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Chapter 06: Genetics
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Feedback
A Chromosomes are located in the nucleus of the cell. They contain the hereditary
units called genes that are transmitted from one generation to another.
B Each cell of the human body, with the exception of mature germ cells, has 46
chromosomes. Half of these chromosomes are derived from the father, and the
other half from the mother.
C Correct! Chromosomes can only be seen clearly under a microscope when the
nucleus and cell are dividing. At other times the genetic material is dispersed in
the nucleus.
D Chromosomes contain DNA, which directs the production of amino acids,
polypeptides, and proteins by the cell.
Feedback
A The gap 2 (G2) phase of mitosis ends when mitotic division begins.
B Correct! The G2 phase of mitosis ends when mitotic division takes place and
follows the S phase. Replication of DNA takes place in the S phase.
C The G2 phase of mitosis follows the S phase.
D Replication of DNA takes place during the S phase.
Feedback
A Metaphase occurs before anaphase during mitosis.
B Correct! The correct order for the stages of mitosis is prophase, metaphase,
anaphase, telophase. During prophase the chromosomes are lining up toward
metaphase; in metaphase, the chromosomes stain intensely and are arranged
almost symmetrically at both sides of the center of the cell; in anaphase and
telophase the chromatids are in the process of splitting.
C Anaphase occurs before telophase during mitosis.
D Prophase is the first stage of mitosis, and anaphase occurs before telophase.
4. Primitive germ cells have _____ chromosomes and are called _____.
a. 23; diploid
b. 46; haploid
c. 23; haploid
d. 46; diploid
ANS: D
Feedback
A Primitive germ cells have 46 rather than 23 chromosomes.
B Primitive germ cells are called diploid rather than haploid.
C Primitive germ cells have 46 chromosomes and are called diploid.
D Correct! Primitive germ cells have 46 chromosomes and are called diploid, with
two chromosomes for each pair. Meiosis is a two-step special type of cell
division in which the primitive germ cells reduce their chromosome number by
half and become mature germ cells.
5. Points of contact between the chromatid of one chromosome and the chromatid of the other
chromosome of a pair, where crossing over and exchange of chromosome segments occur, are
called:
a. first meiosis.
b. second meiosis.
c. chiasmata.
d. interpolation.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Crossing over occurs during first meiosis, but the contacts between pairs of
chromosomes occur at chiasmata.
B Crossing over occurs during first meiosis; the second stage of meiosis is
essentially a mitotic division in which each chromosome splits longitudinally.
C Correct! Points of contact between the chromatid of one chromosome and the
chromatid of the other chromosome of a pair, where crossing over and exchange
of chromosome segments occur, are called chiasmata. This special aspect of the
first meiosis takes place at metaphase.
D Crossing over and exchange of chromosome segments occur at the chiasmata,
not interpolation.
Feedback
A After metaphase of the first meiotic division, the chromosomes do not split at the
centromere but separate from one another.
B Correct! After metaphase of the first meiotic division, the chromosomes do not
split at the centromere but separate from one another. Each member of the pair
migrates to one of the new cells, each of which contains 23 chromosomes but
twice the final amount of DNA.
C Each member of the pair migrates to one of the new cells, each of which
contains 23 rather than 46 chromosomes but twice the final amount of DNA.
D Each member of the pair migrates to one of the new cells, each of which
contains 23 chromosomes but twice rather than half the final amount of DNA.
Feedback
A Oogenesis starts around the third month of prenatal life, and the future ova
remain in suspended crossing-over from about the time of birth until the time
ovulation starts.
B The first meiosis rather than second meiosis is completed at the beginning of
ovulation.
C Nondisjunction is more prevalent in female oogenesis than in male
spermatogenesis.
D Correct! The older the woman, the greater the chance of shedding a trisomic
ovum.
Feedback
A Replication of DNA does not occur before the second meiosis.
B Correct! Features of second mitosis include essentially a mitotic division in
which each chromosome splits longitudinally.
C After splitting, two cells rather than four, are formed from the parent cell.
D The second mitosis results in the formation of two cells from the parent cell,
each containing 1n DNA.
9. According to the Lyon hypothesis, during the early period of embryonic development, the:
a. genetic activity of both of the X chromosomes in each cell of a female embryo is
inactivated.
b. genetic activity of one of the X chromosomes in each cell of a female embryo is
inactivated.
c. genetic activity of the Y chromosome in each cell of a male embryo is inactivated.
d. inactivated chromosome forms a structure known as the pronucleus.
ANS: B
Feedback
A The genetic activity of one of the two X chromosomes in each cell of a female
embryo is inactivated.
B Correct! According to the Lyon hypothesis, during the early period of embryonic
development, the genetic activity of one of the X chromosomes in each cell of a
female embryo is inactivated.
C The genetic activity of one of the two X chromosomes in each cell of a female
embryo rather than the genetic activity of the Y chromosome in each cell of a
male embryo, is inactivated.
D The inactivated chromosome forms a structure known as the Barr body. The
Barr body appears as a dark dot at the periphery of the nucleus.
10. In DNA a sequence of thymine, adenine, and cytosine (TAC) is always matched by:
a. adenine, cytosine, and guanine (ACG).
b. guanine, adenine, and cytosine (GAC).
c. adenine, thymine, and guanine (ATG).
d. a five-carbon sugar and a phosphate.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Thymine, adenine, and cytosine (TAC) is always matched by adenine, thymine,
and guanine (ATG). Thymine, guanine, and cytosine would be matched by
adenine, cytosine, and guanine (ACG).
B Thymine, adenine, and cytosine (TAC) is always matched by adenine, thymine,
and guanine (ATG). Cytosine, thymine, and guanine would be matched by
guanine, adenine, and cytosine (GAC).
C Correct! In DNA a sequence of thymine, adenine, and cytosine (TAC) is always
matched by adenine, thymine, and guanine (ATG). The base adenine is always
bound to the base thymine, and guanine is always bound to cytosine.
D The basic unit of DNA is called a nucleotide, which is formed by a
nitrogen-containing base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate.
Feedback
A During translation, amino acids form a polypeptide, and one or more
polypeptides form a protein.
B Correct! During translation, amino acids form a polypeptide, and one or more
polypeptides form a protein.
C During translation, amino acids form a polypeptide, and one or more
polypeptides form a protein.
D During translation, amino acids form a polypeptide, and one or more
polypeptides form a protein.
12. Which of the following types of RNA carries the message for translation of DNA to
ribosomes in the cytoplasm?
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. hnRNA
ANS: A
Feedback
A Correct! mRNA carries the message for transcription of DNA to ribosomes in
the cytoplasm.
B tRNA transfers amino acids from the cytoplasm to the mRNA, positioning
amino acids in the proper sequence to form polypeptides and subsequent
proteins.
C rRNA combines with several polypeptides to form ribosomes.
D hnRNA is found within the nucleus. It is the precursor of mRNA.
13. Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes and that dictate the
same functions or characteristics are called:
a. consanguineous.
b. chromatids.
c. alleles.
d. precocious.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes and that
dictate the same functions or characteristics are called alleles, not
consanguineous.
B Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes and that
dictate the same functions or characteristics are called alleles, not chromatids.
C Correct! Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes
and that dictate the same functions or characteristics are called alleles.
D Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes and that
dictate the same functions or characteristics are called alleles, not precocious.
Feedback
A Only if both loci are empty does the person have blood group O.
B Correct! If both loci for blood are AO, the person is said to have blood group A.
C When the allelic genes are identical, the person is said to be homozygous for that
gene, or a homozygote. When the genes are different, the person is said to be
heterozygous for that gene, or a heterozygote.
D If a gene can express its effect clinically with a single dose (heterozygous), as in
the combination AO (which equals blood group A), the characteristic is
dominant. If the gene needs a double dose to exhibit its action (homozygous),
the resulting characteristic is said to be recessive.
Feedback
A A karyotype may use colchicine rather than arginine to arrest the mitosis of
leukocytes at metaphase.
B Correct! In making a karyotype colchicine may be used to arrest the mitosis of
leukocytes at metaphase.
C In making a karyotype colchicine may be used to arrest the mitosis of leukocytes
rather than red blood cells at metaphase.
D A karyotype is used to evaluate gross abnormalities in chromosomes. Molecular
alterations occur at the DNA level and are not detectable microscopically.
16. Which of the following statements is true regarding gross chromosomal abnormalities
involving alterations in the number of human chromosomes?
a. Aneuploidy is a complete second set of chromosomes, meaning a total of 46.
b. Polyploidy is any number of chromosomes that do not represent an exact multiple
of the total chromosome complement.
c. Euploidy is a complete second set of chromosomes, meaning a total of 46.
d. Aneuploidy may be represented by trisomy and monosomy.
ANS: D
Feedback
A Aneuploidy is any extra number of chromosomes that do not represent an exact
multiple of the total chromosome complement.
B Polyploidy is three or four complete sets of chromosomes. This has been
described occasionally in humans and is incompatible with life.
C Euploidy is a complete second set of chromosomes, the total number being 92.
D Correct! Aneuploidy may be represented by trisomy (a pair with an identical
extra chromosome) and monosomy (a missing chromosome from a pair).
Feedback
A Most cases of Down syndrome are associated with late maternal age at the time
of conception. Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with maternal consumption
of alcohol.
B Correct! Most cases of Down syndrome are associated with late maternal age at
the time of conception. It is the most frequent of the trisomies.
C Most cases of Down syndrome are associated with late maternal age at the time
of conception, not estrogen supplements.
D Most cases of Down syndrome are associated with late maternal age at the time
of conception, not inhalation of vapors from volatile substances.
18. Which of the following clinical syndromes caused by gross chromosomal abnormalities is
associated with bilateral cleft lip and palate, microphthalmia or anophthalmia, and
polydactyly?
a. Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 21
c. Turner syndrome
d. Klinefelter syndrome
ANS: A
Feedback
A Correct! Trisomy 13 is associated with bilateral cleft lip and palate,
microphthalmia or anophthalmia, superficial hemangioma of the forehead or
nape of the neck, growth retardation, severe mental retardation, polydactyly of
the hands and feet, clenching of the fist with the thumb under the fingers,
rocker-bottom feet, heart malformations, and several anomalies of the external
genitals.
B Trisomy 21 is associated with slanted eyes. Patients are generally shorter than
normal, and heart abnormalities are present in more than 30% of individuals.
Intelligence level varies from near normal to marked retardation.
C Turner syndrome is characterized by a female phenotype. Clinically, these
women are of short stature and have webbing of the neck and edema of the
hands and feet. They frequently exhibit a low hairline on the nape of the neck.
The chest is broad with wide-spaced nipples. The aorta is frequently abnormal,
and body hair is sparse.
D Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by a male phenotype. These patients are
taller than normal and have wide hips and a female pubic hair distribution.
About 50% have gynecomastia, and intelligence levels are lower than normal in
10% of affected individuals.
Feedback
A The majority of patients with Turner syndrome have a female rather than a male
phenotype and 45 rather than 47 chromosomes. In the majority of cases, the
karyotype has the normal 44 autosomal chromosomes and only one X
chromosome.
B The majority of patients with Turner syndrome have a female phenotype and 45
rather than 46 chromosomes. In the majority of cases, the karyotype has the
normal 44 autosomal chromosomes and only one X chromosome.
C Correct! The majority of patients with Turner syndrome have a female
phenotype, and in the majority of cases, the karyotype has the normal 44
autosomal chromosomes and only one X chromosome. A normal female would
have two X chromosomes: one from the mother and one from the father. Most
cases of Turner syndrome are caused by nondisjunction of the X chromosome in
the paternal gamete.
D The majority of patients with Turner syndrome have a female rather than a male
phenotype and 45 rather than 44 chromosomes. In the majority of cases, the
karyotype has the normal 44 autosomal chromosomes and only one X
chromosome.
Feedback
A For autosomal-dominant inheritance, males and females are equally affected.
B For autosomal-dominant inheritance, the risk of having an affected offspring is
50% for each pregnancy when a person has a gene for that condition.
C For autosomal-dominant inheritance, genetic risk is governed by chance. None,
less than half, half, more than half, or all of the offspring could be affected by a
condition that is transmitted by autosomal-dominant inheritance.
D Correct! For autosomal-dominant inheritance, an individual can carry a gene
with a dominant effect without presenting any clinical manifestations.
PTS: 1 REF: Autosomal-Dominant Inheritance, page 198
OBJ: 6
21. A man’s X chromosome is transmitted to _____ of his daughters and _____ of his sons.
a. none; none
b. none; all
c. all; none
d. all; all
ANS: C
Feedback
A A man’s X chromosome is transmitted to all of his daughters and none of his
sons.
B A man’s X chromosome is transmitted to all of his daughters and none of his
sons.
C Correct! A man’s X chromosome is transmitted to all of his daughters and none
of his sons. The X chromosome in his sons comes from the mother.
Consequently, no male-to-male transmission of X-linked traits occurs.
D A man’s X chromosome is transmitted to all of his daughters and none of his
sons.
22. A mother who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive trait has a 50% risk of having a(n):
a. affected son or daughter.
b. carrier son or daughter.
c. affected son or a carrier daughter.
d. carrier son or an affected daughter.
ANS: C
Feedback
A A mother who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive trait has a 50% risk of having
an affected son or a carrier daughter.
B A mother who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive trait has a 50% risk of having
an affected son or a carrier daughter.
C Correct! A mother who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive trait has a 50% risk
of having an affected son or a carrier daughter. Both daughters and sons have a
50% risk of getting the X chromosome with the gene for that condition.
D A mother who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive trait has a 50% risk of having
an affected son or a carrier daughter.
Feedback
A It is inherited as an X-linked recessive, not X-linked dominant, condition.
B It is inherited as an X-linked rather than a Y-linked recessive condition.
C Some of the canceled X chromosomes in the female carrier have the abnormal
gene, and others have the normal one. The female carrier is a mosaic.
D Correct! Female carriers tend to bleed more than usual after extraction of teeth
or scaling and curettage.
PTS: 1 REF: Lyon Hypothesis and X-linked Recessive Traits, page 198
OBJ: 7
Feedback
A The cycles usually occur in intervals of 12 to 27 days rather than 21 to 27 days,
but in some patients, the intervals may be extended to several months. These
episodes generally persist for 2 to 3 days.
B Correct! Cyclic neutropenia is characterized by oral manifestations consisting of
severe ulcerative gingivitis or gingivostomatitis.
C The gene is located on the short arm of chromosome 19.
D The inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant.
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding management of patients with cyclic
neutropenia?
a. Preventive antibiotic therapy is instituted to protect against secondary
opportunistic infections.
b. Treatment should be done when the circulating neutrophil count is low to reduce
the risk of complications such as gingival hemorrhage and secondary infection.
c. Dental hygiene care increases the risk of opportunistic infections in patients with
cyclic neutropenia.
d. Patients are treated periodically with vitamin D to reduce symptoms.
ANS: A
Feedback
A Correct! Preventive antibiotic therapy is instituted to protect against secondary
opportunistic infections.
B Treatment should be done when the circulating neutrophil count is normal to
reduce the risk of complications such as gingival hemorrhage and secondary
infection.
C Dental hygiene care reduces the risk of opportunistic infections in patients with
cyclic neutropenia.
D Patients are treated periodically with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
(G-CSF) to reduce symptoms.
Feedback
A Cherubism is an inherited disorder affecting the jaw bones and facies.
B Correct! Murray-Puretic-Drescher syndrome is also known as gingival
fibromatosis with multiple hyaline fibromas.
C Gingival fibromatosis with hypertrichosis, epilepsy, and mental retardation
syndrome and Laband syndrome are all forms of gingival fibromatosis; however,
Murray-Puretic-Drescher syndrome is known as gingival fibromatosis with
multiple hyaline fibromas.
D Gingival fibromatosis with hypertrichosis, epilepsy, and mental retardation
syndrome and Laband syndrome are all forms of gingival fibromatosis; however,
Murray-Puretic-Drescher syndrome is also known as gingival fibromatosis with
multiple hyaline fibromas.
PTS: 1 REF: Gingival Fibromatosis with Multiple Hyaline Fibromas, page 202
OBJ: 8
27. Cherubism:
a. is inherited as an autosomal-dominant disease with marked penetrance in females
and variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance in males.
b. most frequently involves the maxilla.
c. is characterized by a unilateral facial deformity.
d. reveals a typical “soap-bubble” or multilocular appearance on radiographs.
ANS: D
Feedback
A Cherubism is inherited as an autosomal-dominant disease with marked
penetrance in males and variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance in
females.
B Cherubism most frequently involves the mandible, but the change can affect
either the mandible or the maxilla.
C Cherubism is characterized by a bilateral facial deformity.
D Correct! Cherubism reveals a typical “soap-bubble” or multilocular appearance
on radiographs. It usually occupies the ascending ramus of the mandible and
extends into the molar and premolar areas.
Feedback
A Correct! The areas of bony radiolucency seen in cherubism resemble a central
giant cell granuloma when seen under the microscope. The bone lesions interfere
with tooth development and eruption.
B Most of the patients with cherubism have pseudoanodontia because of delayed
eruption.
C The size of the jaws of patients with cherubism tends to increase rapidly until
about puberty and then generally remains stable.
D The facial deformity seen in cases of cherubism remains for life.
29. Which of the following disorders affecting the jaw bones and facies is characterized by fusion
of the anterior portion of the maxillary gingiva to the upper lip from canine to canine?
a. Gardner syndrome
b. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
c. Ellis–van Creveld syndrome
d. Cherubism
ANS: C
Feedback
A Gardner syndrome is characterized by the presence of osteomas in various
bones, especially the frontal bones, mandible, and maxilla.
B Mandibulofacial dysostosis is characterized by a facies with downward sloping
of the palpebral fissures, a hypoplastic nose, hypoplastic malar bones with
hypoplasia or absence of the zygomatic process, abnormal and misplaced ears,
and a receding chin.
C Correct! Ellis–van Creveld syndrome is characterized by fusion of the anterior
portion of the maxillary gingiva to the upper lip from canine to canine. This
syndrome has an autosomal-recessive inheritance pattern. The gene for this
syndrome has been mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 region 16.
D Cherubism is characterized by a progressive bilateral facial swelling that appears
when the patient is between and 4 years of age.
PTS: 1 REF: Ellis-van Creveld Syndrome, page 202
OBJ: 9
Feedback
A A patient with Ellis–van Creveld syndrome will show polydactyly on the ulnar
side of the forearm, and fingernails and toenails will be hypoplastic and
deformed.
B Individuals affected by Ellis–van Creveld syndrome are dwarfs (different from
midgets) because of distal shortening of the extremities. Other skeletal
anomalies include curvature of the legs and feet.
C Correct! A patient with Ellis–van Creveld syndrome will lack an anterior
maxillary vestibular sulcus.
D A patient with Ellis–van Creveld syndrome will lack an anterior maxillary
vestibular sulcus rather than a posterior mandibular sulcus.
Feedback
A A patient with unilateral or bilateral aplasia of the clavicles will have paranasal
sinuses that are lacking or hypoplastic rather than hyperplastic.
B A patient with unilateral or bilateral aplasia of the clavicles will have a long and
narrow neck because of unilateral or bilateral aplasia or hypoplasia of the
clavicles.
C A patient with unilateral or bilateral aplasia of the clavicles will have a cranium
that develops a mushroom shape because the fontanelles remain open rather than
close prematurely.
D Correct! A patient with unilateral or bilateral aplasia of the clavicles will be able
to approximate his or her shoulders to the midline. Various other bone anomalies
can also be present.
Feedback
A Osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by defective collagen and results in
abnormally formed bones that fracture easily.
B Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome is characterized by mild hypertelorism
and mild prognathism, with frontal and parietal enlargement and a broad nasal
root.
C Mandibulofacial dysostosis is characterized by a mouth that appears fishlike,
with downward sloping of the lip commissures. The facies shows downward
sloping of the palpebral fissures, a hypoplastic nose, hypoplastic malar bones
with hypoplasia or absence of the zygomatic process, abnormal and misplaced
ears, and a receding chin.
D Correct! Gardner syndrome is characterized by intestinal polyps, which become
malignant at age 30 and after. It is also known as familial colorectal polyposis.
Polyposis primarily affects the colon and rectum and generally develops before
puberty. Some authors recommend intestinal resection when the polyps appear
because their malignant transformation into adenocarcinoma is invariable,
especially with increasing age.
33. Oral manifestations of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome consist of multiple cysts of the
jaws that are:
a. central giant cell granulomas.
b. peripheral giant cell granulomas.
c. odontogenic keratocysts.
d. calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumors.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Oral manifestations of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome consist of multiple
cysts of the jaws that are odontogenic keratocysts and not central giant cell
granulomas.
B Oral manifestations of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome consist of multiple
cysts of the jaws that are odontogenic keratocysts and not peripheral giant cell
granulomas.
C Correct! Oral manifestations of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome consist of
multiple cysts of the jaws that are odontogenic keratocysts. These cysts vary in
size; they can be very large and have a marked tendency to recur after surgical
removal. On occasion, an ameloblastoma arises in them as part of this syndrome.
They develop as early as 5 to 6 years of age in some affected patients and
interfere with normal development of the jawbones and teeth.
D Oral manifestations of nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome consist of multiple
cysts of the jaws that are odontogenic keratocysts and not calcifying epithelial
odontogenic tumors.
34. The basic defect responsible for osteogenesis imperfecta is produced by various mutations
affecting the genes that encode type I collagen, resulting in:
a. lack of otic ossicles.
b. unilateral or bilateral aplasia or hypoplasia of clavicles.
c. overgrowth of cortical bone in the midline of the palate.
d. abnormally formed bones that fracture easily.
ANS: D
Feedback
A Mandibulofacial dysostosis is associated with lack of otic ossicles.
B Cleidocranial dysplasia is associated with unilateral or bilateral aplasia or
hypoplasia of clavicles.
C Torus palatinus is associated with a bony overgrowth at the midline of the hard
palate.
D Correct! The basic defect responsible for osteogenesis imperfecta is produced by
various mutations affecting the genes that encode type I collagen, resulting in
abnormally formed bones that fracture easily.
35. Hard, dense, cortical bone on the buccal aspect of the alveolar ridge by tooth number 14
would be termed a:
a. radiolucent torus palatinus.
b. radiopaque torus mandibularis.
c. radiopaque exostosis.
d. radiolucent exostosis.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Torus palatinus is a radiopaque bony overgrowth that occurs at the midline of
the hard palate.
B Torus mandibularis is a radiopaque bony overgrowth that occurs on the lingual
aspect of the mandible in the area of the premolar teeth.
C Correct! Hard, dense, cortical bone on the buccal aspect of the alveolar ridge by
tooth number 14 would be termed a radiopaque exostosis. They are generally
asymptomatic unless traumatized. They may be single, multiple, unilateral, and
bilateral and occur less frequently than either palatal or mandibular tori.
D Hard, dense, cortical bone on the buccal aspect of the alveolar ridge by tooth
number 14 would be termed a radiopaque exostosis rather than radiolucent
exostosis.
PTS: 1 REF: Maxillary Exostosis, page 206 OBJ: 8
36. Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
will be especially prominent on the:
a. tip and anterior dorsum of the tongue.
b. palate.
c. gingiva.
d. buccal mucosa.
ANS: A
Feedback
A Correct! Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary
hemorrhagic telangiectasia will be especially prominent on the tip and anterior
dorsum of the tongue. The palate, gingiva, and buccal mucosa are often affected
but to a lesser degree. Hemorrhage from sites in the oral cavity, mainly the lips
and tongue, is second in frequency to epistaxis.
B Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic
telangiectasia will be especially prominent on the tip and anterior dorsum of the
tongue rather than the palate.
C Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic
telangiectasia will be especially prominent on the tip and anterior dorsum of the
tongue rather than the gingiva.
D Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic
telangiectasia will be especially prominent on the tip and anterior dorsum of the
tongue rather than the buccal mucosa.
37. Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome includes multiple mucosal neuromas, medullary
carcinoma of the thyroid gland, and:
a. telangiectases.
b. pheochromocytoma.
c. gastrointestinal polyposis.
d. blue sclera.
ANS: B
Feedback
A Telangiectases are a component of Osler-Rendu–Parkes Weber syndrome.
B Correct! Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome includes multiple mucosal
neuromas, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, and pheochromocytoma.
The mucosal neuromas are prominent on the lips and the anterior dorsal surface
of the tongue. They generally appear in the first few years of life. Medullary
carcinoma of the thyroid has been diagnosed in more than 75% of patients with
this syndrome; it generally develops in the second decade of life. Metastatic
lesions develop frequently, and about 20% of patients die as a consequence of
metastasis.
C Gastrointestinal polyposis is associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
D Blue sclera is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta.
38. Early diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is imperative because of the high malignant potential
of:
a. squamous cell carcinoma.
b. basal cell carcinoma.
c. thyroid carcinoma.
d. osteogenic sarcoma.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Early diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is imperative because of the high
malignant potential of thyroid carcinoma rather than squamous cell carcinoma.
B Early diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is imperative because of the high
malignant potential of thyroid carcinoma rather than basal cell carcinoma.
C Correct! Early diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is imperative because of the high
malignant potential of thyroid carcinoma. Pheochromocytoma itself is a benign
neoplasm that generally develops in ganglia around the adrenal glands. The
tumor is often bilateral and is responsible for night sweats, high blood pressure,
and episodes of severe diarrhea. The pheochromocytoma induces increased
urinary levels of epinephrine and other substances.
D Early diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is imperative because of the high
malignant potential of thyroid carcinoma rather than osteogenic sarcoma.
Feedback
A Multiple neurofibromas, which appear as papules and growths of various sizes,
are seen on the facial skin, especially the eyelids.
B Malignant transformation of the neurofibromas occurs in an estimated 3% to
15% of patients with neurofibromatosis.
C Oral involvement is seen in about 10% of patients and is characterized by single
or multiple tumors at any location in the oral mucosa, the most frequent being
the lateral borders of the tongue.
D Correct! Neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen is characterized by café au
lait pigmentation of the skin in 90% of patients.
Feedback
A Osler-Rendu–Parkes Weber syndrome is also known as hereditary hemorrhagic
telangiectasia.
B Van der Woude syndrome consists of cleft lip-palate and congenital lip pits.
C Gorlin syndrome is also known as nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome.
D Correct! Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is characterized by multiple melanotic macular
pigmentations of the skin and mucosa, which are associated with gastrointestinal
polyposis.
Feedback
A Intestinal polyps seen with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome develop mostly in the small
intestine; only rarely do they undergo malignant transformation. Gardner
syndrome is associated with inevitable malignant transformation of intestinal
polyps into adenocarcinomas.
B Correct! Intestinal polyps seen with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are hamartomas.
C The adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene responsible for Gardner syndrome
is located on the long arm of chromosome 5.
D One of the basic components of Gardner syndrome is the presence of osteomas
in various bones, especially the frontal bones, mandible, and maxilla.
43. Which of the following statements about the hereditary opalescent form of dentinogenesis
imperfecta is true?
a. It is associated with taurodontic teeth.
b. Teeth have bulbous crowns with a color that varies from opalescent brown to
brownish blue.
c. Large pulp chambers and root canals are seen on radiographs.
d. Roots are long and thick with periapical radiopacities.
ANS: B
Feedback
A Taurodontic teeth are associated with the hypoplastic-hypomaturation type of
amelogenesis imperfecta.
B Correct! The hereditary opalescent form of dentinogenesis imperfecta is
associated with teeth that have bulbous crowns with a color that varies from
opalescent brown to brownish blue.
C No pulp chambers or root canals are seen on radiographs of patients with the
hereditary opalescent form of dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D Roots are short and thin with periapical radiolucencies on radiographs of patients
with the hereditary opalescent form of dentinogenesis imperfecta.
44. The basic defect found with radicular dentin dysplasia seems to lie in the:
a. stellate reticulum.
b. epithelial root sheath.
c. stratum intermedium.
d. dental papilla.
ANS: B
Feedback
A The basic defect found with radicular dentin dysplasia seems to lie in the
epithelial root sheath and not the stellate reticulum.
B Correct! The basic defect found with radicular dentin dysplasia seems to lie in
the epithelial root sheath. This guides the formation of the root.
C The basic defect found with radicular dentin dysplasia seems to lie in the
epithelial root sheath and not the stratum intermedium.
D The basic defect found with radicular dentin dysplasia seems to lie in the
epithelial root sheath and not the dental papilla.
45. The primary dentition of a patient with coronal dentin dysplasia will appear:
a. normal.
b. opaque with an amber color.
c. translucent with an amber color.
d. translucent with a blue color.
ANS: C
Feedback
A The primary dentition of a patient with coronal dentin dysplasia will appear
translucent with an amber color rather than normal.
B The primary dentition of a patient with coronal dentin dysplasia will appear
translucent rather than opaque with an amber color.
C Correct! The primary dentition of a patient with coronal dentin dysplasia will
appear translucent with an amber color. Radiographs show a lack of pulp
chambers and small root canals. Permanent teeth present normal crown
formation with normal color. Radiographs show thistle-shaped pulp chambers in
single-rooted teeth and a bow-tie appearance of the pulp chambers of permanent
molars.
D The primary dentition of a patient with coronal dentin dysplasia will appear
translucent with an amber color rather than blue.
Feedback
A Correct! Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by hypodontia
(partial anodontia), hypotrichosis (less than normal amount of hair), and
hypohidrosis (abnormally diminished secretion of sweat). Some patients die of
hyperthermia (greatly increased body temperature) after prolonged exposure to
the sun or heavy exercise.
B Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by hypodontia rather than
hyperdontia, hypotrichosis, and hypohidrosis.
C Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by hypodontia, hypotrichosis
rather than hypertrichosis, and hypohidrosis rather than hyperhidrosis.
D Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by hypodontia rather than
hyperdontia, hypotrichosis rather than hypertrichosis, and hypohidrosis rather
than hyperhidrosis.
47. Frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, protuberant lips, and almost complete lack of scalp
hair are characteristic of a person with:
a. hypophosphatemic vitamin D–resistant rickets.
b. hypophosphatasia.
c. hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia.
d. dentin dysplasia.
ANS: C
Feedback
A Hypophosphatemic vitamin D–resistant rickets is generally characterized by
short stature and bowing of the legs, especially if the condition is present from
childhood.
B Hypophosphatasia is characterized by rachitic-like changes, such as bowing of
legs and multiple fractures.
C Correct! Frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, protuberant lips, and almost
complete lack of scalp hair are characteristic of a person with hypohidrotic
ectodermal dysplasia. The hair that is present is usually blond, short, fine, and
stiff. The skin is soft, thin, and very dry. Sebaceous glands are also lacking.
D Radicular dentin dysplasia is characterized by radiographs that show total or
partial lack of pulp chambers and root canals. Coronal dentin dysplasia is
characterized by radiographs that show thistle-shaped pulp chambers in
single-rooted teeth and a bow-tie appearance of the pulp chambers of permanent
molars. Permanent teeth may or may not have pulp stones.
Feedback
A Characteristic radiographic oral findings of hypophosphatemic vitamin
D–resistant rickets include large pulp chambers with very long pulp horns rather
than obliterated pulp chambers.
B Correct! Characteristic radiographic oral findings of hypophosphatemic vitamin
D–resistant rickets include large pulp chambers with very long pulp horns. In
addition, the dentin exhibits pronounced cracks that extend to the dentinoenamel
junction. These cracks induce fracture of the enamel with microexposure of the
pulp and subsequent pulpal infection.
C Characteristic radiographic oral findings of hypophosphatemic vitamin
D–resistant rickets include large pulp chambers with very long pulp horns rather
than normal pulp chambers with nonexistent roots.
D Characteristic radiographic oral findings of hypophosphatemic vitamin
D–resistant rickets include large pulp chambers with very long pulp horns rather
than large pulp chambers with nonexistent pulp horns.
Feedback
A Both the primary and secondary dentition can be affected by pegged or absent
maxillary lateral incisors, but mostly the latter.
B Pegged or absent maxillary lateral incisors are prevalent in 1% to 3% of the
white population and in about 7% of the Asian population.
C Correct! Pegged or absent maxillary lateral incisors are accompanied by
congenitally lacking premolar teeth in 10% to 20% of the population.
D Pegged or absent maxillary lateral incisors are generally an autosomal-dominant
trait with variable expressivity.
51. Each of the following statements about chromosomes is true except one. Which one is the
exception?
a. Chromosomes are located in the nucleus of the cell.
b. Hereditary units called genes are found on chromosomes.
c. Chromosomes can only be seen clearly under a microscope when the nucleus and
cell are dividing.
d. Chromosomes contain RNA, which directs the production of amino acids,
polypeptides, and proteins by the cell.
ANS: D
Feedback
A Chromosomes are located in the nucleus of the cell. They contain the hereditary
units called genes that are transmitted from one generation to another.
B Each cell of the human body, with the exception of mature germ cells, has 46
chromosomes. Half of these chromosomes are derived from the father, and the
other half from the mother.
C Chromosomes can only be seen clearly under a microscope when the nucleus
and cell are dividing. At other times the genetic material is dispersed in the
nucleus.
D Correct! Chromosomes contain DNA, which directs the production of amino
acids, polypeptides, and proteins by the cell.
52. The gap 1, S, and gap 2 phases are part of what type of cell division?
a. First meiosis
b. Second meiosis
c. Mitosis
d. Hypohidrosis
ANS: C
Feedback
A First meiosis is part of a two-step special cell division and does not include the
gap 1, S, and gap 2 phases.
B Second meiosis is part of a two-step special cell division and does not include
the gap 1, S, and gap 2 phases.
C Correct! After each cell division is completed and before the next division can
occur, the cell enters the gap 1 phase, which is followed by the S phase, in which
replication of the DNA takes place. The gap 2 phase follows the S phase and
ends when mitotic division begins.
D Hypohidrosis is an abnormally diminished secretion of sweat and is not part of
cell division.
53. During meiosis, when chromosomes that were crossing over do not separate, and both migrate
to the same cell, resulting in a germ cell with an extra chromosome, this is referred to as:
a. nondisjunction.
b. chiasmata.
c. translation.
d. alleles.
ANS: A
Feedback
A Correct! Nondisjunction occurs when chromosomes that were crossing over do
not separate, and both migrate to the same cell.
B Points of contact between a chromatid of one chromosome and a chromatid of
the other chromosome of a pair, where crossing over and exchange of
chromosome segments occur, are called chiasmata.
C During translation, amino acids form a polypeptide, and one or more
polypeptides form a protein.
D Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes and that
dictate the same functions or characteristics are called alleles.
54. Inactivation of the genetic activity of one of the X chromosomes in each cell of a female
embryo during the early period of embryonic development is referred to as:
a. Barr body.
b. nucleotide.
c. karyotype.
d. the Lyon hypothesis.
ANS: D
Feedback
A The Barr body is the condensed chromatin of the inactivated X chromosome, not
the concept of inactivation of its genetic activity.
B The nucleotide is the basic unit of DNA.
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AFRICA.
More Hoodlumism.
Not more than I expected, but enough to make one blush with
mingled shame and indignation. At several of our schools scarcely an
evening has passed for some weeks in which the pupils have been
able to come and go unmolested. To hear the report of this does not
greatly stir the blood perhaps; but to see a bright little boy, child of a
Christian father, himself growing up in the knowledge and love of
Christ, because his skin has a tinge slightly deeper than our own and
his dress is not in our style and the stock of which he comes is
Mongolian and not Caucasian, stoned by half-a-dozen cowardly
youths, no one of whom would dare attack a Chinaman of his own
size on equal terms, and then to see the wound, deep and bloody,
close to the eyes, that one of the stones has made; seeing all this, I
cannot but feel that I “do well to be angry.” One of our teachers has
been rebuked by a so-called preacher of the Gospel, to whom she
herself had listened in one of our Congregational pulpits, for
teaching Chinamen. And the pastor of one of the churches of
California having in it Chinese members was told by a prominent
member of his church: “I would rather see them hung up by their
queues than baptized and brought into the church.” When facts like
these come to my knowledge I confess that I am dismayed; not so
much, however, for those who are wronged as for the wrong-doers.
I tremble for California and for some of the churches of California
when I remember that God is just.
Story of China Mary.
One of our teachers relates the following touching story: “But I must
tell you about poor Ah Low, or China Mary, as we all called her. She
was brought to this country when quite young, and was won by her
husband in a raffle. As a prize she was valued at $100. An attempt
was made afterwards by some Chinese and Americans to steal her,
but she fled to Mr. Otis and was rescued. She wished me to teach
her to read, and every morning as I passed her cabin on my way to
the school-room I stopped and gave her a lesson. At last she told
me her heart troubles. Her husband, she said, was getting big pay in
a neighboring town, but was tired of her and would give her no
money. Her offence was that her child was a girl and not a boy; and
when, by and by, another little girl came, the husband’s injury was
more than he could bear. The little baby sickens strangely. Mary tells
the secret of it. ‘My husband says if baby doesn’t die he will get
another woman.’ But in spite of it all the baby got well, and now
poor Mary’s time had come. As I stepped from the steamer to the
wharf one morning I saw Mary coming on board, looking clean and
even pretty in her blue blouse with her baby strapped upon her
back. ‘Where are you going, Mary?’ I asked. ‘To San Francisco for a
visit,’ she replied. Soon she returned, but with no baby; and in the
evening we learned that the purpose of her enforced journey to the
city was accomplished. She had been sold by her husband into a
Chinese house of prostitution for $300. And this is the last we have
been able to know of China Mary.”
Good Cheer.
We were all glad to hear about Ted and his Temperance society. A
great many hundred years ago a father in Africa took his little son,
who was just as old as Ted, to the church altar and made him
promise to always hate the nation that had oppressed them. The
feeling of hate grew as the boy grew, and when he became a man
he made the oppressor and his proud armies tremble before him.
Now if the boys and girls, who are so fond of hearing about
Hannibal’s victories, will promise to hate Rum as he hated Rome, the
monster that has destroyed so many homes will be conquered.
The children are beginning to think of these things. If Ted and his
band should follow the sun, and gather all the temperance boys and
girls they could find on their way, when they reached the Mississippi
their army would be nearly as large as that other army of young
crusaders who started out to rescue the Holy Land from desecration.
Ask papa or mamma where you will find that story to read for
yourselves. I have only time to tell you of a little company that
would join this army when it stopped by the great river to rest and
get ready to cross into Arkansas, where a host of eager recruits are
learning to be loyal to home and honor and temperance.
This Memphis company, only one of several in the city, are little
people, six, seven, eight and nine years old. Most of them had
learned to like the taste of whisky from eating the sugar left in
glasses after older people had taken a morning toddy, or from
sipping egg-nog Christmas week. Their teacher illustrated the evil
effects of alcohol by pouring a little into a saucer and dropping a
lighted match into it. As the blue flame blazed up, the children
thought it was not safe to take so dangerous an element into their
mouths. Another day they saw some alcohol poured upon the white
of an egg, and the teacher explained that the brain is composed of
the same material as the albumen of the egg. As the bright eyes
eagerly watched the yellowish white turn to milky white, just as they
had seen eggs fried in hot water and grease, they all cried out: “I
will never let any alcohol cook my brain like that.”
Once a lady showed them some large pictures of the stomach under
different conditions. She said the stomach is the kitchen of the
house we live in, and one of its most important rooms. The walls are
lined with soft, delicate pink, as pretty as the paper some people put
on their parlor walls. Alcohol is a fiery-tempered little fellow, and
when he comes into the kitchen he scratches the beautiful walls, just
as naughty boys will sometimes scratch pins over the paper and
plaster in their mother’s nice room. If he stays long enough he will
punch holes, make the clean walls black, and ruin the room, so that
the food can not be properly prepared. The pictures explained the
work of demolition, which the children readily understood, as they
knew of many people whose brains and stomachs had been
destroyed in that way.
These little people have pledged themselves never to touch or taste
the poison. More than that, they speak their convictions to their
friends and neighbors at home. “That glass of toddy will burn and
scratch your stomach.” “That whisky will cook your brain and give
you a headache; you may feel brighter for an hour or two, but then
you will be dull and stupid.”
Do you ask if all the boys and girls who signed the pledge have been
faithful to their promise? The most of them have. Two big boys
coaxed little Albert to go out of town and celebrate Easter by
drinking a bottle of beer, but he was so sorry and so ashamed of it
that the Band of Hope forgave him. Two or three others have been
enticed to drink, but the majority hold firmly to their promise. And
you young people, whose fathers and mothers never tempt you to
do wrong, can little understand how much these other little ones
have to endure in abiding by their convictions of right.
Let us help them by making the Temperance Army the strongest and
largest army in the world.
RECEIPTS FOR JUNE, 1882.
MAINE, $103.24.
Calais. First Cong. Ch. and Soc. $40.00
Castine. Trin. Cong. Sab. Sch. 5.00
Centre Lebanon. Mrs. S. D. L. 1.00
East Otisfield. Rev. J. Loring 2.00
Lewiston. Pine St. Cong. Ch. 28.90
Machias. Centre St. Ch. and Soc. 8.00
Machias. C. Longfellow 5.00
Portland. Saint Lawrence St. Ch., Missionary Col.,
$6.83; D. P., 51c 7.34
Topsham. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 5.00
Yarmouth. Rev. A. L. 1.00
VERMONT, $481.94.
Bethel. Cong. Ch. and Soc., $7.62; Mrs. Sparhawk,
$3 10.62
Brattleborough. Helen J. Preston, for Student Aid,
Fisk U. 25.00
Castleton. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 27.20
East Cambridge. H. M. 1.00
East Hardwick. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 12.00
East Poultney. Mrs. J. H. D. 0.50
Fair Haven. Cong. Ch. and Soc., for Student Aid 26.57
Manchester. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 72.63
Montpelier. Ladies of Bethany Ch., box of C., for
Fisk U.
New Haven. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 12.00
Saint Albans. Mrs. M. A. Stranahan, for Student
Aid, Fisk U. 50.00
Saint Albans. Young Men’s Bible Class, for Student
Aid, Fisk U. 10.00
Saint Johnsbury. Hon. Franklin Fairbanks, for
Atlanta U. 100.00
Saint Johnsbury. North Ch. Sab. Sch. 41.00
Townshend. Cong. Ch. and Soc., $9.45; Mrs. A. L.
Rice, $5; Mrs. H. Holbrook, $2; Miss G. P., $1 17.45
Vergennes. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 20.00
Wells River. C. W. Eastman 5.00
West Brattleborough. S. G. Smith 5.00
Westminster West. Rev. A. Stevens, D.D. 10.00
West Rutland. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 12.12
Windham. Cong. Ch. Sab. Sch. 8.85
——— “L.G.” 15.00
MASSACHUSETTS, $6,282.59.
Abington. Mrs. S. P. L. 0.50
Amesbury. S. B. T. 0.50
Amherst. First Cong. Sab. Sch., for Student
Aid, Atlanta U. 32.70
Andover. Teachers and Pupils of Abbot
Academy 67.44
Andover. West Parish Cong. Ch. 50.00
Attleborough Falls. Cent’l Ch. and Soc. 5.30
Auburndale. “A Friend.” 5.00
Ayer. Mrs. C. A. Spaulding, for Student Aid,
Fisk U. 50.00
Belchertown. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 43.61
Boston. Sab. Sch. of Shawmut Ch., for
Student Aid, Fisk U. 35.00
Boston. Mrs. B. Perkins 5.00
Boston. Lee Hain and Wong Quong, $1 each
for Cal. Chinese M. 2.00
Bradford. Mrs. Sarah C. Boyd, for Student
Aid, Atlanta U. 12.00
Brockton. Porter Evan. Ch. and Soc. 46.18
Buckland. Mrs. Sally Gillett to const. Henry L.
Warfield L. M. 30.00
Cambridgeport. Bbl. of C., for Kansas
Refugees
Chelsea. First Cong. Ch. and Soc., $55.00;
Mrs. P. P., 50c 55.50
Conway. Mrs. Austin Rice 24.00
Danvers. Maple St. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 48.69
Douglas. A. M. Hill, to const. Mrs. Loiezer L.
Hill L. M. 30.00
Dorchester. Village Ch. and Soc. 20.50
East Weymouth. Mrs. E. E. Thompson, for
Student Aid, Fisk U. 6.00
Fitchburgh. G. S. Burbank 100.00
Florence. Hon. A. L. Williston, for Professor’s
house, Talladega C. 100.12
Georgetown. Memorial Ch. 30.71
Greenfield. C. C. Phillips. 3.46
Greenfield. Mrs. A. J. Smead, for Student
Aid, Atlanta U. 1.50
Hadley. H. L. C. 0.50
Haydenville. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 5.76
Holliston. Ladies Benev. Soc., Bbl. of C. and
$1.65 for Freight, for Talladega C. 1.65
Holyoke. R. H. Seymour 5.00
Housatonic. Housatonic Cong. Ch. and Soc.,
$49.92, to const. Mrs. Mary M. Platt, L. M.;
By A. D. Whitmore, Box of S. S. books and
$1 for Freight 50.92
Longmeadow. Gents’ Benev. Soc., $18.25;
Ladies’ Benev. Soc., $11.83 30.08
Lowell. Pawtucket Ch. 21.00
Lowell. S. B. S. 1.00
Lynn. First Ch. and Soc. 18.17
Malden. Sab. Sch. of Cong. Ch., for Student
Aid, Fisk U. 25.00
Marblehead. Hon. J. J. H. Gregory, for
Student Aid, Talladega C. 500.00
Marlborough. T. B. P. 1.00
Medfield. Second Cong. Ch. and Soc. 83.50
Middleton. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 10.00
Millbury. Second Cong. Ch., for Student Aid,
Atlanta U. 25.00
Mill River. Miss M. R. Wilcox 10.00
Montague. Mission Circle, for Student Aid,
Atlanta U. 1.00
Mount Auburn. Mrs. J. T. K. .50
Newbury. First Ch. and Soc. 17.00
Newburyport. S. N. B. .50
Newton Centre. Ladies of First Ch., $50; Mrs.
D. L. Furber, $2.50, for Student Aid,
Atlanta U. 52.50
Newton Highlands. Sab. Sch., for Student
Aid, Atlanta U. 10.00
Newton Upper Falls. “A Friend” 110.00
Northampton. Miss Helen Clark, for Student
Aid, Storr’s Sch. 2.00
North Brookfield. First Ch. and Soc. 100.00
Norton. Trin. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 30.25
Norton. Young Ladies’ Miss’y Soc., Wheaton
Sem., for Cooking Sch., Talladega C. 25.00
Peabody. Sab. Sch. of Cong. Ch., for Student
Aid, Fisk U. 80.00
Raynham. First Cong. Ch. and Soc. 16.40
Rehoboth. E. W. R. 0.50
Revere. Mrs. A. S. Steele ($10 of which for
John Brown Steamer) to const. Almira
Dewing Steele L. M. 40.00
Royalston. Mrs. Geo. Woodbury, Bbl. of C.,
for Wilmington, N.C.
Salem. Tabernacle Ch. and Soc. 290.70
Scituate. Cong. Sab. Sch., for Student Aid,
Wilmington, N.C. 10.00
Somerville. Mrs. H. B. 0.60
South Amherst. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 10.00
Southborough. Pilgrim Evan. Ch. and Soc. 15.86
Springfield. Ladies’ Miss’y Soc., for Student
Aid, Fisk U. 25.00
Taunton. Union Ch. 7.00
Tewksbury. Ladies of Cong. Ch. and Soc.,
Bbl. of C., for Talladega C.
Townsend. Cong. Ch. 14.19
Uxbridge. “A Friend.” 2.00
Watertown. Corban Soc. 8.48
Wilbraham. Cong. Ch., to const. Mrs. Emeline
R. Sperling, L. M. 56.90
Wilmington. “A Member of Cong. Ch.,” to
const. Rev. Daniel P. Noyes, Atherton Noyes,
Herbert Nathan Buck, Arthur O. Buck,
William Henry Carter, 2nd, and Lois R.
Carter L. Ms. 200.00
Winchendon. Atlanta Soc., for Student Aid,
Atlanta U. 34.00
Winchendon. “F. T. P.” 5.00
Worcester. Central Ch. and Soc. 84.44
Worcester. Salem St. Sab. Sch., $25, for
Tougaloo U., $25 for Le Moyne Inst. 50.00
Worcester. Mrs. S. A. Pratt, for horse,
Talladega C. 6.00
West Roxbury. Cong. Sab. Sch., for Student
Aid, Straight U. 25.00
West Roxbury. South Ch. ($10 of which from
“A Friend”) 64.77
West Somerville. Cong. Ch. and Soc. 5.50
West Springfield. Park St. Cong. Ch. 48.31
Yarmouth. Ladies of Cong. Ch., Bbl. of C., for
Talladega C.
——— “A Friend, Olivet.” 10.00
——————
$3,053.69
LEGACY.
Woburn. Estate of Thomas Richardson 3,228.90
——————
$6,282.59
CONNECTICUT, $22,471.16.
Abington. S.C. 1.00