FEB2024 FINAL COACHING ON FORENSIC SCIENCE

Prof. Ayo Wayne Lugtu, RCrim, MSCJ(u)

Cum Laude, PCCr 2015 | 3rd Placer Oct. 2015 BLEC

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
9. What is the science of palm print identification?
1. It is a laboratory technique used to establish a link A. Chiroscopy B. Poroscopy
between biological evidence and a suspect in a criminal C. Podoscopy D. Astrology
investigation. A DNA sample taken from a crime scene
is compared with a DNA sample from a suspect. 10. A 32 over 32 would indicate all ___ patterns in
A. DNA Fingerprinting primary classification.
B. Dactyloscopy A. whorl B. loop
C. Odontology C. tented arch D. radial
D. Palm Printing
11. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the
2. A part of the whorl or loop where the cores, deltas chemical nature and composition of the following
and ridges appear. EXCEPT:
A. type line B. bifurcation A. fingerprint B. explosives
C. pattern area D. furrow C. blood D. body fluids

3. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? 12. A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that the
A. Three B. Eight fingerprint cannot be forged.
C. Two D. Nine A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of constancy/permanency
4. If the number of intervening lines is below three C. Principle of infallibility
then this would have been? D. All of these
A. Inner tracing
B. Outer tracing 13. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a
C. Ring inner tracing sequence of spirals around core axes.
D. Meet tracing A. whorl
B. double loop
5. The core and delta are also termed as _____? C. central pocket loop
A. Inner Terminus B. Outer Terminus D. accidental
C. Focal Point D. Pattern Area
14. A kind of fingerprint which is found on soft and
6. This is a canal-like impression or depression found sticky objects such as wax and tape?
between the ridges. A. Visible print B. Semi-visible print
A. Friction skin B. Ridge surface C. Invisible print D. All of these
C. Ridges D. Furrows
15. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime
7. This refers to the study of fingerprints for the scene which are not clearly visible.
purpose of identification. A. Plane impressions
A. Dactyloscopy B. Dactylography B. Visible fingerprints
C. Podoscopy D. Poroscopy C. Rolled impressions
D. Latent fingerprints
8. Which of the following is the Dermis layer of the
skin? 16. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern
is not included in the combination?
A. Ulnar Loop B. Plain Whorl
C. Tented Arch D. Plain Arch

17. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint

pattern, 35% is being represented by what group?
A. Loop B. Whorl
C. Arch D. Radial Loop

18. Does that appear as a tiny black line with white

dots (called pores) in an inked finger impression?
A. sweat pores B. furrows
C. ridges D. sweat duct

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19. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene C. fingerprints D. volar skin
including those left accidentally or unconsciously.
A. Chance Impressions 30. In 1905, the Stratton brothers were convicted after
B. Latent Prints they were charged with murdering a Farrow couple.
C. Smudge Prints This accomplishment was a work of?
D. Fragmentary Prints A. Henry B. Vucetich
C. Faulds D. Herschel
20. The innermost ridges run parallel and surrounded
to the pattern area are known as _______. 31. He first used fingerprints on native contracts in
A. type lines Hooghly district in Jangipur, India.
B. criss-crossing ridges A. John Evangelist Purkinje
C. long ridges B. Dr. Henry Faulds
D. ridgeology C. Marcello Malpighi
D. Sir William Herschel
21. The introduction of Automated Fingerprint
Identification System (AFIS) technology began due to 32. It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be
the massive number of fingerprint cards manually carried from the womb to the tomb. What principle
processed by the FBI. greatly describes the phrase?
A. 1903 B. 1924 A. the principle of individuality
C. 1946 D. 1908 B. principle of permanency
C. principle of infallibility
22. What are the depressed portions or canal structure D. all of these
of the friction skin found between ridges?
A. Pores B. Indentions 33. The particular bone covered with friction skin and
C. Furrows D. Duct located at the tip of the finger.

23. What are those that are sometimes referred to as

papillary or epidermal ridges?
A. Latent ridges B. Dermal ridges
C. Friction ridges D. Fingerprints

24. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking

a rolled impression?
A. both little finger
B. both thumb finger
C. all fingers except thumb
D. both index finger

34. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which

25. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping
gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?
or slanting ridges flow towards the little finger?
A. People Vs. Medina
A. Loop B. Radial Loop
B. People Vs. Jennings
C. Ulnar Loop D. Tented Arch
C. Miranda Vs. Arizona
D. West Case
26. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
upthrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of
35. He is known as the Father of Fingerprint
the loop?
Examination.
A. Plain Arch
A. Johannes Evangelist Purkinje
B. Tented Arch
B. Alphonse Bertillon
C. Accidental Whorl
C. Calvin Goddard
D. Ulnar Loop
D. Hans Gross

27. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across

36. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during
the imaginary line, how is it counted?
its infants stage which usually starts:
A. One B. Two
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
C. Three D. Six
B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
28. Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms,
D. 5th to 6th months after birth
toes, and soles appear corrugated skin structure
known to the biologist as
37. The following are considerations used for the
A. friction skin B. handprints
identification of a loop except one:
C. fingerprints D. volar skin
A. a delta
B. a core
29. Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms,
C. a sufficient recurve
toes, and soles appear corrugated skin structure
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
known to the fingerprint examiner as
A. friction skin B. handprints

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38. What is the rule when there is a choice between a A. Imaginary lines B. Black lines
bifurcation and other type of delta found in the C. Furrows D. Ridges
fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected 48. The principle in fingerprint study states that
B. the other type of delta is selected fingerprints cannot be forged. Fingerprint is a reliable
C. Bifurcation is disregarded and a positive means of identification.
D. the one towards the core is selected A. principle of infallibility
B. principle of permanency
39. Damage in the friction skin can be temporary or C. principle of individuality
permanent. Such permanency in the damage may D. principle of constancy
cause scar or termed as?
A. Bent or crippled fingers 49. The following are the requisites of a loop except
B. Cicatriz one,
C. missing fingers at birth A. It must have a core
D.Amputated fingers B. It must have a complete circuit
C. It must have a delta
40. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the D. It must have a RC of at least one
classification formula. Where whorls appear in the
thumbs following the whorl tracings sub secondary 50. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of
classification. counting the intervening ridges that touch or cross an
A. subsecondary B. major division imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta.
C. key D. final A. Ridge counting B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing D. All of these
41. What type of pattern is that which could be found
on the lower box of the fingerprint card having a delta 51. Argentine Police officials began the first fingerprint
and core with a recurving ridge flowing towards the no. files based on Galton patterns. He developed his own
6 fingers? system of classifying prints which was officially adopted
A. Ulnar loop B. Radial loop in Argentina.
C. Loop D. arches A. Gilbert Thompson
B. Sir Francis Galton
42. Which of the following best describes a loop C. Juan Vucetich
pattern? D. Sir Edward Henry
A. 1 sufficient recurving ridge
B. has a bifurcation as the delta 52. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket
C. 1 core at the point of divergence loop whorl in the little finger it is derived by:
D. all of these A. Treating it as ulnar loop
B. Getting the ridge count of the top loop
43. All BUT one, are the elements of a whorl pattern? C. Getting the least ridge count
A. Usually possessing a circular formation at the center D. Getting the delta opposite each hand
B. Several patterns may be present
C. It may bear 2 or more deltas 53.
D. none of these

44. This kind of ridge characteristic is sometimes being

misinterpreted as a bifurcation because of its close
resemblance. This ridge is known as:

45. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by

the type lines where the characteristics needed for
interpretation/classification is found?
A. Loops B. Ridges
C. Double lines D. Pattern area

46. The right and left little fingers are used exclusively A. W B. C
for the Final Classification. However, they are also C. D D. X
considered in what classification?
A. Primary B. Sub-secondary 54. The Chief Magistrate of the Hooghly District in
C. Secondary D. Final India, first used fingerprints on contracts with the
natives. He is also known as the father of Chiroscopy.
47. These are tiny portions or is a hill-like structure A. JCA Mayer
found on the epidermis of friction skin containing B. John Purkinje
sweat, with pores appearing as black like in a C. Herman Welcker
fingerprint impression. D. Sir William Herschel

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 61. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint
55. Who discovered the two main layers of the friction classification, this fingerprint pattern have two deltas
skin (Epidermis and Dermis) and to whom one of the in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one
thin layers of the friction skin was named. complete circuit.
A. Herman Welcker A. Plain whorl
B.Marcelo Malpighe B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Nehemiah Grews C. Accidental loop D. Ulnar
D. Dr. Henry Faulds loop

56. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the 62. The bifurcation which does not remain open but
impressions are held to be . whose legs after a long side by side for short distance,
A. Plain whorl on meeting come together to form a single ridge once more is
B. Dependents on ridges tracing referred to as…
C. Loops A. Enclosure
D. dependents on the classification of the print of the B. Converging ridges
finger C. Island ridge
D. Closed ridges
57. A person committing a crime would always leave
something behind and may be considered as an 63. Who is that anthropologist who published a study
integral part in the identification of the suspect of fingerprint science that included the system of
especially if it is a “Latent Print”. This prints are made classification to facilitate the collected fingerprints?
through the; A. Nehemia Grew
A. Ridge of the skin B. Johannes Purkinje
B. Furrows of the skin C. Francis Galton
C. Ridge formation D. Marcelo Malphigi
D. Perspiration on top of the finger
64. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered
56. Fingerprints help to positively identify people children whom she was accused of because of the
because of the principle that: latent prints that has been found on the scene of the
A. its pattern reveals racial origin crime. Who is that person, that person, in which
B. they are available in most places without his participation the case will not be solved?
C. no two persons have identical fingerprints A. Francisca Rojas B. Francis Galton
D. it can be lifted at the crime scene C. Juan Vucetich D. Edward Henry

57. What type of a pattern consists of two or more 65. Fingerprint Identification is now one of the most
deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuit indispensable tools of investigation because of its use
and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to in identifying the perpetrators. Classifying the person’s
right delta it touches or crosses the circuiting ridge/s fingerprints is a work of the art of:
considered as the most common type of whorl? A. Edward B. Galton
A. Plain Whorl C. Richard D. Henry
B. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
C. Double Loop Whorl 66. The ridges of the skin are part of the dermal
D. Accidental Whorl surface that is why sometimes it is called the dermal
ridges and it will not be forged. The statement best
58. What system of identification used earlier than the describes:
fingerprint system, and is made by measuring various A. the principle of individuality
bony structures of the human body developed by B. principle of permanency
Alphonse Bertillion? C. principle of infallibility
A. Portrait Parle B. Tattoo D. none of these
C. Anthropometry D. Photography
67. Which of the following is not true about Accidental
59. What fingerprint pattern has slope or downward whorl?
flow of the innermost sufficient recurve towards the A. Two deltas are present
thumb of the radius bone of the hand of origin. B. Two loop patterns are present having separate
A. ulnar loop B. tented arch shoulders
C. accidental whorl D. radial loop C. combination of two whorls and a loop
D. may possess two or more cores
60. What basic principle is involved in personal
Identification which states that the greater the number 68. Patterns possess all the characteristics needed in
of similarity or difference the greater the probability for the investigation that may bring light on a certain case.
the identity or non identity to be conclusive? What kind of sweat gland can be found underneath
A. Law of individuality these patterns?
B. Law of multiplicity of evidence A. Sebaceous gland
C. Law of infallibility B. Eccrine gland
D. Law of constancy C. Apocrine gland
D. Apocrine gland

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 76. In locating the delta, which of the following
69. Which of the following ridge characteristics will be statements will you consider first.
highly prioritized as delta? A. Dots and fragments may only be considered as
A. A short ridge over an island at its divergence point. bifurcation if they are as thick as the other ridges.
B. A bifurcation leading towards the outside direction B. The delta may not be located in the middle of a ridge
of the pattern farther with the core running between the type lines toward the core, but
C. A ridge ending that have reached the very shoulder at the nearer end only.
of the ridges C. Delta must be located midway between two
D. None of these diverging type lines at or just in front of where
they diverge.
70. It is the very center point of the pattern area and D. Bifurcation takes precedence over any possible
one of the very important focal points of a certain deltas.
pattern especially for loops. What is that core of the
pattern having a terminal point? 77. In ridge tracing, the reference is on
A. core B. ridge end A. upper side or point of the extreme right delta
C. delta D. short ridge B. lower side or point of the extreme left delta
C. upper side or point of the moderate left delta
71. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT D. upper side or point of the moderate right delta
A. bifurcation opening towards the delta
B. dot as thick as the other ridges 78. In the classification line, the order should be
C. a point on the first recurving ridge located nearest A. primary, secondary, sub secondary, final, key, major
to the center and in front of the divergence of the B. major, key, primary, secondary, sub secondary final
type lines C. key, major, primary, secondary, sub secondary, final
D. a meeting of two ridges D. primary, secondary, sub secondary, major, key, final

72. A British anthropologist and a cousin of Charles 79. A pattern possessing most of the elemental
Darwin, who began his observations of fingerprints as characteristics of a whorl but became so special
a means of identification in the 1880's. According to his because of its unique combination of two distinct loops.
calculations, the odds of two individual fingerprints The statement is referring to what type of pattern?
being the same were 1 in 64 billion. He identified the A. W B. X
characteristics by which fingerprints can be identified. C. C D. D
These same characteristics (minutia) are basically still
in use today, and are often referred to as ________ 80. On the night of August 2, 2010, a certain burglary
Details, after his name. happened in the store of a Japanese Merchant. At the
A. Bertillon B. Twain scene of the crime, the dead body of the victim was
C. Galton D. Thompson stained by his own blood and the presence of several
pieces of evidence, including the fingerprints of the
73. An Argentine Police Official, began the first three unidentified persons. If you are one of those
fingerprint files based on Galton pattern types. At first, three persons whose fingerprints were found on the
He included the Bertillon System with the files. He scene of the crime. What will be the basis of the
made the first criminal fingerprint identification in investigators in case they will hold you as one of the
1892. He was able to identify Francis Rojas, a woman responsible regarding the commission of the crime?
who murdered her two sons and cut her own throat in A. the principle of individuality
an attempt to place blame on another. Her bloody B. principle of permanency
print was left on a door post, proving her identity as C. principle of infallibility
the murderer. D. all of these
A. Sir Edward Richard Henry
B. Dr. Henry P. DeForrest 81. Three (3) blocks before finger no. eight (8) is what
C. Juan Vucetich finger?
D. Hem Chandra Bose A. Right thumb B. Right little finger
C. Left thumb D. Left Little finger
74. Condition before fragments and dots are counted.
A. they must be touched or cut by the imaginary line 82. In interpreting the loop type pattern in major
B. they must be as thick and heavy as other ridges division, what numerical value is assigned to small in
C. they must be in the line of flow the left thumb?
D. they must be found inside the pattern area A. 1 to 17 B. 1 to 11
C. 1 to 18 D. 1 to 12
75. If an appendage is present between the shoulders
of a loop (innermost recurve), the one being 83. It is obtained by counting the ridges of the first
considered for purposes of locating the core is loop appearing on the fingerprint card (beginning with
A. next loop outside with no appendage at right angle the right thumb), exclusive of the little fingers which
B. next loop inside are never considered for the key as they are reserved
C. the same loop even with an appendage for the final.
D. next loop outside with appendage at right angle A. primary B. key
C. final D. major

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 84. On one occasion, a certain burglary happened in identifying a person especially if the subject is beyond
the store of a Korean Entrepreneur. At the scene of the recognition. The reason behind this lies on the principle
crime, the dead body of the owner was stained by his that:
own blood and the presence of several pieces of A. Its pattern reveals racial origin
evidence, including the fingerprints of the three B. They are available in most places
unidentified persons. If you are one of those three C. It can be lifted at the crime scene
persons whose fingerprints are found on the scene of D. No two persons have identical fingerprints
the crime. What will be your relation to the crime?
A. you are the burglar 92. Considered as the established method for
B. you are the killer perceiving detail in two prints and making decisions.
C. you came from the scene of the crime A. ACE-V Method
D. you are the suspect B. Fingerprint Analysis
C. DNA Fingerprinting
85. All areas of friction skin are totally individual. When D. Ninhydrin Method
sufficient detail is present, it can be individualized. In
other words, when someone is identified as the donor 93. What is the Primary division in the given below.
of a print, it establishes that person as the only person
in the world who could have that print.
A. Infallible B. Unique
C. Permanent D. Classifiable

86. It is the lower or the inner layer of the skin that

must not be destructed for it could possibly create a
permanent injury that may result in the loss of the
ridges. What is that canal-like structure found between
the ridges?
A. Dermis B. Epidermis
A. 14/7 B. 15/7
C. furrows D. Delta
C. 15/8 D. 14/8

87. An examiner is classifying a kind of pattern having

94. From the same pattern given, what should be the
a set of ridges flowing from the left side towards the
secondary division?
right side of the pattern area. If you are the examiner,
which of the following ridges be chosen as the delta. A. aTr
A. A bifurcation B. A short ridge
C. An island D. none of these
W a
B. a-r
88. PLT Bel Lat is examining a fingerprint pattern
having a 2 delta and a core with few spiral formations W a
at the center but no recurving ridge is cut. What type
of pattern INS Rob is examining? C. aTr
A. W B. X
C. C D. D Wa

89. On the inside part of a pattern, there are so many

D. a-r
ridges present that would help the investigators in
Wa
identifying a certain pattern especially in dealing with
a loop pattern. One of these characteristics is 95. If all 10 fingers are amputated or missing at birth,
sometimes known as the railway tie. the classification will be:
A. ridge hook B. ridge ending A. 32 W MMM B. 32 W MMM –
C. appendage D. bridge
32 W MMM 32 W MMM –

90. Mr. A applied for a job, and as a requirement he

was advised to present his NBI Clearance. On the way
C. S 32 W MMM D. - 32 W MMM –
to the office of the NBI, he was apprehensive that he
would not be accommodated by the personnel because S 32 W MMM - 32 W MMM -
of his two excess fingers in his right hand. The
appearance of his extra fingers is anatomically known
96. It is used to detect latent prints on absorbent
as
materials, white wood, blood stained fingerprints,
A. Polydactylism
paper wrapping of cigarette sticks, etc.
B. Extraordinary fingers
A.Super glue or Cyanoacrylate
C. Excess Finger
B. Ninhydrin Petroleum Benzine Solution.
D. Deformities
C. Ninhydrin Solution
D.Tetramethyl Benzedrine Method
91. Before the arrival of the DNA test, personal
identification through fingerprints was most widely used
around the country and around the world in positively

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97. The two enlarged photographs which have a size C. X-ray D. Infrared light
of 8 by 10 inches are divided into squares, both exactly
alike with the square occupying the identical positions 3. The Fish –eye lens is a special type of camera having
on each, and examining them in their order, square to a view angle of:
square, designating the identical points in each square. A. 60 degrees
A. Seymour Method B. 180 degrees
B. Osborn Method C. 90 degrees
C. Simple Method D. 360 degrees
D. Modified Method
4. What Lens is characterized by a thicker center and
98. thinner sides?
A. concave lens B. convex lens
C. negative lens D. positive lens

5. The following are the essential parts of the camera

EXCEPT:
A. Light Tight Box B. Lens
C. Tripod D. Shutter

6. These are the components of a black and white film,

EXCEPT:
A. Emulsion
B. Gelatin
C. Anti halation backing
D. Base

7. What film is sensitive to all colors, EXCEPT RED.

A. Seymour Method A. Orthochromatic film
B. Osborn Method B. Panchromatic film
C. Simple Method C. Chromatic film
D. Drawn Method D. Apochromatic film

99. The following are the Identical points necessary to 8. What is the positive result of the process of
be admitted as fingerprint evidence in court, EXCEPT photography?
A. When there are more than 12 evident points and the A. Photograph B. Film
impression is clear, the identification is absolute. C. Cellulose D. Negative Film
B. When there are between 8 and 12 evident points,
identification certainly depends upon clearness of the 9. What emulsion speed indicator is expressed in an
type and rarity of the type. arithmetic form?
C. Presence of the core and delta of the part which is A. ISO B. DIN
acceptable. C. ASA D. GNP
D. None of the above
10. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal
100. Which of the following shows an Ulnar Loop? exposed film?
A. # 1 B. # 3
C. # 2 D. # 4

11. The circular “dome-like” image –

A. curvature of field
B. spherical aberration
C. chromatic aberration
D. coma

12. Otherwise known as the coherent light.

A. Infrared light B. Laser light
C. Visible light D. Ultraviolet light

13. When was the birth year of photography?

FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY A. 1939 B. 1839
1. Which part of a camera is used in focusing the light C. 1793 D. 1893
from the subject?
A. view finder B. lens 14. A type of film that is sensitive to all colors.
C. shutter D. light tight box A. Infrared film
B. Orthochromatic film
2. Which kind of lights have wavelengths 30 -400? C. Panchromatic film
A. Ultraviolet light B. Visible light D. Chromatic film

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 D. Single lens reflex
15. A systematic arrangement of colors to give a
pleasant effect. 27. What is considered as the utmost use of
A. color perception B. color sensitivity photography in police work?
C. color accuracy D. color harmony A. For identification
B. For preservation
16. This type of camera will eliminate parallax error. C. For record purpose
A. Single Lens Reflex D. For court presentation
B. Twin Lens Reflex
C. Viewfinder type 28. What is that process of eliminating unwanted
D. View/press camera portions of a negative during the enlarging process?
A. Dodging B. Burning-In
17. What country is the first to use photographs of C. Vignetting D. Cropping
crime scenes in court presentations?
A. Germany B. US 29. What kind of diaphragm opening should a
C. Philippines D. France photographer use in order to get a wider depth of field?
A. wider B. shorter
18. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal C. smaller D. Longer
of its negative material.
A. telephoto lens B. long lens 30. What type of camera is ideal for police
C. normal lens D. wide angle lens photography?
A. ViewFinder Type
19. If a camera lens has a fixed focal length of 50mm. B. Single Lens Reflex
such lens is classified: C. Twin Lens Reflex
A. Focusing Lens B. Normal Lens D. Press/View Camera
C. Wide lens D. Zoom lens
31. While the exposed film is not yet developed, the
20. In crime scene photography, what view tends to image recorder is technical referred to as:
show the extent of damage on the subject? A. Inverted image B. Negative image
A. General View C. Latent image D. Positive image
B. Medium View
C. Close-up shot 32. A lens defect that can affect resolution and clarity,
D. Extreme Close-up making it hard to obtain sharp images.
A. curvature of field
21. It is a lighting condition where objects in open B. spherical aberration
space cost a deep and uniform or distinct shadow C. chromatic aberration
A. Bright sunlight B. Hazy sunlight D. coma
C. Dull sunlight D. Cloudy dull
33. The illustration below shows what?
22. The appearance of the original will come out and
such a result is known as the?
A. Film B. Negative
C. Photograph D. Picture

23. The bending of light around an object gives rise to

the phenomenon called
A. Attraction B. Diffraction
C. Light Curve D. Light fingerprint

24. The simplest camera is a ___, which consists of a

box with a small hole in one of its sides.
A. Camera obscura
B. Fixedfocus camera
C. Pinhole camera
D. Nikon camera
A. Focal length
25. This means by which the object distance is B. Depth of field
estimated or calculated to from sharp images C. Hyperfocal distance
A. Angle of View B. Depth of Focus D. Focusing
C. Focus D. Focal Length
34. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the
26. This type of camera will eliminate the parallax error use of a microscope.
and it will work well with all lenses. A. Photomacrography
A. Twin reflex type B. Macro Photography
B. View/press camera C. Microphotography
C. Viewfinder type D. Photomicrography

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 D. lens
35. It refers to the lens which forms a real image on
the opposite side of the lens. 44. Which of the following supports the entire unit of
A. Concave B. Positive the enlarger, which usually holds the easel that carries
C. Convex D. Negative the photographic paper?
A. Focusing mechanism
36. What is referred to as the effective length of time B. Baseboard
a camera’s shutter is open? C. Condenser lenses
A. Diaphragm opening D. Elevating control knob
B. Shutter
C. Shutter speed 45. In the additive color mixture process combining the
D. Emulsion speed color blue and green will produce cyan. What is the
complementary color of blue?
37. This is attached to the shutter to prevent accidental A. yellow B. cyan
movement of the camera during the exposure period. C. magenta D. Green
A. Tripod B. Cable release
C. Light meter D. Extinction meter 46. It is the ability of an object to convert one
wavelength to another as long as the active energy
source is irradiating the object.
A. Fluorescence
B. Phosphorescence
C. Luminescence
D. Interference

47. Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass

through them that the object on the other side may be
clearly seen.
A. Transparent B. Translucent
C. Opaque D. Filter
38.
A. Photomacrography 48. Its actions starts from one side and closes on the
B. Macro Photography opposite side with amore faster shutter speed. The
C. Microphotography statement is referring to:
D. Photomicrography A. central shutter
B. leaf shutter
39. Refers to the range of illumination or the light C. focal plane shutter
allowed to affect the sensitized material at a given D. between the lens shutter
time.
A. Exposure B. Aperture 49. William Fox Talbot invented a particular object
C. Shutter D. Shutter speed which uses a paper impregnated with light sensitive
compounds.
40. The distance between the nearest and the farthest A. Calotype B. wet plate
object in apparent sharp focus when the lens is focused C. Daguerreotype D. Camera Obscura
at a given point.
A. Angle of view B. Focal Length 50. These are made of plastic material support the
C. Depth of Field D. Focus emulsion layer, it is particularly known as the base
which can be found on the:
41. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific A. base B. film
materials by the action of electromagnetic radiation C. anti-halation backing D. gray
rays.
A. Polygraphy B. Dactyloscopy 51. A British scientist who made the first miniature
C. Photography D. Chemistry cameras, the so-called “mouse trap” cameras.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
42. The study of the fundamentals of photography, its B. Louis Jacques Mandé Daguerre
application to police work and the preparation of C. Willian Henry Fox Talbot
photographic evidence: D. Sir John Herschel
A. Cinematography
B. Photograph 52. The result of his work was, images were fragile to
C. Forensic photography the touch and needed to be protected under glass, but
D. Photography were capable of recording the finest detail.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
43. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter B. Sir John Herschel
through the lens for a predetermined time interval. C. Louis Jacques Mandé Daguerre
A. shutter D. Willian Henry Fox Talbot
B. holder of sensitized
C. view finder 53. The word Photography was coined by _____?

Amici Review Center 9|Page

A. John F. W. Herschel distances from the light rays that pass directly through
B. Louis Jacques Mandé Daguerre the center of the lens.
C. Henry Fox Talbot A. astigmatism
D. Leonardo Da Vinci B. chromatic aberration
C. spherical aberration
54. A distance at which lens of a camera is focused D. coma
with a given particular diaphragm opening which will
give the maximum depth of field is- 63. One of the recent advancements of photography is
A. Focal distance in the use of lasers. With laser, one is able to produce
B. subject distances a three dimensional photograph called:
C. hyper focal distance A. Hectogram B. Monogram
D. focal length C. Photogram D. Hologram

55. A type of a lens that would make an object to be 64. The changes in direction of light are conclusive
exaggeratedly close to the photographer and is ideal in whenever light processes from one medium to another.
stakeout surveillance photography. This is known as the phenomenon of refraction.
A. Short Focus Lens A. reflection B. Diffraction
B. Telephoto Lens C. Transparent D. Refraction
C. Normal Focus Lens
D. Wide Angle Lens 65. The process of obtaining a magnified photograph
of a small object without the use of a microscope, by
56. In addition to legal medicine, as prober, how can using a short focus lens and a long bellow extension.
you preserve perishable evidence like injuries, A. macro photography
contusions, hematoma, etc? B. microphotography
A. Recording B. Sketching C. photomicrography
C. Photography D. Listing D. photomicrography

57. In crime scene photography, what view tends to 66. The science of obtaining photographic
show the four angles of the possible entrance and exit magnification of minute objects by using a camera
point of the suspect? attached to a compound microscope. The camera lens
A. General View is removed because of the microscope because the
B. Medium View microscope forms the image.
C. Close-up shot A. macro photography
D. Extreme Close-up B. microphotography
C. photomicrography
58. In photography, what determines how effectively a D. photomicrography
moving object can be stopped, that is, how sharply it
can be reproduced without blurring, or streaking in the 67. What is the range of distance from the nearest
final image? object to the farthest object that is sharp when the lens
A. Focus B. Shutter speed is set or focused at a particular distance?
C. Aperture D. Lens A. Local length
B. Depth of field
59. Is that part of the camera which controls the C. Hyperfocal distance
passage of light reaching the sensitized material? It D. Focusing
compared to the eyelid of the human eye.
A. Lens B. Shutter 68. When the light hits a transparent glass which would
C. Lens Opening D. Film Plane allow the light to pass through its medium.

60. It is the range in front of and behind a sharply

focused subject in which details also look sharp in the
final photographic image.
A. Focus B. Depth of field
C. Camera trick D. Aperture

61. Lens aberration in which light of different

wavelengths is focused at different distances behind
the lens. It can be corrected by combining different 69. Which of the following film is the fastest? (More
types of glass lens. sensitive)?
A. astigmatism A. ASA 1000 B. ASA 100
B. chromatic aberration C. ASA 200 D. ASA 400
C. spherical aberration
D. coma 70. It is known as the fundamental characteristics of a
lens that will determine the size of an image and area
62. Light rays from the subject on the lens axis passing of coverage of the lens. The statement is referring to:
through off-center areas of the lens focus at different A. aperture B. focal length
C. lens mechanism D. shutter

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 C. White light D. Rays
71. In photography using microprism, the image on
focus will usually shatter off an out of focus image and 80. To have a more sharp image flash exposure is
when it is exactly in focus the prisms seem to encouraged and it can be computed. What if the guide
disappear. These microprisms are primarily found on: number is 220 in a distance of 10 ft what will be the
A. lens B. filter exact aperture?
C. viewfinder D. groundglass A. f11 B. f22
C. f5.6 D. f8
72. A type of camera in which the lens and shutter are
mounted to the body by means of accordion-pleated 81. Modern photographic papers are basically
bellows, which can be folded into the camera for ease composed of a light sensitive coating on a paper base
of carrying. which is particularly suspended on what substance?
A. accordion camera A. emulsion B. silver halides
B. folding camera C. bromide D. gelatin
C. bellowed camera
D. SLR 82. In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step
photography also known as polaroid. What will be
73. This results in star images near the outer edge of produced by LASER?
the viewing field seeming to have comet-style tails A. Polaroid B. Holograms
scattering radially away from its optical axis. C. Digital Camera D. DSLR
A. coma B. positive coma
C. aberration D. negative coma 83. What will be the lighting conditions if you are going
to take a photograph using a film speed of ISO 200 and
74. It is caused by lens dispersion, with different colors a shutter speed of 1/250 with an aperture of f8?
of light traveling at different speeds while passing A. bright B. hazy
through a lens. C. dull D. open light
A. curvature of field
B. spherical aberration 84. The photographer in crime scene investigation has
C. chromatic aberration to get as many photographs as he can. The first shot
D. coma that he should make just after reaching the crime
scene is the house where the crime of murder was
75. This results in star images near the outer edge of committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting the
the viewing field seeming to have comet-style tails façade of the house, what lens should he utilize?
scattering radially towards its optical axis. A. telephoto lens B. macro lens
A. coma B. positive coma C. normal lens D. wide angle lens
C. aberration D. negative coma
85. When photographing the corpse in the scene,
76. A device made of thin overlapping metal leaves several pictures of the conditions at the time of
within a lens or camera which can be adjusted to discovery including the environment of the corpse must
specific apertures of f-stops to control the amount of be taken from various photographic directions in order
light that strikes the film. to:
A. shutter A. Show whether there is any evidence of struggle and
B. diaphragm try to show what happen inside prior to the crime
C. aperture B. Show when photographing the general conditions as
D. diaphragm opening being deformed as a whole, photograph the damage
parts and consider the range partly clearly
77. This effect causes images to be spherized, which C. Take close-up shots on the damaged area in two
means the edges of images look curved and bowed to angles from distance of 8 to 10 feet
the human eye. D. Photographs general view of the building, look into
A. pincushion distortion windows, and pathway
B. spherical aberration
C. barrel distortion 86. A black and white films possess several
D. wavy field curvature characteristics such as speed, spectral and granularity.
The speed will be referring to the sensitivity of the film
78. A camera that uses lens and spring-loading shutter to light, granularity is the graininess and the spectral is
and roll film. Shutter speed and aperture are usually the sensitivity to:
not adjustable. A. spectrum B. wavelength
A. accordion camera C. electromagnetic D. all of these
B. folding camera
C. bellowed camera 87. In outdoor photography, there will be some
D. box camera instances that the presence of light is too much that
produces a dilemma to the photographer. What do you
79. The absence of all colors is black; white light is think is the best way to do this?
composed of the three primary colors – blue, green and A. find another subject
red. What is the sum total of all colors of the rainbow? B. use a much smaller lens opening
A. Visible light B. Light C. use a flash unit

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D. move the subject into a well lighted position lot of tension, and if you push too hard you may break
the camera or rip your film – so you want to always
88. Ina Yute was taking a snapshot and expecting it to make sure this button is pushed.
be sharp but an alteration happened to the expected
image because it can be seen in two viewpoints. What TRIANGLE OF EXPOSURE
is that phenomenon? 96. Dull Sunlight
A. out of focus B. underexposure Shutter Speed - 1/500
C. parallax D. split image ISO - 100
Aperture (f number/stop)?
89. PSSg Timang with his team conducted a thorough A. f 11 B. f 5.6
stakeout of a certain building in Olympics II. In order C. f 4 D. f 2.8
to document all the movements of their subjects, they
applied the principles of photography with the aid of 97. Bright Sunlight
what particular lens mechanism? Shutter Speed - 1/500
A. wide angle lens B. zoom lens ISO - 100
C. telephoto lens D. fisheye lens Aperture (f number/stop)?
A. f 11 B. f 5.6
90. In the modernization of photography, DSLR C. f 4 D. f 2.8
cameras almost dominated the market because of their
great features that are very useful in commercial photo 98. Hazy Sunlight
shoots. What does a DSLR mean? Aperture (f number/stop)- f 22
A. Double system reflex camera ISO- 100
B. Dual Single reflex camera Shutter Speed -
C. Digital System reflex camera A. 1/125 B. 1/60
D. Digital Single reflex camera C. 1/1000 D. 1/30

91. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the 99. The lens opening also known as the relative
flash so that when the shutter is fully opened, that’s aperture is the indicator for light transmitting capability
the time that the flash will yield its highest peaks of of the lens. Which of the following lens opening will
illumination called? admit more light to pass through its medium?
A. bounce flash B. synx A. f-4 B. f 5.6
C. on camera flash D. synchronization C. f-8 D. f-1.4

92. Used for contact printing, the size of the positive 100. Crime scene photographs should be taken in ways
print is the same as the size of the negative used. that should have meet the eye of an average observer,
Sensitivity to light is low and gives blue-black tones hence it should be:
when properly developed. A. Angularized C. Magnified
A. Silver Nitrate B. Straight-forward D. Generalized
B. Silver Chloride
C. Silver Bromide
D. Silver Chlorobromide FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY
1. A mercury fulminate is what kind of explosive?
The 3 consecutives questions will be using this A. Low C. High
illustration. B. Primary D. Propellant

2. In a burning test or ignition test, which fiber does

not burn?
A. Vegetable fiber C. Mineral fiber
B. Animal fiber D. Synthetic fiber

3. The following are purposes of hair examination,

EXCEPT;
A. To determine whether the questioned hair
originated from animal or human origin
B. To determine whether there was a contact between
two or more individuals
93. Located at the opposite side of the lens designed C. To determine whether an individual caused a
to hold firmly the sensitized material to prevent the contact to an object in question
formation of the multiple or blurred image. D. To determine the cause of death of the victim

94. Designed to determine the field of view of the 4. It is the innermost part of the hair?
camera or the extent of the coverage of the given lens. A. Medulla C. Cortex
B. Cuticle D. Root
95. This button releases the film take-up reel and
allows you to rewind the 35mm film. If you do not push
this button and begin rewinding the film you will feel a
Amici Review Center 12 | P a g e
5. What specimen/evidence is usually submitted in the B. Medulla D. Root
determination of gunshot range or distance
determination? 16. Root, tip and shaft are the anatomical parts of hair,
A. Both hands of the suspect which of them is the most distinctive?
B. Clothing of the victim A. Shaft C. Tip
C. Firearm B. Root D. All of the choices
D. All of the choices
17. A physical evidence which is very resistant to
6. Is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a decomposition and putrefaction.
normal built person A. Blood C. Fingerprint
A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc C. 2.5 to 3.5 cc B. Hair D. Bone
C. 3.5 to 5.5 cc D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
18. Is it the blackening of the area around the bullet
7. A black coarsely peppered pattern observed around perforation?
the gunshot wound? A. Smudging C. Tattooing
A. Tattooing C. Smudging B. Carbon collar D. Carbon soot
B. Carbon collar D. Singeing
19. Gaping hole, singeing, smudging, tattooing are the
8.Which of the following are the most applied characteristic patterns observed on a gunshot wound
breakthroughs in the field of biochemistry to criminal on the clothing of the victim submitted for distance
investigation? determination, what is the probable distance of the
A. DNA analysis C. Use of insulin shooter to the victim?
B. DPA-paraffin test D. Instrumentation A. 0 to 2 inches or at contact
B. Beyond 36 inches
9 Fiber which is made up of protein? C. 2 to 8 inches
A. Vegetable C. Animal D. 2 to 36 inches
B. Mineral D. Organic
20. Which of the following are classification of
10. The following can be determined in microscopic explosives according to composition and structure?
examination for hair, EXCEPT; A. Organic and inorganic explosives
A. The region from which the human hair has been B. High explosives
removed C. Industrial explosives
B. How the hair was removed whether naturally or D. Military explosives
forcibly
C. Whether the hair was cut with dull or sharp 21. A kind of explosive that detonates or explodes
instrument or was burned or crushed when heated or subjected to shock, heat, friction and
D. The approximate age of the person who owns the impact?
hair A. High explosive
B. Primary and initiating explosive
11. The MI of a hair specimen submitted for analysis is C. Low explosive
0.423, this means that it came from ______. D. Industrial explosive
A. Cow C. Human
B. Horse D. Carabao 22. When the firearm is discharged at a distance of 2
inches to 8 inches from the body of the victim, what
12. What could be the possible child of a man with are the characteristic patterns observed?
Group A and Type M blood, with a woman of Group B A. Tattooing
and Type N? B. Smudging and tattooing
A. AB, N C. B,N C. Singeing, tattooing, smudging
B. O, M D. AB MN D. Tattooing is seldom present

13. Which of the following is the most conclusive test 23. The following are some examples of military
for fibers? explosives, EXCEPT:
A. Microscopic test A. Air drops
B. Chemical test B. Grenades
C. Fluorescence test C. Rockets and missiles
D. Burning test D. Ammonium nitrate

14. Fiber which when observed under the microscope 24. The following are factors to be considered in the
appears as flat, ribbon-like twisted spirally left or right interpretation of Diphenylamine test, EXCEPT.
to its axis? A. Color reaction
A. Wool C. Linen B. Number of blue specks
B. Hair D. Cotton C. Location and character of the blue specks
D. Time of reaction
15. The part of the shaft where the pigment granules
are found? 25. Which of the following is the correct percent
A. Cortex C. Cuticle composition of black powder?

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A. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% sulfur, 15% carbon
B. 78% potassium nitrate, 15% sulfur, 10% carbon 37. A preliminary test for blood also known as Kastle
C. 70 % potassium nitrate, 10% carbon, 15% sulfur Meyer Test?
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% sulfur, 10% carbon A. Guaiacum test C. Phenolphthalein
B. Luminol test D. Benzidine test
26. Shall refers to any substance which, if applied or
administered internally, has the capability to kill or to 38. To prove that a stain really contains blood, the
do harm? presence of hemoglobin must be established by this
A. Poison test.
B. Pathogen A. Microcrystalline
C. Shock B. Both microcrystalline and spectroscopic
D. Volatile substance C. Spectroscopic
D. One of these
27. An important tool in identification that points to the
source of biological evidence by matching it with 39. The liquid portion of unclotted blood when it is
samples from the victim, suspect or their relatives: allowed to stand for some time?
A. DNA profiling A. Serum C. Plasma
B. Serology B. Thrombocytes D. Leukocytes
C. Instrumentation
D. Forensic Sciences 40. The following statements are correct EXCEPT;
A. Old blood stains can be identified by the precipitin
28. The human platelet belongs to that portion of: test.
A. Blood C. Plasma B. Heat affects the precipitation test.
B. Serum D. Lymph C. Precipitin test is not specific for human blood
D. Acids and alcohols may inhibit or even destroy
29. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form precipitin reaction
the bulk of the fiber:
A. Cuticle C. Cortex 41. These are chemical principles or structures found
B. Medulla D. Shaft in the surface of each red blood cell?
A. Antigens C. Agglutinins
30. It is considered as a universal donor? B. Proteins D. Genes
A. Blood Group AB C. Blood Group B
B. Blood Group O D. Blood Group A 42. Test to determine whether a stain is really blood?
A. Blood grouping C. Precipitin
31. Human blood groups were discovered by B. Confirmatory D. Preliminary
________.
A. Gawon C. Landsteiner 43. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to
B. Farnum D. Gavin 300,00 dilution is
A. Benzidine C. Phenolphthalein
32. The positive result of Barberio's test? B. Guaiacum D.Leucomalachite
A. Formation of choline periodide crystals
B. Formation of a red-orange pigmentation 44. A condition wherein males have no spermatozoa at
C. formation of spermine picrate crystals all in their seminal fluid?
D. Presence of spermatozoa A. Aspermia C. Oligospermia
B. Anemia D. Anorexia
33. The fluid portion of blood which separates when
blood did not clot due to the addition of an oxalate? 45. The most delicate and most reliable test for the
A. Serum C. Plasma determination of whether a stain is really blood?
B. Body fluid D. Water A. Spectroscopic test
B. Microcrystalline
34. If a stain is positive with the Benzidine, Takayama C. Microchemical
and lastly, with the precipitin test, this means that: D. Microscopic
A. The stain is human blood
B. The stain is Group AB 46. Blood of different species can be differentiated by
C. The stain is an animal blood what test?
D. The stain is not blood. A. Microscopic
B. Spectroscopic
35. The most commonly used preliminary test for C. Microcrystalline
blood? D. All of the choices
A. Guaiacum test C. Benzidine test
B. Phenolphthalein D. Leucomalachite 47. Which crystals confirm the presence of hemoglobin
in the blood?
36. They are responsible for the transmission of A. Choline periodide
hereditary characters? B. Hemochromogen
A. Blood C. Genes C. Spermine picrate
B. Cells D.. Enzymes D.God Knows the Answer

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48. It is added to blood to preserve it for one week at 58. Evidence of poisoning in the dead can be obtained
room temperature? from the following
A. Sodium fluoride C. Ethyl alcohol A. Post-mortem examination or autopsy
B. Sodium chloride D. Formalin B. Evidence from chemical analysis of the organs taken
from the body
49. The only specific/ conclusive test for semen and C. Both A & B
seminal stains. D. None of the above
A. Fluorescence test
B. Microscopic test 59. What is the percentage of ethanol in blood if there
C. Biological test is a disturbance of sensation, decrease pain sense,
D. Chemical test staggering gait, slurred speech
A. 0.01 – 0.10 C. 0.10 – 0.30
50. The principle involved in the preliminary test for B. 0.05 – 0.20 D. 0.25-0.40
blood?
A. Oxidation C. Reduction 60. Vomiting(frequently associated with purging and
B. Dehydration D. Hydration abdominal pain) may be an indication of various
diseases such as gastritis, gastroenteritis, cholera,
51. These are highly irritant poisons which cause local acidosis, early stage of pregnancy, brain tumor but
destruction of tissues and are characterized by nausea, may also be from poisoning of the what substance?
vomiting and great local distress. A. arsenic and antimony
A. Irritants C. Corrosives B. corrosive acid and alkali
B. Tetanics D. Neurotics C.digitalis and copper
D. All of the above
52. Substances that act directly upon the spinal column
producing such spasmodic and continuous contraction 61. There are three distinct substances used in the
of muscles as a result of stiffness or immobility of the implementation of the death penalty through lethal
parts to which they are attached. injection; amongst those three which are rendered to
A. Irritants C. Corrosives condemned inmates unconscious.
B. Tetanics D. Neurotics A. Potassium Chloride
B. Pancuronium Bromide
53. A kind of poisoning in which there is a gradual C. Sodium Thiopental
deterioration of tissue function and may or may not D. None of the above
result in death. It is produced by either taking several
small doses at long intervals or taking only toxic doses 62. Types of poisoning produced by a single massive
of the drug. dose. Death occurs very rapidly without showing any
A. Acute Poisoning signs and symptoms
B. Sub-acute Poisoning A. Subacute Poisoning
C. Chronic Poisoning B. Hyperacute Poisoning
D. Poisoning C. Chronic Poisoning
D. Acute Poisoning
54. Those in which the poison is taken without
intention to cause death; the poison may be taken by 63. Any substance capable of producing cancer in living
mistake or without knowing that it is poisonous. tissues
A. Accidental Poisoning A. Carcinogen B. Arsenic
B. Suicidal Poisoning
C. Homicidal Poisoning C. Antidote D. Corrosive
D. Undetermined
64. A dead body is found in a parked car with the motor
55. As per the actions of the poison it is the changes still running and the windows closed. Carbon monoxide
or disturbance produced on the part with which the is suspected as contributing to the death. Such
poison comes in contact. suspicions would be strengthened if the skin of the
A. Local C. Remote deceased was found to be –
B. Combined D. Undetermined A. a dark brown color
B. a cherry red color
56. A branch of science which treats the form and C. a bruised black and blue appearance
quantity of medicine to be administered within a D. a chalky white color
certain period of time.
A. Pharmacology C. Posology 65. There are (2) principal classes of snake venoms
B. Chemistry D. Toxicology and these are neutrotoxic and?
A. Petechial C. Hematoxic
57. An agent that removes the poison without changing B. Surgical D. Viral
it or coats the surface of the organ so that absorption
is prevented. 66. Suspected pubic hairs should be photographed
A. Mechanical AntidoteC. Chemical Antidote where found and preserving them for laboratory
B. Psychological AntidoteD. Precipitants examination especially for?

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A. Physiological testing
B. Biological exam 76. DNA is found in all nucleates cells of the body, it is
C. DNA testing regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands
D. Microscopic examination for?
A. Deonatural acide
67. The main and common symptoms of coma are? B. Deoxyribonucleic acid
A. Unconsciousness C. Dynamic natural antibody
B. Paleness of the lips D. Deocxyribonuclic acid
C. Blacking of the eyelids
D. Intermittent pulse rate 77. Dissolution of the natural continuity of any tissue
of the living body is called:
68. What substance is capable of producing noxious A. Fracture C. Wound
effect or destroy life once introduce into the body, B. Dislocation D. Contusion
absorbed through the blood stream and acts
chemically? 78. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill – treat
A. Protein C. Enzymes or incapacitated for work or require medical
B. None of these D. Poisons attendance for a period of more than 30 days.
A. Slight physical
69. What distinguishes physical injuries from B. Serious physical injury
frustrated homicide? C. Less serious physical injury
A. Victim got killed D. Mutilation
B. Perpetrator is unknown
C. None of these 79. A muscular change characterized by the softness
D. Absence of intent of the muscles and no longer responds to mechanical
or electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein?
70. In addition to legal medicine, as prober, how can A. Primary flaccidity
you preserve perishable evidence like injuries, B. Post mortem rigidity
contusions, hematoma, etc? C. Stage of secondary flaccidity
A. Recording C. Sketching D. Putrefaction
B. Photography D. Listing
80. An important tool in identification that points to the
71. Which of the following blood agents is commercially source of biological evidence by matching it with
available and can be weaponized as liquids, is lighter samples from the victim, suspect or their relatives:
than air, nor persistent, and smells like bitter almond? A. DNA profiling C. Serology
A. Lewisite B. Instrumentation D. Forensic
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Cyanogen 81. Wound that involves only the layers of the skin?
D. Phosgime oxime A. Deep wound
B. Penetrating wound
72. What type of doctor performs autopsy or post- C. Superficial wound
mortem examination? D. Perforating wound
A. Toxicologist
B. Forensic pathologist 82. Death due to the deprivation of a regular and
C. Radiologist constant supply of food and water necessary to normal
D. General practitioner health of a person?
A. Death from asphyxia
73. What is other name for cells clump? B. Death from coma
A. Overlapping C. Clumping C. Death from starvation
B. Agglutinate D. Constipation D. Death from syncope
74. If the number of gunshot wound of entrance and
exit found in the body of the victim is even, the 83. Removal of the superficial epithelial of the skin
presumption is that no bullet is lodge in the body; if brought about by friction against a hard rough object.
odd, the presumption is that one or more bullets have A. Abrasion C. Bruise
lodge in the body? B. Contusion D. Petechiae
A. Odd and even rule
B. Law of multiplicity 84. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor
C. Law on Numbers at his own apartment. On The deductive process of the
D. Law on duplicity investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is
asphyxia by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while
75. When there is poisoning? the assailant using his arms was on the back of the
A. When the substance was introduced to the body. victim. This statement is best described as:
B. When the poison combined with the food. A. Mugging C. Lynching
C. When the substance is absorbed by the body and B. Throttling D. Gagging
act chemically.
D. When the substance is introduced to the body and 85. Physical injury involving a greater area beyond the
absorbs. site of the application of force with manifest marks of

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extension from the location of the place where the C. Heat cramps D. Specific heat
force is applied?
A. Contre coup injury 97. It deals with the examination of poisons, its origin,
B. Extensive injury physical and chemical properties, effects, treatment
C. Locus minoris resistencia and methods of detection usually on sudden and
D. Tache noir de le sclerotique unexplained deaths?
A. Posology
86. Is the laceration or rupture of the hymen as the B. Forensic Chemistry
result of sexual intercourse? C. Pharmacology
A. Virgo intact C. Defloration D. Toxicology
B. Rape D. Moral virginity
98. The following are signs of death except one:
87. Conclusive evidence of sex: A. Cessation of respiration
A. Presence of penis in males B. Cessation of heart function and circulation
B. Presence of vagina on females C. Cooling of the body
C. Presence of testis and ovaries D. Heating of the body
D. Male and female hormones
99. One of the characteristics of blood is its viscosity.
88. The following are characteristics of gunshot wound According to study, how many times is the thickness of
entrance except: blood than water?
A. Contract ring A. 10x B. 7x
B. The edges is Inverted C. 5x D. 11x
C. Contusion collar
D. The edges are averted 100. The hardest substance in human body?
A. Skull
89. A normal healthy Filipino has 16-18 glasses of B. Enamel of the teeth
blood (an average of 200 cc./glass) loss of six glass C. Femoral bone
means: D. Pelvic bone
A. Anemia C. Death
B. Leukemia D. Low blood
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
90. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate 1. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing
time of death, Cadaveric spasm will suggest _____? or printing.
A. Duration of death A. Pen B. Ink
B. Age of the victim C. Coal D. Chalk
C. Cause of death
D. Identity of the perpetrator 2. Any stroke which goes back over another writing
stroke.
91. The earliest recorded Medico-Legal expert? A. natural variation B. rhythm
A. King Zoser C. Imhotep C. retracing D. shading
B. Antitius D. Hammurabi
3. Where does handwriting rest?
92. Children conceive by prostitutes are called as: A. Stroke B. Vase
A. Adulterous C. Manceres C. Base D. Rhythm
B. Illegitimate D. Incestuous
93. The color of blood in post mortem lividity? 4. Majority of questioned document cases are
A. Red C. Brown concerned with _________?
B. Violet D. Pink A. Documents Age
B. Disproving Alibis
94. The term referring to those wounds inflicted in a C. Proving Authorship
forward motion? D. Counterfeiting
A. Gunshot wound
B. Hit wound 5. Questioned document examination is known by
C. Hack wound many names except one:
D. Thrust wound A. Forensic document examination
B. Document classification
95. These are wound produce by a blunt instrument C. Handwriting examination
accompanied by a sufficient force? D. Handwriting analysis
A. Contusion C. Avulsion
B. Tear D. Hematoma 6. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting B. Calligraphy
96. Is a painful contraction of the skeletal muscles C. Art appreciation D. Gothic
usually seen among manual workers in hot
environment whose bodily fluids have been depleted of 7. The following are characteristics of forgery except
sodium chloride by heavy loss of sweat? one:
A. Scalds B. Frostbite A. Presence of Natural Variation

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B. Multiple Pen Lifts 18. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized
C. Show bad quality of ink lines by widening of the ink stroke.
D. Patchwork Appearance A. Shading B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis D. pen pressure
8. What is the Latin word for “paper”
A. cartouche B. penna 19. This is usually the result of contact with the other
C. charta D. papyrus writings.
A. Folds and Creases
9. Which of the following is the primary determinant of B. Blots
writing speed? C. Perforation
A. Indicates speed writing D. Smears
B. Natural writing
C. Rhythm 20. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which
D. The written strokes are of known origin.
A. letters B. Samples
10. Questioned document examination is known by C. exemplars D. Documents
many names except one:
A. Document classification 21. The name of a person written by him/her in a
B. Handwriting examination document as a sign of acknowledgement.
C. Handwriting analysis A. Opinion B. Document
D. Forensic document examination C. Signature D. Handwriting

11. A document in which some issues have been raised 22. The process of making out what is illegible or what
or is under scrutiny. has been effaced.
A. Void Document A. Comparison B. Collation
B. Illegal Document C. Obliteration D. Decipherment
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document 23. There is freehand invitation and is considered as
the most skilful class of forgery
12. A document which contains some changes either A. simple forgery
as an addition or deletion. B. simulated or copied forgery
A. Inserted document C. traced forgery
B. altered document D. carbon tracing
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document 24. The retouching of a defective portion of a written
stroke is known in questions document examination as
13. A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated or –
traced forgery is known as A. Feathering B. Shading
A. Evidential Signature C. Retracing D. Patching
B. Forged Signature
C. Model signature 25. This is done by rubbing off with rubber or scraping
D. Repeated Signature off with a sharp instrument.
A. Mechanical erasure
14. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp B. Chemical solution
knife, razor blade or picking instrument. C. Biological erasure
A. mechanical erasure D. Mechanical solution
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure 26. Writing is characterized by too much freedom of
D. chemical erasure movement and lack of regulation which is usually tall
letters.
15. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the A. Loss writing
writing instrument from the paper is described as: B. Restrained writing
A. Pen emphasis B. Pen pressure C. Genuine writing
C. Pen lifts D. Pen scope D. Regulated writing

16. Any written instrument by which a right or 27. This typewriter defect is brought about by clogged
obligation is established. typefaces, poor condition or worn-out or torn ribbon.
A. certificate B. subpoena A. transitory typeface defect
C. warrant D. document B. permanent typeface defect
C. vertical mal alignment
17. A person who can write either with his left or right D. tilted/twisted characters
hand is called–
A. Ambidextrous B. Analogous 28. All but one are the principles on choosing the best
C. Bicephalous D. Dextrous standards for comparison.
A. in same general class
B. the genuineness was already proven

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C. it is contemporaneous A. simulated document
D. accepted by the law as standard B. forged document
C. standard document
29. Refers to the design of letters which are D. compared document
fundamental to a writing system.
A. Copy book form 39. What do you call the average force with which the
B. Line quality pen contacts the paper and may be estimated from an
C. System of writing examination of the writing?
D. Writing movement A. pen lift B. pen pressure
C. pen emphasis D. pen nibs
30. This handwriting movement is usually indicated by
regularity of lines and considerable speed. 40. If a document is disputed by one or more persons
A. finger movement because of the materials used in their production, then
B. wrist movement such document is considered?
C. forearm movement A. Questioned Document
D. whole arm movement B. Holographic Documents
C. Disputed Documents
31. This movement may be categorized into hesitating D. Falsified Document
and painful due to weakness and illness.
A. tremors 41. If ballpoint was patented by John Loud who
B. wrist movement patented the first practical fountain pen containing its
C. quality of movement own ink reservoir?
D. whole arm movement A. William Mitchel
B. Lewis Waterman
32. These are devised for obscuring forger’s intention C. Swamp Reed
to hide rather than a manifestation of the careless use D. Dr. Wlson Harison
of a pen.
A. Folds and Creases 42. Legally speaking, what is the description of the act
B. Blots of passing, delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to
C. Perforation another person?
D. Smears A. Counterfeiting B. Falsification
C. Reproduction D. Uttering
33. There are only three prominent letters in the
alphabet that bear this kind of characteristic. 43. Questioned document examination often involves
A. pen jump B. retrace comparing questioned handwriting with known
C. diacritics D. all of them handwriting to determine?
A. authentic document
34. A document becomes questioned documents when B. the falsification committed
_____ or alterations, this usually affect the original C. the writer's identity
meaning of a document. D. any sign of forgery
A. Forge B. Fraudulent
C. Changes D. Signature 44. Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a
repeated specimen of individual’s handwriting.
35. A document becomes questioned documents when A. Natural variation
_____ or alterations, this usually affect the original B. Transitory change
meaning of a document. C. Permanent damage
A. Forge B. Fraudulent D. Temporary defect
C. Changes D. Signature
45. Standards which are prepared upon the request of
36. A kind of document executed by a person in the investigator and for the purpose of comparison
authority and by private parties but notarized by with the questioned document.
competent officials. A. relative standards
A. private document B. collected standards
B. Commercial document C. extended standards
C. public document D. requested standards
D. Official document
46. Which of these refers to the art of determining the
37. An ink that is made by grinding carbon in the form character or disposition of a person by analyzing his
of vegetable char with varnish made of natural gums handwriting?
and drying oils. A. Calligraphy B. Graphology
A. Record ink B. Liquid-lead pencil ink C. Haplography D. QD Examination
C. Stamp-pad inks D. Printing ink
47. Which of the following is considered the earliest
38. An instrument that can be legally used in material that served the purpose of paper during the
comparison with a questioned document, its origin is ancient times?
known and can be proven. A. Cellulose from wood pulp

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B. Vegetable fiber D. there is no sufficient standard available
C. Papyrus
D. Parchment 56. Contemporary handwriting standards means that
the age of the standards should be within?
48. A document which is being questioned because of A. 8 years from the date of the question document
its origin, its contents or the circumstances or the B. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned
stories of its production. document
A. disputed document C. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document
B. standard document D. 15 years prior to the date of the questioned
C. requested document document
D. questioned document
57. Handwriting analysis is an art, and the study of
49. The three general areas of examination in question handwriting based on two fundamental strokes, the
typewriting except one… curve and the straight strokes is referred to by experts
A. Size and spacing as;
B. Type style A. graphometry B. grapology
C. Style spacing C. graphoanalysis D. graph analysis
D. Unique identifying characteristics
58. In the examination of typewriters, what defect is
50. Two handwritings cannot be deemed to be the encountered by the examiner, which is found in
writing of the same person unless: particularly enclosed letters, when the typefaces
A. they were written by one person become filled with link, dirt and ink?
B. embody no basic differences A. typeface defects
C. involves combination of agreements B. clogged typeface
D. all of these C. vertical malalignment
D. horizontal malalignment
51. A condensed and compact set of authentic
specimen which is adequate and proper should contain 59. In the history of questioned document
a cross section of the material from known sources is: examination, who was the British examiner of
A. Disguised document questioned document who said that an intelligent
B. questioned document police investigator can detect almost 75% of all
C. Standard document forgeries by careful inspection of a document with
D. requested document simple magnifiers and measuring tools was;
A. Alphonse Bertillon
52. A kind of document which is executed by a private B. Detective Alan Perkinson
person without the intervention of a notary public, or C. Dr. Wilson Harrison
of competent public officials, by which some disposition D. Richard Henry
of agreement is proved.
A. commercial document 60. In the study of questioned documents, experts
B. official document result in the use of stereoscopic binocular microscopes,
C. public document why?
D. private document A. because it provides double image
B. it makes grainy image
53. All handwriting contains or exhibits certain C. tri-dimensional image is possible
identifying properties of elements that are being used D. detailed image is more apparent
by the examiners to identify the author. These
elements are also labeled as: 61. Is a light examination in which the source of
A. Individual characteristics illumination strikes the surface of the paper from the
B. Class characteristics back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification
C. characteristics of water markings?
D. none of these A. Direct Light B. Side Light
C. Oblique Light D. Transmitted Light
54. As an examiner of a questioned document how will
you describe the interruption in a stroke caused by 62. Specimen of a person’s handwriting or hand
removing the writing instrument from the paper? printing executed from day to day in the normal course
A. pen lift C. pen emphasis of business, personal or social activity.
B. pen pressure D. pen nibs A. Physical evidence
B. information
55. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not C. requested standard
a signature is forgery, but it is very difficult on the other D. collected standard
hand to established who committed the forgery
because: 63. To be able to make a positive identification of a
A. the forger might be a left handed person, document examiner must be able to observe
B. imitation is one of the most effective means to the –
disguise one’s handwriting A. Characteristics of his handwriting
C. it might be a traced forgery B. Writing position of the writer

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C. Manner on how the writer moves the pain D. none of these
D. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting
72. One the points that should be considered in QD
64. It is the identifying of similarities and dissimilarities, examination is the familiarization of the shape and
determination of likelihood of occurrence, and design of individual letters of the source which was
weighing down of the significance of each factor. referred to as the:
A. Analysis B. Comparison A. characteristics
C. Evaluation D. All of these B. form
C. individual characteristics
65. These are standards given or made at the request D. rhythm
of an investigator for the sole purpose of making a
comparative examination with the questioned writing. 73. What is that main portion of the letter that remains
A. procured standard when the upper and lower projection, upstrokes and
B. collected standard terminal strokes and diacritics are removed?
C. requested standard A. body B. diacritics
D. all of these C. eyelet D. connection

66. Which of the following is not true about the main 74. The author of a typewritten document can be
points of the arrangement examination? identified through
A. relation of the capital letters in disregard of the small A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar
letters composition, and paragraphing
B. the size of the margins to the right, left, top and B. individual characteristics of the typewriter machine
bottom C. design and style of the typewriter’s character
C. the alignment of the letters to the baseline D. brand and model of the typewriter
D. arrangement of headings
75. These are flourish strokes which are added usually
67. Which of the following is true about the individual to the capital letters to give more attractive form to the
characteristics? eyes of the reader which also became one of the
A. it could be seen in the terminal shadings individual characteristics.
B. on the ratio of all letters A. beard B. buckle knot
C. always on the usual habitual and systematic form of C. Garland D. spur
slants
D. all of these 76. In order to attain sound conclusions regarding the
certain questioned document, the QD examiner should
68. In this class of questioned documents, papers, inks, collect all the desired standards from the person
watermarks and the continuity of all the writing in the suspected or alleged to have committed a certain act.
document is being considered and scrutinized. How many examples should at least be collected if the
A. documents attacked on the question of their age and issue is about signatures.
date A. 10 B. 11
B. documents attacked on the question of materials in C. 7 D. 25
their production
77. Which of the following refers to the irregular
69. Which of the following are not included in the thickening of ink which is found when writing slows
negative direction in preserving the evidentiary value down or stops while the pen takes a stock of the
of the document? position?
A. it should not be wet even with special permission A. shading B. hesitation
B. it should not be folded in any manner C. pressure D. knob
C. it should not be touched by any sharp instrument
D. it should not be underscored with a pencil 78. In this class of questioned documents, papers, inks,
watermarks and the continuity of all the writing in the
70. In the recognition of handwriting characteristics, it document is being considered and scrutinized.
offers the ability of distinguishing characteristics which A. documents attacked on the question of their age and
are normal 75. You were writing a holographic date
document for your last will. All the letters are in B. documents attacked on the question of materials in
majuscule making it to be more clear and concise. their production
What form was described in the statement? C. holographic documents questioned or disputed
A. handwriting B. script writing D. documents containing alleged fraudulent alterations
C. cursive writing D. block style
79. Carlos Barbz had interrupted his writing stroke
71. All handwriting contains or exhibits certain when he unintentionally removed the pen from the
identifying properties of elements that are being used paper. The act of Carlos is referring to what?
by the examiners to identify the author. These A. terminal stroke B. pen lift
elements are also labeled as: C. hiatus D. pen interruption
A. Individual characteristics
B. Class characteristics 80. A fraudulent signature whereby, there is no
C. characteristics apparent attempt at simulation or imitation, or the

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person (suspect) merely signs the name in his name 85.
and or used another signature and possesses the
document before the fraud is discovered.
A. Fraudulent Forgery
B. Spurious Forgery
C. Simulated Forgery
D. Traced Forgery

81. As a QD examiner, you are examining an alleged A. Humps B. Arc

fraudulent handwriting and found out that those C. Blunt D. Eyelet/eyeloop
deviations are very common between the repeated
strokes of the handwriting specimen. What will be your 86.
conclusion on the specimen?
A. forged, because those deviations is already a sign of
fraud
B. genuine, because those deviations are considered as
natural deviations
C. forged, because there are no two persons having
handwriting
D. genuine, because perhaps two persons may have
same handwriting A. Humps B. Hiatus
C. Buckle knot D. Eyelet/eyeloop
82. A signature in a check is suspected to have been
forged. The signatory does not remember categorically 87.
whether he had issued the check. The signature was
compared with a genuine signature but both were the
same in size and shape. What will be your conclusion
about the signature?
A. genuine; the signatory only forgot the issuance of
the check
B. genuine; both signatures are exactly the same in
size and shape A. Humps B. Hiatus
C. forgery; the signatory just want to deny the issuance C. Buckle knot D. Eyelet/eyeloop
of the check
D. forgery; no signature is exactly the same in all 89. Muscles responsible for the upward movement of
aspects when compared fingers and tends to make it straighten out.
A. Flexor B. Extensor
83. An applicant for a job had tried to manipulate his C. Lumbrical D. All of the above
document (Birth Certificate) so that he would fit the
age qualification. It found out that the document 90. This could be decipher with the use of
contains some discrepancies in the form of addition
and deletion of letters and figures in the document.
Which document would this fall?
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document A. UV Light
B. Infrared Light
84. Which of the following shows a normal ration? C. Superimposing Ink
D. Sympathetic Ink

A 91. Which of the following does not belong to the types

of slants?

B
A

C
B

D. None of the above

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 D. None of the above 99.

92. In genuine Philippine banknote the image based on

the same artwork as the bills portrait ingrained in the
note in the white space to the left of the portrait is
called?
A. Watermark B. Vignette design A. Garlands B. Embellishments
C. Metallic thread D. Accidental whorl C. Hitch D. Through

93. In typewriting probe, the condition of a typeface 100. If you are a Document examiner expert what tool
printing which is heavier on one side is called? you have utilized to decipher the image below?
A. Irregular print
B. Guided paced print
C. None of these
D. Off its feet

94. The following are characteristics of forgery, except

one:
A. Multiple pen lifts
B. Shows bad quality of ink lines
C. Presence of natural variation
D. Patchwork appearances

95. Which of the following is the primary determinant

of writing speed?
A. The written strokes
B. Natural writing
A. UV Light
C. Rhythm
B. Infrared Light
D. Indicates speed in writing
C. Oblique Light
D. Transmitted Light
96. A document becomes a questioned document
when ______ or alterations, this usually affect's the
original meaning of a document?
LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES
A. Forge B. Changes
1. “Did you kill Joseph last night?” is an example of
C. Fraudulent D. Signature
what question?
A. Irrelevant Question
97. Which of the following is considered the earliest
B. Control Question
material that served the purpose of paper during
C. Relevant Question
ancient times?
D. None of these
A. Cellulose from a wood pulp
B. Vegetable fiber
2. This component records the changes of breathing of
C. Papyrus
the subject
D. Parchment
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
98.
C. Kymograph
D. Galvanograph

3. This is the longest and the third pen of the

instrument.
A. Pneumograph
B. Galvanometer
C. Cardiosphygmograph
D. Kymograph

4. Is Dolly, the rape victim, your girlfriend? This is a/an

A. Relevant Questions
A. Simple Forgery B. Irrelevant Questions
B. Simulated Forgery C. Control Questions
C. Spurious Forgery D.Conclusive Questions
D. Traced Forgery
5. Cold damp perspiration is a manifestation of shock,
fear and anxiety. Perspiration mean?
A. Breathing B. Pulse beat
C. Sweating D. Heart rate

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6. It refers to the consistency across
examiners/scorers. 17. Which of the following polygraph channels records
A. Validity B. Reliability the blood pressure changes and pulses rate of the
C. Competency D. Infallibility examinee?
A. Cardiograph channel
7. These are questions that don't have any bearing to B. Pneumograph channel
the case. C. Galvanograph channel
A. Relevant Questions D. Kymograph channel
B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions 18. A well phrased question designed to cause a
D.Conclusive Questions response from a subject is technically called
A. accusatory statement
8. These are questions pertaining to the issue under B. specific stimulus
investigation. C. symptomatic
A. Relevant Questions D. irrelevant question
B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions 19. This stage is the initial interview with the
D.Conclusive Questions investigator handling the case or the person requesting
it.
9. It is the measure of the extent to which an observed A. Initial Interview
situation reflects the "true" situation. B. Preliminary Preparations
A. Validity B. Reliability C. Preliminary Interview
C. Competency D. Infallibility D. Initial Preparations

10. Is the knife found at the crime scene yours? What 20. These are questions unrelated to the matter under
kind of question is this? investigation but are of similar nature.
A. Relevant B. Irrelevant A. Relevant Questions
C. Control D. Conclusive B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions
11. In “polygraph examination”, the term D. Conclusive Questions
“examination” means a detection of
A. forgery B. emotion 21. “Were you in the place of Mr. Alfonso on the night
C. the mind D. deception of October 18, 2014?” is an example of what question?
A. Relevant question
12. A list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read B. Irrelevant question
to the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly C. Weak relevant question
as possible. D. Strong relevant question
A. Word association test
B. Psychological stress evaluator 22. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in
C. Card test the relevant question.
D. Hypnosis A. Reaction
B. Normal response
13. It refers to an emotional response to a specific C. Positive response
danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s D. Specific response
defensive power.
A. fear B. stimuli 23. Which of the following causes physiological
C. response D. reaction changes in the body of the subject?
A. Peak of tension test
14. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in B. the fear of retaliation
the relevant question. C. Irrelevant question
A. positive response D. Relevant question
B. specific response
C. normal response 24. What is the symbol used to indicate the start of the
D. reaction polygraph test marked in the chart?
A. X B. Y
15. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related C. W D. XX
in the Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum” meaning –
A. Divine intervention 25. What part of the polygraph instrument that drives
B. Miraculous decision the chart paper at six inches per minute during the
C. God’s hand test?
D. God’s favor A. Kymograph assembly
B. Electronic motor drive
16. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he C. Chart drive mini-motor
is truthful, the examiners finding should be- D. Reactograph drive motor
A. conclusive B. Inconclusive
C. negative D. Positive

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26. What refers to the deviation from the normal 35. A component of the polygraph instrument which
tracing of the subject caused by a relevant question? records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the
A. Specific Response subject.
B. Normal Response A. Cardiosphygmograph
C. Diastole B. Pneumograph
D. Systole C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
27. What component of the polygraph records the
blood pressure and the pulse rate of a subject? 36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in
A. Pneumograph the relevant question.
B. Galvanograph A. positive response
C. Kymograph B. specific response
D. Cardiosphygmograph C. normal response
D. reaction
28. What component of the polygraph machine records
the changes in the breathing of the subject? 37. Prior to the examination the subject should have at
A. Pneumograph B. Cardiograph least ___ hours of sleep.
C. Galvanograph A. 5 hours B. 10 hours
D. Kymograph C. 180 minutes D. 3 hours

29. What component of the polygraph records the 38. Refers to a person who is capable of detecting
blood pressure and the pulse rate of a subject? deception or verifying the truth statements.
A. Pneumograph A. Polygrapher
B. Galvanograph B. Polygraph examiner
C. Kymograph C. Polygraph expert
D. Cardiosphygmograph D. Examiner

30. Those pertaining to basic data and information 39. A component of the polygraph instrument which
regarding the background of the subject not related to records the breathing of the subject.
the case. A. Cardiosphygmograph
A. Sacrifice question B. Pneumograph
B. Crucial question C. Galvanograph
C. Relevant question D. Kymograph
D. Irrelevant question
40. In polygraph examination, what is the standardized
31. The use of “truth serums'' such as sodium chart marking to begin or start the questioning?
pentothal of phenobarb in the questioning of suspects A. B B. S
is called: C. X D. C
A. Narco Analysis
B. Sugar and vinegar 41. It refers to an emotional response to a specific
C. The detector test danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s
D. Word association defensive power.
A. Fear B. Stimuli
32. This is a question designed to design and evaluate C. Response D. Reaction
the presence of outside issues which may suppose
responses to relevant questions. 42. In a polygraph test, after the subject affirms that
A. Symptomatic he is involved in a crime the examiner should report it
B. Knowledge question to the?
C. Primary control A. Investigator B. Object relative
D. Evidence – connecting C. Prosecutor D. Judge

33. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the 43. Is an emotional response to specific danger that
polygraph examination. appears to be beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. Pre test A. Fear B. Deception
B. Preliminary Interview C. Control Question D. Lie
C. Test Execution
D. Post test 44. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he
is truthful, the examiners finding should be:
34. These are questions, which have no bearing to the A. Conclusive B. Inconclusive
case under investigation C. Negative D. Positive
A. Control Questions
B. Irrelevant Questions 45. Is the force or motion reaching the organism from
C. Primary Questions the environment and excites the receptors.
D. Relevant Questions A. Stimulus B. Reaction
C. Response D. Emotion

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46. Is the type of question designed to establish a C. Harold Burtt
normal response from the subject? D. Sigmund Freud
A. Relevant B. Irrelevant
C. Control D. Knowledge 56. Who was the first person to develop a polygraph
apparatus that was used in detecting deception?
47. In “Polygraph examination”, the term A. John Larson
“examination” means a detection of: B. Leonarde Keeler
A. forgery B. emotion C. Angelo Mosso
C. the mind D. deception D. Cesare Lombroso

48. In a polygraph test, what test technique does the 57. What is the nature of the test question which deals
examiner use if he utilized padding questions? with a known fact where the subject cannot lie and
A. Peak of tension test does not relate to the matter under investigation?
B. Stimulation test A. Irrelevant question
C. General question test B. Strong relevant question
D. Zone comparison C. Knowledge control question
D. Secondary control question
49. Before the actual test is conducted, the subject
must refrain from consuming alcoholic beverages for at 58. Is the conveying or uttering of falsehood or
least _______ hours? misleading impression, with the intention of wrongfully
A. 6 hours B. 12 hours affecting the acts, opinion or affection to another?
C. 5 hours D. 20 hours A. Guilt B. Lying
C. Shy D. Tension
50. In polygraph examination, who determines the
guilt or innocence of the subject that has undergone a 59. A component of the polygraph instrument which is
polygraph test? a motor that drives or pulls the chart paper under the
A. The polygraph examiner recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12
B. The investigator on case inches per minute.
C. The trial judge A. Cardiosphygmograph
D. The fiscal B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
51. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument used in D. Kymograph
recording the physiological reactions of the examinee
during the test. 60. Intoxication of alcohol uses the latin maxim “In vino
A. Lie detector instrument veritas” as the underlying principle. This latin maxim
B. Polygraph instrument is literally translated as
C. Truth verifier instrument A. there is wine in truth
D. all of these B. In truth, there is wine
C. there is truth in wine
52. Refers to the brief confrontation between the D. In wine, there is truth
subject and the polygraph examiner done every after
taking each chart. 61. Many polygraph tests are inconclusive for the
A. Initial Interview following reasons; EXCEPT ONE
B. Pre-Test Interview A. Subject may be nervous because of mental condition
C. Chart Probing B. Subject may be physically conditioned to take the
D. Post-Test Interview test
C. Subject may suffer discomfort or pain
53. These changes are capable of being recorded and D. Subject may be so angry so as to affect test results.
accurately diagnosed by skillful polygraph examiners,
except? 62. One method of deception detection currently being
A. Respiration B. Digestion used or applied by law enforcement agencies is the use
C. Blood pressure D. Pulse beat of drugs that try to “inhibit the inhibitor”. Which of the
following does not belong to this classification?
54. American psychologist who constructed an A. Intoxication
instrument in 1921 which is capable of continuously B. Administration of “truth serum”
recording all the three phenomena-blood pressure, C. Hypnotism
pulse and respirations- during the entire period of the D. Narco Analysis or narcosynthesis
test.
A. John A. Larson 63. One of this is a principal use of polygraph
B. Leonarde Keeler instrument;
C. John E. Reid A. Invaluable aid in investigation
D. Marcelo Malpighi B. To determine the facts of the case
C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
55. Stressed the function of id, ego and superego. D. A very good substitute of the investigation
A. Veraguth
B. Vittorio Benussi

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64. The commonly used methods of detecting 72. When should you perform chart probing?
deception are the following, except: A. During the onset of the polygraph exam
A. Administration of truth serum B. At the end of each specific polygraph test
B. Use of polygraph or lie-detection apparatus C. By the end of the polygraph exam
C. Hypnotism D. Anytime once the polygraph exam begun
D. Use of electro-encephalogram machine
73. The following are specific rules to be followed in
65. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test
the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test except one.
except one. A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can easily understand.
the subject can easily understand. B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no. C. Questions must be as short as possible.
C. Questions must be as short as possible. D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusation
74. The primary purpose of a pre-test interview.
66. The pneumograph channel during the test records A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
the respiratory activity of the examinee. What then is B. Obtain confession
the channel of the polygraph that records the galvanic C. Make the subject calm
skin resistance of the examinee? D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
A. Galvanograph Channel
B. Cardiograph Module 75. It is the reaction of the systems of the human body,
C. Kymograph Assembly namely the nervous system and cardiovascular system
D. Hydrosphygmograph caused by a certain stimulus like fear, anxiety and
stress.
67. The polygraph instrument is also known as a lie A. External Response
detector, but research clearly shows that it cannot B. Internal Response
determine or detect a lying person. What then is the C. Specific Response
use of a polygraph instrument? D. Response
A. To record physiological reactions of the subject.
B. To record psychological reactions of the subject. 76. What is the first step to be done in an interview?
C. To record and determine the facts of the case based A. ask the subject regarding all information the
on the chart taken. circumstances surrounding the commission of the
D. To record psychogalvanic reflexes of the subject. crime
B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the
68. The primary purpose of a pre-test interview. polygraph examination to the subject
A. Obtain confession C. you are informed of your rights against self
B. Prepare subject for polygraph test incrimination and your right to a counsel
C. Make the subject calm D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures questioning of the subject to monitor
responses
69. The type of drug that increases physiological
activity of the examinee is called stimulant drugs. What 77. All EXCEPT one is a purpose of polygraph
about the drug that reduces physiological activity of the examination.
subject during a polygraph test? A. to determine truth and deception
A. Depressant drug B. Prohibited drug B. to determine truth and deception in a police
C. Irritant Drug D. Dangerous drug investigation
C. to determine truth and deception based on the
70. When the subject is highly nervous, what should presence of emotional disturbances
the examiner do? D. to determine truth and deception for legal matters
A. Reschedule the examination
B. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview 78. The following should be taken into consideration
C. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulanceD. Do during the pre test, EXCEPT:
not continue with the pre-test and ask the subject for A. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights
his available date for reschedule B. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
C. taking history record of the subject
71. Which of these is designed to prove whether the D. evaluating the psychological preparations of the
polygraph subject possesses information regarding the subject
identity of the offender, location of the evidence or
other secondary element of the offender under 79. The purpose of further questioning are the
investigation? following, EXCEPT:
A. Control Question A. to clarify the findings
B. Interrogation B. to obtain additional information
C. Knowledge question C. to learn if there are any other reasons to a subject's
D. Evidence Connecting question response
D. to obtain information for court purposes

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80. The psychology of lying person states a lying 89. A person, by reason of his special technical training
person fears detection thus causing – or experience, can be permitted to express his opinion
A. Emotional changes in his heart about scientific issues involved in a lawsuit. Legally
B. Physiological changes to take place in his body speaking, what is the best description of this person?
C. Mental and emotional changes in his body A. Document examiner
D. Psychological changes in his central nervous system B. Handwriting expert
C. Expert witness
81. These are questions which are unrelated to the D. Forensic scientist
matter under investigation but are of similar nature
although less serious as compared to those relevant 90. A regular skip beat on the chart tracings of the
questions under investigation subject which are evenly spaced intervals usually
A. Irrelevant Questions signify a type of heart defect, serious or not. If the skip
B. Relevant Questions beat on the chart of the subject occurs intermittently
C. Control Questions after a primary relevant question was asked during the
D. Primary Questions test, it may indicate;
A. Deception criteria in itself
82. Of the following statements, which suits the B. Subject norm on a particular test
technical qualification of a polygraph examiner? C. A form of physiological relief on the question asked
A. He must have a good knowledge of the instrument D. Cuff discomfort due to physical pain
and its capabilities and limitations.
B. He must be free of prejudice and must be objective. 91. There are several test techniques commonly used
C. He must have an intense interest in work itself. in polygraph examination, the use of which will depend
D. The examiner must be dressed decently. on the nature of the case under investigation or at the
discretion of the examiner. What test technique is
83. He is considered as the first inventor of the being used when the so-called S-K-Y questions were
American Polygraph machine. He also developed a asked during the test?
broad board lie detector which was a polygraphic A. Backster zone comparison test
apparatus in portable form. B. General question test
A. Cesar Lombroso B. John Larson C. Silent answer test
C. William Marston D. Leonard Keeler D. Stimulation test

84. What are the questions pertaining to the issue 92. The examiner will conduct post interrogation if he
under investigation which must be ambiguous, is fully convinced of the guilt of the subject based on
unequivocal and understandable to the subject? the chart taken. On the other hand, when will the
A. Irrelevant questions examiner conduct chart probing to the subject during
B. Control questions the test?
C. General questions A. Every after taking of each chart
D. Relevant questions B. Only after the first test was completed
C. Only if there are deviations from norm on the chart
85. What is the most important thing to consider in a taken
polygraph result? D. When there are specific responses on the chart
A. the competence of the examiner without chart markings
B. the knowledge of the examiner
C. the training of the examiner 93. These are questions regarding wrongdoings,
D. the experience of the examiner unrelated but are of similar and less serious nature to
the investigation, and to which the subject will lie or if
86. This device is used to record the following, he does not really lie he will think about it at the time
EXCEPT: it is asked or be unsure of the complete truthfulness of
A. duration of inspiration and expiration his answer.
B. rhythms and breathing A. Irrelevant questions
C. frequency of breathing B. Relevant questions
D. amplitude of breathing C. Control questions
D.Guilt complex
87. If the polygraph test result indicates innocence,
what should the examiner do? 94. This stage, the rights of the subject are explained.
A. release the subject cordially His consent was obtained as well as personal data and
B. thank the subject for his cooperation the determination whether the subject is mentally,
C. ask the subject if he has any questions physically and psychologically prepared to undergo it.
D. all of the above A. Initial interview
B. Pre-test interview
88. The purpose of the pre test interview is to C. Actual test
A. gather more information from the subject D. Post test interview
B. acquire confession or admission
C. prepare the subject for the test 95. Under the backster zone comparison test
D. condition the subject's questions technique, color zones are applied in identifying so

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many questions used during the test. If the color zone b. Rifle d. Carbine
for irrelevant questions is yellow, what then is the color
zone for strong relevant questions? 5. Is the type of firearm which is ideal to be used in
A. Red B. Black horseback riding?
C. Green D. Orange a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Revolver
96. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is
not yet informed of the details of the offense for which 6. Is that part of the firearm in which the cartridge is
he is being interrogated by the investigation, or by placed when ready to be fired?
other persons or from other sources like the print a. Chamber c. Magazine
media? b. Bolt d. Cylinder
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test 7. Is that part of the firearm which houses its internal
C. IQ Test parts?
D. Guilt Complex Test a. Chamber c. Housing
b. Casing d. Frame
97. Any deviation from norm without markings on the
chart requires an explanation. This is the cardinal rule 8. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to
in chart interpretation. What then is the keynote to the right is fired from the barrel of a firearm with
accurate chart interpretation? identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Good question formulation a. Browning
B. Good chart marking b. Smith and Wesson
C. Good pre-test interview c. Colt
D. Good chart-proving d. Steyer

98. A lie detector test would be most useful 9. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are
A. Purposely to connect subject for the crime determinable even before the manufacture of the
committed firearm?
B. To substantiate a case for which no adequate direct a. Class Characteristics
evidence is established b. Individual Characteristics
C. When some direct evidence are available against the c. Repetitive mark
suspect but not enough to establish the case d. Accidental mark
completely
D. When there is no evidence against the suspect 10. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel
from a firearm.
99. Is a kind of lie wherein a person assumes another a. Bullet c. Slug
identity to deceive another? b. Projectile d. All of these
A. Black lie C. Red lie
B. Yellow lie D. White 11. Instrument used in obtaining test bullet:
a. Caliper
100. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie b. Bullet recovery box
detector examination are all ___ and this creates a set c. Bullet comparison microscope
of distortion. d. Water tank
A. Terrified C. Convenient
B. Nervous D. Confident 12. It is the sound generated at the muzzle point due
to sudden escape of burned gunpowder and its contact
with air:
FORENSIC BALLISTICS a. Muzzle noise b. Muzzle blast
1. Is the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting c. Muzzle energy d. Muzzle velocity
the target sideways as a result of not spinning on its
axis is known? 13. It is the speed of the bullet per unit of time
a. Ricochet c. Hang fire expressed in feet per second:
b. Misfire d. Key-hole shot a. Trajectory b. Air resistance
c. Pressure d. Velocity
2. Is it a type of firearm which propels a projectile with
more than one inch diameter? 14. Is the term applied to denote a firearm designed
a. Artillery b. Small arms for extra power?
c. Machine gun d. Rifle a. Double Action b. Automatic
c. Magnum d. Dum-dum
3. A tool in which a firearm mechanism is attached for
purposes of not to be easily be identified: 15. Is a smooth bore breech loading firearm designed
a. Freakish gun c. Zip gun to propel a number of lead pellets in one charge?
b. Flare gun d. Matchlock a. Shotgun b. Musket
c. Rifle d. Carbine
4. What type of firearm is commonly used by cavalry?
a. Shotgun c. Musket

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16. Is a type of firearm designed to propel a single lead c. Gauge d. Bore diameter
ball through a rifled barrel with a length shorter than
22 inches 27. Forensic ballistics has two phases of investigation;
a. Shotgun b. Musket a. Field and court
c. Rifle d. Carbine b. Outside and laboratory
c. Field and technical
17. The stripe on the periphery of a fired bullet from a d. Investigation and examination
rifled gun barrel is caused by the?
a. Frictional contact of the bullet at any hard object 28. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers
during its flight to a group of cartridges or to a single unit or single
b. Direct contact with any object cartridge.
c. Contact with the rifling of the bore of the gun while A. the entire primer assembly consisting of primer cup,
still inside the gun bore priming mixture, and the anvil
d. Any of the above B. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet,
cartridge case, _ gunpowder and primer
18. Is the size of the bullet grouping on the target? C. an entire cartridge case, including extracting groove,
a. Terminal penetration shell head, and the crimp
b. Terminal accuracy D. the bullet consisting of the nose, the body and the
c. Terminal trajectory base
d. Muzzle blast
29. Recovered fired bullet/s shall be marked on any of
19. Is the distance measured between two opposite the following portions, except:
lands of a rifle bore firearm? a. Ogive
a. Range b. Gauge c. Nose
c. Bore diameter d. Caliper b. Anterior portion
D. None of the above
20. To impart a motion of rotation to a bullet during its
passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability 30. This explains why firearm leaves marks and
in its flight? impressions among fired bullets and cartridge cases:
a. Rifling b. Gauge a. Because both the bullet/shell and firearm are equally
c. Bullet d. Caliber soft
b. Because both the bullet/shell and firearm, are
21. In the United States, crimes are committed by equally hard
juvenile using a homemade firearm known as: c. Because bullet and cartridge cases are much softer
a. Freakish gun b. Zip gun than the mechanism of the firearm
c. Flare gun d. Matchlock d. Because the bullet and cartridge cases are much
harder than the mechanism of the firearm
22. It is the term applied to a weapon in which pressure
upon the trigger both cocks and releases the hammer. 31. This permits firearm identification through fired
a. Repeating weapon bullets?
b. Double action a. Barrels interior mark
c. Single action b. Lands and groove marks
d. Automatic c. Rifling striations
d. Rifling marks
23. A type of firearm which contains rifling a few inches
from the muzzle point? 32. Extractor marks can never be found on bullets fired
a. Smooth bore b. Semi-rifled from what firearm?
c. Rifled bore d. Paradox a. Shot guns b. Revolvers
c. Pistol d. Machine gun
24. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container
which serves as the projector for the propellant against 33. Shaving marks are commonly found on bullets fired
moisture? from what firearm?
a. Bullet b. Cartridge case a. Shotgun b. Pistol
c. Primer d. Paper disc c. Rifle d. Revolvers

25. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy 34. The measurement of the projectile’s diameter used
to prevent leading is known as: as a basis of classifying between artillery and firearms?
a. Plated bullet a. One inch b. Two inches
b. Metal cased bullet c. Three inches d. Four inches
c. Jacketed bullet
d. Metal point bullet 35. The circular groove near the base of the case or
shell designed for the automatic withdrawal of the case
26. Unit of the bore instrument in shotgun determined after each firing?
by the number of solid lead balls of the bore diameter a. Neck b. Cannelures
obtainable to a pound lead. c. Shoulders d. Extracting groove
a. Caliper b. Rifling

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36. If the diameter of the body of the cartridge case is a. It is an artificial letter
equal with the diameter of the rim, it is called: b. It is a universal letter
a. Rimmed type b. Rebated c. It is everybody's letter
c. Rimless D. Semi-rimmed d. None of the above

37. Is that mechanism of the firearm by which empty 46. Rifle, pistol and revolver ammunition are called
shells or ammunition are thrown out from the gun? cartridges. Shotgun ammunition is called as-
A. Ejector B. Extractor a. Pellets b. Shell
C. Firing pin D. Trigger c. Cartridge d. Shot shell

38. The type of bullet that will quite reliably ignite 47. The minimum requirement for conclusion in
anything that the bullet strikes upon impact with very forensic ballistics?
hot flame? a. 3 test bullets/shells
A. Tracer bullet B. Incendiary Bullet b. 2 test bullets/shells
C. Dum-dum D. Armor piercing c. 5 test bullets/shells
d. 8 test bullets/shells
39. In case that cartridge case is found at the scene
of firing it only means that _____ firearm was used. 48.
A. single shot B. Automatic
C. Bolt action D. Double action

40. An optical instrument used or designed to make

simultaneous comparison of two specimens?
A. Comparison microscope
B. Chronograph
C. Micrometer
D. Shadowgraph

41. Is that of the primer which serves as a protector

for the priming mixture not to be easily penetrated by
moisture?
A. Paper disc B. Anvil A. Comparison Microscope
C. Primer cup D. Flash hole B. Compound Microscope
C. Microscope
42. When a recovered fired bullet has five landmarks D. Stereoscopic Microscope
and five groove marks, the direction of twist is towards
the right hand, and the width of the grooves marks and
landmarks are equal, you are certain that it was fired 49. Rifled barrel firearm has better proficiency for use
from _________ type of firearm. for
A. Smith and Wesson type a. provides or imparts rotatory motion to the
B. Webley type bullet
C. Winchester type b. Gives gyroscopic action
D. Browning c. Gives greater accuracy and penetration
d. All of the above
43. Marking characteristics which are peculiar in a
particular firearm and which are not found in all other 50. When the “draws” of the pistol is completed, the
firearms. They serve as basis to identify a particular index finger should?
firearm and which are not found in all firearms; a. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
a. Individual Characteristics b. Grasp the stock
b. Class characteristics c. Be straighten along the barrel
c. Artificial characteristics d. Be inside the trigger guard
d. All of the above
51. It is that part of the cartridge case where the
44. Individual characteristics are determinable only priming mixture imparts ignition to the gun powder.
after the manufacture of the firearm. Their existence is a. Flash hole
beyond the control of man and which have random c. Paper disc
distribution inside the gun. Their existence in firearm is b. Anvil
brought about by- d. Primer pocket
a. Tools in their manufacture
b. In their normal operation resulting through wear and
tear 52. A type of a cartridge with protruding metal around
c. A and b are true the body near its rim designed to provide support to
d. All of the above the cartridge case and generally used in high power
guns.
45. Do not mark or label physical evidence with letter
‘X’ because;

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 64. What instrument is used in obtaining a test bullet?
A. Caliper
B. Bullet Comparison Microscope
C. Bullet Recovery Box _
D. Water Tank

53. When two specimens are compared under the 65. What type of a firearm is commonly used by
comparison microscope at the same direction the same cavalry?
level the same magnification and the same image, they A. Carbine _ B. Pistol
are called? C. Revolver D. Rifle
a. Positively match c. Pseudo match
b. Juxtaposition d. Drag match 66. It is a branch of ballistics that treats the motion of
a projectile while still inside the firearm.
54. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from A. interior ballistics B. terminal ballistics
the crime scene will request the ballistician to C. exterior ballistics D. forensic ballistics
determine____?
a. Owner of the firearm 67. It refers to the size of the bullet groupings on the
b. Model of the firearm target.
c. Caliber and type of the firearm A. terminal penetration
d. Manufacturer of the firearm B. terminal velocity
C. terminal energy
55. What instrument is used in measuring the weight D. terminal accuracy
of a bullet which has an equivalent caliber?
a. Caliper c. Torsion balance 68. Which refers to the size of the bullet grouping on
b. Helixometer d. Chronograph the target?
A. Penetration
56. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes. B. Terminal penetration
A. Bordan primer B. Berdan Primer C. Terminal ballistics
C. Battery Primer D. Boxer Primer D. Terminal accuracy

57. Fired Cartridge cases/shells are usually marked at 69. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge
the _________? primer to detonate the powder.
A. At the base A. Spring B. Trigger guard
B. Side or body of the shell C. Hammer D. Revolver
C. At the rim
D. Any of these 70. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to
muffle the sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling
58. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other the escape of gasses.
parts? A. Buffer B. Silencer
A. Housing B. frame C. Magazine D. Hanger
C. casing D. Chamber
59. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from 71. A handgun in which a rotating cylinder successively
land to land. places a cartridge into position for firing is known as?
A. Caliber _ B. Mean diameter A. Pistol B. Revolver
C. Gauge D. Rifling C. Rifle D. Machinegun

60. It is the science of mobility of the projectile. 72. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night
A. Forensic Ballistics which emits a bright flame at its base and usually
B. Applied Physics colored red-tip.
C. Ballistics A. armor piercing B. tracer bullet
D. Applied Science C. incendiary bullet D. explosive

61. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case 73. A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead
measured by? pellets in one charge to a smooth bore barrel.
A. Gauge B. Caliber A. Rifle B. Machinegun
C. Lands of grooves D. None of these C. Shotgun D. Musket

62. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. 74. Generally applied to all homemade guns, just as
A. Yaw B. Range the one used by juvenile delinquents in the United
C. Velocity D. Trajectory States.
A. zip gun B. freakish gun
63. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in C. grease gun D. paltik
a shell?
A. Bullet B. Trigger 75. In the story of crime, with the use of firearms, the
C. Primer D. Flash Hole energy coming from the muzzle point is called?

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A. Armor-piercing B. Velocity A. Misfire B. Mushroom
C. Lead bullet D. Muzzle energy C. Ricochet _ D. Keyhole shot

76. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, 89. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior
primer, gunpowder and shell: surface of the bore.
A. Ammunition A. swaging B. ogive
B. Shotgun Cartridge C. rifling D. breaching
C. Cartridge
D. Missile 90. What do you call the type of instrument used in
measuring pitch of rifling firearms?
77. Is that branch of ballistics which treats the motion A. Pinometer B. Helixometer
of the projectile while it is in its flight? C. Thermometer D. Caliper
A. Interior B. Terminal
C. Exterior D. Forensic 91. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of
rifling of a firearm?
78. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, A. Caliper B. Torsion Balance
expressed in ft/sec? C. Helixometer D. Chronograph
A. Muzzle Energy B. Muzzle Blast
C. Velocity D. Trajectory 92. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on
time or delayed in firing?
79. It is the distance at which the gunner has the A. Knocking Power B. Hang fire
control of shot where the bullet travels straight. C. Recoil D. None of these
A. Maximum Range
B. Maximum Effective Range 93. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with
C. Accurate Range more than one inch diameter?
D. Effective Range A. Small Arms B. Artillery
C. Mortar D. Cannon
80. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which
are determinable even before the manufacture of the 94. Which of the following tests is used to determine
firearm? whether a person fired a gun?
A. Class Characteristics A. Luminescence
B. Individual Characteristics B. Duquinois Levine test
C. Repetitive mark C. Takayama’s test
D. accidental mark D. Paraffin test

81. That mechanism in a firearm by which the cartridge 95. The term ballistics was actually derived from the
case or shell is withdrawn from the chamber. Greek word “ballein or ballo”, which means
A. Extractor B. Chamber A. to kick B. to punch
C. Firing pin D. Barrel C. to throw D. to explode

82. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the 96. It is the sound created at the muzzle end of the
empty shells from the chamber? gun barrel after an explosion.
A. Ejector B. Extractor A. muzzle energy B. range
C. Firing pin D. Extractor pin C. trajectory D. muzzle blast

83. The moment the bullet leaves the muzzle of the 97. It refers to one complete unfired unit consisting of
gun. What kind of ballistic? a bullet, primer, cartridge case, and gunpowder
A. Interior Ballistics A. projectile B. cartridge
B. Exterior Ballistics C. firearm D. slug
C. Terminal Ballistics
D. Ballistics 98. Characteristics which are determinable only after
the manufacture of the firearm.
86. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile A. class characteristics
on the target. B. forensic characteristics
A. Terminal Ballistics _ C. rifling characteristics
B. Internal Ballistics D. Individual characteristics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics 99. The most important single process in a barrel
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
87. This is the actual curved path of the bullet during expert is:
its flight from the gun muzzle and target. A. reaming operation
A. Air Rsistance B. Velocity B. rifling operation
C. Trajectory _ D. Pull of Gravity C. lapping operation
D. drilling operation
88. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its
normal path after striking a resistant surface.

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100. The curved path of a bullet is mainly caused by C. By removing the zone of strain
several factors. What do you call the manner of curving D. By applying etching reagent
of the bullet?
A. Trajectory B. Drift 110. One important characteristic of the gunshot exit
c. Terminal Ballistic D. All of these wound is?
A. That the edge is averted
101. The motion responsible for the bouncing of the B. That the size is bigger than the missile
bullet in different directions after hitting a much harder C. That the edge is inverted
object known as ricochet. D. That the shape is round or oval
A. direct motion
B. rotary motion 111. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas
C. translational motion instead of solids to cause the high explosives to exert
D. ricochet motion full power of shock. The speed varies in different
explosive but in some it is as high as 7000 yards in a
102. What should be the classification of a shell when second. This refers to
the diameter of the rim is larger than the diameter of A. Energy B. Gas
the shell’s body? C. Detonation D. Gunpowder
A. Bottleneck type B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type D. Rimmed case 112. During the past year many crimes of violence have
been committed in the city with imported starter’s
103. Handguns that can be fired several times by pistols, which have been converted into dangerous
means of cartridge stored in the handle are called. weapons. Concerning this situation, it would be most
A. Pistols correct to state that generally.
B. Revolver A. The conversions consisted of a replacement of the
C. Self-loading pistol original solid cylinder with a cylinder
D. Automatic Weapon B. The conversions were not performed by licensed
gunsmiths and gun dealers.
104. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm C. The retail sale of these weapons at a very low price
due to rusting of the action of salts deposited from the is made possible because of a low import duty.
gunpowder is: D. These weapons have a manufacturer’s serial
A. pressure B. corrosion number and may be easily traced.
C. erosion D. decomposition
113. This valuable instrument is specially designed to
105. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the permit the firearms examiner to determine the
lands and grooves or one complete turn. similarity and dissimilarity between two fired bullets or
A. Pitch of rifling two fired shells, by simultaneously observing their
B. Bore diameter magnified image in a single microscopic field.
C. Lands and grooves A. Magnetic field device
D. Bullet twisting B. Compound microscope
C. Bullet comparison microscope
106. Spiral grooves in the bore are designed to give a D. Photographic microscope
spin to the projectile for greater accuracy and carrying
power. 114. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the
A. Rifling B. Caliber expert examination of firearms, bullets and shells that
C. Gauge D. Bore would determine whether or not a particular bullet is
fired from a particular firearm, and whether or not a
107. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to: particular shell is loaded and ejected from the same
A. Oversized barrel firearm; it is conducted in a forensic laboratory.
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the A. field investigation
barrel B. technical examination
C. Oily barrel C. legal proceedings
D. Delayed combustion D. none of the above

108. Consist of a wooden box, 12 “x”12”x 96, with a 115. The FP-45 also known as the Liberator was put
hinged to cover and with one end open. This long box into service by the American troops during World War
is filled with ordinary cotton and separated into 2 against the insurgents. It is sometimes known as the
sections by cardboard petitions use in ballistics. Woolworth gun that could effectively be in an 8 yards
A. Firing point box range. What is the official ammunition of the Liberator?
B. Bullet recovery box A. .38 caliber B. .45 caliber
C. Slug collection box C. .44 caliber D. 5.56 mm
D. All of these
116. Pistols were slowly developed throughout the time
109. How is the serial number of a firearm or engine from simple to a more sophisticated firearm. According
number of a vehicle restored? to history, it was believed the word pistol was taken
A. By polishing stamped serial number from the Italian word Pistoia which literally means:
B. By cleaning obliterated surface

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 A. small gun B. coin Use the illustration in answering the following
C. city D. handgun questions.

117. PLT Jack Uy was tasked to examine whether the

questioned bullet was fired from the suspected firearm
and prepare her deductions for court testimony. The
situation was part of what branch of ballistics?
A. firearms Identification
B. technical examination
C. legal proceeding
D. forensic ballistics

118. Sometimes called flanged cartridge, is the oldest

of the types and has a rim that is significantly larger in
diameter than the base of the cartridge.

119. It creates the spiral grooves inside the barrel

using some form of a cutter or the rifling operation
process.

120. It creates the considered as the most important

mark for identification on fired shells.

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