Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

A
EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................
(In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................
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(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
APR- 35224 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory. 2.
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the correct response against each item.
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 APR - 35224/II—A

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 APR - 35224/II—A

Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Science

Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Which of the following minerals 4. Pb isotopic data from southern

contains Barium ? hemisphere shows compositional
(A) Corundum similarity to EM type of mantle
(B) Apatite reservoir is known as :

(C) Gypsum (A) HIMU

(D) Celsian (B) NHRL
2. New metamorphic mineral due to
(C) FOZO
chemical reaction changes its :
(D) DUPAL
(A) Phase

(B) Texture 5. Higher ratios of 87Sr/ 86Sr and lower

values of epsilon Nd ( Nd) are
(C) Form
observed in continental flood basalts
(D) Size
because of :
3. What is a concentration of Ni in an
olivine crystal, in equilibrium with (A) Its derivation from deeper

a melt having 150 ppm Ni and mantle source

Ni
D01 12 (B) Due to lower amounts of partial
liq.

melting
(A) 0.18 wt%
(B) 12.5 wt% (C) Entrainment of mantle material

(C) 18 wt% (D) Assimilation of continental

(D) 1.25 wt% crust

3 [P.T.O.
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6. Which one of the following Uranium 9. Consider the following statements :

isotopes is not occurring in the
Statement–1 : The radius of Cr+3
nature ?
ion is close to Fe+3 ion but chromium
(A) U235
show a high degree of preferential
(B) U234
concentration relative to ferric ion.
(C) U238
(D) U232 Statement–2 : Cr+3 ion has strong

7. Composition of the resultant partial crystal field stabilisation energy

melts is different from the relative to that of Fe+3 ion.
composition of original rock
Which of the statement is correct
primarily because of :
with respect to the above
(A) Melt induced buoyancy
statements ?
(B) Varying amounts of fractional
crystallization (A) Both Statement–1 and
(C) The difference in melting Statement–2 are true and
temperatures of minerals
Statement–1 is the correct
(D) Similarity in melting
explanation of Statement–2
temperatures of minerals
8. Crystallization of new phlogopite (B) Both Statement–1 and
mineral in the existing mantle
Statement–2 are true and
peridotite is an example of which of
the following process ? Statement–1 is not the correct

(A) Cryptic metasomatism of explanation of Statement–2

Dawson (1984)
(C) Statement–1 is true but
(B) Patent Metasomatism of Harte
Statement–2 is false
(1983)
(C) Sulphide metasomatism (D) Statement–1 is false but

(D) Mantle depletion Statement–2 is true

4
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10. Which of the following processes is 13. Complete the reaction :

responsible for the incorporation of Gedrite + Quartz = Hypersthene +
sulphides in the komatiite magmas ? ........... + H2O

(A) Very low amounts of partial (A) Cordierite

melting (B) Kyanite
(B) Assimilation of crustal material (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Extreme fractionation of (D) Plagioclase
magma
14. Choose the correct sequence of
(D) Higher amounts of partial deformation and metamorphism :
melting (A) Shale Slate Phyllite
11. Amba Dongar in India is known for Schist Gneiss
which of the following ? (B) Shale Slate Phyllite
(A) Carbonatite complex Gneiss Schist

(B) Anorthosite complex (C) Shale Phyllite Schist

Slate Gneiss
(C) Chromite complex
(D) Gneiss Phyllite Slate
(D) Kimberlite complex
Schist Shale
12. The maximum permissible limit of
15. Orthopyroxene occurs in high
fluoride in drinking water as per temperature anhydrous granitoids is
WHO guidelines is : known as :
(A) 1.5 mg/L (A) Plagiogranite
(B) 1.0 mg/L (B) Charnockite

(C) 2.5 mg/L (C) Enderbite

(D) 3.0 mg/L (D) Tonalite

5 [P.T.O.
 APR - 35224/II—A

16. Which amongst the following are 18. Plotting pitch is useful when rocks
true characteristics of simple shear ?
contain :
(1) Lines along the shear plane
(A) Lineation
deform or rotate
(B) Foliation
(2) Physical lines rotate faster than
the axes of the strain ellipse (C) Gneissosity

(3) In the Schmidt net, lines rotate (D) Parting

along great circle outward from
19. In the given diagram below, the dip
the shearing direction
of the plane A is :
(4) The sense of line rotation is the
same for any line orientation

(A) (1) and (3) are true; (2) and (4)

are false

(B) (2) is true; (1), (3) and (4) are

false

(C) (2) and (4) are true; (1) and (3)

are false

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are true

17. X = Y > Z = 1 indicates : (A) 30º

(A) Uniaxial contraction

(B) 60º
(B) Uniaxial extension
(C) 45º
(C) Biaxial contraction

(D) Biaxial extension (D) 24º

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20. Despite being older, the Aravali 22. The separation between arrival

rocks from the type area are lower times of P and S waves increases
with distance; the ratio of P and S
grade than the juxtaposed Delhi
waves velocity .................. .
metasediments :
(A) Remains same with distance
(A) The two units experienced
(B) Decreases with distance
different metamorphism at

same place (C) Decreases logarithmically

(D) Becomes infinity

(B) The two units were temporally

apart then accreted 23. The mineral assemblage Larnite-

Merwinite-Spurrite-Ranikinite is
(C) Delhi experience thermal
typical of :
metamorphism due to Lava flow
(A) Zeotite facies
(D) The Aravalis deposited latter
(B) Blue schist facies
than Delhi
(C) Sanidinite facies
21. The triple junction between African,
(D) Granulite facies
Indo-Australian and Antarctic
24. The Acheulean hand axes begin to
plates is of the type :
appear at around :
(A) RTR
(A) 4.6 Ma
(B) RTF
(B) 1.76 Ma
(C) RRR
(C) 0.78 Ma

(D) FTR (D) 50,000 years BP

7 [P.T.O.
 APR - 35224/II—A

25. The amino acid formation is dextro 27. The average movement of glacial ice

i.e. right rotating after an organism

in the glaciers are of the order of :
dies then, which one of the following
(A) 10 to 300 m/year
is true ?

(B) 10 to 300 km/year

(A) The amount of dextro rotations

can be counted for age (C) 1.5 to 250 cm/year

(B) Dextro to Levo ratio can be (D) 100 to 200 m/day

determined for age
28. The intrinsic strength parameters of
(C) There is no use for age
a soi l ar e c' = 0, ' = 30º. Assuming
calculation
that in an element of this soil failure
(D) Amino acids complete the
has been reach on a plane at 45º to
rotation by 10000 years
the horizontal, with a value
26. During quaternary, the magneto-
'f = 10 kPa. Find the shear stress
stratigraphy boundary; Brunhes/
at failure f :
Matuyam occur presicely at :
(A) 9.76 kPa
(A) 2.56 Ma

(B) 8.26 kPa

(B) 0.78 Ma

(C) 3.58 Ma (C) 7.90 kPa

(D) 1.78 Ma (D) 5.77 kPa

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29. Features given below are diagnostic 30. .................. is shallow diagensis stage
to which sedimentary environment ?
Tectonic setting : occurring shortly after burial.
Mostly found in rifting continental
grabens, foreland basin, overthrust (A) Paragensis
mountain belts undergoing rapid
uplift. (B) Eodiagensis
Geometry :
Wedge-shaped, limited in lateral (C) Mesodiagensis
extend upto few meters to
kilometers, thickness can be
(D) Telodiagensis
tremendous if subsidence is
persistent.
31. Pettijohn proposed the “Fluidity
Typical Sequence :
Coarsing upward of cross-bedded Index” based on :
sandstone channel lag
conglomerates, unsorted debris-flow
(A) Matrix-Rich Wacke Versus
deposits.
Sedimentology : Matrix-Poor Arenite
Extreme range in grain size
boulders to clay, fanglomerate and (B) Ratio of Rock Fragments to
cross-bedded sandstone common
unsorted debris-flow, reverse Feldspar
grading, sieve deposit, sediment
immature and angular with rock
(C) Perentage of Quartz or Ratio of
fragments and feldspar.
Fossils : Quartz to Feldspar + Rock
Fossils and organic matter are rare.
Fragments
(A) Lacustrine
(B) Meandering fluvial
(D) Accessory Mineral Versus Mica
(C) Alluvial fans
(D) Braded fluvial and Clay Minerals

9 [P.T.O.
 APR - 35224/II—A

32. An engineering mechanics soil 33. A large landfill is planned on 10 m

project, a stratigraphic column below of normally consolidated clays with

the horizontal ground level of a wide an underlying rock stratum. The

valley is formed by 3 m of coarse water table is at ground surface.

gravels over a 12 m clay deposit. Clay samples extracted from the

Below the clay layer a highly stratum at an intermediate point at

permeable fractured sandstone. a depth of 5 m indicated following

The water table in the gravel bed soil properties : saturated unit

is 0.6 m below ground surface. The weight, rsat = 20 kN/m3, void ratio,

sandstone bed has aretesian e0 = 0.8 and compression index

Cc = 0.15.
condition having piezometric height

of 6 m above ground level and the Determine the settlement of the

gravel bed is very parmeable and clay layer if the increase in vertical

assumbed to be hydrostatic. stress due to the landfill load is

Determine the hydraulic gradient. = 80 kPa :

(A) 0.04 (A) 05 cm

(B) 0.55 (B) 33 cm

(C) 0.70 (C) 97 cm

(D) 0.96 (D) 106 cm

10
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34. The foundation footing for a viaduct 36. Abyssal hills covers approximately
are to be sunk into sand and gravel how much area in seafloor ?
alluvium. According to the borehole
(A) 20-25%
data the water table is at
(B) 40-50%
considerable depth, below the
foundation area of influence. (C) 80-85%
The unit weight of the ground is (D) 30-40%
r = 20 kN/m3 and the effective angle
37. Which of the following statements
of internal friction, as deduced from
about seafloor hydrothermal vents
penetrometer test is ' = 35º.
are correct ?
Find the effective ultimate bearing (i) They are most common near
capacity for the footing of the passive continental margin.
viaduct, 4 m wide and 8 m long on
(ii) They are so hot and deepseated,
the ground plan, if they are sunk
the environment prevents
2 m below ground level.
organisms from living there.
(A) 1105 kPa
(iii) They form when dissolved
(B) 3313 kPa minerals in the hot fluid form

(C) 5002 kPa solid precipitates when exposed

to cold seawater.
(D) 8017 kPa
(iv) They form when seawater
35. The zone of transition between a
percolates into the oceanic crust
continent and an ocean basin is and gets superheated by magma
known as : chamber.
(A) Continental slope (A) (i) and (ii)
(B) Continental shelf (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) Continental margin (C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) Abyssal floor (D) (ii) and (iv)

11 [P.T.O.
 APR - 35224/II—A

38. The highest salinity is observed 42. In general, electrical methods are
between :
commonly employed for :
(A) 0-5º N latitude
(A) Relatively shallow subsurface
(B) 5-10º N latitude
exploration
(C) 20-40º N latitude
(B) Deep subsurface exploration
(D) 10-20º N latitude
39. The average annual temperature (C) Very deep subsurface exploration
of surface seawater at the equator
(D) Groundwater exploration only
is :
(A) 35.45 ºC 43. In Wenner configuration the

(B) 37.5 ºC electrodes are :

(C) 26.7 ºC (A) Equally spaced

(D) 24.5 ºC (B) Unequally spaced
40. Primary reason of current flowing
(C) Space between current electrodes
from Atlantic ocean to the
Mediterranean Sea is : is more than the potential
electrodes
(A) Gibralter strait
(B) Salinity difference (D) Space between current

(C) Temperature difference electrodes is less than the

(D) Density difference potential electrodes

41. The height of tropopause decreases 44. Coal which burns like a candle when
rapidly in : ignited is called :
(A) Intertropical convergence zone
(A) Boghead coal
(B) Subtropical and polar front
zone (B) Cannel coal

(C) The tropics from east to west (C) Lignite

(D) The tropics from west to east (D) Anthracite

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45. Which method is used for detailed 48. Lake Superior type of deposits are
related to :
exploration of oil and gas ?
(A) Sedimentary BIF
(A) Gravity method
(B) VHMS
(B) Magnetic method (C) Greisens
(D) Skarns
(C) Seismic reflection method
49. Match the following :
(D) Electrical resistivity method I
46. Which of the following minerals is (1) Magmatic dissemination

best suited for fluid inclusion (2) Magmatic segregation

thermometry ? (3) Residual liquid segregation

(4) Residual liquid injection
(A) Magnetite
II
(B) Ilmenite (i) Chromite deposits of Keonjhar,
Odisha
(C) Fluorite
(ii) Titaniferous magnetite deposits
(D) Chalcopyrite of Adirondack region of New
York
47. Minerals that form natural solutions
(iii) Diamond deposit of Panna,
in each other and at determined Madhya Pradesh
lower temperature unmix to form (iv) Titaniferous magnetite bands
distinguishable mineral inter- of Bushveld Complex, South
Africa
growths called :
Codes :
(A) Colloform (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) Colloidal (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) Exsolution
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) Replacement (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

13 [P.T.O.
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50. The association of serpentinites, 53. Just prior to a Tsunami coming

radiolarian cherts and podiform ashore, sea level appears to fall
chromites is found in : quickly. This phenomenon is called :

(A) Mid oceanic ridges (A) Sea level drop

(B) Layered igneous complexes (B) Draw fall

(C) Continental rift zones (C) Draw down

(D) Suture zones (D) Dip in sea level

51. Which of the following is not a type 54. The embankments constructed
of carbonate hosted strata-bound parallel to river for flood protection
deposit ? are called :

(A) Mississippi valley-type (A) Terraces

(B) Irish-type (B) Groynes

(C) Appalachian-type (C) Levees

(D) Kiruna-type (D) Guide banks

52. The government defines less than 55. The saline water-fresh water
............... cubic meters per person per interface in coastal aquifers was
year as water scarcity. thoroughly studied by :

(A) 1000 (A) Darcy

(B) 2000 (B) Dupuit

(C) 2500 (C) Ghyben-Herzberg

(D) 3000 (D) Bousinesq

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56. The boundary between vadoze and 59. Which of the following is not a
phreatic zone is called as ............ . craton ?
(A) Water Depth
(A) Singhbhum
(B) Water Table
(B) Dharwar
(C) Ground Table
(C) Bastar
(D) Water Line
(D) Eastern ghats
57. Which water remains in the soil
after gravitational water is drained 60. Which one of the following schist
out and that is in the form of a film belt does not belong to Dharwar
around the soil grains ? craton ?
(A) Gravitational
(A) Sonakhan schist belt
(B) Hydroscopic
(B) Holenarasipur schist belt
(C) Capillary
(C) Sandur schist belt
(D) Pellicular

58. In Dharwar craton, amphibolite to (D) Wayanad schist belt

granulite facies transition that takes 61. Which one of the following belong
place from north to south across the
to Purana sedimentary basins of
orthopyroxene isograd is popularly
peninsular India ?
known as :
(A) Krishna-Godavari basin
(A) Moyar-Bhavani Shear Zone

(B) Fermor Line (B) Khariar-Indravati basin

(C) Palghat-Cauvery Shear Zone (C) Cambay basin

(D) Achankovil Shear Zone (D) Cauvery basin

15 [P.T.O.
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62. Match the following : 63. Which of the following statement/s

is/are not correct with respect to
List-I positive southern Oscillation Index ?
(i) Port Darwin pressure exceeds
(a) Palamau Tiger Reserve
Tahiti

(b) Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary (ii) Pressure high over Indian Ocean
and low over east pacific
(c) Shikari Devi Wildlife Sanctuary
(iii) Low rainfall over eastern pacific
and prospects of good monsoon
(d) Bandipur National Park
rain over India and Indian
ocean.
List-II
Codes :
(i) Haryana
(A) (i) only

(ii) Karnataka (B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(iii) Jharkhand
(D) (iii) only
(iv) Himachal Pradesh 64. The absolute humidity of a rising
air parcel is 20 grams per cubic
Codes : meter. The volume of the air parcel
is one cubic meter. If the volume of
(a) (b) (c) (d)
air parcel increases four times of its
initial size, what will be the absolute
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
humidity ?

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (A) 80 grams per cubic meter
(B) 10 grams per cubic meter
(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) 8 grams per cubic meter
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (D) 5 grams per cubic meter

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65. Which of the following statements 67. Amongst the given states, in India
correctly describes barchan ? tropical thorn forests occur in :
(i) Maharashtra
(i) This type of dune has the
(ii) Nagaland
outline of a crescent and the (iii) Karnataka
points of crescent are directed (iv) Arunachal Pradesh
downwind. Codes :
(A) (i) only
(ii) On the upwind side of the crest,
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
the sand slope is steep.
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(iii) On the downwind side of the (D) (iv) only
dune, within the crescent the 68. Read the following statements
carefully and select the correct
stope is gentle.
answer from the codes given below :
Codes : (i) When sand arrives at a
particular section of a beach
(A) (i) only more rapidly than it is carried
away, the beach is widened
(B) (i) and (ii) only
and built oceanward, causing
(C) (iii) only retrogradation.
(ii) When sand leaves a section of
(D) (ii) and (iii) only a beach more rapidly than it is
brought in, the beach is
66. The earth wobbles slowly as it spins
narrowed and the shoreline
on its axis. This is known as : moves landward, causing
progradation.
(A) Precession
Codes :
(B) Variability (A) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(B) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(C) Obliquity
(C) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(D) Eccentricity (D) (i) is false but (ii) is true
17 [P.T.O.
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71. Which of the following statements

69. In terms of area which land-
regarding remote sensing is correct ?
forms dominate the terrestrial
(A) The interaction of EMR with
environment ? target

(B) The emission of EMR from the

(A) Landforms made by waves and
target
currents
(C) Both (A) and (B)

(B) Landforms made by wind action (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

72. Which of the following rock type

(C) Landforms made by glacial ice
show light tone ?
(D) Landforms made by fluvial (A) Marble

action (B) Basalt

(C) Dolerite
70. Which is the point on the ground
(D) Magnetite quartzite
vertically beneath the center of the
73. Which of the following is not a
camera lens at the time the aerial
radiometric correction used in image
photograph was taken ? processing when there is interference
with the radiance measured by an
(A) Fudicial mark instrument ?

(B) Camera lens center (A) Noise removal

(B) Ozone depletion correction

(C) Isocenter
(C) Sun angle correction
(D) Gound Nadir (D) Haze correction

18
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74. By ‘Spatial Data’ we mean that data 77. The location of an earthquake’s
that has : epicentre can be determined from

(A) Complex values the arrival times of the P and S

waves at a seismograph station. The
(B) Positional values
exact position of the epicentre can
(C) Graphic values
be determined from data at :
(D) Decimal values
(A) One station
75. What is the correct set of combination
(B) Two stations
in radio waves ?

(A) Shorter wavelength : high (C) Three or more stations

frequency (D) One near and one far station

(B) Shorter wavelength : less 78. If P-wave and S-wave were to go

frequency from a solid to a liquid medium,

(C) Longer wavelength : less what would happen to their

frequency velocity ?

(D) Longer wavelength : high (A) Velocity of P-wave and S-wave

frequency would increase

76. Thermal maturation of sedimentary (B) Velocity of P-wave and S-wave

organic matter to hydrocarbons is would decrease
driven by :
(C) Velocity of P-wave would
(A) Temperature only
decrease and velocity of S-wave
(B) Time only would decrease to zero
(C) Both temperature and time (D) P-wave and S-wave velocities
(D) Temperature and pressure would not change

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79. Plate boundary zones are

82. Which of the following logs is used
characterized by the presence of :
for depth matching and well to well
(A) High heat flow

(B) High seismic and magmatic correlation while running other

activity
logs ?
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Natural gamma
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

80. Continental convergent zones may (B) Gamma-gamma

be related with :
(C) Neutron log
(A) Compression and thin crust

(B) Compression and thick crust (D) S.P. log

(C) Extension and thin crust

83. How much time will be required
(D) Extension and thick crust
for a sample of hydrogen-3 to lose
81. Earth acts as a :

(A) Low pass filter, which attenuates 75% of its radioactivity ? Half life
the high frequency signals
of tritium is 12.26 years :
(B) High pass filter, which attenuates
the high frequency signals (A) 36.8 years

(C) High pass filter, which

(B) 24.5 years
attenuates the low frequency
signals (C) 49 years
(D) Low pass filter, which attenuates
the low frequency signals (D) 20.6 years

20
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84. If the geothermal gradient is 86. ENSO is a complex interannual

K tropical oscillation due to the
0.02 and the corresponding
m
unstable coupling of the :
rock thermal conductivity is
(A) Ocean and the atmosphere
3 W/m/K, the estimated heat flow
(B) Ocean and the land
would be :
(C) Land and the ocean
(A) 6 milli Watt/m2
(D) The atmosphere and the land
(B) 60 milli Watt/m2
87. Long-range or seasonal forecasting
(C) 600 milli Watt/m2
aims to predict weather at lead
(D) 0.06 milli Watt/m2 times of :

85. The greater the distance between (A) 3 to 5 days

the seismic event and a recording (B) 7 days to 3 weeks

seismograph station, the ............... is
(C) annual
the time it takes for the first wave
(D) a month or a season
to arrive, and the .............. the
88. The effects of gravity acting on
interval between the arrival of P and
perturbations to a density gradient
S waves.
in vertical are referred as :

(A) Shorter, longer (A) Rossby waves

(B) Greater, longer (B) Kelvin waves

(C) Longer, shorter (C) Gravity waves

(D) Shorter, shorter (D) Inertia waves

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89. Anticyclones in the wind plots 92. Which brachiopod genus has a
are :
straight hinge line ?
(A) Clockwise circulations north of
the equator (A) Gryphus

(B) Clockwise circulations south of

(B) Spirifer
the equator

(C) Anticlockwise circulations south (C) Terebratula

of the equator
(D) Lingula
(D) Clockwise circulations of the
equator 93. The feeding body of bryozoan is
90. The chemical composition of the called :
planktic foraminifera’s shell/test
is : (A) Cystid
(A) CaCO3
(B) Coelom
(B) MgSO4
(C) Polypide
(C) SiO2

(D) Ca3(PO)4 (D) Operculum

91. Widely spaced isobars indicate a :
94. Trace fossil pascichnia indicate
(A) Steap pressure gradient and
strong winds which strategy ?

(B) Weak pressure gradient and (A) Crawling

light winds
(B) Grazing
(C) Steap pressure gradient and
light winds
(C) Resting
(D) Weak pressure gradient and
strong winds (D) Escaping

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95. Which foraminifera is used as an 98. The infiltration rate of a soil

index fossil for the Eocene and depends on the ................. .

Oligocene ? (A) Initial soil moisture condition

(B) Physical properties of the soil

(A) Miogypinid
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Globotruncanella
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Lepidocycilina 99. The gravity measurements over the
oceans indicate that generally the
(D) Fusulinid
free-air anomaly is nearly zero. This
96. Which Global Stratigraphic Section is because :
and Point (GSSP) stage boundary is (A) The ocean basins are poorly
marked in a speleothem ? sedimented

(B) Ocean basins are in isostatic

(A) Northgrippian stage
equilibrium
(B) Meghalayan stage
(C) Mantle below oceans are
(C) Gelesian stage isostatic

(D) Free-air anomaly is invalid due

(D) Zanclean stage
to ocean waters
97. The age of Takche Formation, Spiti
100. Low concentration of Fe in surface
Valley, Himachal is : ocean waters after the Late
Archaean may be linked to :
(A) Ordovician
(A) Less submarine volcanism
(B) Cambrian
(B) Great carbon event
(C) Jurassic
(C) Great oxidation event
(D) Palaeocene (D) Decreased sea floor spreading

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ROUGH WORK

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