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The document consists of a series of meteorology questions covering various topics such as the tropopause, temperature gradients, air pressure, and atmospheric stability. It includes multiple-choice questions that test knowledge on weather phenomena, temperature relationships, and atmospheric conditions. The questions are aimed at assessing understanding of meteorological principles and concepts.
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Save Met - MCQ's 5 Sahil kurana For Later METEOROLOGY QUESTIONS
1. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
a. Itis, by definition, an isothermal layer
b. It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
Itis, by definition, a temperature inversion
d, It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
Ata certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the tropowause
chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
54S
b, 50°C
“565°C
4. 58°C
Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
2. [tis higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
b. Its higher in equatorial regions than in Polar Regions
¢ Itis highest in middle latitudes
4. There is no significant difference with change of latitude
4, What is the boundary layer between troposphere and Stratosphere called?
a.Tropopause.
b.lonosphere.
cStratosphere.
d.Atmosphere.
How would you characterise an air temperature of -5°C at the 200 hPa level over Western
Europe?
a. Within +/-5°C of ISA
b. High
©. Low
d. Very high
6. What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather
stand-point?,
a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
©. Hydrogen
d. Water vapour
7»,How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level ?
2. Within +/-5°C of ISA
b. Low
c. Very low
d. High
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629010.
11.
12.
A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical
temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the
summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
ara°C
b.0rc
Going from the equator to the North Pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a. decreases and its temperature increases
b. increases and its temperature increases
. increases and its temperature decreases
d, decreases and its temperature decreases
‘The temperature at 10,000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
a.-20C
b.-35°C
‘The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about:
a. 14km
b. 16km
& 11km
d. 8km
In the lower part of the stratosphere the téfmperature
a. increases with altitude
b. increases at first and decreases aftemwiatd
c. is almost constant
d. decreases with altitude
13, The station pressure used! in'surface weather charts is
a. QNE
b. OFF
©. OFE
d. QNH
14, The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not
available, What is the QFF?
a. At is not possible to give a definitive answer
be Moré than 1022 hPa
1022 hPa
> Less than 1022 hPa
15, The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C
higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
a. More than 1016 hPa
b. 1016 hPa
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629022,
23.
©. Less than 1016 hPa
d._Itis not possible to give a definitive answer
16. The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to
about
32.000 FT
34.000 FT
39.000 FT
30,000 FT
17. How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level over Westernv Europe?
in +/-5°C of ISA
b. Low
©. Very low
d. High
18, The QFF at an airfield located 69 meters below sea level is 1030 hPa. Their temperature is 10°C lower
than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
1030 hPa
Itis not possible to give a definitive answer
More than 1030 hPa
Less than 1030 hPa
19. Whatis the approximate vertical interval which is equal to’a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of
5500m?
8m (27 FT),
32 m (105 FT).
64 m (210 FT).
15 m (50 FT).
20, The greater the pressure gradient the,
a. closer the isobars and the lower'the temperatures
b. further the isobars will be partand the higher the temperature
c. closer the isobars and the stranger the wind
d. further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
21, In the troposphere thé decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
a. is smaller at highePlevels than at lower levels
b. remains constant at all levels.
©. is greétérathigher levels than at lower levels.
d. isin the order of 27 hPa near MSL
Subsidence is:
‘a( vertically upwards motion of air
bb the same as convection
«. vertically downwards motion of air
d. horizontal motion of air
‘Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as ai
a. loses water vapour
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
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25.
26.
27.
28,
29,
30,
31.
b. is heated by compression
©. reaches warmer layers.
d. is heated by expansion
What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
a. Divergence with descending ai
b. Divergence with lifting,
c. Convergence with descending air.
d. Convergence with lifting,
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression
because of :
a. surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depréssion
b, surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
c. surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air ip-the depression
d, surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air if the depression
In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land'duiting the summer in the
centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
a. thick low level cloud.
b. Calm winds, haze.
c. showers and thunderstorms.
d, cumulus clouds and thunderstorms
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high préssure region over land in the winter?
a. thick stratus with continuous rain,
b. The possibility of snow showers.
c. A tendency for fog and low stratus
d. Thunderstorms.
Divergence in the upper air results, nearthe surface, in
a. falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
b. falling pressure and likely fofmation of clouds
«rising pressure and likely,farmation of clouds
d. rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
Where are you likely to fitid the strongest winds close to the ground?
a. Where there islittleariation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
b. In the transifion.zone between two air masses
c. At the entre of a low-pressure system
d. At the centfe of a high-pressure system
Generally as altitude increases:
‘a( temperature decreases and density increases
b. temperature, pressure and density decreases
¢. temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d. temperature decreases and pressure density increases
In the troposphere:
a. over cold air, the pressure is higher at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
09871866290b. over cold air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
¢. over warm air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over warm air
d. the upper level pressure depends solely on the relative humidity below
32. Density at the surface will be low when:
a. Pressure is high and temperature is high.
b. Pressure is high and temperature is low.
¢. Pressure is low and temperature is low.
d. Pressure is low and temperature is high.
33. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
a. Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL. 180.
b, Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
©. Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
d. Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
34, When flying at FL180 in the Southern Hemisphere you experience a left crosswind, What is happening to
your true altitude if indicated altitude is constant?
a. Remains the same
b. Increasing
. Decreasing
d. Impossible to tell
35. An aircraft flying in the Alps on a very cold day, RPS 1013.set iitthe altimeter, flies level with the summit of
the mountains. Altitude from aneroid altimeter reads:
a. Same as mountain elevation
b. Lower than mountain elevation
¢. Higher than mountain elevation
d. Impossible to determine
36, If you are flying on a QNH 1009 on ver¥cold day and you circle the top of a peak in the Alps, your altimeter
will read
a. The same as the elevation of the’peak
b. Lower than the elevation of the peak
c. Higher than the elevation ofthe peak
d. Not enough information to tell
37, You are flying in the’Alps at the same level as the summits on a hot day, What does the altimeter read?
a. Same altitude asthe summit
b. Higher altitude as the summit
c. Lower altitude as the surnmit
4. Inipossible to tell
38, Whatis the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport SOft below MSL?
"anQFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
©. QFE> QNH
d, There is no clear relationship
39, Up to FL 180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer between FL 60 and FL 120?
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
09871866290a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft
40. You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the Northern Hemisphere;
. ifthe wind is from the north there will be a gain in altitude
b. ifthe wind is from the south there is again in altitude
¢. if you encounter northerly drift, there is a gain in altitude
d. you fly towards an area of lower pressure, and therefore, experience a loss in altitude.
41. Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in
a. summer during the night and early morning,
b. winter in the afternoon.
c. summer in the afternoon.
d. winter during the night and early morning.
42. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere
a. hasa fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT
b. varies with time
c.hasa fixed value of 1°C/100m
d. has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m
43, Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface tempeFature, under shelter, is 3°C. The sky is
covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the skys covered all night, the minimum temperature
of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be
a. slightly below +3°C.
b. significantly below 0°C.
«slightly above #3°C.
d, significantly above +3
44, Ona clear sky, continental ground Surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached
approximately
a. one hour before sunrise.
b. halfan hour after sunrise
¢. half an hour before Sunrise
d, at the moment the 3un'Tises
45, Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?
a. Terrestfial sa¥iation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
b. Warm air.béing lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain,
c. The movernent of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
,d>Hleatting of the air by subsidence
When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
a, Itincreases.
b. Itrremains constant.
¢ Itincreases up to 100%, and then remains stable,
d. Itdecreases.
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629047. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?
a. Solid direct to liquid
b. Liquid direct to solid
¢. Liquid direct to vapour
d. Solid direct to vapour
48. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were measured. What
‘temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?
a. Itmust decrease to +7°C.
b. It must decrease to +5°C.
c. It must decrease by 5°C.
d. It must decrease to +6°C.
49, Relative humidity:
a. increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
b. is higher in warm air than in cool air
higher in cool air than in warm air
d, decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
50. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?
a. Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100:
b. Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
. Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100
d, Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X100
51. The difference between temperature and dewpoint]sgreater in:
a. moist air
b. air with high temperature
air with low temperature
d. dry air
52, How does relative humidity and thé:dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying
temperature?
a. When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant.
b. When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
c. When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.
d, When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.
53, ELR is 1°C/100m.
a. Neutral when dry
b, Absolute stability
¢. Abs6lute instability
dy€onditional stability
'54-Why does air cool as it rises?
@. Itexpands
b, Itcontracts
¢. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629055, The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 100m is 13
a. Unstable
b. Conditionally unstable
¢ Stable
d. Cannot tell
Is the atmosphere
56, What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Tem}
height)
a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable
57, What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
a. Good visibility
bb, Calm conditions
Windshear
d. Unstable conditions
58.A layer of air can be
a. Conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated,
b, Conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c. Neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturatéd
d. Allof the above
59, In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100m refers to:
a. DALR
b, SALR
ELR
. ALR,
60. In unstable air, surface visibility.i3'most likely to be restricted by
a. haze
b. drizzle
c. low stratus
d. showers of rain or sndw,
61, The stability in afayer is increasing if
a, warm air is adyeted in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
b, warm ainfs advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
d. cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
62. Where are the greatest wind speeds?
®, Tropopause level
b, 5500m
c. Where the air converges
d. Above the Alps
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629063.
64,
65,
66.
67.
68.
69,
70?
Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression travelling west to east, the wind
will
a. Continually veer
b. Continually back
c. Back then veer
d. Veer then back
Whatis a land breeze?
a. From land over water at night
b. From land over sea by day
c. From sea over land by night
d. From sea over land by day
‘The gradient wind is more than geostrophic wind around an anticyclone because the:
a. centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
b. centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
c.effect of coriolis is added to friction
d, coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
Whatis the Bora?
a. Cold katabatic wind over the Adriatic
b. Northerly wind blowing from the Mediterranean
c. Warm anabatic wind blowing to the Mediterranean
d, An anabatic wind in the Rockies
Flying from an area of low pressure in the Southern|Hemisphere at low altitudes, where is the
wind coming from?
a. Right and slightly on the nose
b. Left and slightly on the tail
Left and slightly on the nose
d, Right and slightly on the tail
‘What causes the Geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a low?
a. Centrifugal force adds to.the gradient force
b. Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
©. Coriolis force adds tithe gradient force
d, Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force
‘A METAR for Pats. gave the surface wind at 260°/20, Wind at 2000ft is most likely to bet
a. 260°/15
b. 210°/30
©. 290°/40
ang 75/15,
‘A large pressure gradient is shown by:
a. Closely spaced isobars - low temperature
b. Distant spaced isobars - high temperature
¢. Close spaced isobars - strong winds
d. Close spaced isobars - light winds
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
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71. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate latitudes?
a. In an area of Low pressure
b. In an area of High pressure
In the warm air between two fronts
d. Ina weak anticyclone
72. Ata coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline. You are downwind over the sea
with the runway to your right. On a warm summer afternoon, what would you expect the wind
to be on finals?
a. Crosswind from the right
b. Headwind
c.Tailwind
d. Crosswind from the left
73. If flying in the Alps with a Foehn effect from the south
a. Clouds will be covering the southern passes of the Alps
b. CAT on the northern side
c. Wind veering and gusting on the northern side
d, Convective weather on the southern passes of the Alps
74, Comparing the surface wind to the 3000ft wind
a. Surface wind veers and is less then the 3000ft wind,
b. Surface wind blows along the isobars and is less than the. 3000ftwind
c. Surface wind blows across the isobars and is less than the 3000ft wind
d, Both are the same
75. The Geostrophic Wind blows at your flight level if? Northern Hemisphere the true altitude and
icated altitude remain constant, is the crosswind
a. From the left
b. From the right
. No crosswind
d. Impossible to determine
76. Foehn winds are
a. Cold fall wind
b. Cold katabatic
c. Warm descending winds
d. Warm anabatic
77. Whatiis the difference between Gradient and Geostrophic winds?
a. Difference in temperatures
b. Alot of friction
Curved isobars and straight isobars
‘dC Different latitudes and densities
78. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure
a. Centripetal force
b. Centrifugal force
©. Pressure force
4, Coriolis force
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
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79, Whatis the relationship between the 5000 ft wind and the surface wind in the southern
hemisphere
a. surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have the same speed
b. surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a slower speed
c. surface winds are veered from the 5000ft and have a slower speed
d. surface winds are backed from the 5000ft and have a faster speed
80. Whatis the relationship between the 2000 ft wind and the surface wind in the Northern
Hemisphere
a. surface winds blow across isobars towards a high
b. surface winds blow parallel to isobars
c. surface winds blow across isobars towards a low
d, surface winds have laminar flow
is caused by?
a. Mixing of fronts
b. Horizontal pressure difference
c. Earth rotation
d, Surface friction
82. For the same pressure gradient at 50°N, 60°N and 40°N, the geostrophie wind speed i
a. Greatest at 6ON
b. Least at SON
©. Greatest at 40N
d, The same atall latitudes
83, The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at 2000 ft
would be?
a. Veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer
b. Backed at the surface, veered above thelfriction layer
c. Veered at the surface, backed abovethe,friction layer
d. Backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer
84, Where are easterly and westerly jets found?
a. Northern hemisphere only
b. Southern hemisphefe only
c. Northern and southern hemisphere
d, There are no easterly jets,
85,
If you fly with left driftin the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to surface pressure?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
cerstays the same
‘d(Cannot tell
86, Flying conditions in Ci cloud and herizontal visibility
a. Less than 500m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. Greater than 1000m vis, light/mod rime ice
¢. Less then 500m vis, no icing
d, Greater than 1000m vis, no icing
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629087. Whatis the composition of Ci cloud?
a, Super cooled water droplets
b. lee crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles
88. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle?
a.St
b.cb
ci
d. Ac
89, Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of
a. Poor visibility
b. Thunderstorms
©. Turbulence
d. Smooth flying below
90. What are Lenticularis clouds a possible indication of
a. Mountain waves
b. Instability
c. Developing Cu and Cb
d, Horizontal wind shear in the upper atmosphere
91. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?
a.Cb
b.Ns
c.Se
d.Ci
92, Altostratus is
a. Alow level cloud
b. A medium level cloud
c. Ahigh level cloud
d. Aheap type cloud
93, Which cloud would you encounter the most intensive rain?
a. Ci
b.Ns
cSt
d.Sc
94, CB’cloud in summer contains
‘(Water droplets
be ice crystals
©. Water droplets, ice crystals and super cooled water droplets
d. Water droplets and ice crystals
95. Which cloud would produce showers?
a. NS
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
09871866290
2b.AS
«cS
4.cB
96. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?
a. 15:00
b, 12:00
©1700
4. 07:00
97. Whats the base of alto cumulus in summer?
a. 0-1500"
b. 1500 - 7000°
c. 7000’ - 15000"
d. 7000" - 16500"
98. If you see Alto Cu Castellanus what does it indicate?
a. The upper atmosphere is stable
b, Subsistence
¢. Instability in the lower atmosphere
d, Middle level instability
99, To dissipate cloud
a. Subsidence
b, Decrease in temperature
© Increase pressure
d. Convection
100. Cu is an indication of
a. vertical movement of air
b, stability
«. the approach of a warm front
d. the approach of a cold front:
101. What is the most common freezi
a. Freezing pellets
b, Freezing rain and freezing drizzle
«. Freezing graupel
d, Freezing hail and freezing snow
precipitation?
102, What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
a. AGtratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
Jb>A clmulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
‘e(An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
"d, Water vapour and high pressure
103. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?
a. Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.
b. Thermal thunderstorms.
©. Orographic thunderstorms.
SAHIL KHURANA
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1314
d. Frontal thunderstorms.
104. In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm
formation?
a. Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
b. Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
©. Unstable conditions and high moisture content
d, Stable conditions and high moisture content
105. Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily thé
manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements‘'s eorréct?
a. Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and.temhpotarily
lose the hearing.
b. An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the
surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
c. An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as.a “Faradays cage”, which means that struck of
lightning seldom occurs. But ifit happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a
shock,
d, Aircraft made by composite material can’t conducta lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.
106, Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in sumrier over land in moderate
latitudes?
a. Airmass thunderstorms
b, Warm front thunderstorms
. Cold mass thunderstorms
d. Occlusion thunderstorms
107. Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines?
a. Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast
b, For severe squall lines a SIGMET is isstied.
. Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics.
d, For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
108. What is a microburst2
a. A small low pressure system, where the wind circulates with very high speeds.
b. Aconcentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.
c. Aconcentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air.
d, An extremely strong wind gust ina tropical revolving storm.
109. The fnitial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by
a. continuous'up draughts
b. g6ntinuous downdraughts
Je-frequent lightning
‘drain starting at surface
110, What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
a. Fog
b. Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels,
c. Thunderstorms
d, Strong steady rain
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
0987186629015
111. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
a. period in which precipitation is not falling
b. mature stage.
c. cumulus stage.
d. dissipating stage.
112, Where is a squall line to be expected?
a. In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels,
b. Atthe surface position of a warm front.
c. In front of an active cold front.
d. Behind a cold front.
113. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
a. 8km and 5-15 minutes
b. 12 km and 5-10 minutes
c.4 km and 1-5 minutes
d. 4 km and 30-40 minutes
114, During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds
most likely to occur?
a. Curnulus stage and mature stage.
b. Mature stage.
c. Cumulus stage.
d. ting stage.
115, Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are géiferally caused by
a. frontal lifting (warm front)
b. frontal lifting (cold front).
«. frontal occlusion.
d, thermal triggering.
116, What is the relationship between meteorological visibility and RVR in homogeneous fog?
a. The met. vis. is generally lessitharithe RVR.
b. The met. vis. generally isgteater than the RVR.
c. The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR.
4d. There is no specifi¢relationship between the two.
117. Visibility is teduced by haze when:
a, small watendroplets are present.
b. dust pafticleS are trapped below an inversion.
. a light drizzle falls.
4. a%old front just passed.
148, _ Whenis the RVR reported at most airports?
', When the RVR decreases below 800m,
b, When the RVR decreases below 2000m,
©. When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500m,
d. When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800m.
SAHIL KHURANA
SEC ~ 7, DWARKA, NEW DELHI
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119. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
a. When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air.
b. When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air.
c. When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air.
d. When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air.
120, The most likely reason for radiation fog to di
a. an increasingly stable atmosphere.
b, surface cooling
c. a low level temperature inversion.
d. increasing surface wind speed.
ste or become low stratus is:
121, Below a low level inversion visibility is often:
a. moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange.
b. very good at night.
©. very good in the early morning,
d. moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.
122. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?.
a. Shortly after midnight.
b. Shortly after sunrise.
©. Atsunset.
d, Late evening.
123. What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?
a. Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fogonly on the sea.
b. Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advéetion fog due to daytime cooling.
c. Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in.a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the
sea.
d. Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling.at night in a light wind, Advection fog forms when warm humid
air flows over a cold surface,
124. Frontal fog is most likely to.o¢cur:
a. in winter in the early morning.
b. in advance of a warm front.
«. in rear of a warm froht,
d, in summer in the €arly,torning,
125, While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:
RVR runwéy 23:400m. This information indicates the:
a.length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.
b.meteorological visibility on runway 23.
9¢Portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in
service,
‘diminimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.
126. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
a. Cold air passing over warm ground.
b. Heat loss from the ground on clear nights.
©. Dry, warm air passing over warm ground,
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d, The passage of fronts,
127. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light
wind conditions?
a. Orographic.
b. Radi
c. Advection
d, Steam,
128. Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:
a. with warm mass properties,
b. thats absolutely stable,
c. thats stable.
d. with cold mass properties.
129. In unstable air, surface visi
a. haze.
b. drizzle,
«. low stratus.
d. showers of rain or snow.
lity is most likely to be restricted by:
130. When the temperature and dew poi
likely to be:
a. clear and cool,
b. high scattered clouds.
. unlimited visibility,
d. fog or low cloud.
are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most
131, Large supercooled water drops, which freeze’o1
a. rime ice
b. hoar frost
©. cloudy ice
d. clear ice
pact on an aircraft, form
132, Two aircraft, one with a Sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying
through the same cloud'with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled
droplets, Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
a, AircraftT experiences more icing than S.
b, Aircraft S and\Pexperience the same amount of icing,
¢. Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.
133)Freezing precipitation occurs
ad gnly in the precipitation of a cold front
Bronly in the precipitation of a warm front
‘c. mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
d. mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
134, A vertical temperature profile i
a, intersects the 0°C isotherm twice
ing when the temperature profile
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b, coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
«indicates temperatures below -40°C
d. indicates temperatures above 3°C
135. Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are
a. large and ata temperature just below freezing
b, small and ata temperature just below freezing
. smalland freeze rapidly
d. of any size at temperatures below -35'
136. A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
a. freeze immediately and create clear ice.
b, travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.
. travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.
d, freeze immediately and create rime ice.
137. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
a. slowly and do not spread out
b. slowly and spread out
rapidly and spread out
d. rapidly and do not spread out
138, Clear ice is dangerous because it:
a. isnot translucent and forms at the leading edges
b, spreads out and contains many air particles
._isheavy and is difficult to remove from the aircrafturfaces
d. is translucent and only forms at the leading edge’
139, At what degree of icing should ICAO’s “Charige of course and/or altitude desirable” recommendat
be followed?
a. Extreme
b, Moderate
Light
d. Severe
1140, Hoar frost is most fikely to form when
a. taking off from arfairficld with a significant ground inversion.
b, flying inside convéctive clouds.
. flying inside Stratiform clouds,
d._ flying in(Supercooled drizzle.
141, Freezing fog exists if fog droplets
a,/are supercooled
bare frozen
‘Bare freezing very rapidly
'd, freeze when temperature falls below zero
1142, Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing?
a. SHSN
b. PE
c +FZRA
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d. GR
143. In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?
a. Ahead ofa warm front in the winter
b, Ahead of a cold frontin the winter
Behind a warm front in the summer
d. Ahead of a cold front in the summer
144, The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on
a. roughness of surface, temperature, local time
b. temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate
c. stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
d. wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
145. Low level wind shea ly to be greatest
a. at the top of a marked surface-based inversion
b. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
c.at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
d, at the top of the friction layer.
146, A wide body aircraft takes off on a clear night in DELHI. Shortly after take off the aircraft’s rate of
climb drops to zero. This can be due to
a. very pronounced downdraft
b, low relative humidity
c.a very strong temperature inversion
d, sand/dust in the engines
147. What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a. Change of flight level.
b, Change of course.
«. Increase of speed.
d. Decrease of speed.
148. In which zone of a jet streams the strongest CAT to be expected?
a. The warm air side of the core,
b. Exactly in the centre Of the core.
c. About 12000 FT abovesthe core.
d, The cold air sid@of the core,
149. A zon€ of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. in spite of moderate gust you
decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?
a. Inétease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters
allow.
buDecrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents,
‘erlntcrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
d, Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters
allow
150. Which cloud type may i
a. Cirrocumulus
icate the presence of severe turbulence?
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b. Nimbostratus
. Altocumulus lenticularis
d, Stratocumulus
151. Fallstreaks or virga are?
a. strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
b. water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
c. strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
d, gusts associated with a well developed Bora
152. The presence of altocumnulus lenticularis is an indication of the
a. development of thermal lows
b. presence of valley winds
. presence of mountain waves
d. risk of orographic thunderstorms
153. Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to
a. experience little or no change in speed and direction
b, change significantly in speed and direction
c. change in speed but not in direction
d. change in direction but not in speed
154, A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is
reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The.wifid just above the inversion is 090/30. What is
the safest departure procedure?
a. Take-offis not possible under these conditions.
b, Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.
c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during thé passage through the inversion.
d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.
155, What will be the effect on the réading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly
before an active cold front passes?
a. Itwill be increasing,
b, Itwill remain unchanged.
&. Itwill be decreasing.
d. Itwill fluctuate up anékdown by about +/: 50 feet.
156. In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
a. In the directiorpof the warm sector isobars,
b, In the difectioh of the isobars ahead of the warm front.
. In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
d. Inthe direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
157. In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air
behind is colder than the cold air in front,
'b, behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude.
. behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude.
d. in front of the surface position of fronts only at a high altitude.
158, What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during
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the period following the passage of an active cold front?
a, It will show a small increase or decrease.
b. [twill have decreased.
¢. [twill remain unchanged
d. Iwill have increased.
159, In which main direction does a polar front depression move?
a. Across the front towards the north
b, Across the front towards the south
Along the front towards the east
d. Along the front towards the west
160, How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ?
a. The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air {assis above
ground level.
b, The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm.air
mass is above ground level
The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cote air is
above ground level.
d. The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the‘fess\eold air mass
is above ground level.
161, Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?
a. At the surface position of the front.
b, At the junction of the occlusion,
. Behind the front,
d. Ahead of the front.
162. On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching
a. QFE increases and QNH decreases,
b, QFE decreases and QNH increases,
QFE and QNH decrease.
d. QFE and QNH increase.
163, How do you recognize a Cold air pool?
a. Acold air pool may ohly be recognized on the surface chartas a high pressure area.
b, Asa low pressure areaaloft (e.g, on the 500 hPa chart}.
. Asa high pressiite’aréa aloft (e.g, on the 500 hPa chart).
d. Acold air poo! may only be recognized on the surface chart.as a low pressure area,
164, What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
a. Nothing {CAVOK).
byShowiers and thunderstorms.
Strong westerly winds,
‘dFine weather CU.
165. Read this description: “After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday
evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds
are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit
warmer.” Which of these weather phenomena is being described?
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1. Ablizzard
. Weather at the back of a the cold front
‘Acold front
|. Awarm front
pos
166. What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a
cold air mass?
a. Nimbostratus.
b. Cumulus.
. Altostratus.
d. Cumulonimbus.
167. Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching anactive
warm front at medium to low level ?
a. Severe thunderstorms at low altitude.
b. Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground.
© High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms.
d. Low cloud base and poor visibility.
168, The approximate inclined plane of a warm fronts:
a. 1/150
b. 1/50
1/300
d. 1/500
169, Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances cariOccur in a warm front if
a. the cold air is convectively stable.
b, the warm air is convectively stable.
. the warm air is convectively unstable.
d, the cold air is convectively unstable,
170, Which of the following zones is Most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
a. Frontal zones.
b, Occlusions.
. The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.
d. ‘The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.
171, What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an
active cold front ispassing?
a. It will refiain unchanged.
b, [twill firstdecrease then increase.
. [twill fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
dAewillirst increase then decrease,
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