d.dsp² hybridized
87 Formalin contains formaldehyde by weight
a.30-33% b.33-36% c.37-40% d.41-43%
88 The following is used as a pH control agent
a.Acetic acid b.Maleic acid c.Benzoic acid d.Formic acid
89 Total number of alpha amino acid are
a.19 b.22 c.25 d.28
89 Amylase is an example of
a.Catalytic. Proteins b.Storage proteins. c.Hormonal proteins d.Transport proteins
90 The normal range of glucose in blood is
a.50-80mg/100dl b.70-110 mg/100dl c.110-130mg/100dl d.150-200mg/100dl
91 Benzoic acid is the product of oxidation of
a.Benzene. b.Toluene c.Nitro benzene d.Phenol
92 Nylone 6,6 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and
a.Benzoic acid b.Adipic acid c.Maleic acid d.Acetic acid
93 Antimalarial drug among the following is
a.Ibuprofen b.Chloroquine c.Paracetamol d.Diphenyl hydramin
94 The pH of acid rain is
a.7 to 8 b.6 to 7 c.Below 5 d.Above 8
95 CFC' s are
a.Chlorofluoro carbonate b.Chlorofluoro carbon c.Chlorofluoro carbides d.Chlorofluoro silicone
96 The region of Sphere which extend from 11Km to 50 Km from earth surface is known as
a.Troposphere b.Stratosphere c.Mesosphere d.Thermosphere
97 The greenhouse gas is
a.Oxygen b.Nitrogen c.Argon d.Carbon dioxide
98 Glycogen is an example of
a.Monosaccharides b.Disccharides c.Trisccharides d.Polysaccharides
99 Ethyl chloride reacts with sodium ethoxide to form
a.Ethyl thioalcohol b.Ethyl acetate c.Di ethyl ether d.Ethyl amine
100 Organometallic compound contain
a. C- Metal bond b. Si - Metal bond c. S - Metal bond . d. P- Metal bond
 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
MCQ's - XII Mathematics
Note: Choose the correct answer for each from the given options:
101. What is the output of evalf(Pi, 5) in Maple?
(a) 3.1416 (b) 3.1415 (c) 3.14159265 (d) 3.14
102. What is the purpose of the restart; command in Maple?
(a) It restarts the Maple kernel.
(b) It clears all variables, functions, and settings, and resets Maple to its initial state.
(c) It restarts Maple in a new session.
(d) It deletes all files from Maple's working directory.
,-. *-
103. What is the output of $%&'(%)* + ,/ .*/ 0 in Maple?
(a) 1 + 3 (b) ) 1 − 3 (c) 1 + 3 (d) 3.14159265
104. ( )
What is the output of $56$ 1 = 2, 1 + 1 + 1 in Maple?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
105. Let (1) = 4 then (1 + 1) − (1) = ___________
(a) 4 (b) (1) (c) 3 (1) (d) 2 (1)
< .=
106. lim → .
(a) 3 (b) ∞ (c) 0 (d) 6
107. If : B−1,4C → ℝ is given by (1) = 1 then (−3) is:
(a) 9 (b) -9 (c) does not exit (d) 6
108. The limit of the sequence having general term E = F is:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ∞ (d) None of these
HIJ
109. lim →G =:
(a) (b) a (c) ∞ (d) None of these
110. The derivative of √1 + 1√1 is:
√ L √
(a) + (b) − (c) + 3√1 (d) +
√ √ √ √
QR
111. If 3 = Mtan 1 − 3 , then =?
Q
TUJ VWV < WXV < WXV <
(a)
RL
(b) − R.
(c) R.
(d) − R.
112. The derivative of tan 1 w.r.t. cot 1 is:
H]^<
(a) sec 1 csc 1 (b) − tan 1 (c) ^H^< (d) tan 1
113. The derivative of , if < 0 is:
a
(a) − ln (b) . ln (c) bJ (d) Does not exist
.^dH QR
114. If 3 = tan. c L^dH
then Q =
(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 2 (d)
115. If 3 = , then 3 1) = ___________
eee (

(a) 6 (b) -6 (c) 2 (d) None of these

116. If 13 = g , then 3 = __________
ee
h< . h< h< h<
(a) (b) i (c) i (d) i

117. 2 order derivative of (1) = j sin 1 + k cos 1 is ______________

EQ

(a) (1) (b) − (1) (c) ± (1) (d) None of these

Q< m
118. If S is the distance covered by a car, then Qn < will be its ___________
(a)Velocity (b) deceleration (c) acceleration (d) Average velocity
119. If a function (1) is such that e ( ) = 0 then the point o , ( )p is called
(a) Maximum Point (b) Minimum Point (c) Stationary Point (d) Critical Point
120. is the function with rule (1) = ln 21 (1 > 0), if r is the inverse of , then re (1) =
Xa
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Xa
121. The domain of the function st( ) = û + n. ŵ + ln( − 2)gx , ∈ z
(a) { > 2, , ∈ z| (b) { < 2, , ∈ z| (c) { > 0, , ∈ z| (d) { > 1, , ∈ z|
122. What value of , vector function }t ( ) = û + sin ŵ is continuous at:
n.
(a) ~ 2, ∈ z (b) > 2, , ∈ z (c) • 2, , ∈ z (d) ∈ z
€
123. The velocity function of a particle, whose motion is given by st ( ) = € û + 3 cos( ) ŵ at time = is:
(a) €
û + 3ŵ (b) €
û (c) €
û − 3ŵ (d) None of these
124. The magnitude of velocity of a particle at = •, whose motion is given by st( ) = 4 cos û + 4 sin ŵ + €
gx is:
(a) √5 (b) 5 (c) √5• (d) 5•
Q(X a )
125. ƒ (X a).„E(X a) =
(a) … 1 + † (b) … … ( )+† (c) … ( 1) + † (d) All of these
a
126. ƒ „E ‡1 =
„E a „E a
(a) „E + † (b) +† (c) … 2. „E
+† (d) +†
„E „E
TUJˆ‰
127. ƒ. L <
‡1 =
(a) 2 ƒŠ tan. 1 ‡1 (b) B(tan. 1) C. (c) 0 (d) None of these
128. ƒ. |1| ‡1 =
Œ Œ
(a) (b) − (c) (d) −
Œ
129. Given that ƒ. (1) ‡1 = 3 & ƒ (1) ‡1 = 3 then:
(a) (1) = 1 (b) (1) = 2 (c) (1) = 3 (d) (1) = 1
130. The inclination of a line is 135°, then its slope is:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) -1
131. Y-intercept of the line 3x + 5y -15=0 is:
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) -3 (d) -5
132. The distance of the point (3,2 ) from the X axis is:
(a) 3 unit (b) 2 unit (c) 5 unit (d) 4 unit
2 2
133. The centre of the circle x +y +6x-10y +22 =0
(a) (-3, 5 ) (b) (3, -5 ) (c) (-3 ,-5) (d) (6 , -10)
134. Congruent chords of the circle are equidistance from its:
(a) centre (b) diameter (c) arc (d) segment
2 2 2
135. If a line lx+ my +c =0 touches the circle x +y =r then condition of tangency is
(a) n2 = r2(l2-m2) (b) n2= r2 (l2 +m2)n2 (c) n2 =(l2-m2) (d) n2=( l2+m2)
136. The eccentricity of rectangular hyperbola is:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) √3 (d) √2
137. 2
The latus rectum and a vertex of the parabola (y − 3) = −8(x+4) is:
(a) -8, (3, -4) (b) 8, (3, -4) (c) 4, (-3, -4) (d) 8, (-4,3)
138. The equation of the tangent at (4,6) to the parabola y 2 = 9x is:
(a) 6y = (x + 4) (b) 6y=9(x-4) (c) 4y= (d) 3x−4y+12=0
139. The equation of the tangent to =1 with slope 2 is:
(a) y=2x ± √23 (b) y = 2x ± √41 (c) y=2x ± √55 (d) x=2y ± √23
140. The auxiliary circle of the ellipse = 1 is:
(a) x 2 + y 2 =36 (b) x 2+y2 =25 (c) x2 +y2 =5 (d) x 2 + y2 =6
141. The degree of the differential equation ( )4 + is:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3
142. The order and degree of the differential equation
(a) 2,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 3,2 (d) 2,1
143. The differential equation xdy – ydx = 0, y(1)=2 has a solution given by y(-1) is:
(a) -1 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 1
144. The solution of the differential equation + y 2 = 0 is:
(a) y = ex c (b) y = (c) y = (d) y = x+c
145. The general solution of the differential equation 9y + 4x = 0 is:
< R<
(a) 4x2 + 9y2 = C (b) =
− Ž
= (c) 4x2 + y 2 = C (d) 9x2 − 4y2 = C
 •
146. If (1, 3) = … (1 + 3), then •a =
•
LR L
(a) L
(b) LR
(c) 1 (d) 0
’“
147. If ‘ = (1, 3) = 1 R , then ’ =
R „ER R R„E „ER R„E
(a) (b) (c) R (d) R
’“
148. If ‘ = (1, 3) is homogeneous function of degree "0" then 1 ’ =
’“ ’“ ’“
(a) ‘ + 3 (b) ‘ − 3 (c) − 3 (d) 0
’R ’R ’R
< LR < ’“ ’“
149. If ‘ = , then 1 ’ + 3 ’R =
√ . √R
(a) − z (b) z (c) ‘ (d) − ‘
’“ ’“
150. If ‘ = sin 1 3, then 1 ’ + 3 ’R =
(a) 3 ‘ (b) 2 ‘ (c) ‘ (d) None of these
 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
ENGLISH – XII (MCQs)
151. Either of the two students ____ eligible for the scholarship.
a) is b) are c) were d) have
152. The teacher, along with the students, ____ attending the seminar.
a) is b) are c) were d) have
153. Neither the manager nor the employees ____ satisfied with the policy.
a) is b) are c) were d) have
154. The number of applicants ____ increasing every year.
a) is b) are c) were d) have
155. Direct: He said, "Alas! I lost my wallet."
a) He said that he had lost his wallet. b) He exclaimed with sorrow that he had lost his wallet.
c) He told that he lost his wallet. d) He exclaimed with joy that he had lost his wallet.
156. By the time we reached the station, the train ____ .
a) had left b) has left c) is leaving d) was leaving
157. I ____ in this city for ten years now.
a) have been living b) am living c) was living d) had lived
158. If you had studied harder, you ____ the test.
a) would have passed b) will pass c) have passed d) passed
159. If you heat water, it ____.
a) boils b) boil c) will boil d) boiled
160. If they ____ soon, they will miss the flight.
a) do not leave b) did not leave c) had not left d) leaving
161. She said, "Why did you miss the class?"
a) She asked why did I miss the class. b) She asked why I had missed the class.
c) She asked why I miss the class. d) She asked why had I missed the class.
162. The teacher said, "Who wrote this essay?"
a) The teacher asked who had written that essay. b) The teacher asked who wrote that essay.
c) The teacher asked that who had written that essay. d) The teacher said who had written that essay.
163. The government ____ a new policy next month.
a) will announce b) will be announced c) announces d) announced
164. The bridge ____ before the storm hit.
a) had been constructed b) has constructed c) constructed d) constructs
165. The match ____ due to heavy rain.
a) was postponed b) postponed c) postpones d) has postponed
166. The novel ____ by the author in 1995.
a) was written b) wrote c) writes d) has written
167. He said, "I will help you tomorrow."
a) He said that he would help me the next day. b) He said that he will help me tomorrow.
c) He said that he helped me the next day. d) He said that he would helped me tomorrow.
168. The teacher said, "Honesty is the best policy."
a) The teacher said that honesty was the best policy. b) The teacher said that honesty is the best policy.
c) The teacher says that honesty was the best policy. d) The teacher had said that honesty was the best policy.
169. She asked, "Did you complete your work?"
a) She asked if I had completed my work. b) She asked if I completed my work.
c) She asked if I was completing my work. d) She asked if I have completed my work.
170. He said, "Where do you live?"
a) He asked where I lived. b) He asked where did I live. c) He asked where I live. d) He asked where I had lived.
171. The doctor said, "Take this medicine daily."
a) The doctor advised me to take that medicine daily. b) The doctor said that I took that medicine daily.
c) The doctor said I should take this medicine daily. d) The doctor said to me that I should take that medicine
daily.
172. Choose the synonym of "Adversity":
a) Hardship b) Success c) Happiness d) Comfort
173. Choose the antonym of "Vague":
a) Clear b) Uncertain c) Ambiguous d) Confusing
174. If we ____ earlier, we wouldn’t have been late.
a) left b) leave c) had left d) leaves
175. If she ____ in the competition, she will get a prize.
a) participates b) participate c) participated d) participating
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 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
Computer Science XII - MCQs
51. Which of the following is a valid C variable name? 76. Which year was the C language developed?
ⓐ 2var ⓑ _varName ⓒ float ⓓ int ⓐ 1969 ⓑ 1972 ⓒ 1983 ⓓ 1995
52. Which programming language influenced the development of C? 77. What is the maximum length of an identifier in C?
ⓐ Fortran ⓑ COBOL ⓒ B ⓓ Python ⓐ 16 characters ⓑ 31 characters ⓒ 63 characters ⓓ No limit
53. Which organization standardized the C language? 78. What is the correct syntax to start a main function?
ⓐ IEEE ⓑ ISO ⓒ ANSI ⓓ W3C ⓐ void main{} ⓑ main() ⓒ int main() ⓓ def main()
54. Which symbol is used to start preprocessor directives? 79. Which function is mandatory in every C program?
ⓐ # ⓑ // ⓒ /* ⓓ @ ⓐ main() ⓑ printf() ⓒ scanf() ⓓ return()
55. Which of these is NOT a component of a basic C program? 80. What is the purpose of the opening and closing braces `{}` in C?
ⓐ Preprocessor directives ⓑ Main function ⓒ End function ⓓ ⓐ To denote a function ⓑ To declare a variable ⓒ To store
Source code comments ⓓ To indicate loops
56. Who developed the C programming language? 81. What was the main purpose of creating C?
ⓐ Dennis Ritchie ⓑ Bjarne Stroustrup ⓒ James Gosling ⓓ Ken ⓐ Web development ⓑ System programming ⓒ AI applications
Thompson ⓓ Database management
57. Which modifier increases the size of an integer variable? 82. Which of these is a correct way to declare a constant?
ⓐ short ⓑ long ⓒ signed ⓓ unsigned ⓐ const int x; ⓑ constant x = 10; ⓒ final int x; ⓓ #define x 10
58. Which of the following is NOT a valid C constant? 83. What is the size of an `int` in a 32-bit system?
ⓐ 10 ⓑ 'A' ⓒ 3.14 ⓓ _variable ⓐ 2 bytes ⓑ 4 bytes ⓒ 8 bytes ⓓ 16 bytes
59. Which data type is used for single character storage? 84. Which data type is used to store large decimal values?
ⓐ char ⓑ string ⓒ int ⓓ float ⓐ int ⓑ double ⓒ char ⓓ short
60. Which of these is NOT a C token? 85. What is the size of a `char` in C?
ⓐ Keyword ⓑ Constant ⓒ Operator ⓓ String ⓐ 1 byte ⓑ 2 bytes ⓒ 4 bytes ⓓ 8 bytes
61. Which operator is used for modulus operation? 86. What will be the result of `5 / 2` in C?
ⓐ % ⓑ / ⓒ // ⓓ mod ⓐ 2.5 ⓑ 2 ⓒ 3 ⓓ Error
62. Which operator has the highest precedence? 87. Which of these is not a decision-making structure?
ⓐ + ⓑ * ⓒ = ⓓ && ⓐ if ⓑ switch ⓒ for ⓓ else-if
63. Which of these is NOT a relational operator? 88. Which loop is guaranteed to execute at least once?
ⓐ == ⓑ < ⓒ && ⓓ >= ⓐ for ⓑ while ⓒ do-while ⓓ switch
64. Which keyword is used for unconditional branching? 89. Which statement is used to exit from a loop?
ⓐ goto ⓑ break ⓒ continue ⓓ return ⓐ break ⓑ continue ⓒ goto ⓓ return
65. What does `a++` do in C? 90. What will `int *ptr;` do?
ⓐ Adds 1 to a ⓑ Subtracts 1 from a ⓒ Multiplies a by 2 ⓓ ⓐ Create a pointer to int ⓑ Create an integer variable ⓒ Create an
Divides a by 2 array ⓓ Throw an error
66. Which function is used to print output in C? 91. Which function is used to read input in C?
ⓐ print() ⓑ printf() ⓒ display() ⓓ cout ⓐ scanf() ⓑ read() ⓒ get() ⓓ input()
67. How many types of user-defined functions exist in C? 92. Which of these is NOT a valid function return type?
ⓐ1 ⓑ2 ⓒ3 ⓓ4 ⓐ int ⓑ void ⓒ float ⓓ string
68. Which statement is used to return a value from a function? 93. Which of these is the correct syntax to declare an array?
ⓐ return ⓑ exit ⓒ end ⓓ quit ⓐ int arr[5]; ⓑ arr int[5]; ⓒ int[5] arr; ⓓ int arr();
69. Which function is used to find the length of a string? 94. Which function is used to concatenate two strings?
ⓐ strlen() ⓑ size() ⓒ length() ⓓ count() ⓐ strcat() ⓑ strcpy() ⓒ strcmp() ⓓ strmerge()
70. Which of these functions is used to compare strings? 95. Which symbol is used to terminate a string in C?
ⓐ strcat() ⓑ strcmp() ⓒ strcopy() ⓓ strlen() ⓐ $ ⓑ # ⓒ \0 ⓓ *
71. What does a pointer store? 96. Which function is used to compare two strings in C?
ⓐ Address ⓑ Value ⓒ Variable ⓓ Data type ⓐ strcomp() ⓑ strcmp() ⓒ strcompare() ⓓ strdiff()
72. Which loop is preferred when the number of iterations is known? 97. Which function is used to dynamically allocate memory?
ⓐ while ⓑ do-while ⓒ for ⓓ switch ⓐ malloc() ⓑ alloc() ⓒ new() ⓓ create()
73. Which keyword is used to release dynamically allocated memory? 98. Which of the following is not a valid C data type?
ⓐ free ⓑ delete ⓒ release ⓓ dispose ⓐ short int ⓑ long double ⓒ real ⓓ unsigned char
74. What is the primary difference between malloc() and calloc()? 99. Which of the following is not a valid way to declare a pointer in
ⓐ malloc() initializes memory, calloc() does not C?
ⓑ calloc() initializes memory, malloc() does not ⓐ int *ptr; ⓑ float ptr*; ⓒ char* ptr; ⓓ double *ptr;
ⓒ malloc() and calloc() both initialize memory
ⓓ calloc() allocates memory in stack, malloc() in heap
75. Which of the following control structures in C does not support 100. Which operator is used to access a value stored at an address?
an explicit condition check? ⓐ & ⓑ * ⓒ -> ⓓ %%
ⓐ if-else ⓑ while ⓒ do-while ⓓ goto
 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
BOTANY– XII (MCQs)
Note: Choose the correct answer for each from the given option:
101. The correct sequence of sub-stages during inter phase is:
a.G, G, S b.S,G1, G2 c.G1, S, G2 d.G2, G1, S
102. Light reaches this depth of oceanic zone:
a.Luphotic b.Bathyal c.Aphotic d.Abyssal
103. For their defence, infected plants produce a variety of chemical compounds called:
a.Phytochromes b.Phytohormones c.Phytoalexins d.Phytoplankton
104. The particular array of chromosomes present in an individual is called:
a.Autosome b.Genotype c. Karyotype d.Phenotype
105. Disc-shaped protein within the centromere is called:
a.Chromonema b.Chromomere c. Gene d.Kinetochore
106. Multiple-effects of single gene are called:
a.Epistasis b.Multiple Allele c.Plelotropy d.Polygenic
107. The study of living things in relation to their environment is called:
a.Ecology b.Ecosytem c.Community d.Population
108. This inhibits growth:
a. Indole Acetic Acid b. Gibberelline c.Zeatin d.Abscisic Acid
109. This biome is called the bread basket of the world:
a.Savannal b.Grassland c.Tundra d.Desert
110. Chromosomal theory of heredity was proposed by:
a. Waston b.Grifith c.Walter Sutton d.Chase
111. Enzymes are protected at high temperature by: * Ice crystals
a.Ice crystals b.Super cooling c. Freezing tolerance d.Heat shock
protein
112. This base is present in RNA but not in DNA:
a.Adenine b.Guanine c.Cytosine d.Uracl
113. Increase in the diameter of a plant due to the activity of vascular and cork cambium is called
a.Primary growth b.Secondary growth
c.Both Primary and Secondary growth d.Tetiary grow
114. Down's syndrome is an example of this condition:
a. Trisomic b. Monosomic c.Nullisomic d.Allosomic
115. When a seed germinates inside a fruit, the germination is called:
a.Hypogeal germination b.Viviparous germination
c.Epigeal germination d.Vernalization
116. Plants growing in salt marshes are termed as:
a. Hydrophytes b.Halophytes c. Mesophytes d.Xerophytes
117. The activity dividing cells in plants are:
a.Vascular tissue b.Parenchyma c.Ground tissue d.Meristem
118. Cuticle is absent in:
a.Halophytes b. Hygrophytes c.Hydrophytes d.Xerophytes
119. The coldest desert is:
a.Gobi b. Thar c.Thull d.Cholistan
120. These are the producers of a pond ecosystem:
a. Bacteria b.Fungi c.Zooplankton d.Phytoplankton
121. Plants store water in their parenchyma tissues of stem and leaves, such Plants are called
a.Ephimeral b.Halophytes c. Succulent d.Mesophytes
122. Denitrifying bacterium is
a. Rhizobium b.Pseudomonas c. Nitrobactor d.Nitrosomonas
123. ________ is the death cell of plant
a.Parenchyma b.Sclerenchyma c.Collenchyma d.None
124. Small gaps in cambium is called
a.Pits b.Lenticels c. Hydathodes d. Stomata
125. Position of gene on choromosome is called
a.Centromere b.Loci c.Alleles d. None
 ADAMJEE GOVERNMENT SCIENCE COLLEGE
ZOOLOGY– XII (MCQs)
126. The CORRECT pathway of the flow of blood in human nephron is
A. efferent arterioles, glomerulus, afferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, renal vein
B. afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, renal vein
C. renal artery, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries
D. renal artery, efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole
127. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) affects the functioning of human nephron. If ADH is secreted in low quantity,
then it affects the
A. reabsorption of water in collecting duct.
B. removal of hydrogen ions from peritubular capillaries.
C. removal of water from ascending limb of loop of Henle.
D. reabsorption of sodium ions in the proximal convoluted tubule.
128. The homeostatic thermostat which facilitates the process of thermoregulation in man is present in
A.Cerebrum B. Thalamus C. Medulla D. Hypothalamus
129. The given diagram shows a type of treatment of kidney. All the statements
are true about it EXCEPT:
A. It uses the body’s peritoneal linings for the filtration of blood.
B. The dialyzer is the machine which is used in this process.
C. This procedure is known as hemodialysis.
D. This procedure helps in salt and water adjustment.

130. The MRI report of a person unveils the degeneration of intervertebral discs in the lumbar region and protrusion
of the spongy nucleus pulposus. The report indicates that the person is suffering from
A. sciatica. B. spondylosis. C. slipped disc. D. disc tumour.

131. What will happen in X and Y if the arm moves upward?

A. X contract and Y relax B. X relax and Y contract
C.Both contracts simultaneously C. Both relax simultaneously

132. Which of the following is the CORRECT example of striped but involuntary muscles?
A.Wrist muscles B. Abdominal muscles C. Cardiac muscles D. Respiratory
muscles
133. It typically begins gradually with stiffness of jaws and neck muscles and progresses to spasm of trunk and limb
muscles.
A. Muscles cramp B. Muscle fatigue C. Tetanus D. Tetany
134. Excessive intracellular accumulation of lactic acid in muscles causes:
A.Cramps B. Muscles pull C. Muscles fatigue D. Tetany
135. Muscles myofibrils are arranged longitudinally into sarcomere. Which of the following correctly lists the
boundaries of a single sarcomere?
A. Z line to Z line B. M line to H band C. Z line to H band D. Z line to M line
136. Glenohumeral articulation is an example of:
A. Gliding joint B. Fixed joint C. Hinge joint D. Ball and Socket
joint
137. Many structural adaptations are present in animals for thermoregulation. A thick layer of fat that protects seals
and whales from cold water is known as
A. Cuticle B. Epidermis C. Brown fat D. Blubber
138. Temperature based classification is used to categorize animals into two groups. Which of the following is a
homeotherm?

139. In peritoneal dialysis the blood is cleaned without being removed from the body. Which part of the body acts
as a filter for this method?
A. Skin B. Layers of the intestine C. Lining of the abdomen D. Stomach

140. Which of the following substance is NOT synthesized by the human liver?
 A. Prothrombin B. Essential amino acids C. Fibrin D. Cholesterol
141. Which part of the nephron contains target cells for vasopressin?
A. Bowman’s capsule B. Peritubular capillaries C. Collecting duct D. Malpighian body
142. The function of spinal cord is to
A. move impulses to and from brain B. release growth supporting hormone.
C. support the weight of the body. D. protect the vertebral column.
143. The inflammation of coverings of brain and spinal cord is known as:
A. Encephalitis B. Hematoma C. Meningitis D. Sinusitis
144. The figure below shows the parts of human brain that constitute the limbic system.
Which of the labelled parts is associated with memory processing?

145. Most of the neurons in the human brain are

A.Sensory neurons B.Motor neurons C. Inter neurons D. Auditory neurons
146. For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70mv, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out
of that neuron’s cytoplasm would result in
A.Depolarization of neuron B. Hyperpolarization of neuron
C. The replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions. D. The replacement of potassium ions with calcium
ions.
147. The surface on a neuron that discharges vesicles is the
A. Dendrite B. Axon hillock C. Presynaptic membrane D. Postsynaptic
membrane
148. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs in a membrane made more permeable to
A.Potassium ions B. Sodium ions C. Calcium ions D. ATPs
149. The major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain is
A. cetylcholine B. Epinephrine C. GABA D. Endorphin
150. Which of the following receptors is incorrectly paired with the type of energy it transduces?
A. Mechanoreceptors Sound B. Pain receptors Electricity
C. Chemoreceptors Solute concentration D. Thermoreceptors Heat