Electronic Iot Smart City MCQ
Electronic Iot Smart City MCQ
2. n-type
3. p-type
4. None of the above
Answer.2. n-type
Ques.12. Addition of pentavalent impurity to semiconductors creates many______
1. Free Electrons
2. Holes
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer.1. Free Electrons
Ques.13. A pentavalent impurity has________
1. 3 Valence electrons
2. 6 Valence electrons
3. 4 Valence electrons
4. 5 Valence electrons
Answer.4. 5 Valence electrons
Ques.14. An n-type semiconductor is
1. Positively charged
2. Electrically neutral
3. Negatively charged
4. None of the above
Answer.2. Electrically neutral
Ques.15. A trivalent impurity has_____
1. 3 Valence electrons
2. 5 valence electrons
3. 6 valence electrons
4. 4 valence electrons
Answer.1. 3 Valence electrons
Ques.16. Addition of trivalent impurity to a pure semiconductor creates many________
1. Free Electrons
2. Valence electrons
3. Holes
4. Bound electrons
Answer.3. Holes
Ques.17. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as_________
1. A free electrons
2. The incomplete part of an electrons pair bond
3. A free proton
4. A free neutron
Answer.2. The incomplete part of an electrons pair bond
Ques.18. A pentavalent impurity is called_______
1. Donor impurity
2. Acceptor impurity
3. Ionic impurity
4. None of the above
Answer.1. Donor impurity
Ques.19. The magnitude of the charge of a hole is
1. Zero
2. Equal to that of a proton
3. Equal to that of an electron
4. Equal to that of a neutron
Answer.1. Equal to that of an electron
Ques.20. As a general rule, holes are found only in_______
1. Metals
2. Semiconductor
3. Insulator
4. Resistance materials
Answer.2. Semiconductor
Ques.21. The resistivity of an extrinsic semiconductor is about
1. 60,000 Ω cm
2. 1000 Ω cm
3. 2 Ω cm
4. 10−6 Ω cm
Answer.3. 2Ω cm
Ques.22. The impurity level in a semiconductor is about _______ of the pure semiconductor.
1. 10 atoms for 108 atoms
2. 1 atom for 108 atoms
3. 1 atom for 104 atoms
4. 1 atom for 100 atoms
Answer.2. 1 atom for 108 atoms
Ques.23. By adding impurities in semiconductor, the bulk resistance of a semiconductor_______
1. Decreases
2. Remain the same
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer.1. Decreases
Ques.24. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to________
1. Repel each other
2. Have no effect on each other
3. Attract each other
4. None of the above
Answer.3. Attract each other
Ques.25. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due______
1. Only to holes
2. Holes and free electrons
3. Only to free electrons
4. None of the above
Answer.2. Holes and free electrons
Ques.26. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation is called_________
1. Ionization
2. Pressure
3. Diffusion
4. None of the above
Answer.3. Diffusion
(a) lies exactly in the middle between the bottom of the conduction band and top of the valance
band in an intrinsic semiconductor
(b) nearer to the conduction band in N-type semiconductor
(c) nearer to the valance band in P-type semiconductor
(d) all the above.
Ans: d
Q 33. Fermi-Dirac statistics explains
(a) how electrons are distributed among different energy levels
(b) the probability of an energy level to be occupied by electrons
(c) the probability of an energy level to be occupied by quantum mechanicalparticles
(d) how quantum mechanical particles are distributed in different energy level.
Ans: All are correct
Q 34. Fermi-Dirac (FD) statistics governs
(a) fermions
(b) free electrons
(c) gas molecules
(d) All the above
Ans: a and b
Q 35. In free electron gas theory, electrons
(a) can move anywhere inside the metal.
(b) are considered as a gas.
(c) pairs with holes and become neutral.
(d) All the above.
Ans: a and b
Q 36. Which of the following can be explained by using free electron theory
(a) copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Sodium
Ans: All are correct since all are metals which contain free electrons
Q 37. Free electron theory gas is applicable to
(a) metals
(b) gas
(c) solids
(d) all the above.
Ans: a and c. a is a more accurate answer
Q 38. Free electron gas theory assumes
(a) electrons are free from Coulomb force
(b) the Coulomb force of repulsion is negligible.
(c) Electrons are free to move anywhere.
(d) All the above.
Ans: b. Electrons are free to move inside the metal only
Q 39. For a semiconductor-based light source, it should be a
(a) direct bandgap semiconductor
(b) indirect direct bandgap semiconductor
(c) either direct bandgap or indirect bandgap
(d) the semiconductor can not be used as a light source
Ans: a
Q 40. In an indirect bandgap semiconductor, a transition between conduction band and valance band
results in
(a) heat
(b) light
(c) both
(d) none of the above.
Ans: a
Q 41. In a direct bandgap semiconductor
(a) The two points of intersection of a vertical line with the E-K curve of both valance band and
conduction band are at the same momentum.
(b) The two points of intersection of a vertical line with the E-K curve of both valance band and
conduction band are having the same wave vector.
(c) The K value of the lowest point of the conduction band is equal to the K value of highest point
of valance band.
(d) The transitions of electrons take place directly.
Ans: All are correct.
Ans: c
Q 48. The curvature of E-K diagram
(a) is higher in conduction band than valance band
(b) is lower in valence band than the conduction band
(c) is negative in the conduction band
(d) b and c
Ans: a and b. Curvature is negative in the valance band.
Q 49. The symbol K in Fermi energy represents
(a) Maxwell-Boltzmann constant
(b) Boltzmann constant
(c) Wave vector
(d) None of the above.
Ans: b. K is a wave vector or propagation constant in the wave function.
Q 50. Hertz is the unit of
(a) frequency of ultrasound
(b) frequency of AC
(c) frequency of waves
(d) all the above.
Ans: d
Q 51. The effective mass of a charge carrier
(a) is directly proportional to the curvature of E-K curve
(b) is inversely proportional to the curvature of E-K curve
(c) is positive near the bottom of the conduction band
(d) is negative near the top of the valance band
Ans: b, c, d. The effective mass may be positive or negative according to the sign of
curvature. The curvature may be positive or negative in both the conduction band and the
valance band.
Q 52. Electronic bands are formed due to
(a) split-up of energy levels
(b) to satisfy Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) The shift in energy levels
(d) All the above
Ans: a and b
Q 53. An electronic band is
(a) Any range of energy levels
(b) Energy levels where free electrons exist
(c) A range of energy level is characterized by the existence of electrons.
(d) All the above.
Ans: c
Q 54. The interaction of different atoms leads to the formation of
(a) electronic band
(b) electronic bond
(c) none of the above
(d) all the above
Ans: a and b
Q 55. A forbidden band
(a) is the one where electrons are forbidden
(b) is the one where energy is forbidden
(c) is not there in between the conduction and valence band in conductors
(d) all the above.
Ans: a and c
Q 56. Current flow is in the direction of
(a) electric field
(b) opposite to the flow of electrons
(c) flow of holes
(d) all the above.
Ans: d
Q 57. Dopant for N-type semiconductor
(a) should be a pentavalent impurity
(b) should be a trivalent impurity
(c) either a or b
(d) depends on the number of valance electrons in the host atom
Ans: a
Q 58. Hall voltage is developed due to the
Unit II
P-N Junction Diode P-N Junction, Biasing of diodes, Avalanche & Zener
breakdown, I-V characteristics, Transition and Diffusion Capacitance,
small signal switching models, Applications of Diode as a Rectifier, Switch,
Clipper and Clamper, Zener diode, Zener diode as a voltage regulator,
Varactor Diode, LED, Photodiode.
Q1. In a PN junction with no external voltage, the electric field between acceptor and donor ions is called
a
A. Peak
B. Barrier
C. Threshold
D. Path
Answer b
Q2. In a PN junction the potential barrier is due to the charges on either side of the junction, these charges
are
A. Majority carriers
B. Minority carriers
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Fixed donor and acceptor ions
Answer d
Q3. The capacitance of a reverse biased PN junction
A.Increases as reverse bias is increased
B.Decreases as reverse bias is increased
C.Increases as reverse bias is decreased
D.Is insignificantly low
Answer c
Q4. In an unbiased PN junction
A. The junction current is due to minority carriers only
B. The junction current at equilibrium is zero as equal but opposite carriers are crossing the junction
C. The junction current reduces with rise in temperature
D. The junction current at equilibrium is zero as charges do not cross the junction
Answer b
Q5. For a PN junction diode, the current in reverse bias may be
A. Few miliamperes
B. Between 0.2 A and 15 A
C. Few amperes
D. Few micro or nano amperes
Answer d
A. Avalanche breakdown
B. Zener breakdown
C. Either of (a) and (b) above
D. None of the above
Answer b
Q12. As a PN junction is forward biased
A. Holes as well as electrons tend to drift away from the junction
B. The depletion region decreases
C. The barrier tends to breakdown
D. None of the above
Answer b
Q13. In a reverse biased PN junction, the current through the junction increases abruptly at
A. 0.5 V
B. 1.1 V
C. 0.72 V
D. Breakdown voltage
Answer d
Q14. The main reason why electrons can tunnel through a PN junction is that
A. Barrier potential is very low
B. They have high energy
C. Impurity level is low
D. Depletion layer is extremely thin
Answer d
Q15. A PN junction is formed in a process which may be of
A. Diffused type
B. Alloyed type
C. The grown type
D. Any of the above
Answer d
Q16. A reverse-biased PN junctions has
A. A net electron current
B. A net hole current
Answer a
Q22. When a PN junction is reverse biased
A. Reverse current flow ceases
B. A very small amount of reverse current called leakage current flows
C. Heavy current flow in the reverse circuit
D. All of the above
Answer b
Q23. For a PN junction, the junction current will be zero when
A. The two junctions are short circuited
B. Holes and electrons get neutralized by equal numbers
C. The number of minority carriers crossing the junction equals the number of majority carriers
D. Either minority carriers or majority carriers disappear
Answer c
Q24. A reversed-biased PN junction has
A. Almost zero current
B. A very narrow depletion layer
C. A net hole current
D. A net electron current
Answer a
Q25. Barrier potential in a PN junction is caused by
A. Flow of drift current
B. Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
C. Migration of minority carriers across the junction
D. Thermally-generated electrons and holes
Answer b
Q26. The diode used for a power limiter is
A. Power diode
B. Zener diode
C. PIN diode
D. Signal diode
Answer c
Q27. The diode which is preferred for D.C coupling is
A.LED
B. Power diode
C. Signal diode
D. Zener diode
Answer d
Q28. The diode which permits remote tuning is
A. Zener diode
B. Varactor
C. Power diode
D. None of the above
Answer b
Q29. The diode is used in
A. Digital circuits
B. Detectors
C. Rectifiers
D. All of the above
Answer d
Q30. The dynamic resistance of a diode varies as
A. 1/I2
B. I2
C. 1/I
D. I the current
Answer c
Q31. The static VI characteristics of a junction diode can be described by the equation called
A. Child's three half-power law
B. Boltzmann diode equation
C. Einstein's photoelectric equation
D. Richardson-Dushman equation
Answer b
Q32. In case of alloy junction diode, the width of depletion layer 'w' is proportional to
A. Cube of reverse voltage
B. Square root of reverse voltage
Answer b
Q49. Holes are available in
A. Valence band
B. Forbidden gap
C. Conduction band
D. None of the above
Answer a
Q50. Odd out the following :
A. Tunnel diode
B. Vacuum triode
C. Backward diode
D. Gunn diode
Answer c
Q51. In a half wave rectifier, the load current flows for what part of the cycle.
a. 400
b. 900
c. 1800
d. 3600
Answer c
Q52. In a full wave rectifier, the current in each diode flows for
a. whole cycle of the input signal
b. half cycle of the input signal
c. more than half cycle of the input signal
d. none of these
Answer b
Q53. In a full wave rectifier, if the input frequency is 50 Hz, then output frequency will be
a. 50 Hz
b. 75 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 200 Hz
Answer c
Q54. In a center tap full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage between center tap and one end of the
secondary, the maximum voltage coming across the reverse bias diode is
a. Vm
b. 2 Vm
c. Vm/2
d. Vm/√2
Answer b
Q55. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is
a. 40.6%
b. 100%
c. 81.2%
d. 85.6%
Answer c
Q56. In a bridge type full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage across the secondary of the transformer,
the maximum voltage coming across each reverse biased diode is
a. Vm
b. 2 Vm
c. Vm/2
d. Vm/√2
Answer a
Q57. To get a peak load voltage of 40V out of a bridge rectifier. What is the approximate rms value of
secondary voltage?
a. 0 V
b. 14.4 V
c. 28.3 V
d. 56.6 V
Answer c
Q58. If the line frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency of bridge rectifier is
a. 25 Hz
b. 50 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 200 Hz
Answer c
Q59. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is
a. 0.482
b. 0.812
c. 1.11
d. 1.21
Answer a
Q60. The bridge rectifier is preferred to an ordinary two diode full wave rectifier because
a. it needs much smaller transformer for the same output
b. no center tap required
c. less PIV rating per diode
d. all the above
Answer d
Q61. The basic purpose of filter is to
a. minimize variations in ac input signal
b. suppress harmonics in rectified output
c. remove ripples from the rectified output
d. stabilize dc output voltage
Answer c
Q62. The use of a capacitor filter in a rectifier circuit gives satisfactory performance only when the load
a. current is high
b. current is low
c. voltage is high
d. voltage is low
Answer b
Q63. A half wave rectifier is equivalent to
a. clamper circuit
b. a clipper circuit
c. a clamper circuit with negative bias
d. a clamper circuit with positive bias
Answer b
Q64. The basic reason why a full wave rectifier has a twice the efficiency of a half wave rectifier is that
Unit III
Bipolar Junction Transistor Construction and Types of BJT, Biasing of
BJT, BJT Configurations, I-V characteristics, Stability Factors,
Compensation Techniques of BJT, Thermal Runaway, Ebers-Moll Model,
Transistor as an Amplifier.
b. Reverse-biased
c. Non conducting
d. Operating in the breakdown region
Answer : a
7. For normal operation of the transistor, the collector diode has to be
a. Forward-biased
b. Reverse-biased
c. Non-conducting
d. Operating in the breakdown region
Answer : b
8. The base of an npn transistor is thin and
a. Heavily doped
b. Lightly doped
c. Metallic
d. Doped by a pentavalent material
Answer : b
9. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow
a. Out of the base lead
b. Into the collector
c. Into the emitter
d. Into the base supply
Answer : b
10. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor do not recombine because they
a. Have a long lifetime
b. Have a negative charge
c. Must flow a long way through the base
d. Flow out of the base
Answer : a
11. Most of the electrons that flow through the base will
a. Flow into the collector
b. Flow out of the base lead
c. Recombine with base holes
Answer : b
17. What is the most important fact about the collector current?
a. It is measured in milliamperes.
b. It equals the base current divided by the current gain.
c. It is small.
d. It approximately equals the emitter current.
Answer : d
18. If the current gain is 200 and the collector current is 100 mA, the base current is
a. 0.5 mA
b. 2 mA
c. 2 A
d. 20 A
Answer : a
19. The base-emitter voltage is usually
a. Less than the base supply voltage
b. Equal to the base supply voltage
c. More than the base supply voltage
d. Cannot answer
Answer : a
20. The collector-emitter voltage is usually
a. Less than the collector supply voltage
b. Equal to the collector supply voltage
c. More than the collector supply voltage
d. Cannot answer
Answer : a
21. The power dissipated by a transistor approximately equals the collector current times
a. Base-emitter voltage
b. Collector-emitter voltage
c. Base supply voltage
d. 0.7 V
Answer : b
22. A small collector current with zero base current is caused by the leakage current of
the
a. Emitter diode
b. Collector diode
c. Base diode
d. Transistor
Answer : b
23. A transistor acts like a diode and a
a. Voltage source
b. Current source
c. Resistance
d. Power supply
Answer : b
24. If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain is 30, the collector current is
a. 300 mA
b. 3 A
c. 3.33 A
d. 10 A
Answer : b
25. The base-emitter voltage of an ideal transistor is
a. 0
b. 0.3 V
c. 0.7 V
d. 1 V
Answer : a
26. If you recalculate the collector-emitter voltage with the second approximation, the answer will
usually be
a. Smaller than the ideal value
b. The same as the ideal value
c. Larger than the ideal value
d. Inaccurate
Answer : c
27. In the active region, the collector current is not changed significantly by
B. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base
bias voltage held constant
C. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base
bias voltage held constant
D. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCC) with (VBB) base
bias voltage held constant
Answer: Option B
33. When a silicon transistor is properly biased, what is VBE for a C-E configuration?
A. voltage-divider bias
B. 0.3 V
C. 0.7 V
D. 0.0 V
Answer: Option C
34. With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably:
A. Ground
B. VC
C. VBE
D. VCC
Answer: Option A
35. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:
A. out of the base lead
B. into the collector
C. into the emitter
D. into the base supply
Answer: Option B
36. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by:
A. collector voltage
B. base current
C. collector resistance
D. all of the above
Answer: Option B
37. Total emitter current is:
A. IE – IC
B. IC + IE
C. IB + IC
D. IB – IC
Answer: Option C
38. For a C-C configuration to operate properly, the collector-base junction should be reverse biased,
while forward bias should be applied to which junction?
A. collector-emitter
B. base-emitter
C. collector-base
D. cathode-anode
Answer: Option A
39. Which of the following conditions are needed to properly bias an npn transistor amplifier?
A. Forward bias the base/emitter junction and reverse bias the base/collector junction.
B. Forward bias the collector/base junction and reverse bias the emitter/base junction.
C. Apply a positive voltage on the n-type material and a negative voltage on the p-type material.
D. Apply a large voltage on the base.
Answer: Option A
40. In a common emitter transistor amplifier, the output resistance is 500 KΩ and the current gain β = 49.
If the power gain of the amplifier is 5 ×10 6, the input resistance is
A. 325 Ω
B. 165 Ω
C. 225 Ω
D. 240 Ω
Answer: Option D
41. The current gain of a transistor in common base mode is 0.995. The current gain of the same transistor
in common emitter mode is
A. 197
B. 201
C. 198
D. 199
Answer: Option D
42. A transistor amplifier circuit is operated with an emitter current of 2 mA. The collector current is 1.98
mA. The common emitter current gain (βdc) of the transistor used in the circuit is
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 200
Answer: Option B
43. In an NPN transistor 108 electrons enter the emitter in 10 –8 s. If 1% electrons are lost in the base, the
fraction of current that enters the collector and current amplification are respectively
A. 0.8 and 49
B. 0.9 and 90
C. 0.7 and 50
D. 0.99 and 99
Answer: Option D
44. In an npn power transistor, the collector current is 20 mA. If 98% of the electrons I njected in to the
base region reach the collector, the base current in mA is nearly
A. 2 mA
B. 1 mA
C. 0.5 mA
D. 0.4 mA
Answer: Option D
45. The current gain α of a transistor is 0.995. If the change in emitter current is 10 mA, the change in
base current is
A. 50 μA
B. 100 μA
C. 500 μA
D. 25 μA
Answer: Option A
46. If α and β are the current gains in the CB and CE configurations respectively of the transistor circuit,
then (β – α)/αβ =
A. ∞
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0.5
Answer: Option B
47. A transistor has β of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 µA. The collector current, IC, equals:
A. 500 A
B. 5 mA
C. 50 mA
D. 5 A
Answer: Option B
48. If an input signal ranges from 20–40 A (microamps), with an output signal ranging from .5–1.5 mA
(milliamps), what is the ac beta?
A. 0.05
B. 20
C. 50
D. 500
Answer: Option C
49. What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA and IC = 4.0 mA?
A. 16.80
B. 1.05
C. 0.20
D. 0.95
Answer: Option D
50. What is the collector current for a C-E configuration with a beta of 100 and a base current of 30 µA?
A. 30 A
B. 0.3 A
C. 3 mA
D. 3 MA
Answer: Option C
51. If the common emitter current gain βdc of the transistor used in the amplifier circuit is 200 and the
quiescent emitter current is 1 mA, the quiescent base current of the transistor is very nearly equal to
A. 1 mA
B. 1 μA
C. 2 μA
D. 5 μA
Answer: Option D
52. The collector supply voltage is 6 V and the voltage drop across a resistor of 600 Ω in the collector
circuit is 0.6 V, in a transistor connected in common emitter mode. If the current gain is 20, the base
current is
A. 0.25 Ma
B. 0.05 mA
C. 0.02 mA
D. 0.07 mA
Answer: Option B
53. In CB Configuration of transistor, the input impedance is
A. High
B. Medium
C. Low
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
54. BJT is ———–Device
A. Bipolar
B. Unipolar
C. Constant current
D. Constant voltage
Answer: Option A
55. Transistor is used as
A. Switch
B. Amplifier
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
56. For a common emitter circuit if IC/IE = 0.98 then current gain for common emitter circuit will be
A.49
B. 98
C. 4.9
D. 25.5
Answer: Option A
57. When a n-p-n transistor is used as an amplifier then ?
A. the electrons flow from emitter to collector
B. the holes flow from emitter to collector
C. the electrons flow from collector to emitter
D. the electrons flow from battery to emitter
Answer: Option A
58. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is
7.2 mA, then the base current is
A. 0.29mA
B. 0.35mA
C. 0.39 mA
D. 0.43 mA
Answer: Option A
59. In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and the output
voltage is?
A. 0
B. π/2
C. π
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
60. In a transistor highly doped part is
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
61. In a transistor lightly doped part is
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. None of the above
Answer: Option B
62. In a transistor largest dimension is that of
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. None of the above
Answer: Option c
63. In a transistor with normal bias
A. The emitter junction offers high resistance
B. The emitter junction reverse biased
C. The emitter junction has a low resistance
D. None of the above
Answer: Option c
64. Which region of a transistor lightly doped?
A. Collector
B. Base
C. Emitter
D. All regions are equally doped
Answer: Option b
65. A dot near the transistor pin denotes
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. None of the above
Answer: Option c
66. In a transistor symbol, slant line to the bar with arrow head represents
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. None of the above
Answer: Option a
67. In a transistor symbol, slant line to bar without any arrow head represents
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. None of the above
Answer: Option c
68. In a transistor symbol, if slant line arrow head is drawn towards the bar, then the transistor is
A. P-N-P
B. N-P-N
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: Option a
69. .........is the region of transistor which has highest conductivity
A. Base
B. Emitter
C. Collector
D. Any of the above
Answer: Option b
70. A notch or a tab the transistor cap denotes
A. Emitter pin
B. Base pin
C. Collector pin
D. None of the above
Answer: Option a
71. Transistor works as an open switch when emitter junction is........biased and collector junction
is........biased
A. Forward, reverse
B. Reverse, reverse
C. Reverse, forward
D. Forward, forward
Answer: Option b
72. Transistor works as an closed switch when emitter junction is........biased and collector junction
is........biased
A. Forward, reverse
B. Reverse, reverse
C. Reverse, forward
D. Forward, forward
Answer: Option d
73. Current base part of a transistor behaves like
A. Constant current source
B. Forward biased diode
C. A resistance
D. None of the above
Answer: Option a
74. Bipolar transistor is a
A. Two terminal semiconductor
B. Three layer semiconductor device
C. Three junction semiconductor device
D. One junction semiconductor device
Answer: Option b
75. In P-N-P transistor, base will be of
A. P material
B. N material
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: Option b
76. A P-N-P transistor has
A. Only acceptor ions
B. Only donor ions
C. Two P-regions and one N-region
D. Three P-N junction
Answer: Option c
77. Which of the following is valid for both P-N-P as well as N-P-N transistor
Unit IV
Unipolar Transistors Construction & working of UJT, JFET, JFET
parameters, C-V characteristics, Biasing of JFET, Low frequency model of
JFET and its analysis. MOSFET (E-type & D-type), I-V characteristics,
MOS capacitor and small signal models of MOS transistor.
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. In a p-channel JFET, the charge carriers are …………..
1. electrons
2. holes
3. both electrons and holes
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage, then drain current …………. with the
increase in drain voltage
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains constant
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the conducting channel
…………..
1. is decreased
2. is increased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. A MOSFET has …………… terminals
1. two
2. five
3. four
4. three
Answer : 4
Q11. A MOSFET can be operated with ……………..
1. negative gate voltage only
Q22. A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ………. to control the channel current
1. capacitor
2. battery
3. generator
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q23. The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to ………. voltage in a vacuum tube
1. anode
2. cathode
3. grid cut off
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q24. In class A operation, the input circuit of a JFET is ………. biased
1. forward
2. reverse
3. not
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the width of the conducting channel……….
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. is increased
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q26. The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about ……….
1. 5V
2. 0.6 V
3. 15 V
4. 25 V
Answer : 1
Q27. The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of ………..
1. Ω
2. a few hundred Ω
3. kΩ
4. several MΩ
Answer : 4
Q28. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called ……….. voltage
1. saturation
2. pinch-off
3. active
4. cut-off
Answer : 2
Q29. In a FET, there are ……….. pn junctions at the sides
1. three
2. four
3. five
4. two
Answer : 4
Q30. The transconductance of a JFET ranges from ……………..
1. 100 to 500 mA/V
2. 500 to 1000 mA/V
3. 0.5 to 30 mA/V
4. above 1000 mA/V
Answer : 3
Q31. The source terminal of a JEFT corresponds to ………….. of a vacuum tube
1. plate
2. cathode
3. grid
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q32. The output characteristics of a JFET closely resemble the output characteristics of a ……….
valve
1. pentode
2. tetrode
3. triode
4. diode
Answer : 1
Q33. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases, the drain current
……….
1. is increased
2. is decreased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q34. The channel of a JFET is between the …………….
1. gate and drain
2. drain and source
3. gate and source
4. input and output
Answer : 2
Q35. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when V DS exceeds ………
1. cut off
2. VDD
3. VP
4. oV
Answer : 3
Q36. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V. The pinch-off voltage Vp is ……..
1. +4 V
2. -4 V
3. dependent on VGS
4. data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q37. The constant-current region of a JFET lies between
1. cut off and saturation
2. cut off and pinch-off
3. o and IDSS
Answer : 1
Q43. In a common-source JFET amplifier, the output voltage is …………………
1. 180o out of phase with the input
2. in phase with the input
3. 90o out of phase with the input
4. taken at the source
Answer : 1
Q44. In a certain common-source D-MOSFET amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m. and Vgs = 280 mV r.m.s.
The voltage gain is …………
1. 1
2. 11.4
3. 8.75
4. 3.2
Answer : 2
Q45. In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kΩ , RS= 560 Ω , VDD=10V and gm= 4500 μS. If the
source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is …………
1. 450
2. 45
3. 2.52
4. 4.5
Answer : 4
Q46. A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain of 10. If the source bypass capacitor is
removed, ……………….
1. the voltage gain will increase
2. the transconductance will increase
3. the voltage gain will decrease
4. the Q-point will shift
Answer : 3
Q47. A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kΩ , RD= 820Ω . If gm= 5mS and Vin= 500
mV, the output signal voltage is ………..
1. 2.05 V
2. 25 V
3. 0.5 V
4. 1.89 V
Answer : 4
Q48. If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is removed, the output voltage will …………
1. increase
2. decrease
3. stay the same
4. be zero
Answer : 1
Q49. When not in use, MOSFET pins are kept at the same potential through the use of …………
1. shipping foil
2. nonconductive foam
3. conductive foam
4. a wrist strap
Answer: 3
Q50. D-MOSFETs are sometimes used in series to construct a cascode high-frequency amplifier to
overcome the loss of …………..
1. low output impedance
2. capacitive reactance
3. high input impedance
4. inductive reactance
Answer: 3
Q51. A “U” shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is called the
……….
1. gate
2. block
3. drain
4. heat sink
Answer: 1
Q52. When testing an n-channel D-MOSFET, resistance G to D = , resistance G to S = ,
resistance D to SS = and 500 , depending on the polarity of the ohmmeter, and resistance
D to S = 500 . What is wrong?
1. short D to S
2. open G to D
3. open D to SS
4. nothing
Answer: 4
Q53. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
1. As VGS decreases ID decreases.
2. As VGS increases ID increases
3. As VGS decreases ID remains constant.
4. As VGS increases ID remains constant.
Answer: 1
Q54. IDSS can be defined as ………
1. the minimum possible drain current
2. the maximum possible current with VGS held at –4 V
3. the maximum possible current with VGS held at 0 V
4. the maximum drain current with the source shorted
Answer: 3
Q55. The input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET is …………
1. very low
2. low
3. high
4. very high
Answer: 1
Q56. A very simple bias for a D-MOSFET is called ……..
1. self biasing
2. gate biasing
3. zero biasing
4. voltage-divider biasing
Answer: 3
Q57. With the E-MOSFET, when gate input voltage is zero, drain current is …..
1. at saturation
2. zero
3. IDSS
4. widening the channel
Answer: 2
Q58. With a 30-volt VDD, and an 8-kilohm drain resistor, what is the E-MOSFET Q point voltage,
with ID = 3 mA?
1. 6V
2. 10 V
3. 24 V
4. 30 V
Answer: 1
Q59. When an input signal reduces the channel size, the process is called …….
1. enhancement
2. substrate connecting
3. gate charge
4. depletion
Answer: 4
Q60. Which JFET configuration would connect a high-resistance signal source to a low-resistance
load ?
1. source follower
2. common-source
3. common-drain
4. common-gate
Answer: 1
Q61. When VGS = 0 V, a JFET is……….
1. saturated
2. an analog device
3. an open switch
4. an open switch
Answer: 1
Q62. The electrons flow through a p-channel JFET from ……….. to …………..
1. from source to drain
2. from source to gate
4. voltage divider
Answer: 3
Q68. How will a D-MOSFET input impedance change with signal frequency?
1. As frequency increases input impedance increases.
2. As frequency increases input impedance is constant.’
3. As frequency decreases input impedance increases.
4. As frequency decreases input impedance is constant.
Answer: 3
Q69. The type of bias most often used with E-MOSFET circuits is………….
1. constant current
2. drain-feedback
3. voltage-divider
4. zero biasing
Answer: 2
Q70. The transconductance curve of a JFET is a graph of …………… vs ……….
1. IS versus VDS
2. IC versus VCE
3. ID versus VGS
4. ID × RDS
Answer: 3
Q71. The common-source JFET amplifier has ………..
1. a very high input impedance and a relatively low voltage gain
2. a high input impedance and a very high voltage gain
3. a high input impedance and a voltage gain less than 1
4. no voltage gain
Answer: 1
Q72. The overall input capacitance of a dual-gate D-MOSFET is lower because the devices are
usually connected ………..
1. in parallel
2. with separate insulation
3. with separate inputs
4. in series
Answer: 4
Q73. Which component is considered to be an “OFF” devic.
1. transistor
2. JFET
3. D-MOSFET
4. E-MOSFET
Answer: 4
Q74. In an n-channel JFET, what will happen at the pinch-off voltage?
1. the value of VDS at which further increases in VDS will cause no further increase in
ID
2. the value of VGS at which further decreases in VGS will cause no further increases in
ID
3. the value of VDG at which further decreases in V DG will cause no further increases in
ID
4. the value of VDS at which further increases in VGS will cause no further increases in
ID
Answer: 1
Q75. A JFET
A. is a current-controlled device
B. has a low input resistance
C. is a voltage-controlled device
D. is always forward-biased
Answer: Option C
Q76. The depletion-mode MOSFET
A. The depletion-mode MOSFET
B. The depletion-mode MOSFET
C. cannot operate in the ohmic region
D. can operate with positive as well as negative gate voltages
Answer: Option D
Q77. Junction Field Effect Transistors (JFET) contain how many diodes?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: Option D
Q78. A "U" shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is called the:
A. Gate
B. Block
C. Drain
D. heat sink
Answer: Option A
Q79. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
A. As VGS decreases ID decreases.
B. As VGS increases ID increases.
C. As VGS decreases ID remains constant.
D. As VGS increases ID remains constant.
Answer: Option A
Q80. A MOSFET has how many terminals?
A. 2 or 3
B. 3
C. 4
D. 3 or 4
Answer: Option D
Q81. IDSS can be defined as:
A. the minimum possible drain current
B. the maximum possible current with VGS held at –4 V
C. the maximum possible current with VGS held at 0 V
D. the maximum drain current with the source shorted
Answer: Option C
Q82. What is the input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET?
A. very low
B. low
C. high
D. very high
Answer: Option A
Q83. JFET terminal "legs" are connections to the drain, the gate, and the:
A. Channel
B. Source
C. Substrate
D. Cathode
Answer: Option B
Q84. With the E-MOSFET, when gate input voltage is zero, drain current is:
A. at saturation
B. zero
C. IDSS
D. widening the channel
Answer: Option B
Q85. Which JFET configuration would connect a high-resistance signal source to a
Low resistance load?
A. source follower
B. common-source
C. common-drain
D. common-gate
Answer: Option A
Q86. How will electrons flow through a p-channel JFET?
A. from source to drain
B. from source to gate
C. from drain to gate
D. from drain to source
Answer: Option A
Q87. When VGS = 0 V, a JFET is:
A. Saturated
B. an analog device
C. an open switch
D. cut off
Answer: Option A
Q88. When applied input voltage varies the resistance of a channel, the result is called:
A. Saturization
B. Polarization
C. Cutoff
D. field effect
Answer: Option D
Q89. When the JFET is no longer able to control the current, this point is called the:
A. breakdown region
B. depletion region
C. saturation point
D. pinch-off region
Answer: Option A
Q90. With a JFET, a ratio of output current change against an input voltage change is called:
A. Transconductance
B. Siemens
C. Resistivity
D. Gain
Answer: Option A
Q91. The transconductance curve of a JFET is a graph of:
A. IS versus VDS
B. IC versus VCE
C. ID versus VGS
D. ID × RDS
Answer: Option C
Q92. The common-source JFET amplifier has:
A. a very high input impedance and a relatively low voltage gain
B. a high input impedance and a very high voltage gain
C. a high input impedance and a voltage gain less than 1
D. no voltage gain
Answer: Option A
Q93. Which component is considered to be an "OFF" device?
A. Transistor
B. JFET
C. D-MOSFET
D. E-MOSFET
Answer: Option D
Q94. In an n-channel JFET, what will happen at the pinch-off voltage?
A. the value of VDS at which further increases in VDS will cause no further increase in ID
B. the value of VGS at which further decreases in VGS will cause no further increases in ID
C. the value of VDG at which further decreases in VDG will cause no further increases in ID
D. the value of VDS at which further increases in VGS will cause no further increases in ID
Answer: Option A
Q95. The transconductance of FET depends upon
A. Drain supply
B. The type of FET
C. Gate to source voltage
D. Gate current
Answer: Option C
Q96. The voltage gain of casade amplifier using FET is
A. Product of two voltage gains
B. Equal to C.D amplifier
C. Almost equal to C.S amplifier
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Q97. A FET is a...........controlled device whereas a bipolar transistor is a............controlled device.
A. Current, voltage
B. Drain, gate
C. Gate, drain
D. Voltage, current
Answer: Option D
Q98. In FET the drain voltage above which there is no increase in the drain current is called........ voltage
A. Critical
B. Pinch off
C. Breakdown
D. Pick off
Answer: Option B
Q99. FET acts as constant current source in
A. Ohmic region
B. Breakdown region
C. Pinch off region
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option A
Q100. The gate input current of a FET is of the order of
A. Amperes
B. Microamperes
C. Miliamperes
D. Hundreds of nano amperes
Answer: Option D
Q101. Which of the following is the common features between FETs and bipolars?
A. Difficult to bias
B. Low voltage gain
C. Low input impedance
D. Current controlled devices
Answer: Option D
Q102. In the ohmic region, the FET can be used as
A. Voltage variable capacitor
B. Voltage variable inductor
C. Voltage variable resistor
D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
Q103. The drain of FET is analogous to......... of BJT
A. Emitter
B. Base
C. Collector
D. Substrate
Answer: Option C
Q104. FETs are preferred to BJTs at high frequencies because they are
A. Less noisy
B. Capable of handling highest frequencies
C. Easy to fabricate
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Q105. In P-channel FET the current is due to
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Both holes and electrons
D. Either holes or electrons
Answer: Option B
Q106. In a FET
A. The channel is lightly doped and gate is heavily doped
B. The channel is lightly doped and gate is lightly doped
C. The channel is heavily doped and gate is lightly doped
D. The channel is heavily doped and gate is heavily doped
Answer: Option A
Q107. In a FET
A. One junction has reverse bias on one side and forward bias on the other
B. Both the junctions are reverse biased
C. One junction has reverse bias on both sides of the junction
D. One junction is reverse biased and the other forward biased
Answer: Option C
Q108. A FET
A. Depends on the variation of a magnetic field for its operation
B. Has three P-N junctions
C. Depends on the variation of the depletion layer width with reverse voltage, for its
operation
D. Has two P-N junctions
Answer: Option A
Q110. n-channel FETs are superior to p-channel FETs because
B. Forward transconductance
C. Temperature factor
D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
UNIT- V :
Fabrication of IC Integrated circuit fabrication process : oxidation,
diffusion, ion implantation, photolithography, etching, chemical vapor
deposition, sputtering, twin-tub CMOS process. sheet resistance, design of
resistors
b) Wet etching
c) Plasma etching
d) Chemical etching
Answer: c
Q7. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) X-ray and Electron beam lithography technique, produce device dimensions down to
submicron range.
b) Ultraviolet lithography has limitation due to diffraction effects of wavelength.
c) The cost of X-ray or Electron beam is less compared to Ultraviolet photolithography.
d) The exposure time is less in Ultraviolet compared to X-ray or Electron beam lithography.
Answer: c
Q8. For photographic purpose usually coordinatograph is preferred for artwork because,
a) It is a precision drafting machine
b) Cutting head can be positioned accurately
c) It can be moved along two perpendicular axes
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Q9. Which of the following is added as an impurity to p-type material in diffusion process?
a) Phosphorous pentaoxide (P2O5)
b) Phosphorous oxychloride (POcl3)
c) Boron oxide (B2O3)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Q10. In the fabrication of monolithic ICs, Boron chloride is added as an impurity in the diffusion
process. Find the diffusion time, if the furnace is heated up to 1200oc.
a) 1 hour
b) 2 hours
c) 45 minutes
d) 30 minutes
Answer: b
Q11. Which component is not used as an impurity in diffusion process?
a) Phosphorous
b) Boron chloride
c) Phosphorous pentaoxide
d) Boron oxide
Answer: a
Q12. In ion implantation method, penetrating the ions into the silicon wafer depends upon
a) Accelerating voltage
b) Accelerating speed
c) Accelerating current
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Q13. What is the advantage of using Ion implantation process?
a) Lateral spreading is more
b) Performed at high temperature
c) Beam current controlled from outside
d) Performed at low temperature
Answer: c
Q14. The major disadvantage of PN-junction isolation technique is:
a) Formation of Parasitic Resistance
b) Formation of Parasitic Capacitance
c) Formation of Isolation island
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Q15. Which isolation technique is used in applications like military and aeroscope?
a) Thin film isolation
b) PN-junction isolation
c) Barrier isolation
d) Dielectric isolation
Answer: d
Q16. Pick out the incorrect statement Aluminium is usually used for metallization of most IC as it
offers
a) Relatively a good conductor
b) High resistance
Answer: c
Q22. What will be the next step after slicing (process) silicon wafers?
a) All of the mentioned
b) Lapping
c) Polishing
d) Chemical
Answer: a
Q23. During ion implantation process (before the ion strike the wafer) the accelerated ions are passed
through
a) Strong Electric field
b) Strong Magnetic field
c) Strong Electric and Magnetic Field
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Q24. In which method shallow penetration of dopants is possible?
a) Ion implantation
b) Vertical diffusion
c) Horizontal diffusion
d) Dopants diffusion
Answer: a
Q25. Which method is most suitable for silicon crystal growth in silicon wafer preparation?
a) Float zone process
b) Bridgeman-Stockbarger method
c) Czochralski crystal growth process
d) Laser heated pedestal growth
Answer: c
Q26. Which is the most striking feature in monolithic integrated circuit transistor?
a) Collector contact is present at the bottom of IC
b) Collector contact is present at the top of IC
c) Collector contact is absent
d) Collector contact is present on one of the sides of IC
Answer: b
Q27. Why monolithic IC transistor is preferred over discrete planar epitaxial transistor?
a) Due to structural difference
b) Increase in VCE (sat) and collector series resistor
c) Improvement in circuit performance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Q28. Name the process that is used to overcome the increase in collector series resistance, which occurs
due to the presence of collector contact at the top of integrated transistor.
a) Buried n+ layer
b) Buried p+ layer
c) Triple diffused layer
d) Buried epitaxial layer
Answer: a
Q29. What is the reason for using Lateral pnp transistor in Integrated Circuits?
a) Requires simple process control
b) Simultaneous fabrication of pnp and npn transistors
c) Provide good isolation
d) Miniaturization and cost reduction
Answer: b
Q30. Which of the following transistor has the limitation, due to the requirement of additional
fabrication steps and design consideration?
a) Vertical pnp transistor
b) Lateral pnp transistor
c) Triple diffused pnp transistor
d) Substrate pnp transistor
Answer: c
Q31. The ‘buried layer’ reduces collector series resistance by providing,
a) A low resistivity current path from n-type layer to n+ contact layer
b) A low resistivity current path from p-type layer to n+ contact layer
c) A high resistivity current path from n-type layer to n+ contact layer
d) A high resistivity current path from p-type layer to n+ contact layer
Answer: a
Q32. At what potential, the substrate of a vertical pnp transistor should be kept to attain good isolation?
a) Same potential
b) Positive potential
c) Different potential
d) Negative potential
Answer: d
Q33. Which method is used in the fabrication of pnp transistor?
a) Vertical substrate pnp
b) Triple diffused pnp
c) Lateral pnp
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Q34. State the correct reason for neglecting pnp transistor.
a) Increase in the series collector resistance of pnp transistor
b) Parasitic capacitance appears between collector and substrate
c) Current gain of pnp transistor is as low as 1.5 to 30
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Q35. The diffusion of collector impurities in npn transistor should be small because,
a) No additional diffusion or masking steps required
b) Bandwidth is controlled by lateral diffusion of p-type impurity
c) Collector need not be kept at negative potential
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Q36. The advantage of Multi-emitter transistor is
a) To reduce fabrication steps
b) To save chip area
c) To lower design consideration
d) To provide linear output
Answer: b
Q37. Which transistor is best suitable to achieve very fast switching in digital circuits?
a) Lateral pnp transistor
b) Schottky transistor
c) Multi-emitter transistor
d) NPN transistor
Answer: b
Q38. Choose the appropriate value of diode to get a speedy diode from the given values of storage time
(n) in sec and forward voltage (V γ).
a) n = 56 , V γ = 0.96
b) n = 100 , V γ = 0.92
c) n = 9 , V γ = 0.85
d) n = 53 , V γ = 0.95
Answer: c
Q39. The number of leads in schottky barrier diode are
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) Six
Answer: c
Q40. In Schottky barrier diode, which contact has similar characteristics to that of an ordinary PN
diode?
a) Ohmic contact
b) Schottky barrier contact
c) Both ohmic and Schottky barrier contact
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Q41. The number of square contained in the integrated resistor by diffused resistor method depend on
ratio of
a) ρ/t
b) ρ×L/W
c) W/L×t
d) L/W
Answer: d
Q42. How the ohmic contact is formed in metal semiconductor diode? (AL-Aluminium)
a) n+ diffusion in p-region near AL lead
b) p+ diffusion in p-region near AL lead
c) n+ diffusion in n-region near AL lead
d) p+ diffusion in n-region near AL lead
Answer: c
Q43. The flow of current in Schottky barrier diode is due to
a) Majority and Minority carriers
b) Majority carriers
c) Minority carriers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Q44. Find the application areas, where Schottky diode can be used?
a) Radio frequency
b) Power rectifier
c) Clamping diode
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Q45. Which of the following resistor is not used as an integrated resistor?
a) Poly gate resistor
b) Pinched resistor
c) Epitaxial resistor
d) Thin film resistor
Answer: a
Q46. Which of the following is not true about diffused resistor?
a) Limitation due to small range of resistance
b) Resistance depends upon surface geometry
c) Resistance depends on diffusion characteristic of material
d) Diffused resistors are non-economical
Answer: d
Q47. Determine the formula for sheet resistance (Rs).
a) R×L×W
b) R×(L×ρ)/W
c) R×(W/L)
d) R×(W×ρ)/L
Answer: c
Q48. Consider a 52cm×52cm material of uniform resistivity 100Ωm and thickness 3cm. Find the area
and resistance of this sheet of material.
a) 16 m2, 1.923 Ω/square
b) 8112 cm2, 1.733 Ω/square
c) 156 cm2, 33.33 Ω/square
d) 901 cm2, 3.333 Ω/square
Answer: c
Q49. If a 25Ω diffused resistor is to be designed for an emitter resistor, determine the pattern in which
it is fabricated?
a) 20mil long by 5mil wide
b) 25mil long by 1mil wide
c) 5mil long by 1mil wide
d) 16mil long by 4mil wide
Answer: b
Q50. When increasing the size of Resistor & Capacitor inside IC then it will ______________ the size
of integrated circuit.
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. No effect
d. The statement is incorrect
Answer: b
Q51. Due to the multiple components inside ICs, the separation between components are minimum.
A. True
B False
Answer: True
Q52. The purpose of introducing microelectronics is to reduce size of instruments upto ____________.
a. 5 times
b. 2 times
c. 1 time
d. 10 times
Answer: d
Q53. In the modern age, the integrated circuit is the best replacement of transistor.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q59. The size of Integrated Circuit (IC) is ________ than any individual component of Electronics.
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. Equal
d. all are incorrect
Answer: a
Q60. The biggest failure of ICs is to pass / operate limited value of current.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q61. In the SSI Chip, _________ number of components consists.
a. Less than 5
b. Less than 30
c. Less than 55
d. Less than 12
Answer: d
Q62. An insulating Semiconductor area on which IC is made called ___________.
a. Substrate
b. Interpose
c. Interconnection
d. Substitute
Answer: a
Q63. The meaning of Monolithik is Mono means “One” and Lithik means “Stone”.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q64. Components in the silicon chip of Integrated circuits are separated by Isolation diffusion.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q65. The inputs of Linear or Analog Integrated Circuits (LIC) is ___________ to the Outputs.
a. Directly Proportional
b. Indirectly Proportional
Answer: a
Q66. The symbol of IC is a shape of Triangle or Rectangle.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q67. The normal size of any integrated circuit is __________________.
a. 0.2mm × 0.2mm × 0.001mm
b. 0.1mm × 0.4mm × 0.001mm
c. 0.4mm × 0.8mm × 0.01mm
d. 0.7mm × 0.9mm × 0.1mm
Answer: a
Q68. The connection inside the ICs are made by soldering process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: False
Q69. ____________ components are not included in any IC.
a. Coil
b. Inductor
c. Capacitor
d. a & b are correct
Answer: d
Q70. ICs can control the limited value of power.
A. True
B. False
Answer: False
Q71. The smallest part any Silicon wafer on which IC is manufactured called _____________.
a. Chip
b. SMD
c. THT
d. All are correct
Answer: a
Q72. Epitaxial growth is a process used to grow a thin crystalline layer on a substrate.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q73. A _________ integrated circuit (IC) is a set/group of circuits manufactured in a single piece of
silicon chip.
a. Monolithic
b. Bipolar
Answer: b
Q74. _________ methods are used for the fabrication of Thin Film ICs.
a. Vacuum Evaporation
b. Cathode Sputtering
c. Infrared Suppression
d. a & b are correct
Answer: d
Q75. Silk Printing Method is used to fabricate Resistors, Capacitors and Conductors on Ceramic
Substrate of Thick Film ICs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q76. A Monolithic IC and __________ are manufactured basically through the same process..
a. Bipolar Transistor
b. Amplifier Circuit
c. MOSFET
d. All are correct
Answer: d
Q77. The layer of Silicon dioxide (SiO2) is used to isolate the components from each other inside IC.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q78. The alternative name of Chip is ____________.
a. Substrate
b. Interpose
c. Dice
d. a & b are correct
Answer: c
Q79. Thick Film and Thin Film ICs are fabricated by Insulating Substrate rather than Silicon Wafer .
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q80. Thick film and thin film ICs are fabricated by Insulating substrate which is made of ___________
material.
a. Glass
b. Fiber
c. Ceramic
d. a & c are correct
Answer: d
Q81. The small layer of Nichrome / Tantalum is used on substrate for making any resistor on Thin film
ICs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q82. ___________ are used in Thick & Thin Film ICs, as individual components from outside.
a. Active Elements
b. Transistor
c. Diode
d. All are correct
Answer: b
Q83. The benefit of film IC is high frequency response rather than Monolithic ICs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q84. Monolithic Technic is the most suitable method for fabrication of ____________ ICs.
a. Analog
b. Linear
c. Digital
d. Thin Film
Answer: c
Q85. Hybrid or Multichip ICs are fabricated by connecting multiple chips or connecting of Film or
Monlithik.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q86. According to the function, ICs are divided into ___________ types.
a. Linear
b. Digital
c. Analog
d. a & b are correct
Answer: d
Q87. Digital ICs are mostly used in Computers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q88. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC
a. Transistors
b. Diodes
c. Resistors
d. Large inductors and transformers
Answer : 4
Q89. The Input or Output voltages are limited upto two levels (Low or High) of ___________ ICs.
a. Analog
b. Digital
c. Linear
d. Non-Linear
Answer: b
Q90. Digital Circuits are also called __________________.
a. Switching
b. Counters
c. Timers
d. Coders
Answer: a
Q91. In the Digital ICs, Logic circuits (AND, OR, NOT, NAND, NOR or EX-OR) are used.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q92. ___________ components are fabricated on a single chip of ICs.
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Inductor
d. a & b are correct
Answer: d
Q93. It is difficult or costly to repair the ICs rather than replace.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q94. Anyone junction of transistor can be used to make any _________ in ICs.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Diode
d. Inductor
Answer: d
Q95. IC Operational Amplifier consists of two inputs and one output.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q96. The huge benefit of IC is _____________ .
a. Easily Change
b. Less Cost
c. Easy Fabrication
d. More Reliable
Answer: d
Q97. Integrated Circuit is fabricated on Silicon Chip .
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q98. ___________ is a process by which the components of IC’s are interconnected by aluminium
conductor.
a. Metallization
b. Sputtering
c. Switching
d. a & b are correct
Answer: a
Q99. In the Monolithic ICs, all the components are fabricated by the Diffusion process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: True
Q100. Monolithic ICs are fabricated inside ___________ layer.
a. Tantalum
b. Silicon
c. Germanium
d. a & c are correct
Answer: a