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Guyton and Hall Physiology
Review

FOURTH EDITION

John E. Hall, PhD

Arthur C. Guyton Professor and Chair, Department of Physiology and Biophysics, Director of the
Mississippi Center for Obesity Research, University of Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson,
Mississippi
Table of Contents
Cover image

Title page

Copyright

Contributors

Preface

Unit I. Introduction to Physiology: The Cell and General Physiology

Unit II. Membrane Physiology, Nerve, and Muscle

Unit III. The Heart

Unit IV. The Circulation

Unit V. The Body Fluids and Kidneys

Unit VI. Blood Cells, Immunity, and Blood Coagulation

Unit VII. Respiration

Unit VIII. Aviation, Space, and Deep-Sea Diving Physiology

Unit IX. The Nervous System: A. General Principles and Sensory Physiology

Unit X. The Nervous System: B. The Special Senses

Unit XI. The Nervous System: C. Motor and Integrative Neurophysiology

Unit XII. Gastrointestinal Physiology

Unit XIII. Metabolism and Temperature Regulation

Unit XIV. Endocrinology and Reproduction

Unit XV. Sports Physiology

Normal Values for Selected Common Laboratory Measurements

Copyright
Elsevier
3251 Riverport Lane
St. Louis, Missouri 63043

GUYTON AND HALL PHYSIOLOGY REVIEW, FOURTH EDITION ISBN: 978-0-323-

63999-6
Copyright © 2021 by Elsevier, Inc. All rights reserved.

No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmi ed in any form or by any means,
electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information storage
and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the publisher. Details on how to
seek permission, further information about the Publisher’s permissions policies and our
arrangements with organizations such as the Copyright Clearance Center and the
Copyright Licensing Agency, can be found at our website: www.elsevier.com/permissions.

This book and the individual contributions contained in it are protected under copyright by
the Publisher (other than as may be noted herein).

Notice

Practitioners and researchers must always rely on their own experience and knowledge in
evaluating and using any information, methods, compounds or experiments described
herein. Because of rapid advances in the medical sciences, in particular, independent
verification of diagnoses and drug dosages should be made. To the fullest extent of the law,
no responsibility is assumed by Elsevier, authors, editors or contributors for any injury
and/or damage to persons or property as a ma er of products liability, negligence or
otherwise, or from any use or operation of any methods, products, instructions, or ideas
contained in the material herein.

Previous editions copyrighted 2016, 2011, 2006.

Library of Congress Control Number: 2020942162

Publisher: Elyse O’Grady

Director, Content Development: Ellen M. Wurm-Cu er
Senior Content Development Specialist: Kathleen Nahm
Publishing Services Manager: Shereen Jameel
Project Manager: Manikandan Chandrasekaran
Cover Design and Design Direction: Margaret Reid
Printed in Canada

Last digit is the print number: 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Contributors
Thomas H. Adair, PhD , Professor of Physiology and Biophysics, University of
Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson, Mississippi, Units II, IX, X, XI, XII, and XIII

Alejandro R. Chade, MD , Professor of Physiology and Biophysics, University of

Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson, Mississippi, Units III and IV

Joey P. Granger, PhD , Dean, School of Graduate Studies in theHealth Sciences,

Professor of Physiology and Biophysics, University of Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson,
Mississippi, Unit IV

John E. Hall, PhD , Professor and Chair of Physiology and Biophysics, University of
Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson, Mississippi, Units I, V, and XIII

Robert L. Hester, PhD , Professor of Physiology and Biophysics, University of

Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson, Mississippi, Units VII, VIII, and XV

Michael J. Ryan, PhD , Professor of Physiology and Biophysics, University of

Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson, Mississippi, Unit XIV

James G. Wilson, MD , Professor Emeritus of Physiology and Biophysics, University of

Mississippi Medical Center, Jackson, Mississippi, Unit VI
Preface
The main purpose of this book is to provide students a tool for assessing their mastery of
physiology as presented in the Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition.
Self-assessment is an important component of effective learning, especially when
studying a subject as complex as medical physiology. Guyton & Hall Physiology Review is
designed to provide a comprehensive review of medical physiology through multiple-
choice questions and explanations of the answers. Medical students preparing for the
United States Medical Licensure Examinations (USMLE) will also find this book useful
because many of the test questions have been constructed according to the USMLE format.
The questions and answers in this review are based on Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical
Physiology, 14th edition (TMP 14). More than 1000 questions and answers are provided, and
each answer is referenced to the Textbook of Medical Physiology to facilitate a more complete
understanding of the topic. Illustrations are used to reinforce basic concepts. Some of the
questions incorporate information from multiple chapters to test your ability to apply and
integrate the principles necessary for mastery of medical physiology.
An effective way to use this book is to allow an average of 1 minute for each question in a
unit, approximating the time limit for a question in the USMLE examination. As you
proceed, indicate your answer next to each question. After finishing the questions and
answers, verify your answers and carefully read the explanations provided. Read the
additional material referred to in the Textbook of Medical Physiology, especially when
incorrect answers were chosen.
Guyton and Hall Physiology Review should not be used as a substitute for the
comprehensive information contained in the Textbook of Medical Physiology. Its main purpose
is to assess your knowledge of physiology gained from study of the Textbook of Medical
Physiology and other sources and to strengthen your ability to apply and integrate this
knowledge.
We have a empted to make this review as accurate as possible, and we hope that it will
be a valuable tool for your study of physiology. We invite you to send us your critiques,
suggestions for improvement, and notifications of any errors.
I am grateful to each of the contributors for their careful work on this book. I also wish to
express my thanks to Kathleen Nahm, Manikandan Chandrasekaran, Jennifer Schreiner,
Rebecca Gruliow, Elyse O’Grady, and the rest of the Elsevier staff for their editorial and
production excellence.
John E. Hall
Unit I: Introduction to Physiology
The Cell and General Physiology

1. If the feedback gain of a control system is -3.0, this means that the
system is
A) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 1/3 of the
initial disturbance to the system
B) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 2/3 of the
initial disturbance to the system
C) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 3/4 of the
initial disturbance to the system
D) A positive feedback system capable of correcting 1/3 of the
initial disturbance to the system
2. Most cells, except for fat cells, are composed mainly of
A) Proteins
B) Ions
C) Water
D) Microfilaments/cell cytoskeleton
E) Secretory vesicles
3. Organelles that neutralize drugs and toxins are
A) Nuclei
B) Mitochondria
C) Lysosomes
D) Peroxisomes
E) Endoplasmic reticulum
4. The most abundant cell membrane lipids are
A) Sphingolipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Cholesterol
D) Triglycerides
E) Sterols
5. The first stage of mitosis is called
A) Anaphase
B) Prophase
 C) Prometaphase
D) Metaphase
E) Telophase
6. The region of repetitive nucleotide sequences located at each end of
a chromatid is called
A) Okazaki fragment
B) Replication fork
C) Telomere
D) Centriole
E) Lagging strand
7. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is
incorrect?
A) Both strands of the DNA in each chromosome are replicated
B) Both strands of the DNA helix are replicated in small portions
and then assembled, similar to the transcription of RNA
C) Before DNA can be replicated, the double stranded molecule
must be “unzipped” into two single strands
D) Uncoiling of DNA helixes is achieved by DNA helicase
enzymes
E) Once the DNA strands have been separated, a short piece of
RNA called an RNA primer binds to the 3’ end of the leading
strand
8. Which of the following statements about cell differentiation is
correct?
A) Differentiation results from selective loss of different genes
from cells
B) Differentiation results from selective repression of different
gene promoters
C) Differentiation results from selective activation of telomerase
in different cells
D) Differentiation results mainly from mutations of genes
9. Which statement about microRNAs (miRNAs) is correct?
A) miRNAs are formed in the cytoplasm and repress translation
or promote degradation of messenger RNA (mRNA) before it
can be translated
B) miRNAs are formed in the nucleus and then processed in the
cytoplasm by the dicer enzyme
C) miRNAs are short (21 to 23 nucleotide) double-stranded RNA
fragments that regulate gene expression
 g g g p
D) miRNAs repress gene transcription
10. Compared with the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has
__________ sodium ion concentration, __________ potassium ion
concentration, __________ chloride ion concentration, and
__________ phosphate ion concentration.
A) Lower, lower, lower, lower
B) Lower, higher, lower, lower
C) Lower, higher, higher, lower
D) Higher, lower, higher, lower
E) Higher, higher, lower, higher
F) Higher, higher, higher, higher
11. Which of the following events does not occur during the process of
mitosis?
A) Condensation of the chromosomes
B) Replication of the genome
C) Fragmentation of the nuclear envelope
D) Alignment of the chromatids along the equatorial plate
E) Separation of the chromatids into two sets of 46 “daughter”
chromosomes
12. The term “glycocalyx” refers to what?
A) The negatively charged carbohydrate chains that protrude
into the cytosol from glycolipids and integral glycoproteins
B) The negatively charged carbohydrate layer on the outer cell
surface
C) The layer of anions aligned on the cytosolic surface of the
plasma membrane
D) The large glycogen stores found in “fast” muscles
E) A mechanism of cell–cell a achment
13. Which statement is incorrect?
A) The term “homeostasis” describes the maintenance of nearly
constant conditions in the body
B) In most diseases, homeostatic mechanisms are no longer
operating in the body
C) The body’s compensatory mechanisms often lead to
deviations from the normal range in some of the body’s
functions
D) Disease is generally considered to be a state of disrupted
homeostasis
 Questions 14–16

A) Nucleolus
B) Nucleus
C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus
F) Endosomes
G) Peroxisomes
H) Lysosomes
I) Cytosol
J) Cytoskeleton
K) Glycocalyx
L) Microtubules

For each of the scenarios described below, identify the most likely
subcellular site listed above for the deficient or mutant protein.

14. The abnormal cleavage of mannose residues during the post-

translational processing of glycoproteins results in the
development of a lupus-like autoimmune disease in mice. The
abnormal cleavage is due to a mutation of the enzyme α-
mannosidase II.
15. The observation that abnormal cleavage of mannose residues from
glycoproteins causes an autoimmune disease in mice supports the
role of this structure in the normal immune response.
16. Studies completed on a 5-year-old boy show an accumulation of
cholesteryl esters and triglycerides in his liver, spleen, and
intestines and calcification of both adrenal glands. Additional
studies indicate the cause to be a deficiency in acid lipase A
activity.

Questions 17–20

A) Nucleolus
B) Nucleus
C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus
 F) Endosomes
G) Peroxisomes
H) Lysosomes
I) Cytosol
J) Cytoskeleton
K) Glycocalyx
L) Microtubules

Match the cellular location for each of the steps involved in the synthesis
and packaging of a secreted protein listed below with the correct term
from the list above.

17. Protein condensation and packaging

18. Initiation of translation
19. Gene transcription
20. Worn-out organelles are transferred to lysosomes by which of the
following?
A) Autophagosomes
B) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus
E) Mitochondria
21. Which of the following does not play a direct role in the process of
transcription?
A) Helicase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Chain-terminating sequence
D) “Activated” RNA molecules
E) Promoter sequence
22. Which statement is true for both pinocytosis and phagocytosis?
A) Involves the recruitment of actin filaments
B) Occurs spontaneously and nonselectively
C) Endocytotic vesicles fuse with ribosomes that release
hydrolases into the vesicles
D) Is only observed in macrophages and neutrophils
E) Does not require ATP
23. Which statement is incorrect?
A) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that
control cell growth
 B) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that
control cell division
C) Inactivation of anti-oncogenes protects against the
development of cancer
D) Several different simultaneously activated oncogenes are
often required to cause cancer
24. Which statement about feedback control systems is incorrect?
A) Most control systems of the body act by negative feedback
B) Positive feedback usually promotes stability in a system
C) Generation of nerve actions potentials involves positive
feedback
D) Feed-forward control is important in regulating muscle
activity
25. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for producing
adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the energy currency of the cell?
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Mitochondria
C) Lysosomes
D) Golgi apparatus
E) Peroxisomes
F) Ribosomes
26. Which statement about mRNA is correct?
A) mRNA carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm
B) mRNA carries activated amino acids to the ribosomes
C) mRNA is composed of single-stranded RNA molecules of 21
to 23 nucleotides that can regulate gene transcription
D) mRNA forms ribosomes
27. “Redundancy” or “degeneration” of the genetic code occurs
during which step of protein synthesis?
A) DNA replication
B) Transcription
C) Post-transcriptional modification
D) Translation
E) Protein glycosylation

Answers
1. C) The feedback gain of a control system is calculated as the amount of
correction divided by the remaining error of the system. A feedback
gain of -3.0 means that 3/4 of the initial error was corrected by the
system. For example, if the initial error was 4 units and 1 unit of error
remains after correction, then the amount of correction is -3 (from 4 to
1), the remaining error is 1, and the feedback gain is -3.0.
TMP14 pp. 8–9
2. C) Most cells, except for fat cells, are composed mainly of water in a
concentration of 70% to 85 %. After water, the most abundant substances
in most cells are proteins, which normally constitute 10% to 20 % of the
cell mass.
TMP14 p. 13
3. D) Peroxisomes contain oxidases capable of combining oxygen with
hydrogen ions derived from different intracellular chemicals to form
hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), a highly oxidizing substance used in
association with catalase, another oxidase enzyme present in large
quantities in peroxisomes. These enzymes oxidize and neutralize many
drugs and toxins that might otherwise be poisonous to the cell.
TMP14 p. 18
4. B) The basic cell membrane lipid bilayer is composed of proteins and
three main types of lipids: phospholipids, sphingolipids, and
cholesterol. The approximate composition is 55% proteins, 25%
phospholipids, 13% cholesterol, 4% other lipids, and 3% carbohydrates.
TMP14 pp. 15–16
5. B) The first stage of mitosis, the process by which the cell splits into two
new cells, is called prophase (see figure below).
TMP14 pp. 41–43
Stages of cell reproduction. A, B, and C, Prophase. D, Prometaphase. E,
Metaphase. F, Anaphase. G and H, Telophase
6. C) Telomeres are repetitive nucleotide sequences located at each end of a
chromatid and serve as protective caps that prevent the chromosome
from deterioration during cell division. Without telomeres, the genomes
would progressively lose information and be truncated after each cell
division.
TMP14 p. 44
7. B) Both entire strands of the DNA helix in each chromosome are
replicated from end to end, rather than small portions of them, as occurs
in the transcription of RNA (see figure below).

The helical double-stranded structure of the gene. The outside strands are
composed of phosphoric acid and the sugar deoxyribose. The inner
molecules connecting the two strands of the helix are purine and pyrimidine
bases, which determine the “code” of the gene.

TMP14 pp. 41–42

8. B) Cell differentiation refers to changes in physical and functional
properties of cells as they proliferate in the embryo to form different
bodily structures and organs and results not from loss of genes but from
selective repression of different gene promoters.
TMP14 p. 45
9. A) The miRNAs are formed in the cytoplasm from pre-miRNAs and
processed by the enzyme dicer that ultimately assembles RNA-induced
silencing complex, which then generates miRNAs. The miRNAs
regulate gene expression by binding to the complementary region of the
 RNA and repressing translation or promoting degradation of messenger
RNA before it can be translated by the ribosome.
TMP14 pp. 36–37
10. D) The extracellular fluid has relatively high concentrations of sodium
and chloride ions but lower concentrations of potassium and phosphate
than the intracellular fluid.
TMP14 p. 4
11. B) DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle and
precedes mitosis. Condensation of the chromosomes occurs during the
prophase of mitosis. Fragmentation of the nuclear envelope occurs
during the prometaphase of mitosis. The chromatids align at the
equatorial plate during metaphase and separate into two complete sets
of daughter chromosomes during anaphase.
TMP14 p. 43
12. B) The cell “glycocalyx” is the loose negatively charged carbohydrate
coat on the outside of the surface of the cell membrane. The membrane
carbohydrates usually occur in combination with proteins or lipids in
the form of glycoproteins or glycolipids, and the “glyco” portion of
these molecules almost invariably protrudes to the outside of the cell.
TMP14 p. 16
13. B) The term homeostasis describes the maintenance of nearly constant
conditions in the internal environment of the body, and diseases are
generally considered to be states of disrupted homeostasis. However,
even in diseases, homeostatic compensatory mechanisms continue to
operate in an a empt sustain body functions at levels that permit life to
continue. These compensations may result in deviations from the
normal level of some body functions as a “trade-off” that is necessary to
maintain vital functions of the body.
TMP14 p. 4
14. E) Membrane proteins are glycosylated during their synthesis in the
lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Most post-translational
modification of the oligosaccharide chains, however, occurs dur ing the
transport of the protein through the layers of the Golgi apparatus
matrix, where enzymes such as α-mannosidase II are localized.
TMP14 pp. 16–17
15. K) The oligosaccharide chains that are added to glycoproteins on the
luminal side of the rough endoplasmic reticulum, and subsequently
modified during their transport through the Golgi apparatus, are
a ached to the extracellular surface of the cell. This negatively charged
layer of carbohydrate moieties is collectively called the glycocalyx. It
participates in cell–cell interactions, cell–ligand interactions, and the
immune response.
TMP14 p. 16
16. H) Acid lipases, along with other acid hydrolases, are localized to
lysosomes. Fusion of endocytotic and autolytic vesicles with lysosomes
initiates the intracellular process that allows cells to digest cellular
debris and particles ingested from the extracellular milieu, including
bacteria. In the normal acidic environment of the lysosome, acid lipases
use hydrogen to convert lipids into fa y acids and glycerol. Other acid
lipases include a variety of nucleases, proteases, and polysaccharide-
hydrolyzing enzymes.
TMP14 pp. 17–18
17. E) Secreted proteins are condensed, sorted, and packaged into secretory
vesicles in the terminal portions of the Golgi apparatus, also known as
the trans-Golgi network. It is here that proteins destined for secretion
are separated from those destined for intracellular compartments or
cellular membranes.
TMP14 p. 17
18. I) Initiation of translation, whether of a cytosolic protein, a membrane-
bound protein, or a secreted protein, occurs in the cytosol and involves a
common pool of ribosomes. Only after the appearance of the N-
terminus of the polypeptide is it identified as a protein destined for
secretion. At this point, the ribosome a aches to the cytosolic surface of
the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Translation continues, and the new
polypeptide is extruded into the matrix of the endoplasmic reticulum.
TMP14 pp. 37–38
19. B) All transcription events occur in the nucleus, regardless of the final
destination of the protein product. The resulting messenger RNA
molecule is transported through the nuclear pores in the nuclear
 membrane and translated into either the cytosol or the lumen of the
rough endoplasmic reticulum.
TMP14 pp. 33–34
20. A) Autophagy is a housekeeping process by which obsolete organelles
and large protein aggregates are degraded and recycled (see figure at
right). Worn-out cell organelles are transferred to lysosomes by double
membrane structures called autophagosomes that are formed in the
cytosol.
TMP14 pp. 22–23
Schematic diagram of autophagy steps
21. A) Helicase is one of the many proteins involved in the process of DNA
replication. It does not play a role in transcription. RNA polymerase
binds to the promoter sequence and facilitates the addition of
“activated” RNA molecules to the growing RNA molecule until the
polymerase reaches the chain-terminating sequence on the template
DNA molecule.
TMP14 pp. 33–34, 42
22. A) Both pinocytosis and phagocytosis involve movement of the plasma
membrane. Pinocytosis involves invagination of the cell membrane,
whereas phago cytosis involves evagination. Both events require the
recruitment of actin and other cytoskeleton elements. Phagocytosis is
not spontaneous and is selective, being triggered by specific receptor-
ligand interactions.
TMP14 pp. 21–22
23. C) Inactivation of anti-oncogenes, also called tumor suppressor genes,
can allow activation of oncogenes that lead to cancer. All the other
statements are correct.
TMP14 pp. 46–47
24. B) Positive feedback in a system generally promotes instability, rather
than stability, and in some cases even death. For this reason, positive
feedback is often called a “vicious cycle.” However, in some instances,
positive feedback can be useful. One example is the nerve action
potential where stimulation of the nerve membrane causes a slight
leakage of sodium that causes more opening of sodium channels, more
change of potential, and more opening of channels until an explosion of
sodium entering the interior of the nerve fiber creates the action
potential. Feed-forward control is used to apprise the brain whether a
muscle movement is performed correctly. If not, the brain corrects the
feed-forward signals that it sends to the muscles the next time the
movement is required. This mechanism is often called adaptive control.
TMP14 pp. 8–10
25. B) Mitochondria are often called the “powerhouses” of the cell and
contain oxidative enzymes that permit oxidation of the nutrients,
thereby forming carbon dioxide and water and at the same time
 releasing energy. The liberated energy is used to synthesize “high-
energy” ATP.
TMP14 pp. 18–19
26. A) mRNA molecules are long, single RNA strands that are suspended
in the cytoplasm and are composed of several hundred to several
thousand RNA nucleotides in unpaired strands. The mRNA carries the
genetic code to the cytoplasm for controlling the type of protein formed.
The transfer RNA transports activated amino acids to the ribosomes.
Ribosomal RNA, along with about 75 different proteins, forms ribosomes.
MicroRNAs are single-stranded RNA molecules of 21 to 23 nucleotides
that regulate gene transcription and translation.
TMP14 p. 35
27. D) During both replication and transcription, the new nucleic acid
molecule is an exact complement of the parent DNA molecule as a result
of predictable, specific, one-to-one base pairing. During the process of
translation, however, each amino acid in the new polypeptide is
encoded by a codon—a series of three consecutive nucleotides. Whereas
each codon encodes a specific amino acid, most amino acids can be
encoded for by multiple codons. Redundancy results because 60 codons
encode a mere 20 amino acids.
TMP14 pp. 34–36
Unit II: Membrane Physiology, Nerve,
and Muscle
1. A patch clamp experiment shows a single sodium ion channel that
opens and closes repeatedly causing the electrical current through the
channel to change from one value to another. The open time of the
sodium channel averages 0.4 milliseconds in this experiment. Which of
the following best describes the electrical current of this sodium
channel during the open and closed states (in picoamperes)?
A) Open: 3.2; closed: 3.3
B) Open: 0.4; closed: 0.4
C) Open: 0.4; closed: 3.2
D) Open: 3.1; closed: 0.4
E) Open: 0.4; closed: 2.0
F) Open: 0.4; closed: 0.6
2. Which of the following best describes the osmolarity of a solution
containing 150 millimolar NaCl, assuming a temperature of 37°C and a
dissociation constant of 0.93 (in milliosmoles)?
A) 150
B) 279
C) 300
D) 322
E) 393
3. A 64-year-old man has serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/l (reference range,
3.5–5.0 mEq/l). Which of the following sets of changes best describe the
resting membrane potential (Vm) and K+ Equilibrium potential (EK) in
a typical neuron in this man compared with normal? (Assume normal
intracellular concentration of K + .)
A) EK, less negative; Vm, less negative
B) EK, less negative; Vm, no change
C) EK, less negative; Vm, more negative
D) EK, more negative; Vm, less negative
E) EK, more negative; Vm, more negative
F) EK, more negative; Vm, no change
G) EK, no change; Vm, less negative
H) EK, no change; Vm, more negative
I) EK, no change; Vm, no change
 Questions 4 and 5
In the figure shown, two compartments (Y and Z) are separated by an
artificial lipid bilayer without protein transporters. The relative concentrations
of test substances in compartments Y and Z at time zero are shown. Different
water volumes in compartments Y and Z are shown as diagrams A to E. Use
this information to answer the next two questions.
4. Which of the diagrams best represent the volumes of compartments Y
and Z at equilibrium when the test substance is NaCl?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
5. Which of the diagrams best represent the volumes of compartments Y
and Z at equilibrium when the test substance is urea?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
6. A model cell with three different transporters (X, Y, and Z) and a resting
membrane potential of −90 millivolts is shown. Consider the
intracellular and extracellular concentrations of all three ions to be
typical of a normal cell. Inhibition of transporter Y with ouabain is most
likely to cause which of the following changes in the intracellular
concentrations of sodium and calcium ions?
 A) Decreased sodium; decreased calcium
B) Decreased sodium; increased calcium
C) Increased sodium; decreased calcium
D) Increased sodium; increased calcium
7. In the diagram shown, Em represents the measured initial membrane
potential for a hypothetical cell in vivo. In relation to this membrane
potential, the equilibrium potentials of three ions (X − , Y − , Z+) are
represented. Pick the path most likely taken by the membrane potential
when membrane conductance to ion Y is increased.
8. The relationship between contraction velocity and force for five different
skeletal muscles is shown. Which of the following muscles (A–E) is
most likely to correspond to muscle number 1 on the figure shown?
(Assume that all muscles shown are at their normal resting lengths.)
9. The diagram shows the relationship between muscle tension and
sarcomere length for skeletal muscle. Which point on the curve
represents tension development at a normal resting length?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
10. The following events occur in a skeletal muscle during a normal
contraction: (1) increased calcium concentration in sarcoplasm, (2)
activation of ryanodine receptor, (3) calcium release from terminal
cisternae, and (4) activation of dihydropyridine voltage sensor. Which
of the following best describes the correct temporal order of events for a
normal contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 4, 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 3, 2, 1, 4
E) 3, 1, 2, 4
 F) 4, 2, 1, 3
G) 2, 1, 4, 3
H) 2, 3, 4, 1
I) 4, 2, 3, 1
11. A 64-year-old man undergoes general anesthesia to remove a tumor
from his colon. Within a few minutes following administration of a
halogenated anesthetic, the patient develops muscle rigidity and a
rectal temperature of 108°F. His heart rate is 105 beats/min and
respiration rate is 29 breaths/min. Which of the following is most likely
to be decreased in this patient compared with normal resting
conditions?
A) Anaerobic metabolism
B) Calcium binding to calsequestrin
C) CO2 production by muscles
D) Muscle temperature
E) O2 usage by muscles
12. Which of the following best describes the selectivity filter of a
potassium ion channel in bacteria?
A) Glutamate
B) Carbonyl oxygens
C) Oxygen radicals
D) Gluten
E) Glycine
F) Carbon dioxide
13. During the course of a nerve action potential (shown), a 10-mV
electrical stimulus is delivered at the time indicated by the arrow. In
response to the electrical stimulus, a second action potential will:
A) be identical to the first
B) have a higher amplitude
C) have a lower amplitude
D) not occur
E) have a slower velocity
F) have a faster velocity
 14. Which of the following best describes myasthenia gravis (MG) and
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)?
A) MG, postsynaptic disease; LEMS, presynaptic disease
B) MG, presynaptic disease; LEMS, presynaptic disease
C) MG, postsynaptic disease; LEMS, postsynaptic disease
D) MG, presynaptic disease; LEMS, postsynaptic disease
15. Electrical coupling between adjacent cells in visceral smooth muscle
can be a ributed to which of the following?
A) Dense bodies
B) Gap junctions
C) Intermediate fibers
D) Mechanical junctions
E) Potassium channels
16. A 45-year-old man goes to the local gym to lift weights. He begins by
bench-pressing 130 lb as a warm-up procedure and then gradually
increases the weight. Which of the following sets of changes occur as he
adds more weight?

Activation of motor units Frequency of motor nerve action potentials

A) Decreased Decreased

B) Decreased Increased

C) Decreased No change

D) Increased Decreased

E) Increased Increased

F) Increased No change

17. Which of the following substances have a higher extracellular

concentration compared with the intracellular concentration?
A) Calcium and chloride
B) Potassium and sodium
C) Calcium and potassium
D) Potassium and proteins
E) Chloride and proteins
18. Which of the following allows smooth muscle to maintain a sustained
contraction with minimal energy usage compared to a similar level of
sustained contraction of skeletal muscle?
A) Dense body
B) Gap junctions
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Latch state
 E )Syncytial nature

Questions 19–21
The table shows the concentrations of four ions across the plasma membrane
of a hypothetical cell. Use this table to answer the next three questions.

Intracellular (mM) Extracellular (mM)

140 K+ 5 K+

12 Na+ 145 Na+

5 Cl− 125 Cl−

0.0001 Ca2+ 5 Ca2+

19. Which of the following best describes the equilibrium potential for Cl −
(in millivolts)?
A) 0
B) 170
C) −170
D) 85
E) −85
20. Which of the following best describes the equilibrium potential for K+
(in millivolts)?
A) 0
B) 176
C) −176
D) 88
E) −88
21. The net driving force is greatest for which ion when the membrane
potential of this cell is −85 millivolts?
A) Ca2+
B) Cl −
C) K+
D) Na+
22. A single contraction of skeletal muscle is most likely to be terminated
by which of the following actions?
A) Closure of the postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
B) Removal of acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction
C) Removal of Ca2+ from the terminal of the motor neuron
D) Removal of sarcoplasmic Ca2+
E) Return of the dihydropyridine receptor to its resting conformation
 23. The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber is primarily
dependent on the concentration gradient of which of the following
ions?
A) Ca2+
B) Cl −
C) HCO3 −
D) K+
E) Na+
24. A neurotransmi er activates its receptor on an ion channel of a neuron,
which causes the water-filled channel to open. When the channel is
open, ions move through the channel down their respective
electrochemical gradients. A change in membrane potential follows.
Which of the following best describes the type of channel and
mechanism of ion transport?

Type of Channel Mechanism of Transport

A) Ligand gated Primary active transport

B) Ligand gated Diffusion

C) Ligand gated Secondary active transport

D) Voltage gated Primary active transport

E) Voltage gated Diffusion

F) Voltage gated Secondary active transport

25. Which of the following decreases in length during the contraction of a

skeletal muscle fiber?
A) A band of sarcomere
B) I band of sarcomere
C) Thick filaments
D) Thin filaments
E) Z disks of sarcomere
 26. Equilibrium potentials for three unknown ions are shown in the above
figure. Note that ions S and R are positively charged and that ion Q is
negatively charged. Assume that the cell membrane is permeable to all
three ions and that the cell has a resting membrane potential of −90
millivolts. Which of the following best describes the net movement of
the various ions across the cell membrane by passive diffusion?

Q− R+ S+
A) Inward Inward Inward

B) Inward Inward Outward

C) Inward Outward Inward

D) Inward Outward Outward

E) Outward Inward Inward

F) Outward Inward Outward

G) Outward Inward Outward

27. Weightlifting can result in a dramatic increase in skeletal muscle mass.

This increase in muscle mass is primarily a ributable to which of the
following?
A) Fusion of sarcomeres between adjacent myofibrils
B) Hypertrophy of individual muscle fibers
C) Increase in skeletal muscle blood supply
D) Increase in the number of motor neurons
E) Increase in the number of neuromuscular junctions
 28. Five hypothetical nerve axons are shown in the above figure. Axons A
and B are myelinated, whereas axons C, D, and E are nonmyelinated.
Which axon is most likely to have the fastest conduction velocity for an
action potential?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Questions 29 and 30
The figure below shows the change in membrane potential during an action
potential in a giant squid axon. Refer to it when answering the next two
questions.
29. Which of the following is primarily responsible for the change in
membrane potential between points B and D?
A) Inhibition of the Na+, K+ -ATPase
B) Movement of K+ into the cell
C) Movement of K+ out of the cell
D) Movement of Na+ into the cell
E) Movement of Na+ out of the cell
30. Which of the following is primarily responsible for the change in
membrane potential between points D and E?
A) Inhibition of the Na+, K+-ATPase
B) Movement of K+ into the cell
C) Movement of K+ out of the cell
D) Movement of Na+ into the cell
E) Movement of Na+ out of the cell
31. The axon of a neuron is stimulated experimentally with a 25-millivolt
pulse, which initiates an action potential with a velocity of 50 m per
second. The axon is then stimulated with a 100-millivolt pulse. What is
 the action potential velocity after the 100-millivolt stimulation pulse (in
meters per second)?
A) 25
B) 50
C) 100
D) 150
E) 200

Questions 32 and 33
The figure below illustrates the single isometric twitch characteristics of two
skeletal muscles, A and B, in response to a depolarizing stimulus. Refer to it
when answering the next two questions.

32. Which of the following best describes muscle B compared with muscle
A?
A) Adapted for rapid contraction
B) Composed of larger muscle fibers
C) Fewer mitochondria
D) Innervated by smaller nerve fibers
E) Less extensive blood supply
Other documents randomly have
different content
Divorce, among Kacháris, 31
among Chutiyás, 95
among Hájongs, 86
among Moráns, 89

Doi-má-ároi, river-clan, 25

Domestic festivities, 49

Dower, recovery of, on divorce, 31

Earth (as a totem), 25

Elopement, marriage by, 43

Emao, ferment used in making rice-beer, 18

Endogamous clans among Chutiyás, 91

Endogamy in Kachári clans, 29

in royal clan among Dimásá, 28 Eri or Eranda (castor-oil plant), 20 Eri-cloth, market value
of, 21

Euphorbia plant held sacred, 30

Exogamy among Di-má-sá, 27

among Meches, 82
among Rábhás, 83

Exorcism, 40
F

Fadam-ároi (a tree clan), 27

Festivals (domestic), 49
(tribal), 49

Fishing, 16

Fish, dried, use of, 15

Fish, as physician, 58

Fish-traps, 16

Folk-tales, 54–70
Folk-tales,
,, Appendix II.

Food, 14

Food offered to corpse, 46

Funeral ceremony, 46

Furniture, etc., 12

Gamári tree, 20

Gandhret-ároi (Kachári clan), 25

Gáros, 81
statistics of, 5

Gáro tradition as to Bodo origins, 3

Girási-girá (male and female deities of Chutiyás), 93

Gods, Household, 35–36

village, 35

Goi-bári-ároi (areca nut clan), 26

Govinda-Chandra, last Kachári King of Kachár, 7

Grammar, 71 et seq.

Háchum-sá (royal endogamous clan), 28

Ha(i)jongs (statistics of), 5

Hájong tribe, 85

Harvest festivities, 38, 49

Harvesting, method of, 13

Headhunting, 32

Heroes as deities, 38

Hidamba (reputed ancestor of Meches), 82

Hindu influence among Moráns, 88

among Rábhás, 85

Hojais, clans of, 27

statistics of, 5

Houses, nature of, 11

Household gods, 35
Human sacrifices, 93

Hunting, 15

Hypergamy, among Rábhás, 83

among Kacháris, 29

Idols, use of, 40

Infant marriage, absence of, 44

Inheritance, rules of, 32

Initiation (of children), 42

of Kacháris into Rábhá tribe, 84

Irrigation, system of, 12

Jungle-grass, as a totem, 25

Jute, as a totem, 25

Kachári dwárs, probable origin of, 8

Kacháris as labourers on tea estates, 14

Kapáhiyas (Morán sub-tribe), 87

Khágrábáriyá tribe, 10

Kháng Khlo-ároi, clan of among Kacháris, 25

Kháspur, founding of, 6

Kherkhát-ároi (squirrel-clan), 27

Koch, Kingdom of, 5

Koches, statistics of, 5

Kurungá tree, 20

Kuvera as a Kachári deity, 38

in Chutiyá legends, 90

Labour, forced, 13

Lálungs, statistics of, 5

Language (Kachári) account of, 71

(Chutiyá), account of, 92
(Rábhá), account of, 83

Leeches (as a clan totem), 25

Loom, material and cost, 20

M

Maháliya, statistics of, 5

Mahalároi (trader-clan), 27

Maibong, founding of, 6

Mai-náo, (household goddess), 36

as goddess of harvest, 37

Máo-márároi, clan name taken from habitat of clan, 27

Marriage of Kacháris, 43
of Chutiyás, 94, 95
of Rábhás, 85

Marriage, Kachári ceremony of, 45

Mech ceremony of, 82
feasts, 46

Married life among Kacháris, 23

Mech tribe described, 81

statistics of, 5

Meches, totemistic clans of, 27

Midwives or dais, 41

Milk, dislike of, 15

Mleccha, probable origin of the word “Mech,” 81

Modais (or deities), 33

Moráns, statistics of, 5

Moráns, description of tribe, 87

“Morán Kacháris,” 87
Mosá-ároi, Kachári tiger clan, 26

Mosquito festival, 49

Musicians as a clan, 26

Nal-báriyá, tribe of Kacháris, 10

Naming of children, 42

Nárzi-ároi (Kachári clan), see ‘jute,’ 25

Natural forces, worship of, 34

Net, use of in the chase, 15

Number, mystic, 41, 47, 48

Ojhás or exorcisers, 24, 40

Ordeal by chewing rice, 31

Origin of Bodo Race, 3

Morán race, 88

P
Palhá (fish-trap), 16

Paramárthis (Hájong sub-tribe), 86

Paraśu Rám in Chutiyá legend, 90

Patorgiyá clan, 93

Penance on death of totem animal, 28

Phatika (distilled spirits), 19

Phulgariyás, (see Maháliyá), 5

Pishá-demá (Chutiyá deity), 93

Pishá-si (Chutiyá goddess), 93

Polyandry, non-existence of, 30

Polygamy, 30
among Chutiyás, 95

Presents, marriage, 45, 46

Price of grave paid to deity of spot, 47, 48

Priests, 24, 39
among Chutiyás, 93

Propitiation by sacrifice, 34

Rábhás, 83
statistics of, 5

Rám-sá-ároi (sons of Ráma, Kachári, clan), 26

Ráoná and Ráoni, story of, as explanation of lightning, 68

Rávana, as possible source of Kachári fable, 70

Religion of Kacháris, 33
of Moráns, 88
of Hájongs, 86
of Rábhás, 84

Rice-beer, preparation of, 17

Rice-crop, how grown, 12

Rivers as deities averting disease, 39

called by Bodo names in Assam, 4
creation of, 55
worship of, 36, 59
worshipped by Deori Chutiyás, 92

Sacred groves (or thánsális), 35

Sacrifice of animals, 29, 41

Sadiya, original seat of Chutiyá Kingdom, 90

Sangla tree, 20

Śanti-jal, water used for ceremonial purification, 29

Śaraniyas, (see Maháliyás), 5

Seasons, personified, 59

Sengfáng, name of male clan, 27

Service in lieu of brideprice, 44
among Chutiyás, 95

Sessamum as a totem, 25

Shares in inherited property, 32

Sibing-ároi, Kachári clan, 25

Siju plant, held sacred, 30

Silá-rai as a deity, 38

Silk (eri) culture, 19

Silkworms, 19

Śiva worshipped by Meches in place of Bathau, 82

Solanimiyas, statistics of, 5

Songs sung at festivals, 51

Spirits (distilled), 19

Spirits unable to cross water, 47

Squirrel, as a totem, 27

Śraddha (among Hájongs), 87

(observed by Meches), 83

Śrī, god of good luck, 57

Survival after death, 38

Swarga-ároi, clan of, 24

T

Telani ceremony, 89

Tengá-pániyá clan, 93

Thánsáli or sacred grove, 35

Thunder and Lightning, beliefs as to, 68

Tibetan origin of Bodos, tradition as to, 3

Tiger as a totem, 25
as a deity, 37

Tipperas, statistics of, 5

Totemistic clans, 24

Totems (1) Heaven, 24

(2) Earth, 25
(3) Tiger, 25, 82
(4) Junglegrass, 25
(5) Sessamum, 25
(6) Leech, 25
(7) Jute, 25
(8) Rivers, 25, 82
(9) Bamboo water vessels, 26
(10) Bamboos, 82
(11) Areca-nut, 26, 82
(12) Ferns, 26
(13) Squirrels, 27
(14) Fadam tree, 27

Totlas, nickname of Rábhás, 83

U

Umbilical cord, severing of, 41

Uncleanness (ceremonial), of a mother, 42

Villages, description of, 11

Village gods, 35

Vyavacáris (Hájong sub-tribe), 86

Water, reverence for, 34

Weaving, process of, 21

Widow-marriage (Kachári), 29
(among Hájongs), 87
(among Rábhás), 85

Wizards (among Chutiyás), 92

Women, employed in catching fish, 16

Women’s domestic duties, 37

Women, status of, 22

Z

Zakhai (fish trap), 16

Zu or rice beer, 14
preparation of, 17

Zŭlu, name of female clan, 27

R. CLAY AND SONS, LTD., BRUNSWICK ST., STAMFORD ST., S.E., AND BUNGAY,
SUFFOLK.
 Colophon
Corrections

The following corrections have been applied to the text:

Page Source Correction

6 Dimapur Dimápur
6 Maibong Máibong
20, 20,
40, 59,
77, 78,
78, 92,
96, 118,
126 [Not in source] .
25, 127 . [Deleted]
44 one once
53, 55,
86 [Not in source] ,
54, 89 Kachari Kachári
59 KACHARI KACHÁRI
59 , .
66 Brahmin’s Bráhmin’s
68 Aba Abá
76 immense immerse
78 ham-labó tham-labó
80 [Not in source] with
88 habung-iya hábung-iya
89 on no
91 . :
94 , [Deleted]
100 ; ,
102 loose lose
103 Sanscrit Sanskrit
105 [Not in source] ”
110 idiom-ot-zā-nŭ idiom ot-zā-nŭ
111 hāve have
117 hâ-gan hā-gan
119 . ,
125, 125,
125 Chutiyas Chutiyás
125 Básumati-aroi Básumati-ároi
126 Rábhas Rábhás
127 Mosá-aroi Mosá-ároi
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