• Test ID : 948 • FST : 48

DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 26-Mar.-2025 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : FULL SYLLABUS
Chemistry : FULL SYLLABUS
Biology : FULL SYLLABUS

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

INSTRUCTION

• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

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NLI / 2
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

1. ,d xz g (P) lw; Z (S) dks ,d Qksdl ij j[kdj 1. A planet (P) is moving in elliptical path with sun
nh?kZ o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij ?kwe jgk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k (S) at one of the foci as shown below. If the time
x;k gSA ;fn xzg }kjk DAB ds lkFk pyus esa fy;k taken by the planet to move along DAB is T1 and
x;k le; T1 gS vkSj BCD ds lkFk pyus esa fy;k x;k along BCD is T 2, then which of the following
le; T2 gS] rks fuEu esa ls dkSu lk laca/k lgh gS\ relation is correct?

(1) T1 = T2
(1) T1 = T2

(2) T1 > T2 (2) T1 > T2

(3) T1 < T2 (3) T1 < T2

(4) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk (4) Cannot be determined

2. ,d ljy yksyd dk vkorZ dky T gSA xksyd dk 2. The time period of a simple pendulum is T. The
æO;eku nksxquk dj fn;k tkrk gS ] rFkk yEckbZ pkj mass of the bob is doubled, and the length is made
four times. The new time period of simple
xquh dj nh tkrh gSA ljy yksyd dk u;k vkorZdky
pendulum will be:
gks x k
(1) 2T
(1) 2T

(2) (2) 2 2T
2 2T
(3) 4T (3) 4T

(4) 3T (4) 3T

3. ,d xsan dks fdlh Å¡pkbZ ls Q'kZ ij fxjk;k tkrk gSA 3. A ball is dropped on a floor from some height. After
Q'kZ ls Vdjkus ds ckn] xsan viuh vkjafHkd Å¡pkbZ ds collision with the floor, the ball reaches 75% of its
75% rd igq¡p tkrh gSA VDdj ds fy, çR;ku;u initial height. The coefficient of restitution for the
xq .kka d gS % collision is;

3 3
(1) (1)
4 4

1 1
(2) (2)
4 4

3 3
(3) (3)
2 2

1 1
(4) (4)
2 2

NLI / 3
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

5 5
4. ,d xSl dks ij ftlds fy, #)ks"e lwpdkad 
3
4. A gas for which adiabatic index  
3
is heated at

gS] fLFkj nkc ij xje fd;k tkrk gS A dqy Å"ek dk constant pressure. The percentage of total heat
given that will be used for external work is;
çfr'kr tks ckgjh dk;Z ds fy, mi;ksx fd;k tk,xk]
og gS% (1) 40%
(1) 40% (2) 30%
(2) 30%
(3) 60%
(3) 60%
(4) 20% (4) 20%

5.  Hkq tk okyh ,d oxkZ dkj IysV dk çfr bdkbZ {ks=Qy 5. A square plate of side  has mass per unit area .
 æO;eku gSA blds dsaæ ls xqtjus okyh rFkk blds Find its moment of inertia about an axis passing
ry ds yacor v{k ds ifjr% bldk tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ Kkr through the centre and perpendicular to its
dhft,A plane.

 4  4
(1) (1)
12 12

 4  4
(2) (2)
6 6

 4  4
(3) (3)
3 3

 4  4
(4) (4)
2 2

6. leku ruko ds varxZ r nks leku rkjksa dh ewy vko`fÙk 6. Two identical wires under the same tension have
600 Hz gSA fdlh ,d rkj ds ruko esa çfr'kr o`f) fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. Find the
percentage increase in tension of any one wire so
Kkr dhft, rkfd nksuksa rkjksa dk mi;ksx djds 3 Hz that a beat frequency of 3 Hz can be obtained using
dh foLian vko` fÙk çkIr dh tk ldsA the two wires.
(1) 1% (1) 1%

(2) 2% (2) 2%
(3) 3% (3) 3%
(4) 4% (4) 4%
7. 5 kg æO;eku dk ,d Cy‚d ,d fLFkj >q dko okys ry 7. A block of mass 5 kg is moving downwards with a
ij 2 m/s ds fLFkj osx ls uhps dh vksj xfr dj jgk constant velocity of 2 m/s on a fixed inclined plane
gS tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA Cy‚d ij dk;Z as shown in figure. The net force acting on block
will be, (Take g = 10 m/s2)
djus okyk ifj.kkeh cy gksxk] ¼g = 10 m/s2½

(1) 50 cos 30o N (2) 50 sin 30o N (1) 50 cos 30o N (2) 50 sin 30o N

(3) 50 N (4) 'kwU; (3) 50 N (4) Zero

NLI / 4
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
8. fdlh fo'ks"k ç.kkyh esa] ;fn 1C vkos'k ls lac) fo|q r 8. In a particular system, if number of electric field
{ks= js[kkvksa dh la[;k 1010 gS ] rks nh xbZ can lrg ls lines associated with 1C charge is 1010, then the
xqtjus okyh fo|qr {ks= js[kkvksa dh dqy la[;k gS% net number of electric field lines passing through
the given closed surface is:

(1) 50000
(1) 50000
(2) 30000
(2) 30000
(3) 80000 (3) 80000
(4) 0 (4) 0
9. ,d d.k viuh vkSlr fLFkfr ds ckjs esa x&v{k ds lkFk 9. A particle is executing SHM along x-axis about its
SHM fu"ikfnr dj jgk gSA nksyu dh dks.kh; vko`fÙk mean position. The angular frequency of oscillation
1 rad/s gSA vkSlr fLFkfr ls foLFkkiu x ds lkFk d.k is 1 rad/s. The variation of velocity v of particle
ds osx v esa ifjorZu dks lcls vPNs rjhds ls n'kkZ;k with displacement x from mean position is best
tkrk gS% represented as;

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

10. fuEu rF;ksa ij fopkj djsa & 10. Consider the following statements :
dFku - I % fo|q r pqE cdh; rja x ks a eas fo|q r rFkk Statement - I : In a electro magnetic waves the
pq E cdh; ?kVd ,d nwljs ds yEcor vkSj foijhr electric and magnetic fields component are
perpendicular to each other and opposite in phase.
dykk esa gksrs gSaA
Statement - II : The dot product of two vectors are
dFku - II % nks osDVjksa dk vfn'k xq .ku Øe fofues; communative but cross product of them are not
gksrk gS ijUrq mudk lfn'k xq .ku Øe fofues; ugha communative. How ever both follows the law of
gksrk gS] gk¡ nksuksa forj.k ds fu;e dk ikyu djrs gSaA distribution.
dFku - III % pqEcdh; {ks= dk L=ksr ,d lfn'k rRo Statement - III : The source of magnetic field is a


idl gSA vector element idl .

(1) I, II vkSj III lHkh lR; gSaA (1) All I, II and III are correct.
(2) dsoy I vlR; gSA (2) Only I is incorrect.
(3) I vkSj III lR; gS (3) I and III are correct.
(4) I lR; gS ysfdu II vkSj III vlR; gSA (4) I is correct but II and III are incorrect.
NLI / 5
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
11. ,d fiaM ,dleku dks.kh; Roj.k ds lkFk ?kwe jgk gS 11. A body is rotating with uniform angular acceleration
vkSj fojkekoLFkk ls 'kq : gksus ds ckn igys 8 s esa covers 200 radian in the first 8 s after it starts from
200 jsfM;u ?kwe rk gSA 8 s ds var esa bldh dks.kh; rest. Its angular speed at the end of 8 s (in radian/
xfr ¼jsfM;u@feuV esa½ gS% min) is;
(1) 3000 (1) 3000

(2) 3000  (2) 3000 

(3) 50 (3) 50

(4) 50  (4) 50 

12. rhu Cy‚d A, B vkSj C nks fLçax vkSj ,d fLVªax dh 12. Three blocks A, B and C are connected by the help
enn ls tqM+s gq , gSa tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA of two springs and a string as shown in figure.
çkjaHk esa flLVe fLFkj gSA fLVªax ds dV tkus ds rqjar Initially system is at rest. What is the acceleration
of block B immediately after the string is cut?
ckn Cy‚d B dk Roj.k D;k gS\

g g
(1) Åij dh vksj (1) upward
2 2
(2) g Åij dh vksj (2) g upward
g g
(3) uhps dh vksj (3) downward
2 2
(4) 'kwU; (4) zero
13. ,d laj{kh {ks= esa] ;fn fLFkfr x ds Qyu ds :i esa 13. In a conservative field, if the potential energy U as
fLFkfrt ÅtkZ U dks U = x3 + 2x + 3, ds :i esa fn;k a function of position x is given as U = x3 + 2x + 3,
then the corresponding conservative force is given
x;k gS] rks laxr laj{kh cy fuEu çdkj fn;k tkrk gS% by:
(1) 3x2 + 2 (1) 3x2 + 2

(2) 3x2 – 2 (2) 3x2 – 2

(3) –3x2 – 2 (3) –3x2 – 2

(4) 4x2 + 2 (4) 4x2 + 2

NLI / 6
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
14. fLFkj rkieku ij fLFkj oksY Vst dks fLFkj yackbZ ds 14. A constant voltage at fixed temperature is applied
pkyd rkj ij yxk;k tkrk gSA bysDVª‚uksa dk viokg across a conducting wire of constant length. How
osx Vd rkj ds vuqçLFk dkV A ds {ks=Qy ij fdl does the drift velocity Vd of electrons depends on
the area of cross-section A of wire?
çdkj fuHkZ j djrk gS\
(1) Vd  A (1) Vd  A

(2) Vd  A o (2) Vd  A o

(3) Vd  A 2 (3) Vd  A 2

1 1
(4) Vd  A 2 (4) Vd  A 2

15. ,d nks"kiw.kZ FkekZehVj ikuh ds xyukad vkSj DoFkukad 15. A faulty thermometer reads the melting point and
dks Øe'k% –1oC vkSj 104oC ds :i esa i<+rk gS A ml boiling point of water as –1 o C and 104 o C
FkekZ ehVj dk mi;ksx djds oLrq dk rkieku 40oC respectively. The temperature of the object is
ekik tkrk gSA oLrq dk okLrfod rkieku gS% measured as 40oC using that thermometer. The true
temperature of the object is:
(1) 42oC
(1) 42oC
(2) 39oC
(2) 39oC
(3) 81oC
(3) 81oC
(4) 21oC (4) 21oC
16. rhu vkn'kZ fLçaxksa ds cy fLFkjkad 3 : 2 : 1 ds vuqikr 16. Force constants of three ideal springs are in the
esa gSaA mUgsa vyx&vyx leku yackbZ ls [khapk tkrk ratio 3 : 2 : 1. They are stretched by the same lengths
gSA ;fn igyh fLçax esa laxzfgr fLFkfrt ÅtkZ 10 J gS ] separately. If the potential energy stored in first
rks rhljh fLçax esa laxzfgr fLFkfrt ÅtkZ gS% spring is 10 J, then the potential energy stored in
the third spring is;
(1) 30 J
(1) 30 J
30
(2) J 30
3 (2) J
3
10
(3) J 10
3 (3) J
3
(4) 15 J (4) 15 J
17. ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds 3 eksy ds fy, vk;ru vs rkieku 17. Volume vs Temperature curve for 3 moles of an
oØ ,d lh/kh js[kk gS tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k ideal gas is a straight line as shown in figure. The
gSA B ij xSl dk ncko gS (R = 8.3 J/mol-k) pressure of gas at B is (Take R = 8.3 J/mol-k)

(1) 12.4 Pa (1) 12.4 Pa

(2) 33.2 Pa (2) 33.2 Pa
(3) 8.9 Pa (3) 8.9 Pa
(4) 18.6 Pa (4) 18.6 Pa

NLI / 7
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
18. ,d unh if'pe ls iwoZ dh vksj 10 m/min dh xfr 18. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of
ls cg jgh gSA unh ds mÙkjh fdukjs ij ,d O;fä] 10 m/min. A man on north bank of river, capable
tks fLFkj ty esa 20 m/min dh xfr ls rSjus esa l{ke of swimming at 20 m/min in still water wants to
gS] lcls NksVs jkLrs ls unh ikj djuk pkgrk gSA mls cross the river through the shortest path. In what
fdl fn'kk esa rSjuk pkfg,\ direction should he swim?

¼1½ mÙkj ls 30o if'pe (1) 30o West of north

¼2½ if'pe ls 30o mÙkj (2) 30o North of west
¼3½ nf{k.k ls 30o if'pe (3) 30o West of south
¼4½ if'pe ls 30o nf{k.k (4) 30o South of west
19. 1 m yackbZ dh ,d pkyd NM+ 6.28 mT ds ,dleku 19. A conducting rod of 1 m length is rotating inside a
pqacdh; {ks= ds vanj ,d fljs ds ifjr% ?kwe jgh gS] uniform magnetic field of 6.28 mT with a frequency
ftldh vko`fÙk 50 rev/s gS A pqacdh; {ks= ?kw.kZu ry of 50 rev/s about its one end. The magnetic field is
ds yacor gSA NM+ ds fljksa ds chp çsfjr emf dk perpendicular to the plane of rotation. The value
of induced emf between the ends of rod is;
eku gS%
(1) 1 V
(1) 1 V
(2) 2 V (2) 2 V

(3) 0.5 V (3) 0.5 V

(4) 0.25 V (4) 0.25 V

20. lw= p = (p 0 + a ) b+t esa a dh foek D;k gSA 20. What will be dimensions of a in the formula
p = (p 0 + a ) b+t here p = pressure
tgkW p= nkc t = le; vkSj x = nwjh gS:
t = time and x = distance:
(1) [ML1T 3 ]
(1) [ML1T 3 ]
1 2
(2) [ML T ]
(2) [ML1T 2 ]
1 4
(3) [ML T ]
(3) [ML1T 4 ]
(4) [M1L2 T 3 ]
(4) [M1L2 T3 ]

21. ,d dkj 100 ehVj f=T;k ds o`Rrkdkj ekxZ ij eq M+ 21. Find the maximum velocity for not skidding for a
jgh gSA ;fn lM+d rFkk Vk;j ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad car moved on a circular track of radius 100 m. The
0-2 gks rks dkj dk og vf/kdre osx fdruk gksxk coefficient of friction between the road and tyre
ftlls fcuk fQlys o` Rrkdkj ekxZ ij eqM+ lds: is 0.2:

(1) 0.14 m/s (2) 140m /s (1) 0.14 m/s (2) 140 m /s
(3) 1.4 m/s (4) 14.1 m/s (3) 1.4 m/s (4) 14.1 m/s
22. izDdFku : fu;r pky ls pyus ij Roj.k dk gksuk 22. Assertion: It is not possible to accelerate if
laHko ugha gSA travelling at a constant speed.
dkj.k : fdlh can iFk ij pyuk 'kwU; Roj.k ds lkFk Reason: It is not possible to round a curve with
laHko ugha gSA zero acceleration.
(1) ;fn izDdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lgh gS vkSj dkj.k (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
izDdFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k nsrk gSA reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) ;fn izDdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lgh gS fdUrq dkj.k (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
izDdFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha nsrk gSA not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) ;fn izDdFku lgh gS fdUrq dkj.k xyr gSA (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) ;fn izDdFku xyr vkSj dkj.k lgh gSA (4) It the assertion is false and reason true.

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
23. ,d fi.M dk osx tksfd ljy js[kk ij leku Roj.k 23. Velocity of a body moving along a straight line
'a' ls py jgk gS] tksfd t0 le; esa blds izkjfEHkd with uniform acceleration 'a' is reduced by 3/4 of
osx dk 3/4 de gks tkrk gS] fi.M dh xfr dk dqy its initial velocity in time t0. The total time of motion
le;] tc rd osx 'kwU; uk gks tk;sa% of a body till its velocity becomes zero is :
(1) 4/3 t0 (1) 4/3 t0
(2) 3/2 t0 (2) 3/2 t0
(3) 5/3 t0 (3) 5/3 t0
(4) 8/3 t0 (4) 8/3 t0
24. ,d :}ks"e izØe esa ,d xSl dk nkc ijerki dh 24. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas
r`rh; ?kkr ds vuqØekuq ikrh gSA xSl ds fy, CP/CV is found to be proportional to the cube of its
dk eku gksxk% absolute temperature. The ratio CP/CV for the gas
is :
(1) 4/3
(1) 4/3
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 5/3 (3) 5/3
(4) 3/2 (4) 3/2
25. 7 feuV eas ,d oLrq 600 ls 400 rd BaMh gksrh gSA 25. A body cools in 7 minutes from 600C to 400C. The
okrkoj.k dk rkieku 100C gSA vxys 7 feuV esa oLrq temperature of the surrounding is 10 0 C. The
temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes
dk rkieku gksxkA
will be:
(1) 340C
(1) 340C
(2) 280C
(2) 280C
0
(3) 32 C
(3) 320C
0
(4) 30 C (4) 300C
26. ,d fuf'pr cy yxkus ij ,d rkj 1 lseh- rd QSy 26. A wire extends by 1 cm when a certain force is
tkrk gSA leku inkFkZ vkSj yackbZ ] ysfdu fiNys rkj applied. Double the force is applied to another wire
dh vk/kh f=T;k ds nwljs rkj ij nksxq uk cy yxk;k of same material and length, but half the radius of
tkrk gSA nwljs rkj esa c<+h gq bZ yackbZ gksxhA previous one. The elongation produced in another
wire is:
(1) 8 mm
(1) 8 mm
(2) 0.08 cm
(2) 0.08 cm
(3) 0.08 m
(3) 0.08 m
(4) 0.8 m
(4) 0.8 m
27. fuEu ifjiFk dk 'kfDr xq.kkad gksxk% 27. The power factor of the circuit as shown in figure
is :

(1) 0.2
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.8 (3) 0.8
(4) 0.6 (4) 0.6
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
28. fuEukaf dr fp= es a ,d ifjiFk n'kkZ ; k x;k gS A 28. In the circuit given here, the batteries E = 4 V. The
ftlesa E = 4 V gSA la/kkfj= C ij foHkokUrj gS % potential difference across the capacitor C is :

(1) 2 V (1) 2 V

(2) 4 V (2) 4 V

(3) 12 V (3) 12 V

(4) 5 V (4) 5 V

29. dFku–I : fdlh yach ifjukfydk ls gksdj fxjus okys 29. Statement–I : Acceleration of a magnet falling
pqEcd dk ROkj.k de gks tkrk gS through a long solenoid decreases.

dFku–II : fdlh ifjiFk es mRiUu izfs jr /kkjk ges'kk Statement–II : The induced current produced in a
,slh fn'kk esa izokfgr gksrh gS fd ;g ml dkj.k esa circuit always flow in such direction that it opposes
ifjorZu dk fojks/k djrh gS ftlus bls mRiUu fd;k the change to the cause that produce it.
(1) dFku–I lR; gS] dFku–II lR; gSA dFku–II, dFku–I dh (1) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true;
lgh O;k[;k gSA Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I
(2) dFku–I lR; gS] dFku–II lR; gSA dFku–II, dFku–I dh (2) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true;
lgh O;k[;k ugh gSA Statemetn–II is NOT a correct explanation

(3) dFku–I lR; gS] dFku–II vlR; gSA (3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false

(4) dFku–I vlR; gS] dFku–II lR; gSA (4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true

30. ,d 0.01 C ds vkos'k dks mifLFkr fo|q r {ks= ds 30. 12 J of work to be done against an existing electric
fo:) A ls B ij ys tkus esa 12 J dk dk;Z fd;k tkrk field to take a charge of 0.01 C from A to B. Find
gS rks VB–VA dk eku gksxkA the potential difference VB–VA:

(1) 1.2  10 3 V (1) 1.2  10 3 V

(2) 2.4  103 V (2) 2.4  10 3 V

(3) 4.8  10 3 V (3) 4.8  103 V

(4) 0.6  10 3 V (4) 0.6  10 3 V

31. ,d LFkku ij E = (20iˆ  25j) ˆ oS|qr {ks= gS ;fn ewy 31. An electric field E = (20iˆ  25j)
ˆ exist in space. If
fcUnw ij foHko 'kwU; gks rc fcUnq ¼2 eh] 4 eh½ ij foHko the potential at the origin is zero , then the potential
gksx k % at point (2 m , 4m) is :

(1) 130 oksYV (1) 130 volt

(2) –130 oksYV (2) –130 volt

(3) 140 oksYV (3) 140 volt

(4) –140 oksYV (4) –140 volt

NLI / 10
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

32. /kkfjrh; iz f r?kkr rFkk vko` fr ds chp xzk Q dS l k 32. What is the nature of graph between capacitve
gksx k % reactance and frequency :
(1) lh/kh js[kk (1) Straight line
(2) ijoyn (2) Parabola
(3) ledks.kh; vfrijoy; (3) Rectangular hyperbola
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of these
33. ,d n.M pq Ecd ftlds pqE cdh; vk?kw.kZ dk eku 33. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of

gS] tks ifj.kke okys , is placed along the direction of

,d leku pq Ecdh; {ks= esa- {ks= dh fn'kk ds vuqfn'k uniform magneti c field of magnitude

j[kk gSA pqEcdh; {ks= dh fn'kk ls 600 rd] n.M . The work done in rotating the
magnet slowly through 600 from the direction of
pqEcd dks ?kqekus esa fd, x, dk;Z dk eku gSA
field is:
(1) 14 J
(1) 14 J
(2) 8.4 J
(2) 8.4 J
(3) 4 J (3) 4 J
(4) 1.4 J (4) 1.4 J
34. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u dhft;sA 34. Choose the correct statement among the following:
(1) fdlh inkFkZ dk izfrjks/k mlesa ls izokfgr /kkjk ls (1) Resistance of a material is independent of current
Lora= gksrk gSA passing through it.
(2) fdlh inkFkZ dk izfrjks/k] eqDr bysDVªkuksa ds ikfjr gksus (2) Resistance of a material is its tendency to oppose
dk fojks/k djus dh mldh izo`fRr gSA passing of free electrons
(3) izR;sd inkFkZ esa lkekU;r% izfrjks/k gksrk gSA (3) Every material generally has resistance
(4) ;s lHkhA (4) All of these

35. OR xsV dk lR; dFku p;fur dhft;s : 35. Identify the true statement of OR gate:
(1) output Y will be 1 when the input A or B or both are
(1) fuxZr Y, 1 gksxk] tc fuos'kh A vFkok B vFkok nksuks 1
1
gS (2) Output Y will be 0 when either of the inputs A and
(2) fuxZr Y , 0 gksxk tc A vFkok B nksuks es ls dksbZ ,d 1 B is 1
gS (3) Output Y will be 1 only when both the inputs A and
B are 1
(3) fuxZr Y ,1 gksxk tc dsoy nksuks fuos'kh A vkSj B 1 gS
(4) Output Y will 0 only when either of the inputs A
(4) fuxZr Y ,0 gksxk tc A vFkok B nksuks 1 gS and B is 1
36. vfHkdFku (A) % ,d lk/kkj.k lw{en'khZ ds fy,] oLrq 36. Assertion (A) : For a simple microscope, the angular
dk dks.kh; vkdkj Nfo ds dks.kh; vkdkj ds cjkcj size of the object equals the angular size of the
gksrk gSA image.
dkj.k (R) % vko/kZu blfy, iz kIr fd;k tk ldrk gS Reason (R) : Magnification is achieved as the small
D;ksafd NksVh oLrq dks 25 lseh ls dgha vf/kd ikl object can be kept much closer to the eye than
vka[k ds ikl j[kk tk ldrk gS vkSj blls ;g ,d 25 cm and hence it subtends a large angle.
cM+k dks.k cukrk gSA (1) A is true but R is false
(1) A lgh gS ysfdu R xyr gS (2) A is false but R is true
(2) A xyr gS ysfdu R lgh gS (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) A vkSj R nksuks lgh gSa vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k gS explanation of A
(4) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu R, A dh lgh O;k[;k ugha (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
gS explanation of A

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
37. fp=kuq lkj fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa ;fn PN laf/k Mk;ksM 37. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes D1, D2
and D3 are ideal then i is :-
D1, D2 rFkk D3 vkn'kZ gS rks /kkjk i dk eku gksxk %

(1) E/R (1) E/R

(2) E/2R (2) E/2R

(3) 2E/3R (3) 2E/3R
(4) 'kwU; (4) Zero

38. ;ax ds f} fLyV iz;ksx esa fÝat pkSM+kbZ 0.2 mm gSA 38. In a Young's double-slit experiment the fringe
width is 0.2 mm. If the wavelength of light used is
;fn iz;qDr izdk'k dh rjaxnSè;Z 10% ls c<+k nh tk;s
increased by 10% and the separation between the
,oa f>fjZ;ksa ds chp dh nwjh Hkh 10% ls c<+k nh tk;s slits is also increased by 10%, the fringe width will
rks fÝat pkSM+kbZ gks tk;sxhA be:

(1) 0.20 mm (1) 0.20 mm

(2) 0.401 mm (2) 0.401 mm
(3) 0.242 mm (3) 0.242 mm
(4) 0.165 mm (4) 0.165 mm

39. gkbMªkstu ijek.kq  rjaxnSè ;Z dk QksVkWu mRlftZr 39. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the
djds mRrsftr voLFkk ls ewy voLFkk es vk tkrk gSA groung state by emitting a photon of wavelength
;fn fjMoxZ fu;rakd R gks rc mRrsftr voLFkk dh . If R is the Rydberg constant, the principal
eq[; Dok.Ve la[;k n gSA quantum number n of the excited state is :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

40. buesa ls dkSu lk dFku tsuj Mk;ksM dh mfpr dk;Z 40. Which of the following statements is correct for
ds fy, lgh gS % proper working of zener diode?

(1) i'pfnf'kd ok;l foHko tsuj Hkatu foHko ls de ;k (1) Reverse bias voltage should be less than or equal
cjkcj gksuk pkfg,A to zener breakdown voltage

(2) i'pfnf'kd ok;l foHko tsuj Hkatu foHko ls t#j (2) Reverse bias voltage applied must be greater than
cM+k gksuk pkfg,A zener breakdown voltage.

(3) tsuj fØ;k ds fy, tsuj vxzfnf'kd ck;l gSA (3) Zener is to be forward biased for zener action

(4) fn, x, tsuj Mk;ksM ds fy, vyx&vyx tsuj Hkatu (4) For given zener diode there can be different zener
breakdown voltages
foHko gks ldrs gSaA
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
41. ,Y;q fefu;e ,oa lksus dk dk;Z Qyu Øe'k% 4.1 eV o 41. The work function of Aluminium and Gold are
5.1 eV gS A l ks u k rFkk , Y;q f ef u;e ds fy , 4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the
fujks /kh foHko rFkk vko`f Ùk ds chp iz o .krkvksa dk slope of the stopping potentital versus frequency
plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
vuqikr gS %
(1) 1.5 (1) 1.5

(2) 1.24 (2) 1.24

(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 2 (4) 2
42. gkbMªkt
s u ijek.kq dh ik¡poha mÙksftr voLFkk esa ,d 42. The ratio of the magnitude of the kinetic energy
bysDVªkWu dh xfrt ÅtkZ o fLFkfrt ÅtkZ ds ifjek.k to the potentital energy of an electron in the 5th
dk vuqikr gS% excited state of a hydrogen atom is :
(1) 4 (2) 1 (1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/4 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
0
43. vioZrukad 3 okys ,d fiz Te dk U;wure fopyu 3 43. The minimum deviation for a prism of refrective
gS ;fn bldks vioZrukad 1-5 okys ,d nzOk esa Mqcks index 3 is 60 what will be is minimum deviation it
is diped in a liquid of refractive index 1.5
fn;k tk, rks U;wure fopyu fdruk gksx kA
(1) 60 (2) 30 (1) 60 (2) 30

(3) 120 (4) 1.50 (3) 120 (4) 1.50

44. lwph I dks lwph II ls lq esfyr djas % 44. Match List I with List II :
List-I List-II
lwph-I lwph-II
(A) 3 Translational (I) Monoatomic gases
(A) 3 LFkkukar j.kh; (I) ,dijek.kq d xS l degrees of
Lora= r; dksfV freedom
(B) 3 LFkkukarj.kh;] (II) cgq ijek.kq d xS l sa (B) 3 Translational, 2 (II) Polyatomic gases
2 ?kw. khZ Lora= r; rotational degrees
of freedoms
dks f V (C) 3 Translational, 2 (III) Rigid diatomic
(C) 3 LFkkukarj.kh;] (III) n` <+ f}ijek.kqd xSlsa rotational and 1 gases
2 ?kw.khZ vkSj 1 daiu vibrational degrees
Lora= r; dksfV of freedom
(D) 3 LFkkukarj.kh;] (IV) xSj&dBksj f}ijek.kqd (D) 3 Translational, 3 (IV) Nonrigid diatomic
rotational and more gases
3 ?kw.khZ vkSj ,d ls xS l s a than one vibrational
vf/kd daiu Lora=r; degrees of freedom
dks f V Choose the correct answer from the options
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pq usaA given below :
(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) (2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) (3) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(4) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (II) (4) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
45. 2 m Å¡pkbZ okys ,d iwjh rjg ls Hkjs [kqys VSad ds ry 45. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is
ds ikl 2 mm2 vuqçLFk dkV {ks= Qy dk ,d NksVk present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank
Nsn ekStwn gSA g = 10 m/s2 ysrs gq,] [kqys Nsn ls ikuh of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow
ds çokg dh nj yxHkx gksx h% of water through the open hole would be nearly:
(1) 12.6 x 10–6 m 3/s (1) 12.6 x 10–6 m3/s
(2) 8.9 x 10–6 m3/s (2) 8.9 x 10–6 m3/s
(3) 2.23 x 10–6 m 3/s (3) 2.23 x 10–6 m3/s
(4) 6.4 x 10–6 m3/s (4) 6.4 x 10–6 m3/s

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

46. csUthu (P°= 200 Torr) rFkk VkywbZu (P° = 150 Torr) 46. Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase
iz R;sd ds 5 eksy ;qDr foy;u ds lkFk lkE;oLFkk is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P°=
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles
esa mifLFr ok’i voLFkk esa csUthu dk eksy izHkkst of each, is –
gks x kA (1) 0·57 (2) 0·25
(1) 0·57 (2) 0·25
(3) 0·60 (4) 0·40
(3) 0·60 (4) 0·40
47. fuEu tyh; foy;uksa dks muds c<+rs gq, DoFkukadksa 47. Arrange the following aqueous solutions in the
order of their increasing boiling points :-
ds Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft,A
(i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea
(i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea
(iii)10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–2 M NaCl (iii)10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–2 M NaCl

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) (1) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)

(2) (ii) < (i) = (iii) < (iv) (2) (ii) < (i) = (iii) < (iv)
(3) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) (3) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)
(4) (iv) < (iii) < (i) = (ii) (4) (iv) < (iii) < (i) = (ii)
48. ,d fo|q r vi?kV~ ; foy;u ds fy, fof”k’V pkydrk 48. For a electrolytic solution, specific conductance
9.2×10–2 ohm–1 m–1 gS] vr% 0.02M lkUærk okys foy;u is 9.2×10–2 ohm–1 m–1 then, calculate the value of
molar conductance for solution having 0.02M
ds fy, eksyj pkydrk dk eku Kkr dhft;sA concentration:
(1) 4.6 × 10–3 Sm2 mol–1 (1) 4.6 × 10–3 Sm2 mol–1
(2) 4.6 × 102 Sm2 mol–1 (2) 4.6 × 102 Sm2 mol–1
(3) 9.2 × 10–2 Sm 2 mol–1 (3) 9.2 × 10–2 Sm2 mol–1
(4) 4.6 × 10–5Sm2 mol–1 (4) 4.6 × 10–5Sm 2 mol–1

49. 49.

fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi lgh feyku dks iznf”kZ r Which of the following option shown correct
djrk gSA matches
(1) (a – r), (b – p), (c – q), (d – s) (1) (a – r), (b – p), (c – q), (d – s)
(2) (a – s), (b – p), (c – q), (d – r) (2) (a – s), (b – p), (c – q), (d – r)
(3) (a – r), (b – s), (c – q), (d – p) (3) (a – r), (b – s), (c – q), (d – p)
(4) (a – p), (b – s), (c – q), (d – r) (4) (a – p), (b – s), (c – q), (d – r)
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
50. lsy ds emf dh x.kuk djsa% 50. Calculate the emf of the cell :
Cr|Cr3+(0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe Cr|Cr3+(0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe
fn;k x;k : Given :
0
0
ECr3 /Cr  0.75V;EFe2  0.45V ECr 3 /Cr  0.75V;EFe2
\Fe
 0.45V
\Fe

ls y vfHkfØ;k : Cell reaction :

2Cr(s)+3Fe2+(aq.)  2Cr3+(aq)+3Fe(s) 2Cr(s)+3Fe2+(aq.)  2Cr3+(aq)+3Fe(s)

(1) 0.2606 V (1) 0.2606 V

(2) 0.5212 V (2) 0.5212 V

(3) 0.1303 V (3) 0.1303 V
(4) Zero (4) Zero

51. fuEufyf[kr ;kS fxd dk lgh IUPAC uke gS %& 51. The correct IUPAC name of the following
compound is:

¼1½ 1&czkes ks&1&,fFky&2&¶yksjks&2&vk;ksMks&1&ukbVªkbs Fksu

(1) 1-bromo-1-ethyl-2-floro-2-iodo-1-nitro ethane
¼2½ 3&czkseks&4&¶yksjks&4&vk;ksMks&3&ukbVªks C;wVsu
(2) 3-bromo-4-fluoro-4-iodo-3-nitro butane
¼3½ 2&czkseks&1&¶yksjks&1&vk;ksMks&2&ukbVªks C;wVsu (3) 2-bromo-1-fluoro-1-iodo-2-nitro butane
¼4½ 1&¶yksjks&1&vk;ksMks&2&czkseks&2&,fFky&2&ukbVªks bFksu (4) 1-fluoro-1-iodo-2-bromo-2-ethyl-2-nitro ethane

52- fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxd dh vEyh; 'kfä dk lgh Øe 52. Correct order of acidic strength of following
compound is :-
gS % &

(1) I > III > IV > II (1) I > III > IV > II

(2) II > I > IV > III (2) II > I > IV > III

(3) II > III > I > IV (3) II > III > I > IV

(4) IV > III > I > II (4) IV > III > I > II

53. fuEufyf[kr esa leku ca/k&dksfV okyh iz tkfr;ksa dh 53. The pair of species that has the same bond order
tksMh+ gS % in the followig is :

(1) CO, NO+ (1) CO, NO+

(2) NO–, CN– (2) NO–, CN–

(3) O2,N2 (3) O2, N2

(4) O2, B2 (4) O2, B2

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
54- 100 g foys; dks 1400 g foyk;d esa feykdj cuus 54. 100 g solute is dissolved in 1400 g of solvent.
okys foy;u dk ?kuRo 1-5 g/mL gSA foy;u dh Density of resultant solution is 1.5 g/mL. The ratio
eksyjrk o eksyyrk dk foy;u gksxkA of its molarity and molality will be :

(1) 1.5 (1) 1.5

(2) 1.3 (2) 1.3

(3) 1.4 (3) 1.4

(4) 1.2 (4) 1.2

55. The species, having bond angles of 1200 is :
55. 1200 ds cU/ dks.k okyh iztkfr gS %
(1) ClF3 (2) NCl3
(1) ClF3 (2) NCl3
(3) PH3 (4) BF3 (3) PH3 (4) BF3

56. Match the metal ions given in Column-I with the

56. dkWye-I esa fn, x, /kkrq vk;uksa dks dkWye -II esa fn,
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
x, vk;uks a ds pØ.k pq E cdh; vk?kw .kZ ds lkFk column-II and assign the correct code :
feyk,a vkSj lgh dksM fufnZ"V djsa %
Column-I Column-II
dkWy e-I dkWy e-II
A. Co+3 i. 8 B.M.
A. Co +3
i. 8 B.M.
B. Cr+3 ii. 35 B.M.
B. Cr +3
ii. 35 B.M.
C. Fe+3 iii. 15 B.M.
C. Fe+3 iii. 15 B.M.
D. Ni+2 iv. 24 B.M.
D. Ni+2 iv. 24 B.M.
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

57. 57.

vf/kdre g‚QeS u mRikn rc çkIr gks rk gS tc Maximum Hofmann’s product is obtained when
base is:–
{kkj gS&
(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) NaNH2 (3) NaNH2

(4) alc.KOH (4) alc.KOH

58. 2-Hexyne can be converted into trans-2-hexene
58- 2&gsfDlu dks Vªkal&2&gsfDlu esa ifjofrZr fd;k tk
by the action of :
ldrk gS] fuEufyf[kr fØ;k }kjk%
(1) H2–Pd–BaSO4
(1) H2–Pd–BaSO4
(2) Na in liq. NH3
(2) Na in liq. NH3
(3) H2/Ni (3) H2/Ni

(4) NaBH4 (4) NaBH4

NLI / 16
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
59. ROH + PCl3  RCl + A 59. ROH + PCl3  RCl + A

ROH + PCl5  RCl + B ROH + PCl5  RCl + B

;kSfxd B vkSj A Øe'k% gksxsa % Compounds B and A are respectively :

(1) SO2, HCl (1) SO2, HCl

(2) HCl, H3PO3 (2) HCl, H3PO3
(3) H3PO3, POCl3 (3) H3PO3, POCl3
(4) POCl3, H3PO3 (4) POCl3, H3PO3
60. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 60. Given below are two statements :
dFku I: Statement I:
LokV~ Z l dh vfHkfØ;k ls fÝ;kWu rS; kj fd;k tk Freons can be prepared by Swart’s reaction.
ldrk gSA
Statement II :
dFku II :
Finkeelstein’s reaction can be used to prepare
fQa d s Y LVkbu dh vfHkfØ;k dk mi;ks x ,fYdy alkyl flouorides (R–F).
Ýyksj kbM (R–F) rS ; kj djus ds fy, fd;k tk
ldrk gS % In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa below :
esa ls lokZ f/kd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, %
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

61. , B is:– 61. , B is:–

¼1½ C;wVsu (1) Butane

¼2½ 2]2MkbfeFkkbyC;wVsu (2) 2,2dimethylbutane
¼3½ 2]3MkbfeFkkbyC;wVsu (3) 2,3dimethylbutane

¼4½ gsDlsu (4) Hexane

62. fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u lk ys U Fks u kbM vk;u 62. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is
iz f rpq Ecdh; gS % diamagnetic :

(1) Eu+2 (1) Eu+2

(2) Yb+2 (2) Yb+2

(3) Ce+2 (3) Ce+2

(4) Sn+2 (4) Sn+2
63. ml laØe.k rRo dk uke crk, tks ifjorZu'khy 63. Name a transition element which does not exhibit
vkDlhdj.k voLFkk iz nf'kZ r ugh djrk gS A variable oxidation states :

(A) Sc (B) Cu (A) Sc (B) Cu

(C) Zn (C) Zn

(1) dsoy A (2) A dsoy B (1) Only A (2) A and B

(3) dsoy C (4) A vkSj C, nksuksa (3) Only C (4) A and C, Both

NLI / 17
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
64. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 64. Given below are two statements :

dFku I: Statement I:

,fMªuSfyu vkSj ,fQfMªu nks tSfod :i ls lfØ; noka, gSA Adrenaline & Ephidrine are two biologically active
tks jDr pki c<+krh gS vkSj blesa r`rh;d vehuksa lewg drugs, which increases blood pressure and contains
tertiary amino group.
gksrk gSA
Statement II :
dFku II :
Aniline cannot be synthesized by using Gabriel
xSfcz;y FkSykekbM vfHkfØ;k dk mi;ksx djds ,fufyu phthalimide reaction.
dks la'ysf"kr ugh fd;k tk ldrk gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa most appropriate answer from the options given
esa ls lokZ f/kd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, % below :

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

65. fuEufyf[kr milgla;kstu ;kSfxd [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl 65. Write the IUPAC name of the following
dk IUPAC uke gksxk % Co-ordination compounds [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl.
(1) isUVk,sehu dkcksZusVks dksckYV(III) DyksjkbM (1) Pentaammine carbonato cobalt (III) chloride
(2) isUVk,sehu dkcksZuV s ks dksckYVsV (III) DyksjkbM (2) Pentaamine carbonato cobaltate (III) chloride
(3) dkcksZuVs ks isUVk,sehu dksckYV(II) DyksjkbM (3) Carbonato pentaamine cobalt(II) chloride
(4) VªkbZ,sehu dkcksZusVks dksckYV(III)DyksjkbM (4) Triamine carbonato cobalt(III) chloride
66. dkSu lk ladq y ;kSfxd vf/d LFkk;h gksxk % 66. Which complex compound is most stable :
(1) [CoCl2(en)2]NO3 (1) [CoCl2(en)2]NO3
(2) [Co(NH3)6]2(SO4)3 (2) [Co(NH3)6]2(SO4)3
(3) [Co(NH3)4H2OBr](NO3)2 (3) [Co(NH3)4H2OBr](NO3)2
(4) [Co(NH3)3(NO3)3] (4) [Co(NH3)3(NO3)3]
67. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k esa dkcZu&dkcZu 67. In which of the following reaction, carbon-carbon
ca/k dk fuekZ.k ugh gksrk gSA bond formation does not occur :

(1) oqVZt vfHkfØ;k (1) Wurtz reaction

(2) ,YMksy la?kuu (2) Aldol condensation

(3) gSyksQkeZ vfHkfØ;k (3) Haloform reaction

(4) dksYcs dk fo|qr&vi?kVuh fodkcksZfDlyhdj.k (4) Kolbe’s electrolytic decarboxylation

68. 8 yhVj C2H2 dks tykus ds fy, vko';d yhVj 68. The Number of litres of air required to burn 8 litres
ok;q dh la[;k yxHkx gS % of C2H2 is approximately:
(1) 40 (1) 40
(2) 60 (2) 60

(3) 80 (3) 80

(4) 100 (4) 100

NLI / 18
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
69. leku vk;ru {kerk okys nks ÝykLd A vkSj B esa 69. Two Flasks A and B of equal capacity of volume
leku fLFkfr esa Øe'k% NH3 vkSj SO2 xSl gksrh gS contain NH3 and SO 2 gas respectively under
similar condition which flask has more number
fdl ÝykLd esa eksyksa dh la[;k vf/d gksrh gS % of moles.
(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) nksuks esa leku eksy gS A (3) Both have same moles
(4) dksbZ ugh (4) None
70. ;fn 9.9 eV H-ijek.kq dh ÅtkZ dh vkiwf rZ dh 70. If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H-atom the No of
tkrh gS A mRlftZ r o.kZ &Øeh; js[ kkvksa dh la[;k spectral lines emitted is equal to :
cjkcj gksrh gS:
(1) 0
(1) 0
(2) 1
(2) 1
(3) 2 (3) 2

(4) 3 (4) 3

71. ,d ijek.kq esa] DokaVe la[;kvks esa a bysDVªkuksa dh 71. In an atom, for how many electrons, the quantum
la[;k gksxh, n = 3, l = 2, m = +2, S = +1/2 numbers will be, n = 3, l = 2, m = +2, S = +1/2

(1) 18 (1) 18

(2) 6 (2) 6

(3) 24 (3) 24
(4) 1 (4) 1

72. ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds nks eksy fuokZ r esa Lor% QSyrs gSA 72. Two moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously
dk;Z gS % into vacuum. The work is :

(1) 'kwU; (1) Zero

(2) 2 J (2) 2 J
(3) 4 J (3) 4 J
(4) 8 J (4) 8 J
73. Å"ek fojpu dk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk eku 73. Which of the following value of Heat Formation
n'kkZ rk gS fd mRikn lcls de fLFkj gS % indicates that the product is least stable:

(1) –90 KCal (1) –90 KCal

(2) –231.6KCal (2) –231.6KCal

(3) +21.4 KCal (3) +21.4 KCal

(4) +64.8 KCal (4) +64.8 KCal
74. aA  bB + cC, H = –x KCal 74. aA  bB + cC, H = –x KCal

;fn mijks Dr vfHkfØ;k esa mRikn ds fuekZ .k ds If high pressure and low temperature are the
fy, mPp nkc vkSj de rkieku vuq dqy fLFkfr gS favourable condition for the formation of the
product in above Reaction, Hence:
rks %
(1) a > b + c
(1) a > b + c
(2) a < b + c
(2) a < b + c
(3) a = b + c (3) a = b + c
(4) None of these
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
75. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u djsa % 75. Choose the correct statements of the following :

i. Xywdkst HCN vkSj NaHSO3 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k i. Glucose reacts with HCN and NaHSO3.
djrk gSA
ii. Maltose and Lactose are reducing sugar.
ii. ekYVkst vkSj ySDVkst vipf;r 'kZ djk gSA
iii. Lactose is known as milk sugar.
iii. ySDVkst dks nqX/k 'kdZjk ds :i esa tkuk tkrk
gS A (1) Only i and ii are correct
(1) dsoy i vkSj ii lgh gSA (2) Only ii and iii are correct
(2) dsoy ii vkSj iii lgh gSA
(3) Only i and iii are correct
(3) dsoy i vkSj iii lgh gSA
(4) All are correct
(4) lHkh lgh gSA
76. The PH of 0.1 N solution of the following salts
76. fuEufyf[kr yo.kks a ds 0.1 N foy;u dk pH increases in order :
fuEufyf[kr Øe ls c<+rk gS %
(1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl (3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl

(4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN (4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
77- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk xz kQ 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k 77. Which of the following graph represents zero order
dks n'kkZrk gS\ reaction ?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) (4) None of these

78- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,jksesfVd gS\ 78. Which of the following aromitic?

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) All of these

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
79- fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxdksa esa ls ftls vklkuh ls futZfyr 79. Among the following compounds which can be
dehydrated very easily is–
fd;k tk ldrk gS] og gSA
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2OH
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2OH

(2)
(2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

80. Most reactive compound for electrophilic addition

80- bysD Vª k sf Qfyd ;ksx kRed vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lcls
reaction :
vf/kd çfrfØ;k'khy ;kS f xd %

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

81. The size of isoelectronic species F–, Ne, Na+ is

81. lebysDVªkW f ud iz t kfr;ksa F–, Ne, Na+ dk vkdkj
affected by :
iz H kkfor gksrk gS A
(1) Nuclear charge (Z)
(1) ukfHkdh; vkos'k (Z)
(2) Valence principal quantum number (n)
(2) la;ksth eq[; DokaVe la[;k (n)
(3) Electron-electron interaction in outer orbitals
(3) ckgjh d{kdksa esa bysDVªkWu&bysDVªkWu var%fØ;k
(4) None of the factors because their size is the same.
(4) dksbZ Hkh dkjd ugh D;ksfd mudk vkdkj leku gSA
82. Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Si the
82. rRoksa B, C, N, F vkSj Si ij fopkj djrs gq, muds
correct order of their non-metallic character is :
v/kfRod xq .k dk lgh Øe gS %
(1) B > C > Si > N > F
(1) B > C > Si > N > F
(2) Si > C > B > N > F (2) Si > C > B > N > F

(3) F > N > C > B > Si (3) F > N > C > B > Si

(4) F > N > C > Si > B (4) F > N > C > Si > B

83. fuEufyf[kr rRoks a dks iz Fke vk;uu ,UFkS Yih ds 83. Arrange the following elements in increasing
c<+rs gq, Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsa order of first ionization enthalpy :
Li, Be, B, C, N, O
Li, Be, B, C, N, O
Choose the correct answer from the options given
fups fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa %
below :
(1) Li < B < Be < C < N < O (1) Li < B < Be < C < N < O
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N (2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N
(3) Li < Be < B < C < O < N (3) Li < Be < B < C < O < N

(4) Li < Be < B < C < N < O (4) Li < Be < B < C < N < O

NLI / 21
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

84. IUPAC ds vuq lkj ijek.kq la[;k 109 okys rRoksa dks 84. According to IUPAC element with atomic number
bl iz dkj n'kkZ;k x;k gS % 109 represented as :

(1) Une (1) Une

(2) Uue (2) Uue
(3) Unh (3) Unh
(4) Unq (4) Unq
85. fyLV-I dks fyLV-II ls feyk,a : 85. Match List-I with List-II :
fyLV-I fyLV -II List-I List-II
(;kS f xd ) (vkdkj@T;kfefr ) (compound) (Shape/geometry)
A. NH3 i. eq M+k gqvk A. NH3 i. Bent
B. XeF4 ii. lh&lk B. XeF4 ii. See-saw
C. SF4 iii. oxZ leryh; C. SF4 iii. Square planer

D. H2O iv. f=kdks . kh; fijkfeMh; D. H2O iv. Trigonal pyramidal

fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pq usa % Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
86- fMdkcksZfDlys'ku ds fy, lcls vf/kd vfHkfØ;k'khy 86. Most reactive for decarboxylation is :-
gS % &
(1)
(1)

(2)
(2)

(3)
(3)

(4) (4)

87- fo|q r vi?kVî AxBy ds fy, fuEufyf[kr es a ls 87. For an electrolyte AxBy, which of the following is
in accordance with kohlraush law :-
dkSu&lk dksgyj‚'k fu;e ds vuq:i gS&


 y eq (1) x  eq  y  eq
(1) x eq A y B x
A y Bx



(2) x m  y m (2) x m  y m
A y B x A y Bx 

(3) (3)

(4)
(4)

NLI / 22
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
88- vfHkdFku% ty esa Na2SO4 vkSj Hg2I2 ds leku lkaærk 88. Assertion : Depression in freezing point for same
okys foy;uksa ds fgekad esa voueu leku gksrk gS ¼100% concentration solutions of Na2SO4 & Hg2I2 in the water
vk;uu ekurs gq,½ is same (Assuming 100% ionisation)

dkj.k% ty esa Hg2I2 bl çdkj fo?kfVr gksrk gS Reason : Hg 2 I 2 in water dissociates

as Hg2I2  2Hg  2I
 
Hg2I2  2Hg  2I
¼1½ vfHkdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu dkj.k vfHkdFku (1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason
dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

¼2½ vfHkdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dkj.k vfHkdFku (2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason
dh lgh O;k[;k gSA is correct explanation of the Assertion.

¼3½ vfHkdFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

¼4½ vfHkdFku vlR; gS ysfdu dkj.k lR; gSA (4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

89- fuEufyf[kr dk feyku djsa% & 89. Match the following :-

(a) (p) dksYcs bysDVªksfyfll (a) (p) Kolbe’s electrolysis

electrolysis
(b) CH3  COOK   (q) ukbVª's ku electrolysis
(b) CH3  COOK   (q) Nitration
(r) oqVZ~t vfHkfØ;k
Na
(c) CH3  Br 
Dryether

Na
(c) CH3  Br 
Dryether
 (r) Wurtz reaction

(d) (s) ÝkbMy Øk¶V

(d) (s) Friedal craft alkylation
,Ydsyhdj.k
(1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s (1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s
(2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s (2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s

(3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r (3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r

(4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s (4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

90. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % ,d dks dFku (A) vkSj 90. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
nwljs dks dkj.k (R) ds :i esa yscy fd;k x;k gS A as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason.
dFku (A) : :nzks"e eqDr izlkj ds nkSjku xSl dh vkUrfjd
ÅtkZ fLFkj jgrh gSA Assertion (A) :Internal energy of gas remain constant
during adiabatic free expansion.
dkj.k (R) : fd;k x;k dk;Z 'kwU; gS vkSj Å"ek ifjorZu
Reason (R) : Work done is zero and heat exchange
Hkh 'kwU; gSA
is zero.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa
In the light of the above statements, choose the
esa ls lcls mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u djsa % most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) dFku (A) vkSj dkj.k (R) nksuks lR; gS vkSj dkj.k (R)] below :
dFku (A) dh lgh O;k[;k ugh gSA (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) lgh ugha gS correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) lgh ugha gS ysfdu (R) lgh gS
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) dFku (A) vkSj dkj.k (R) nksuks lR; gS vkSj dkj.k (R)]
dFku (A) dh lgh O;k[;k gSA (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
NLI / 23
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

91. dkWdjksp ds fy, xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 91. Select the incorrect match for cockroach

(1) la;qDr vk¡[k & ,d tksM+h (1) Compound eye – one pair

(2) ,UVhuh & ,d tksM+h (2) Antennae – one pair

(3) ia[k & rhu tksM+h (3) Wings – three pair
(4) o`"k.k vkSj v.Mk'k; & ,d tksM+h vkSj ,d tksM+h (4) Testis and ovary – One pair and one pair

92. lewg dk p;u djsa ftlesa de ls de ,d lajpuk 92. Select the group in which at least one structure
vxz efLr"d] eè;efLr"d vkSj i'p efLr"d dk Hkkx are part of forebrain, midbrain and hind brain
gks (1) Corpus callosum, cerebral aqueduct, cerebellum
(1) dkiZl dSyksle] izefLr"d rjy ufydk] lsjhcsye (2) Hypothalamus, pons, cerebellum
(2) gkbiksFkSysel] iksUl] lsjhcsye (3) Thalamus, cerebellum, medulla
(3) FkSysel] lsjhcsye] esM~;wyk
(4) Cerebrum, thalamus, pons
(4) lsjhcze] FkSysel] iksUl
93. Select the incorrect match for frog
93. es<+d ds fy, xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
(1) Kidney – One pair
(1) o`Dd – ,d tksM+h
(2) Bidder canal – One pair
(2) fcMj uky – ,d tksM+h
(3) Villi and microvilli – Inner wall of
(3) foykbZ vkSj – xzkluyh dh vkUrfjd oesophagus
ekbØksfoykbZ fnokj (4) Cranial nerve and – Peripheral nervous
(4) dikyh; ul vkSj – ifj/kh; rfU=dk rU=
spinal nerves system
Likbuy ul
94. Select the correct match
94. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
A. Pinus – Pollen tube – Seed
A. ikbul & ijkx ufydk & cht
B. Dryopteris – Vascular tissue – Gymnosperm
B. Mªk;ksIVsfjl & laogu Ård & vuko`rchth
C. Mosses – Prevent soil erosion – Bryophytes
C. ekWl & e`nk vijnu dks jksdrk gS & czk;ksQkbV
D. Pyrenoids – Phaeophyceae – Protein and starch
D. ikbjhukW;M & fQ;ksQkblh & izksVhu vkSj LVkpZ
(1) Only A, B, C
(1) dsoy A, B, C
(2) Only A, C, D
(2) dsoy A, C, D
(3) Only A, B, D
(3) dsoy A, B, D
(4) A, C
(4) A, C
95. Given below are two statement :
95. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gS :
Statement - I : The Indian Government has set up
dFku -I- Hkkjr ljdkj us GEAC dks LFkkfir fd;k]
GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity
tksfd GM vuqla/kku lEcU/kh dk;ksZa dh oS/kkfudrk ds ckjs
of GM research.
esa fu.kZ; ysxhA
Statement -II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer to
dFku-II- ck;ksikbjslh dk 'kCn LFkkfud turk ds }kjk
lalk/ku ds mi;ksx ds fy, tkuk tkrk gSA the use of bio-resources by native people.

mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pq usa answer from the options given below :

(1) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
NLI / 24
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
96. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 96. Match List-I with List-II

lwph I lwph II List-I List-II

A. Genetically I. Gene therapy
A. vkuqoaf'kdh; I. thu fpfdRlk
engineered Human
vfHk;kaf=d
Insulin
ekuo balqfyu
B. GM Cotton II. E. coli
B. GM dikl bZ0 dksykbZ
II.
C. ADA Deficiency III. Antigen antibody
C. ADA dh deh III. izfrtu izfrjks/kh vUrfdZ;k
interaction
D. ELISA IV. cSlhyl Fkwjhuft,fUll D. ELISA IV. Bacillus thuringiensis
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
97. Bt dikl esa fo"k dh fØ;k esa fuEufyf[kr pj.k 97. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin
'kkfey gSa : in Bt Cotton :
A. fuf"Ø; fo"k dhV ds xV ds {kkjh; pH ds dkj.k A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due
lfØ; fo"k esa ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
B. cSflyl Fkwjhuft,fUll dhVuk'kd fo"k izksVhu ds B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with
fØLVy dk fuekZ.k djrh gSA toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. {kkjh; pH fØLVyksa dks ?kksyrh gSA C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. lfØ; fo"k feMxV dksf'kdkvksa ds lrg ls ca/k tkrh D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut
gS] fNnz dks cukrh gS vkSj dhV dh e`R;q dk dkj.k cells, creates pores and causes death of the
curh gSA insect.
E. thok.kq esa fo"k izksVhu vfØ;k'khy izksVkWfDlu ds :i E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in
esa gksrk gSA bacteria.
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh pj.kksa ds Øe dk p;u Choose the correct sequence of steps from the
djs a % options given below :
(1) E  C  B  A  D (1) E  C  B  A  D
(2) E  C  A  E  D (2) E  C  A  E  D
(3) A  E  B  D  C (3) A  E  B  D  C
(4) B  E  C  A  D (4) B  E  C  A  D
98. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u djsa? 98. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) ÅtkZ dh ek=k izFke iks"k.k Lrj ls prqFkZ iks"k.k Lrj (1) Energy content gradually decreases f rom
rd yxkrkj ?kVrh tkrh gSA first to fourth trophic level
(2) tSoek=k izFke iks"k.k Lrj ls prqFkZ iks"k.k Lrj rd ?kVrh (2) Biomass decreases from first to fourth
tkrh gSA trophic level
(3) ÅtkZ dh ek=k izFke iks"k.k Lrj ls prqFkZ iks"k.k Lrj (3) Energy content gradually increases f rom
rd yxkrkj c<+rh tkrh gSA first to fourth trophic level
(4) O;fDr;ksa dh la[;k izFke iks"k.k Lrj ls prqFkZ iks"k.k (4) Number of individuals decreases from first
Lrj rd c<+rh gSA trophic level to fourth trophic level

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
99. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gS : 99. Given below are two statements :

dFku -I- tc ,d tkWfr dh ;ksX;rk fdlh nwljs tkWfr dh Statement l: When the fitness of one species is signifi
mifLFkfr esas egRoiw.kZ :i ls ?kV tkrh gS] bl izØe dks cantly lower in the presence of another species, the

Li/kkZ dgrs gSaA process is defined as competition.

dFku-II- tc thfor ikniksa vFkok tUrqvksa ds lkFk dod Statement II: When fungi remain in association with

lEcU/k esa jgrk gS bUgsa e`rksithoh dgrs gSaA living plants or animals they are called saprophytes.

mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the

fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pq usa correct answer from the options given below:

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

100. lhfer lalk/ku ds lkFk ,d oklLFkku esa o`f) dj jgh 100. The population growing in a habitat with limited
tula[;k iznf'kZr djrh gSa : resources will show:

A. i'prk izkoLFkk] mlds ckn Roj.k dh izkoLFkk vkSj A. Lag phase, followed by phases of acceleration

eUnu vkSj vUrr% vuarLi'khZ izkoLFkk,¡ vkrh gSaA and deceleration and finally an asymptote.

B. izR;sd tkfr esa la[;k esa o`f) dj ldus dh viuh B. The ability to realise its innate potential to grow
in number and reach enormous densities in short
tUetkr 'kfDr dks iwjh rjg vuqHko djus dh ;ksX;rk
time.
gksrh gSA
C. Exponential growth
C. pj?kkrkadh o`f)
D. Logistic growth
D. laHkkj rU= o`f)
Choose the correct answer from the option given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below:
(1) dsoy A vkSj B (1) A and B only
(2) dsoy C vkSj D (2) C and D only

(3) dsoy A vkSj D (3) A and D only

(4) dsoy B vkSj C (4) B and C only

101. la j{k.k dk izdkj ftlesa ikniksa vkSj tUrq vksa dks 101. The type of conservation in which the threatened

muds izkd`frd vkokl ls vyx ,d fo'ks"k LFkku ij species are taken out from their natural habitat

m ud h vP Nh n s [ kH kky d h t k rh gS vk S j and placed in special setting where they can be

lko/kkuhiwoZd lajf{kr fd;k tkrk gS] dgk tkrk gS% protected and given special care is called;

(1) tSofofo/krk laj{k.k (1) Biodiversity conservation

(2) v/kZ&laj{kh fof/k (2) Semi-conservative method

(3) lrr fodkl (3) Sustainable development

(4) Lo&LFkkus laj{k.k (4) in-situ conservation

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
102. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 102. Match List I with list II
List I List II
lwph I lwph II
A. Robert May I. Species – area
A. jkcVZ es; I. tkrh; {ks= laca/k relationship
B. Alexander von II. Long term
B. ,ysDtsUMj oku II. ckgj ds Hkw[k.Mksa ij Humboldt ecosystem
gEcksYV yEcs le; rd ikfjrU= ds experiment
using out
iz;ksx door plots
C. Paul Ehrilich III. Global species
C. ikWy ,gjfyd III. oSf'od tkrh; fofo/krk diversity at
yxHkx 7 fefy;u about 7
million
D. MsfoM fVyeSu IV. fjosV ikWij ifjdYiuk D. David Tilman IV. Rivet popper
hypothesis
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II below:
(1) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(2) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I (3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV (4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV

103. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gS : 103. Statement l: Rain forests which used to cover more
than 14% of the earth's land surface is now reduced to
dFku -I- o"kkZ ou i`Foh ds 14% {ks= esa QSys Fks] ysfdu vc
6%.
6% ls vf/kd {ks= esa ugh gSA

dFku-II- vestu o"kkZ ou i`Foh ij lokZf/kd tSofofo/krk Statement II: Amazon rain forest has greatest

j[krk gSA biodiversity on earth.

mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa correct answer from the options given below:

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

104. ekbdksjkbtk ijiks"kh ikS/kksa dks fdlesa lgk;rk djrk 104. Mycorrhizae help the host plant in :
gS :
(1) Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
(1) bldh QkWLQksjl xzg.k djus dh {kerk dks c<+krk gS
(2) Increasing its tolerance to drought
(2) lw[ks ds fy, bldh lgu'khyrk dks c<+krk gSA
(3) Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
(3) tM+ jksxtudksa ds fy, blds izfrjks/k dks c<+krk gSA
(4) lHkh (4) All
105. Select the correct match.
105. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa%
(1) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive
(1) fldy lsy ,uhfe;k – vfyaxh vizHkkoh fo'ks"kd]
trait, chromosome-11
xq.klw=-11
(2) Thalassemia – X linked
(2) FkSyslhfe;k – X yXu
(3) Haemophilia – Y linked
(3) gheksQhfy;k – Y yXu (4) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant
(4) fQukbydhVksuwfj;k – vfyaxh izHkkoh fo'ks"kd trait

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
106.,d fuf'pr dhV ds VS DlkWu es a dq N 17 xq .klw = 106. In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chro-
j[krs gSa vkSj vU; nwljs 18 xq.klw= j[krs gSaA XO mosomes and the others have 18 chromosomes.
iz dkj ds fyax fu/kkZ j .k ds lUnHkZ esa 17 vkS j 18 with reference to XO type sex determination the
xq.klw= j[kus okys tho gS% 17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms are:
(1) Øe'k% uj vkSj eknk (1) Males and females, respectively
(2) Øe'k% eknk vkSj uj (2) Females and males, respectively
(3) lHkh uj (3) All males
(4) lHkh eknk (4) All females
107. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 107. Match List I with List II
List I List II
lwph I lwph II
A. Cocaine I. Effective sedative in
A. dksdsu I. 'kY;fØ;k esa izHkkoh 'kked
surgery
B. fgjksbu II. dSukfcl lsVkbok B. Heroin II. Cannabis sativa
C. ekQhZu III. bfjFkzkstkbye C. Morphine III. Erythroxylum
D. Marijuana IV. Papaver somniferum
D. esjhtqvkuk IV. isisoj lksEuhQsje
Choose the correct answer from the options given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
108. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 108. Match List I with List II
List I List II
lwph I lwph II
A. Common cold I. Plasmodium
A. tqdke I. IykteksfM;e
B. Haemozoin II. Typhoid
B. fgekstksbu II. VkbQkbM
C. Widal test III. Rhinovirus
C. foMky ijh{k.k III. jkbuks fo"kk.kq D. Allergy IV. Dust mites
D. ,ythZ IV. /kwy esa fppM+h Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

109. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 109. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
lwph I lwph II
A. Malignant tumors I. Destroy tumors
A. nqneZ vcqZn I. vcqZn dks u"V djrk gS
B. MALT II. AIDS
B. MALT II. AIDS
C. NACO III. Metastasis
C. NACO esVkLVSfll
III.
D. -Interferons IV. Lymphoid tissue
D. -bUVjQsjku IV. ylhdkHk Ård Choose the correct answer from the options given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below :
(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I (1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I (2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II (3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II (4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
110. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 110. Match List I with List II

lwph I lwph II List I List II

A. RNA polymerase III I. snRNPs
A. RNA ikWyhejst III I. snRNPs
B. Termination of II. Promotor
B. vuqys[ku dk lekiu II. izkes ksVj
transcription
C. bDtku dk III. jks dkjd
C. Splicing of Exons III. Rho factor
Liykbflax
D. TATA box IV. SnRNAs, tRNA
D. TATA ckWDl IV. SnRNAs, tRNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% below
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

111. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gS : 111. Given below are two statements :
Statement -I : In eukaryotes there are three RNA
dFku -I- ;qdfS j;ksVl
~ esa dsUnzd ds vUnj rhu RNA ikWyhejst
polymerases in the nucleus in addition to the RNA
ds vfrfjDr vaxdksa esa RNA ikWyhejst ik;k tkrk gS
polymerase found in the organelles.
dFku-II- ;qdSfj;ksfVd dsUnzd esa lHkh rhu RNA ikWyhejst
Statement - II : All the three RNA polymerases in
dh vyx&vyx Hkwfedk gksrh gSA
eukaryotic nucleus have different roles.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa answer from the options given below
(1) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

112. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 112. Match List-I with List-II :

lwph I lwph II List-I List-II

A. DNA fingerprinting I. M. Meselson and F.
A. DNA fQaxjfizafVax I. ,e0 eslsYlu vkSj
Stahl
,Q0 LVky
B. Pneumococcus II. A. Harshey and M.
B. U;weksdksdl II. ,0g"ksZ vkSj ,e0 psl Chase
C. bZ0 dksykbZ III. ,Q0 fxzfÝzFk C. E.coli III. F. Griffith
D. thok.kqHkksth IV. ,ysd tsÝh D. Bacteriophage IV. Alec Jeffreys

fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa% Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
113. lwph I ds lkFk lwph II dks lqesfyr djsa% 113. Match List - I with List - II.

lwph I lwph II List - I List - II

(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of resistant
(a) vuqdwyh fofdj.k (i) vR;kf/kd 'kkduk'kd
radiation varieties due to
vkSj dhVuk'kd ds
excessive use of
iz;ksx ds dkj.k herbicides
izfrj{kh fdLeksa dk and pesticides
p;u (b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in
(b) vfHklkjh fodkl (ii) vkneh vkSj Ogsy esa evolution Man and Whale
vxziknksa dh vfLFk;k¡ (c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly and

(c) vilkjh fodkl (iii) frryh vkSj i{kh ds ia[k evolution Bird.
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches

(d) ekuo fØ;kdykiksa (iv) MkfoZu fQUp anthropogenic

action
ds }kjk fodkl
Choose the correct answer from the options given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa%
below.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

114. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u Mkb;wj s fll dks jks dus es a 114. Which of the following would help in prevention
lgk;rk djsxk? of diuresis ?

(1) vfyUnh; uSVªh;wjsfVd dkjd okfgdkladh.kZu djrk gS (1) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(2) JG dksf'kdkvksa }kjk jsfuu (Renin) ds lzko.k esa deh (2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

(3) ADH ds vYi lzko.k ds dkj.k T;knk ty dk (3) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of
ADH
iqujko'kks"k.k
(4) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules
(4) ,YMksLVhjkWu ds dkj.k o`Dd ufydkvksa ls Na+ vkSj ty
due to aldosterone
dk iqujko'kks"k.k
115. Given below are two statements :
115. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa %
Statement I : Concentrated urine is formed due to
dFku - I : usÝkWu esa izfr/kkjk fØ;kfof/k ds dkj.k lkfUnzr counter current mechanism in nephron.
ew= dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA
Statement II : Counter current mechanism helps to
dFku - II : izfr/kkjk fØ;kfof/k esM~;wyjh bUVjLVhf'k;e esa maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium.
ijklj.kh izo.krk dks cuk;s j[kus esa lgk;rk djrk gS In the light of the below statements, Choose the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
116. jkbckst vkS j fMvkWD lhjkbckst nksuksa 'kdZjk ds ,d 116. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of
DykWl ls rkYyqd j[krs gSa: sugars called:
(1) VªkW;kst (1) Trioses
(2) gsDlkst (2) Hexoses
(3) isUVkst (3) Pentoses
(4) ikWyhlSdsjkbM (4) Polysaccharides
117. dkWye dks lqesfyr djs vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u 117. Match the following columns and select the correct
djs a option.
dkWye - I dkWye - II Column - I Column - II
(a) fiV~;qVjh xzfUFk (i) xzsol fcekjh (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(b) FkkbjkbM xzfUFk (ii) MkbfcfVt esyhVl (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) ,Mªhuy xzfUFk (iii) MkbfcfVt bUlhihMl (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) vXuk'k; (iv) ,Mhlu fcekjh (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
118. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u iS j kFkkbjkbM gkW e ksZ u dk 118. Which of the following are not the effects of
izHkko ugha gSA Parathyroid hormone ?

(a) vfLFk iqu%'kks"k.k dh izfØ;k dks mRrsftr djrk gSA (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood
(b) jDr esa Ca2+ Lrj dks ?kVkrk gS
(c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
(c) o`Dd ufydkvksa ls Ca2+ dk iqujko'kks"k.k
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested
(d) ips gq, Hkkstu ls Ca2+ ds vo'kks"k.k dks ?kVkrk gS
food
(e) dkcksZgkbMªsV mikip; dks c<+krk gS (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;q Dr mRrj dk Choose the most appropriate answer from the
p;u djsa options given below
(1) dsoy (b), (d) vkSj (e) (2) dsoy (a) vkSj (e) (1) (b), (d) and (e) only (2) (a) and (e) only
(3) dsoy (b) vkSj (c) (4) dsoy (a) vkSj (c) (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only

119. lwph-I dks lwph -II ds lkFk lqesfyr djsa : 119. Match List-I with List-II :

lw ph -I lw ph -II List-I List-II

A. Vertebrochondral I. ilium , Ischium Pubis
A. oVhZczksdkWUMªy I. byh;e] bfLp;e vkSj
Ribs
ilfy;k¡ I;q fcl
B. Floating Ribs II. 8th , 9th and 10th
B. Iykoh ilfy;k¡ II. 8th , 9th and 10th Pairs
tksM+h
C. Scapula III. Acromion
C. LdSiqyk III. ,Øksfe;u
D. Coxal Bone IV. 11th and 12th Pairs
D. dkWDly vfLFk IV. 11th vkSj 12th tksM+h Choose the correct answer from the options given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

NLI / 31
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
120. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gS a] ,d vfHkdFku 120. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
(A) (R) ls yscYM gS as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R). :
(A) : e`R;q ds ckn] is'kh ds vkfU'kd ladqpu dh
voLFkk ds :i esa 'kjhj dh is'kh vdM+ tkrh gSA Assertion (A) : After death, the body muscles get stiff
as a state of partial contraction of muscles.
(R) : ek;kslhu ds flj dk tqM+ko vizR;kf'kr LFky
ls vkfU'kd :i ls fØ;k ij ?kfVr gksrk gSA Reason (R) : Attachment of myosin head to unexpected
sites on action can take place partially..
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps
In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa
correct answer from the options given below
(1) R dh lgh O;k[;k
(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA
explanation of (A)
(2) nksuks R dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)
R lgh ugha gS (3) (A) is True but (R) is False
R lgh gS (4) (A) is False but (R) is True.
121. fn;s x;s mnkgj.kksa esa ls fdrus tUrq gS ftlesa ân; 121. In the given below examples how many animals
'kjhj ds v/kjh; lrg ij mifLFkr gksrk gSA in which heart is present at ventral side of body
dkWd jks p ] exjePN] pw g k] cUnj] Qs j sf Vek] usj hl] Cockroach, Crocodile, Rat, Monkey, Pheretima,
yksdLV] D;q ysD l Neries, Locust, Culex
(1) N% (1) Six
(2) ik¡p (2) Five
(3) pkj (3) Four
(4) rhu (4) Three
122. ,d thok.kq ls vU; nwljs esa vkuq oaf 'kd inkFkZ dk 122. The transfer of genetic material from one bacte-
LFkkukUrj.k ,d fo"kk.kq okgd dh e/;LFkrk ds ek/;e rium to another through the mediation of a viral
ls gksuk] ds :i esa dgk x;k gS : vector is termed as:
(1) VªkWUlMDlu (1) Transduction

(2) dkWUtqxs'ku (2) Conjugation

(3) :ikUrj.k (3) Transformation

(4) VªkUW lys'ku (4) Translation

123. Given below are two statements :
123. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa %
dFku - I : Statement I :

f}chti=h iRrh esa f'kjkvksa dk vkdkj laogu c.My ds In dicot leaf the size of the vascular bundles are
vkdkj ij fuHkZj djrk gSA dependent on the size of the veins.

dFku - II : Statement II :

f}chti=h iRrh esa ,csDlh;y ckg~; Ropk ij dksbZ jU/kz In dicot leaf the abaxial epidermis bears no stomata.
ugha gksrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the options given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below.

(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II isincorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
NLI / 32
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
124. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa% 124. Select the correct match :

A. fyfEcd rU= I. ySafxd O;ogkj A. Limbic system I. Sexual behaviour

B. esM~;wyk vkscyksUxsVk II. ân; ifjlapkjh izfrorZu B. Medulla oblongata II. Cardiovascular reflex

C. iksUl III. i'p efLr"d C. Pons III. Hind brain

D. rfU=dklzkoh dksf'kdk,a IV. gkbiksFkSysel D. Neurosecretory cells IV. Hypothalamus

(1) A–III, B– II, C–I, D–IV (1) A–III, B– II, C–I, D–IV
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–III, B– IV, C–I, D–II
(3) A–III, B– IV, C–I, D–II
(4) A–II, B– I, C–IV, D–II
(4) A–II, B– I, C–IV, D–II
125. Select the correct match
125. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
A. Intercalated disc – Heart – Voluntary
A. vUrfoZ"V fMLd & ân; & ,SfPNd
B. Ligament – Connective tissue – Collagen fiber
B. Luk;q & la;ksth Ård & dksyStu rUrq
C. Smooth muscle – Intestine – Involuntary
C. fpduh is'kh & vk¡r & vuSfPNd
D. Skeletal muscle – Involuntary – Biceps
D. dadkyh; is'kh & vuSfPNd & f}f'kjLdk
(1) B, C
(1) B, C
(2) A, B, C
(2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, C
(4) A, C
126. Select the correct match :
126. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa%
A. IAIA I. AB blood group
(A) IA IA I. AB jDr lewg
B. I0I0 II. A blood group
(B) IO IO II. A jDr lewg
C. IBI0 III. O blood group
(C) IB IO III. O jDr lewg
D. IAIB IV. B blood group
(D) IA IB IV. B jDr lewg
(1) A–II, B– III, C–IV, D–I
(1) A–II, B– III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–I, B– II, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–I, B– II, C–III, D–IV

(3) A–II, B– I, C–III, D–IV (3) A–II, B– I, C–III, D–IV

(4) A–IV, B– I, C–II, D–III (4) A–IV, B– I, C–II, D–III

127. f}ladj ØkWl iz ;ksx esa ihys vkSj fldqM+h gqbZ Qyh 127. What is the expected percentage of F2 progeny

okyh F2 iz kstuh dk D;k lEHkkfor iz fr'kr gksxk with yellow and inflated pod in dihybrid cross
experiment involving pea plants with green
ftlesa gjs jax okys] Qwyh gqbZ Qyh vkSj ihys jax
coloured, inflated pod and yellow coloured,
okys] fldqM+h gq bZ Qyh 'kkfey gS %
constricted pod ?
(1) 100%
(1) 100%
(2) 56.25% (2) 56.25%
(3) 18.75 % (3) 18.75 %
(4) 9% (4) 9%
NLI / 33
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
128. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 128. Given below are two statements

dFku -I: Statement I:

,d vkn'kZ xHkZ fujks/kd iz;ksxdrkZ ds fgrksa dh j{kk djus An ideal contraceptive should easily available, effective
okyk] vklkuh ls miyC/k] izHkkoh rFkk ftldk dksbZ vuq"kaxh and reversible with no or least side effects.
izHkko ;k nq"izHkko ugh gks ;k gks Hkh rks de ls de Statement II :
dFku - II : Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding
izkd`frd fof/k;k¡ v.Mk.kq ,oa 'kqØk.kq ds laxe dks jksdus ds chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
fl)kUr ij dk;Z djrh gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:

(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
129. dSfYou pØ esa izkFkfed CO2 xzkgd vkS j izFke LFkk;h 129. What is the Carbon atom difference between
fLFkjhd` r mRikn ds chp dkcZ u ijek.kq dk D;k primary CO 2 acceptor and first stable fixed
vUrj gS ? product in calvin cycle ?
(1) 2 dkcZu ijek.kq (1) 2 Carbon atom
(2) 3 dkcZu ijek.kq (2) 3 Carbon atom
(3) 4 dkcZu ijek.kq (3) 4 Carbon atom
(4) dksbZ vUrj ugha (4) No difference
130. tSl s&tS ls cht ifjiDo gks rk gS vkS j iz l q fIr dh 130. As the seed matures and enters the state of
voLFkk esa tkrk gS : dormancy
(1) blds vUnj ty dh ek=k ?kVus yxrh gSA (1) Its water content is reduced
(2) cht vis{kkd`r 'kq"d gksrk tkrk gSA (2) Seeds become relatively dry
(3) mikip;h fØ;k Hkzw.k dh /kheh iM+us yxrh gSA (3) Metabolic activity of embryo slows down
(4) lHkh (4) All of these
131. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 131. Select the correct match
A. Mªwi & Qy & ljlksa A. Drupe – Fruit – Mustard
B. ,Y;qjkWu ijr & izksVhu & gsIykW;M B. Aleurone layer – Protein – Haploid
C. LdqVsye & dkWVhyhMu & ,dchti=h C. Scutellum – Cotyledon – Monocot
D. iq"i & tuu vax & ,fUt;ksLieZ D. Flower – Reproductive unit – Angiosperm
(1) dsoy A, C, D (1) Only A, C, D
(2) C, D (2) C, D
(3) A, B, D (3) A, B, D
(4) B, C, D (4) B, C, D

NLI / 34
 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
132. lkekU;r% izR;sd 100 ml vkDlhd`r jDr fdrus ml 132. Under normal condition every 100 ml of oxygenated
O2 Årdks dks iznku djrk gS% blood can deliver how much ml O2 to tissues:
(1) 15 ml (1) 15 ml
(2) 19.8 ml (2) 19.8 ml
(3) 15–20 ml (3) 15–20 ml
(4) 5 ml (4) 5 ml
133. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 133. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
IysVysVl
~ dks FkzkEs ckslkbV~l Hkh dgrs gS] tksfd esXkkdsfj;kslkbV Platelets also called thrombocytes are cell fragments
lss mRiUu gq, dksf'kdk ds VqdM+s gSA produced from megakaryocytes.

dFku - II : Statement II :

IysVysV~l jDr ds Ldanu esa lfEefyr gSA Platelets are involved in the coagulation of blood.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
134. vkWDlhMsfVo QkWLQksjkbys'ku dh çfØ;k dgk¡ gksrh gS% 134. The process of oxidative phosphorylation takes
place in :
(1) ekbVksdkWfUMª;k
(1) Mitochondria
(2) DyksjksIykLV (2) Chloroplasts
(3) jkbckslkse (3) Ribosomes
(4) lkbVksIykTe (4) Cytoplasm

135. dFku (A) : cgqr de rkieku ij ,Utkbe fd fØ;k'khyrk 135. Assertion (A): At very low temperature enzyme activity
?kV tkrh gSA decreased.
dkj.k (R): cgqr de rkieku ij izksVhu dk m"ek ds }kjk Reason (R) : At very low temperature proteins are
fod`rhdj.k gks tkrk gSA denatured by heat.
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gS ysfdu (R) lgh O;k[;k ugha (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
gS (A) dk correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) xyr gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) xyr gS ysfdu (R) lgh gS (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gS vkSj (R) lgh O;k[;k gS (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
dk explanation of (A)
136. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk pj.k euq"; esa 'olu dk 136. Which of the following is/are the steps of
gS A respiration in Human

(1) dwfidk f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj (O2 vkSj CO2) dk folj.k (1) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar
membrane
(2) :f/kj }kjk xSlksa dk ifjogu
(2) Transport of gases by the blood
(3) :f/kj vkSj Årdksa ds chp O2 vkSj CO2 dk folj.k
(3) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues
(4) lHkh (4) All
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
137. ikS/ks esa iz k:ihd o`f) oØ gksrk gSA 137. Typical growth curve in plants are :
(1) lh<+huqek vkdkj dk (1) stair-steps shaped
(2) ijoy;kdkj (2) parabolic
(3) flXek;M (3) sigmoid
(4) js[kh; (4) linear
138. ,ykuhu] ikYehVhd vEy vkS j ls j hu es a Øe'k% 138. What is the number of carboxylic group in Alanine,
dkckZfDlyhd lewg dh D;k la[;k gksrh gSA Palmitic acid and Serine respectively
(1) 1, 2, 1 (1) 1, 2, 1
(2) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, 1, 1
(3) 1, 3, 1 (3) 1, 3, 1
(4) 1, 3, 2 (4) 1, 3, 2
139. ijiks"kh ;q dSfj;ksV~l dk p;u djsa 139. Select the heterotrophic eukaryotes
a. ,Uty eNyh a. Angel fish
b. ukbVªkls kseksukl b. Nitrosomonas
c. ekbdksIykTek c. Mycoplasma
d. iksjQkbjk d. Porphyra
e. vYVjusfj;k e. Alternaria
f. ,EQhvkDll f. Amphioxus
(1) a, c, e, f (1) a, c, e, f
(2) a, e, f (2) a, e, f
(3) a, d, f (3) a, d, f
(4) a, b, c, e (4) a, b, c, e
140. dkSystu rUrq mifLFkr gS: 140. The collagen fibres are present in :
(a) ,jhvksyj Ård (b) d.Mjk,¡ (a) Areolar tissue (b) Tendon
(c) mikfLFk (d) jDr (c) Cartilage (d) Blood
(1) a,b,d (2) a,c,d (1) a,b,d (2) a,c,d
(3) a,b,c dsoy a,c
(4) (3) a,b,c (4) Only a,c
141. tS o izk S+|ksfxdh esa thoksa ds vius mi;ksx ds lkFk 141. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
lq e sfyr djsa % (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector
(a) cSflyl Fkqjhuft,fUll (i) Dyksfuax okgd
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first
(b) FkeZl ,DosfVdl (ii) izFke rDNA v.kq dk rDNA molecule
fuekZ.k
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
(c) ,xzkscSDVhfj;e (iii) DNA ikWyhejst
tumifaciens
V~;ew hQsf'k,Ul
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
(d) lkyeksusyk (iv) Cry izksVhu
typhimurium
VkbQhE;qfj;e
Select the correct option from the following:
fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa%
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
142. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk xyr dFku gS ? 142. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) lcls T;knk lkekU; :i ls mi;ksx gksus okyk (1) Most commonly used bio - reactors are of stirring
ck;ksfj,DVj foyksMd izdkj dk gSA type
(2) tSofj,DVj dk mi;ksx NksVs iSekus ij thok.kq lao/kZu (2) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale
ds fuekZ.k esa gksrk gSA bacterial cultures
(3) tSofj,DVj esa iz{kksHkd rU=] ,d vkDlhtu iznk; rU= (3) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen
vkSj >kx fu;U=.k rU= gksrk gSA delivery system and foam control system
(4) ck;ksfj,DVj] okWfNr mRikn ikus ds fy, vuqdwyre
(4) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions
ifjfLFkfr;k¡ miyC/k djkrk gSA for achieving the desired product
143. C4 ikniksa }kjk gsDlkst 'kdZjk ds ,d v.kq ds dqy 143. As compared to a C3-plant, how many additional
mRiknu ds fy, fdrus vfrfjDr ATP v.kq vksa dh molecules of ATP are needed for net production
vko';drk gksxh? of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4-plants?
(1) nks (1) Two

(2) N% (2) Six

(3) ckjg (3) Twelve

(4) 'kwU; (4) Zero

144. Select the incorrect match
144. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
(1) Ground tissue – Monocot stem
(1) Hkj.k Ård – ,dchti=h ruk
(2) Scattered – Monocot stem
(2) fo[kjs gq, – ,dcht=h ruk
laogu c.My vascular bundle

(3) N% ls T;knk – ,dchti=h tM+ (3) More than six – Monocot root

laogu c.My xylem bundles

(4) vjh; izdkj dk – iRrh (4) Radial Types of – Leaf

laogu c.My vascular bundle
145. fdl izdkj dk ,Utkbe gS tks iz dk'kh;] T;kferh; 145. Which type of enzymes catalysed the
vFkok fLFkrh; leko;oksa ds vUrj & :ikUrj.kksa dks interconversion of optical, geometric or positional
mRizsfjr djrs gSA isomers
(1) ykbxstst (1) Ligases

(2) gkbMªksystst (2) Hydrolases

(3) vkblksejstst (3) Isomerases

(4) Lyases
(4) yk;stst
146. Select the correct match
146. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
A. Cis and trans I. Mitochondria
A. fll vkSj VªkWUl lrg I. ekbVksdkWf.Mª ;k
face
B. fØLVk II. xkWYth ckWMh
B. Crista II. Golgi body
C. FkkbykdkW,M III. xq.klw=
C. Thylakoids III. Chromosome
D. xq.klw= fcUnq IV. gfjr yod D. Centromere IV. Chloroplast
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
147. v/Z klq=h foHkktu I esa ?kVukvksa ds lgh Øe dk p;u 147. Select the correct order of event in meiosis I
djs a a. compaction of chromosome
a. xq.klw= dk la?kuu b. Formation of synaptonemal complex
b. flusIVksuhey lfEeJ dk fuekZ.k c. Crossing over
c. fofue; d. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
d. flusIVksuhey lfEeJ dk fo?kVu (1) a, b, c, d
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d, a
(2) a, c, d, a
(3) a, b, d, c
(3) a, b, d, c
(4) b, a, c, d
(4) b, a, c, d
148. Select the correct statement
148. lgh dFku dk p;u djsa
a. Glycine and glucose are primary metabolite
a. Xykblhu vkSj Xywdkst izkFkfed mikip;t gSA
b. Protein is a homopolymer not a heteropolymer
b. izksVhu ,d lecgqyd gS u fd fo"kecgqyd gSA
c. Starch and cellulose are heteropolymer
c. LVkpZ vkSj lsyqykst fo"kecgqyd gSA
d. Peptide bonds are present in RuBisCO
d. isIVkbM cU/k RuBisCO esa mifLFkr gSA
e. The number of carbon atoms are same in serine,
e. lsjhu] fXyfljkWy vkSj ,ykuhu esa dkcZu ijek.kq dh
glycerol and alanine
la[;k leku gSA
(1) a, b, d, e
(1) a, b, d, e
(2) Only a, b, e
(2) dsoy a, b, e
(3) a, d, e
(3) a, d, e
(4) b, d, e
(4) b, d, e
149. ________Later identified and crystallised the
149. ________us lkbVksdkbus fll dks c<+kok nsus okys
cytokinesis promoting active substance that they
bl rRo dks igpkuk vkS j bldk fØLVyhdj.k fd;k
termed kinetin.
Fkk dkbusfVu uke fn;kA
Fill in the blanks in given sentence.
fn;s x;s okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjsa
(1) H.H. Cousins (1955)
(1) ,p0,p0 dftUl ¼1955½
(2) ySekdZ ¼1955½ (2) Lamarck (1955)

(3) feyj ,V vky ¼1955½ (3) Miller et al (1955)

(4) ÝsfUll MkfoZu ¼1955½ (4) Francis Darwin (1955)

150. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ty dh gkfu dks jksdrk gS 150. Which of the following are involved in prevention
of water loss
(1) Vªkbdkse (1) Trichome
(2) cqyhQkeZ dksf'kdk (2) Bulliform cell
(3) D;qVhdy (3) Cuticle

(4) lHkh (4) All

151. v/kZ lw=h foHkktu ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa 151. Select the correct statement for meiosis

(1) v/kZlw=h foHkktu II ds vUr esa nks gSIyk;M dksf'kdk;sa (1) Two haploid cells are formed at the end of
curh gSA meiosis II
(2) ,d tfVy lajpuk flusIVksuhey lfEeJ dk fuekZ.k (2) A complex structure synaptonemal complex are
v/kZlw=h foHkktu I esa gksrk gSA formed in meiosis I
(3) U- ds vkdkj dh la j puk dk,Tes V k v/kZ l w = h (3) U-shaped structure chiasmata are formed in
foHkktu I esa curk gS meiosis I
(4) lHkh (4) All
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
152.lelw= h foHkktu vkSj v/kZ lw= h foHkktu ds Øe'k% 152. During which stages of mitosis and meiosis,
fdl izkoLFkk ds nkSjku izR;sd xq.klw= ds lsU Vªkes h;j respectively does the centromere of each
dk fo[k.Mu gksrk gS% chromosome split ?
(1) eè;koLFkk] eè;koLFkk II (1) Mataphase, Metaphase II
(2) iwokZoLFkk] vUr;koLFkk I (2) Prophase, Telophase I
(3) vUr;koLFkk] i'pkoLFkk I (3) Telophase, Anaphase I
(4) i'pkoLFkk] i'pkoLFkk II (4) Anaphase, Anaphase II
153. dkjdksa dk p;u djsa tks fd izdk'k la'ys" k.k dks 153. Select the factors that affect photosynthesis?
iz Hkkfor djrk gS ?
(a) Light
(a) iz d k'k
(b) CO2
(b) CO2
(c) Temperature
(c) rkieku
(d) Water
(d) ty
(1) Only a,c,d
(1) dsoy a,c,d
(2) Only b,c
(2) dsoy b,c
(3) Only a,b
dsoy a,b
(3)
(4) All
(4) lHkh
154. Select the animals in which cartilaginous vertebral
154. tUrqvksa dk p;u djsa ftlesa mikfLFk; d'ks:d n.M
column present
mifLFkr gksrk gSA
a. Hag fish
a. gSx eNyh
b. Angel fish
b. ,Uty eNyh
c. Saw fish
c. lkW eNyh
d. Flying fish
d. mM+u eNyh
e. leqnzh ?kksM+k e. Sea horse

(1) a, b, c (1) a, b, c

(2) dsoy a, c (2) Only a, c

(3) dsoy a (3) Only a

(4) a, c, d, e (4) a, c, d, e

155. ikS/kks dk p;u djsa ftlesa uj vkSj eknk tuu vax 155. Select the plants in which male and female sex
,d gh ikS/ks ij mifLFkr gksrk gSA organ are present upon same plant body

a. ekjdsfU'k;k a. Marchantia

b. LQsxue b. Sphagnum
c. ikbul c. Pinus
d. lkbdl d. Cycas
(1) b, c (1) b, c
(2) b, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) dsoy c (3) Only c
(4) a, d (4) a, d
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
156. iz ksfVLVk ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa 156. Select the correct option for protista
a. ;qdSfj;ksV~l a. Eukaryotes
b. Loiks"kh tho b. Autotrophic organism
c. fo"keiks"kh tho c. Heterotrophic organism
d. ijthoh d. Parasites
e. LorU= thoh tho e. Free living organism
(1) dsoy a, b, c, d (1) Only a, b, c, d
(2) dsoy a, b, c, e (2) Only a, b, c, e
(3) lHkh (3) All
(4) dsoy a, c, d, e (4) Only a, c, d, e
157. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk tUrqvksa dk lewg ,d 157. Which one of the following sets of animals be-
,dy ofxZdh lewg ls rkYyqd j[krk gS : long to a single taxonomic group :
(1) dVy eNyh] tsyh eNyh] flYoj eNyh] dqRrk eNyh]
(1) Cuttlefish, Jellyfish, Silverfish, Dogfish, Starfish
rkjk eNyh
(2) Bat, Pigeon, Butterfly
(2) pexknM+] dcwrj] frryh
(3) cUnj] fpEiSUth] vkneh (3) Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man

(4) flYdoeZ] Qhrkd`fe] vFkZoeZ (4) Silkworm, Tapeworm, Earthworm

158. fuEufyf[kr {ks= ksa dks iq u % O;ofLFkr djs tS l s ;s 158. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root
{kSfrt Hkkx esa tM+ esa fn[kkbZ nsrs gS vkSj lgh fodYi in vertical section and choose the correct option:
dks pq usa (A) Root hair zone
(A) ewyjkse {ks=
(B) Zone of meristems
(B) foHkT;ksrd dk {ks=
(C) Rootcap zone
(C) ewyxksi {ks=
(D) Zone of maturation
(D) ifjiDou dk {ks=
(E) Zone of elongation
(E) nh?khZdj.k dk {ks=
(1) C,B,E,A,D
(1) C,B,E,A,D
(2) A,B,C,D,E
(2) A,B,C,D,E
(3) D,E,A,C,B (3) D,E,A,C,B

(4) E,D,C,B,A (4) E,D,C,B,A

159.Hkzw.kiks"k ,fUt;ksLieZ esa ,d f}fu"kspu dk mRikn gS A 159. Endosperm, a product of double fertilization in
fdlds cht esa vuqifLFkr gS % angiosperms is absent in the seeds of :

(1) ukfj;y (1) Coconut

(2) vkdhZM (2) Orchids

(3) eDdk (3) Maize

(4) dSLVj (4) Castor

160. nSfud mi;ksx dh cgqr lh nkysa uhps QSf eyh;ks esa 160. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the
,d ls rkYyqd j[krh gS: families below :
(1) lksysul s h (1) Solanaceae
(2) QScslh (2) Fabaceae
(3) fyfy,lh (3) Liliaceae
(4) iks, lh (4) Poceae
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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
161. ikni pkfyuh ufydk dksf 'kdkvks a vkS j T;knkrj 161. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve
Lru/kkjh bfjFkzkslkbV dk ,d lkekU; yk{kf.kd xq.k tube cells and most mammalian erythrocytes is :
gS :
(1) Absence of mitochondria
(1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dk vHkko
(2) Presence of cell wall
(2) dksf'kdk fHkfRr dh mifLFkfr
(3) gheksXyksfcu dh mifLFkfr (3) Presence of haemoglobin

(4) dsUnzd dk vHkko (4) Absence of nucleus

162. ,d dk p;u djsa tks fd jkbckslkse ds fy, lgh 162. Select one which is not true for ribosome:
ugha gS:
(1) Made of two sub-units
(1) nks mibdkbZ ls feydj cuk gS
(2) Form polysome
(2) ikWyhlkse dks cukrk gS
(3) mRNA ls tqM+ ldrk gS (3) May attach to mRNA

(4) izksVhu la'ys"k.k esa dksbZ Hkwfedk ugha gSA (4) Have no role in protein synthesis
163. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lh dksf 'kdk QS xksf lfVd 163. Which of the following cells does not exhibit
fØ;k'khyrk dks iznf'kZr ugha djrh gS: phagocytic activity:
(1) eksukslkbV (1) Monocyte
(2) U;wVªkQ
s hYl (2) Neutrophil

(3) cslksQhy (3) Basophil

(4) eSØksQst (4) Macrophage

164. uhps fn, x, 'kCnksa ds lewgksa ds chp] mUgsa igpkusa 164. From among the sets of terms given below,
tks fd xkbukslh;e ls lEcfU/kr gS% identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium:
(1) ofrZdkxz] chtk.M] Hkz.w kdks"k] vijk
(1) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
(2) FkSysel] L=hdslj] ofrZdk] chtk.M (2) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(3) chtk.M] v.Mk'k;] Hkzw.kdks"k] VsihVe (3) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(4) chtk.M] iqadslj] v.Mk'k;] Hkz.w kdks"k (4) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

165. lcls vUnj ds Hkkx ls 'kq: djrs gq,] ,d chtk.M 165. Starting from the innermost part, the correct
ds Hkkxksa dk lgh Øe gS % sequence of parts in an ovule are :

(1) v.Mk] chtk.Mdk;] Hkzw.kdks"k] vkoj.k (1) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument

(2) v.Mk] Hkzw.kdks"k] chtk.Mdk;] vkoj.k (2) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument

(3) Hkzw.kdks"k] chtk.Mdk;] vkoj.k] v.Mk (3) embryo sac,nucellus, integument, egg

(4) v.Mk] vkoj.k] Hkzw.kdks"k] chtk.Mdk; (4) egg,integument, embryo sac, nucellus

166. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u djsa : 166. Choose the correct statement from the following:

(1)if{k;ksa vkSj Lru/kkfj;ksa esa vkUrfjd fu"kspu ik;k (1) In birds and mammals internal fertilisation takes
tkrk gSA place

(2) dksyksLVªe izfrj{kh vkSj iks"kd rRoksa dks j[krk gSA (2) Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients

(3)Lru/kkfj;ksa esa ikWyhLiehZ v.Ms ds lrg esa jklk;fud (3) Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the
cnyko ds }kjk vojksf/kr gksrh gSA chemical changes in the egg surface

(4) lHkh (4) All

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
167. ek:yk ,d fodklh; voLFkk gS % 167. Morula is a developmental stage:
(1) ;qXeut vkSj CykLVksflLV ds chp (1) Between the zygote and blastocyst
(2) CykLVksflLV vkSj xSLVªqyk ds chp (2) Betweeen the blastocyst and gastrula

(3) vUrjksZi.k ds igys (3) Before the implantation

(4) izlo ds ckn (4) After parturition

168. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d fo"ke dks igpkusa % 168. Identify the odd one from the following:

(1) ySfc;k ekbuksjk (1) Labia minora

(2) fQEczh (2) Fimbriae

(3) bUQUMhcqye (3) Infundibulum

(4) bLFkel (4) Isthmus

169. A national level approach to build up a
169. ,d iz tuu LokLFk ls ;qDr lekt ds fuekZ .k ds fy,
reproductively healthy society was taken up in
,d jk"Vªh; Lrj ij n`f"Vdks.k gekjs ns'k esa fy;k
our country in :
x;k Fkk :
(1) 1950s
(1) 1950s
(2) 1960s
(2) 1960s
(3) 1980s (3) 1980s
(4) 1990s (4) 1990s
170. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls pj.k esa NADH2 curk gS? 170. In which of the following step NADH2 are formed?
(a) lDlhfuy CoA  lDlhfud vEy (a) Succinyl CoA  Succinic Acid

(b) lDlhfud vEy  ¶;wesfjd vEy (b) Succinic Acid  Fumaric Acid

(c) eSfyd vEy  OAA (c) Malic Acid  OAA

(d) ikb:fod vEy  ,lhVkby co-A (d) Pyruvic Acid  Acetyl co-A

(1) c,d (1) c,d

(2) b,c,d (2) b,c,d
(3) a,c,d (3) a,c,d
(4) dsoy c (4) Only c
171. ,d f}ladj ØkWl esa] vxj vkidks 9:3:3:1 vuqikr 171. In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio denotes
feyrk gSA ;g bafxr djrk gS fd % that:
(1) nks thUl ds ,yhYl ,d nwljs ds lkFk vUrfØZ;k djrs (1) The alleles of two genes are interacting with each
gSA other
(2) It is a multigenic inheritance
(2) ;g ,d cgqthfud vkuqoaf'kdrk gSA
(3) It is a case of multiple allelism
(3) ;g ,d cgq,yhy dk ekeyk gSA (4) The alleles of two genes are segregating
(4) nks thUl ds ,yhYl LorU= :i ls vyx gks tkrs gSa independently.
172. tRNA ls vehuksa vEy tqM+rk gS blds fdl fdukjsa 172. The amino acid attaches to tRNA at its:
ij :
(1) 5'-end
(1) 5'-fdukjk
(2) 3'-end
(2) 3'-fdukjk
(3) Anti codon site
(3) ,UVhdksMkWu LFky
(4) DHU loop
(4) DHU ywi

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
173. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk oSKkfud uke lgh rjhds 173. Which one of the following scientific name are
ls vkneh ds fy, fy[kk gS ? written correctly for Man?

(1) Homo sapiens (1) Homo sapiens

(2) homo sapiens (2) homo sapiens

(3) Homo Sapiens (3) Homo Sapiens

(4) homo Sapiens (4) homo Sapiens

174. Animal husbandry and plant breeding
174. i'kqikyu vkSj ikni iztuu dk;ZØe mnkgj.k gS:
programmes are the examples of :
(1) O;qRØe fodkl
(1) reverse evolution
(2) d`f=e p;u (2) artificial selection
(3) mRifjorZu (3) mutation
(4) izkd`frd p;u (4) natural selection
175. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku ijHk{k.k ls tqM+k 175. Which one of the following statements cannot be
gqvk ugha gks ldrk ? connected to predation ?
(1) ;g leqnk; esa tkWrh; fofo/krk dks cuk, j[kus esa (1) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a
lgk;rk djrk gSA community.
(2) ;g ,d tkfr ds foyqIr gksus dk dkj.k gks ldrk gS (2) It might lead to extinction of a species
(3) nksuksa vUrfØZ;k djus okyh tkWfr udkjkRed :i ls (3) Both the interacting species are
izHkkfor gksrh gSA negatively impacted.
(4) ;g izd`fr ds }kjk ikfjfLFkfrd lUrqyu dks cuk, j[kus (4) It is necessitated by nature to maintain the
ds fy, vko';d gSA ecological balance.
176. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d fyad iztkfr dk mnkgj.k 176. Which of the following is an example for link
gS ? species?
(1) yksc eNyh (2) MksMks i{kh (1) Lobe fish (2) Dodo bird
(3) leqnzh [kjirokj (4) fpEiSUth (3) Sea weed (4) Chimpanzee
177. esa<d ds fy, xyr fodYi dk p;u djsa ? 177. Select the Incorrect option for Frog ?
(1) 'khr fuf"Ø;rk vkSj xzh"e fuf"Ø;rk (1) Hibernation and Aestivation
(2) izR;{k fodkl (2) Direct development

(3) vxzikn vkSj i'pikn esa vWxqfy;ksa dh la[;k cjkcj (3) Number of digits are not equal in fore limb and
ugha gksrh gSA Hind limb

(4) blds 'kjhj dk rkieku fLFkj ugha gksrk gSA (4) They do not have constant body temprature

178. bUVjQsjkWu ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa ? 178. Select the correct statements for interferons?
(a) ijiks"kh dksf'kdkvksa ds vUnj fo"kk.kq laØe.k dks ;s (a) They inhibit the viral replication within host cells
voefUnr djrs gSaA
(b) They activate natural killer cells and macrophage
(b) ;s izkd`frd ekjd dksf'kdkvksa vkSj eSØksQts dks lfØ;
djrk gSA (c) They induce the resistance of host cells to viral
(c) ;s fo"kk.kq laØe.k ds fy, ijiks"kh dksf'kdkvksa ds infection
izfrjks/k dks izsfjr djrs gSaA
(d) They destroy natural killer cells and other
(d) ;s izkd`frd ekjd dksf'kdkvksa dks vkSj QSxkslkbfVd
phagocytic cells
dksf'kdkvksa dks u"V djrs gS ?
(1) a,b,c (2) dsoy a,b (1) a,b,c (2) a,b only

(3) a,b,d (4) dsoy a,c (3) a,b,d (4) a,c only

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 All India Full Syllabus Test–48 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /26-Mar-2025
179. ,d iqu;ksZ xt DNA v.kq ds fuekZ.k esa DNA ykbxst 179. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a
dh Hkwfedk gS : recombinant DNA molecule is :
(1) Formation of phosphodiester bond between two
(1) nks DNA [k.Mksa ds chp QkLQksMkb,LVj ca/k dk fuekZ.k
DNA fragments
(2) DNA [k.Mksa ds chp fpifpis fdukjs ds chp isIVkbM
(2) Formation of peptide bond between sticky ends of
cU/kksa dk fuekZ.k DNA fragments
(3) dsoy lHkh I;wjhu dks I;wjhu ls ykbxsV djrs gS (3) Ligation of only all purine with purine
(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above
180. lw{ethoksa ds }kjk [kfuthdj.k dh izfØ;k fdldks 180. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms
helps in the release of :
eq Dr djus esa lgk;d gS :
(1) inorganic nutrients from humus
(1) áwel ls vdkcZfud iks"kd rRo
(2) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(2) vijn ls nksuksa dkcZfud vkSj vdkcZfud iks"kd rRo
(3) organic nutrients from humus
(3) áwel ls dkcZfud iks"kd rRo (4) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of
(4) vijn ls vdkcZfud iks"kd rRo vkSj áqel dk fuekZ.k humus.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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