TTTE3503

Answer ALL questions. Each question carries ONE mark.

1. Why is it important to clearly state the test objectives?

A. Because the team tends to align their plans with the objectives set by management
B. Because coverage must be measured against test objectives
C. Because the level of product risk is determined by the test objectives
D. Because identifying test objectives is a major task in the test planning activity

2. Which of the following are general principles of testing?

I. Early testing
II. Exploring testing
III. Defect clustering
IV. Defect masking
V. Pesticide paradox

A. I, III, and V
B. I, II, III, and V
C. II, and IV
D. III and V

3. Exhaustive testing involves:

A. All pairs of input values and preconditions

B. At least one of each possible input value and precondition
C. All combinations of input values and preconditions
D. All combinations of input and output values.

4. Consider the following scenario. You are testing a product and have found 100 defects.
Two-thirds of those defects are in the user interface and the access control modules, while
the remaining 33 defects are spread across six other modules. Which of the following is
the testing principle that most applies to this scenario?

A. Defect clustering
B. Absence-of-errors fallacy
C. Exhaustive testing is impossible
D. Testing is context dependent

5. Fahmi is a software tester who has worked as a mobile application tester for five years.
He has a lot of experience in testing mobile applications and always achieves good results
in less time than others. In a recent project, he used existing automated test cases without
updating or adding new test cases. He found that the defects found were fewer and fewer
when performing tests. What principle of testing did Fahmi not observe?

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B. Absence-of-errors fallacy
C. Exhaustive testing is impossible
C. Pesticide Paradox
D. Defect clustering

6. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and
debugging?

A. Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes
prevention activities
B. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects,
which are the source of failures
C. Testing does not remove faults, but debugging removes defects that cause the faults
D. Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures

7. Which of the following is true regarding the V-model life cycle?

A. Testing involvement starts when the code is complete

B. The test process is integrated with the development process
C. The software is built in increments, and each increment has activities for requirements,
design, build, and test
D. All activities for development and testing are completed sequentially

8. The following description describes which black-box testing technique?

• Using this technique, test cases are designed to test different system transitions.
• This technique helps to analyze the behavior of an application for different input
conditions.
• This technique is used when we have a sequence of events that occur and associated
conditions that apply to those events

A. State transition testing technique

B. Use case testing technique
C. Decision table testing technique
D. Cause-effect graph testing technique

9. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications

• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is most likely being performed?

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A. Integration testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. System testing
D. Component testing

10. You are running a performance test intending to find possible network bottlenecks in
interfaces between system components. Which of the following statements describes this
test?

A. A functional test during the integration test level

B. A non-functional test during the integration test level
C. A functional test during the component test level
D. A non-functional test during the component test level

11. During which level of testing should non-functional tests be executed?

A. Unit and integration only

B. System testing only
C. Integration, system, and acceptance only
D. Unit, integration, system, and acceptance only

12. Consider the following types of defects that a test level might focus on:

1. Defects in separately testable modules or objects

2. Not focused on identifying defects
3. Defects in interfaces and interactions
4. Defects in the whole test object

Which of the following lists correctly matches test levels from the Foundation syllabus with
the defect focus options given above?

A. 1 = performance test; 2 = component test; 3 = system test; 4 = acceptance test

B. 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = system test; 4 = integration test
C. 1 = component test; 2 = acceptance test; 3 = integration test; 4 = system test
D. 1 = integration test; 2 = system test; 3 = component test; 4 = acceptance test

13. You have developed an Android-based mobile application. You then find that there are
users who use mobile devices based on IOS and SymbianOS. Since they also want to use
your application, then you need to do another test. What kind of tests should you do?

A. Performance test
B. Regression test
C. Functional test
D. Portability test

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14. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?

A. When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified
B. When the system is developed incrementally and no test charter is available
C. When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and
technologies
D. When advanced knowledge of the system already exists, and evidence is to be provided
that it should be tested intensively

15. In a formal review, which role usually is responsible for documenting all the open issues?

A. The facilitator
B. The author
C. The scribe
D. The manager

16. Which of the following tasks is part of the test planning activity?

A. Determining the exit criteria

B. Measuring and analyzing results
C. Reviewing the test basis
D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria

17. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

A. An inspection is led by the author, whilst a walkthrough is led by a trained moderator.

B. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author, whilst an inspection is led by a trained moderator.

18. You are participating in a role-based review session. Your assigned role is that of a senior
citizen. The product is an online banking application targeted for use on smartphones.
You are currently reviewing the product's user interface with a prototype that works on
iPhones. Which of the following is an area that you should review?

A. The speed of response from the banking backend

B. The attractiveness of the application
C. The size and clarity of the instruction text
D. The reliability of the application when the connection is dropped

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19. Alpha testing is:

A. post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

B. the first testing that is performed.
C. pre-release testing by end-user representatives at the developer’s site.
D. pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

20. Consider the following four types of tests for an e-commerce application:

I. Testing every possible database query

II. Testing system response times under load
III. Testing of new features as they are added to the system
IV. Verifying correct handling of typical orders

Which of the following statements is true?

A. I is a change-related test; II is a non-functional test; III is a functional test and IV is a

structural test
B. I is a structural test; II is a non-functional test; III is a change-related test; and IV is a
functional test
C. All four are functional tests
D. I is a non-functional test; II is a structural test; III is a change-related test; and IV is a
functional test

21. What is a test design technique?

A. A test design technique is a process for choosing test cases

B. A test design technique is a process for determining expected outputs
C. A test design technique is a way to measure the quality of software
D. A test design technique is a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

22. Customers are complaining that your company website is too slow. You have been asked
to manage the testing portion of a project that is charged with reducing the incidence of
such problems for the e-commerce portion (online store) of your company site.
Therefore, your work on this project is likely to include one of the following.

A. A complete roll-out of a regression testing tool

B. A pilot project with a performance testing tool
C. A pilot project with a dynamic analysis tool
D. Company-wide introduction of a new configuration management tool

23. Which of the following is an excellent reason to use experience-based testing?

A. You can find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques
B. You can test for defects that only experienced users would encounter
C. You can target the developer’s efforts to the areas that users will be more likely to use
D. It is supported by solid tools and can be automated

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24. A program with high Cyclomatic complexity is almost likely to be:

A. Large
B. Small
C. Difficult to write
D. Difficult to test

25. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any project, at any test level,
regardless of lifecycle model?

A. The primary objective of testing is to find as many defects as possible

B. Regression testing is not affected by the lifecycle model
C. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents
D. Testers should not know about the structural details of the product they are testing

26. Which test type is typically more important during maintenance testing as compared to
testing an entirely new application?

A. Performance testing
B. Functional testing
C. Regression testing
D. Security testing

27. Which of the following activities is to track the number of test cases executed?

A. Planning
B. Designing
C. Execution
D. Reporting

28. Who is normally responsible for creating and updating a test plan for a project?

A. The project manager

B. The test manager
C. The tester
D. The product owner

29. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

A. Testers have different biases than developers

B. Testers are isolated from the development team
C. Testers lack information about the test object
D. Testers will accept responsibility for the quality

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30. Which of the following has the highest level of independence in which test cases are
designed?

A. Test cases designed by persons who write the software under test
B. Test cases designed by a person from a different section
C. Test cases designed by a person from a different organization
D. Test cases designed by peers

31. Which of the following is an example of a static analysis tool?

A. Spelling checker that detects defects in the documents (spelling and to a certain degree
grammar mistakes)
B. A defect tracking tool
C. A test automation tool
D. A tool that helps design test cases for security testing

32. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

A. re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
B. re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

33. Which of the following techniques is a form of static testing?

A. Error guessing
B. Automated regression testing
C. Run the system and examine the outputs
D. Code review

34. Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis?

A. Defects can be identified that might not be caught by dynamic testing

B. Early defect identification requires less documentation
C. Early execution of the code provides a gauge of code quality
D. Tools are not needed because reviews are used instead of executing code

35. What is the main difference between static and dynamic testing?

A. Static testing is performed by developers; dynamic testing is performed by testers

B. Manual test cases are used for dynamic testing; automated tests are used for static
testing
C. Static testing must be executed before dynamic testing
D. Dynamic testing requires executing the software; the software is not executed during
static testing

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36. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

A. Measuring response time

B. Measuring transaction rates
C. test against unauthorized access to the system or data
D. Simulating many users

37. Which of the following is a technical aspect of project risk?

A. Failure of a third party to meet contractual agreements

B. Lack of skills and human resources
C. Inappropriate attitude towards testing in general
D. Requirements are inaccurate, imprecise and ambiguous

38. What is a product risk?

A. A risk related to the management and control of the project

B. A risk directly related to the test object
C. A factor that could result in future negative consequences
D. Likelihood and impact

39. What is an incident?

A. A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to
perform its required function
B. Any event occurring that requires investigation
C. Deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service or result
D. The physical or functional manifestation of a failure

40. What process is missing if the developers are releasing code for testing that is not version-
controlled?

A. Configuration management
B. Debugging
C. Test design
D. Risk analysis

41. Exit Criteria may consist of:

I. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality, or risk

II. Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
III. Residual risks such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
IV. Verifying the Test Environment.

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A. IV is correct, and I, II, III are incorrect

B. I, II, III are correct, and IV is incorrect
C. II is correct and I, III, IV are incorrect
D. III, IV are correct, and I, II are incorrect

42. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development
activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

I. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity

II. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
III. The test design and implementation should start during the corresponding
development activity
IV. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development
lifecycle

Which of the following correctly shows which are true and false?

A. True – I, II; False – III, IV

B. True – II, III; False – I, IV
C. True – I, II, IV; False – III
D. True – I, IV; False – II, III

43. Consider the following members of a project team:

I. A project manager
II. A user
III. An operator
IV. A development manager
V. A developer

Which of the following statements is most true about project team members in the role
of testers?

A. All five members are likely to be testers during the project

B. I and IV are likely to be testers during the project
C. II, III, and V are likely to be testers during the project
D. None are likely to be testers, as only professional testers should work in a testing role

44. A field representing the quantity of an item to be purchased accepts an integer input
between 1 and 99. Consider the following numbers:

I. 0
II. -7
III. 1
IV. 52
V. 99
VI. 100
VII. 129

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Which of the following statements is true?

A. II, IV, and VII are boundary values, while I, III, V, and VI are invalid members of
equivalence partitions
B. I, III, V, and VI are boundary values, while II, IV, and VII are members of the invalid
equivalence partitions
C. All seven values are boundary values and members of one of the three equivalence
partitions
D. Only I, III, V, and VI are members of one of the three equivalence partitions

45. Water in the tank should have a temperature between 300C and 600C. The heater turns
on when the temperature drops below 300C. The heater turns off when the temperature
rises to 600C. The heater will also turn off when the water in the tank drops below the
minimum level.
What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence
partitions for calculating the bonus?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

46. A speed control and reporting system have the following characteristics:

• If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.

• If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, it will warn you.
• If you drive faster than 55 km/h, but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
• If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
• The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.

Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the
boundary value analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence
classes are selected?

A. 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60

B. 50, 55, 60
C. 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62
D. 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61

47. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour,
and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices
and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items).
Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units and the largest valid
order amount is 25.0 units. The precision of the unit’s field is 0.1 units.

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Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for
this field?

A. 0.2, 0.9, 29.5

B. 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1
C. 10.0, 28.0
D. 12.3

48. You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score
achieved, the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89
= B, 90-100=A. If you apply two-value boundary value analysis, how many test cases
will you need to achieve minimum test coverage?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

49. You are testing an e-commerce system for purchasing books online. An excerpt of the
requirements specification states as follows:

“The customer shall be able to order from 1 to 99 copies of any book which is in stock
and for which sufficient copies are in stock to fulfil the quantity ordered”

Other portions of the requirements specification deal with handling invalid order
amounts, including orders which exceed the stock available.

Which of the following is a well-written test case for the requirements specification
excerpt given?

A. Order 0 books
B. Order 100 books; expect an error message
C. Order 1 book which is in stock; expect order acceptance
D. Order 1 book which is in stock

50. You are testing a thermostat for a heating/air conditioning system. You have been given
the following requirements:

• When the temperature is below 70 degrees, turn on the heating system

• When the temperature is above 75 degrees, turn on the air conditioning system
• When the temperature is between 70 and 75 degrees, inclusive, turn on fan only

Which of the following is the minimum set of test temperature values to achieve 100%
two-value boundary value analysis coverage?

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A. 70, 75
B. 65, 72, 80
C. 69, 70, 75, 76
D. 70, 71, 74, 75, 76

51. You have been given the following requirements: A user must log in to the system with
a valid username and password. If they fail to enter the correct combination three times,
they will receive an error and will have to wait 10 minutes before trying again. The test
terminates when the user successfully logs in. How many test cases are needed to provide
100% state transition coverage?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

52. You are testing an e-commerce transaction that has the following states and transitions:

1. Login (invalid) > Login

2. Login > Search
3. Search > Search
4. Search > Shopping Cart
5. Shopping Cart > Search
6. Shopping Cart > Checkout
7. Checkout > Search
8. Checkout > Logout

For a state transition diagram, how many transitions should be shown?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16

53. Features of White Box Testing Technique:

i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to
select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes
that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.

A. i, ii are true, and iii and iv are false

B. iii is true, and i,ii, iv are false
C. ii , iii is true and i,iv is false
D. iii and iv are true, and i,ii are false

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54. Consider the following function:

double interest(double avg_balance, double annual_rate){

double calc_int = 0.0;
if (avg_balance > 0.0){
double monthly_rate = annual_rate/12.0;
calc_int = avg_balance * (monthly_rate/100.0);
}
return (calc_int);
}

Assume that you have a test harness that will allow you to input test values to the interest
function above and check the values it returns, rounded to the nearest cent. Which of the
following test cases achieves 100% statement coverage with the minimum number of
tests? (The first two numbers are the input and the third number of each set is the output).

A. 100.0, 5.0, 0.42

B. 100.0, 5.0, 0.42; -50.0, 1.25, 0.0
C. 100.0, 5.0, 0.42; 0.0, 2.5, 0.0; -50.0, 1.25, 0.0
D. 100.0, 5.0, 0.42; 0.01, 25.0, 0.0; 0.0, 2.5, 0.0; -0.01, 10.0, 0.0; -50.0, 1.25, 0.0

55. What are the minimum tests required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage for
the following code?

Read A
Read B
If A+B > 100 then
Print "the total is more than 100"
End if
If A > 50 then
Print “A is more than 50"
End if

A. Statement coverage is 2; Branch Coverage is 2

B. Statement coverage is 3; Branch coverage is 2
C. Statement coverage is 1; Branch coverage is 2
D. Statement Coverage is 4; Branch coverage is 2

56. One of the test goals for your project is to have 100% decision coverage. The following
three tests have been executed for the control flow graph below.

Test-01 covers path: A, B, D, E, G

Test-02 covers path: A, B, D, E, F, G
Test-03 covers path: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G

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B C

E F

Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is TRUE?

A. Decision D has not been tested completely.

B. 100% decision coverage has been achieved.
C. Decision E has not been tested completely.
D. Decision F has not been tested completely.

57. You are testing a banking subsystem that provides overdraft protection for customers
who have this feature for their checking accounts. Overdraft protection allows the
customer to temporarily overdraft their account balance, within some predefined credit
limit, without having checks returned unpaid. A portion of the decision table describing
that feature is shown below.

Conditions

Balance exceeded No Yes Yes

Credit limit okay No Yes No

Actions

Honor check Yes Yes No

Return check No No Yes

Send notice No Yes Yes

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How many tests would you design to cover the decision table?

A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 15

58. You are testing an e-commerce system. To pay for a purchase, the system accepts four
different types of credit cards, each of which has its own rules for valid and invalid card
numbers. A portion of the decision table for handling orders reads as follows:

Conditions

Invalid card number Yes No No

Purchase approved No No Yes

Actions

Decline message Yes Yes No

Process payment No No Yes

Notice that the combination of Invalid card numbers and Purchase approved conditions cannot
occur. Assume that you want to test in a way that fully covers combinations of the equivalence
partitions for the card types and the rules shown in this portion of the decision table. How many
tests do you need?

A. 3
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12

59. What does a test design specification contain?

A. Test inputs
B. Expected output
C. Procedure steps
D. Test conditions

60. What is a decision coverage?

A. A table showing combinations of inputs with their associated outputs

B. A program point at which the control flow has two or more alternative routes
C. The percentage of decision outcomes that have been exercised by a test suite
D. The percentage of executable statements that have been exercised by a test suite

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61. In which of the following situations must you rely more heavily on experienced-based
techniques than specification-based techniques?

A. You are given requirements and design specifications and adequate time to prepare
B. You do not have any written documentation on how the product should work
C. You are leading a team of people new to the business domain and technology of the
project
D. You have been told to prevent defects through up-front test planning, analysis and
design

62. Which of the following is a typical task for a test leader?

A. Prepare and acquire test data

B. Create test specifications
C. Review and contribute to test plans
D. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others

63. You have been appointed to lead a test team for an upcoming project. You are currently
assembling the test team for the component level of testing. Of the following people, who
would be best qualified to work as testers at this level?

A. Business analysts
B. Developers
C. Expert users
D. Operators

64. Which of the following requirements is testable?

A. The system shall be user friendly.

B. The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
D. The system shall be built to be portable.

65. Which of the following statements best describes non-functional testing?

A. Non-functional testing is the process of testing an integrated system to verify that it

meets specified requirements.
B. Non-functional testing is the process of testing to determine system compliance with
coding standards.
C. Non-functional testing is testing without reference to the internal structure of a system.
D. Non-functional testing is testing system characteristics such as usability, reliability or
maintainability.

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66. Which of the following statements are true about the Equivalence Partitioning test
technique?

I. Equivalence Partitioning testing divides possible inputs into classes where all
elements are expected to cause the same behavior.
II. Equivalence Partitioning testing uses both valid and invalid partitions.
III. Equivalence Partitioning testing must include at least two values from every
equivalence partition.
IV. Equivalence Partitioning testing can be used only for testing equivalence partition
inputs from a Graphical User Interface.

A. I, II, and IV are TRUE; III is FALSE

B. I is TRUE; II, III, and IV are FALSE
C. II and III are TRUE; I and IV are FALSE
D. I and II are TRUE; III and IV are FALSE

67. Why is it important to avoid the pesticide paradox?

A. Dynamic testing is less reliable in finding bugs

B. Pesticides mixed with static testing can allow bugs to escape detection
C. Tests should not be context-dependent
D. Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding new defects

68. You are testing a banking application that allows a customer to withdraw 20, 100, or 500
dollars in a single transaction. The values are chosen from a drop-down list and no other
values may be entered. How many equivalence partitions need to be tested to achieve
100% equivalence partition coverage?

A. 7
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

69. Which of the following statements is correct about test types and test levels?

A. Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test
levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing
B. Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is
restricted to component testing
C. It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test
level
D. Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-
box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

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70. Which of the following statements is correct about the use of checklists in a formal
review?

A. As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the
review
B. As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the
review
C. As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the
checklists provided for the review
D. As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the
review

71. Which of the following correctly matches the tool and testing type?

I. Loadrunneer
II. JUNIT
III. Eclipse
IV. Selenium

A. I – performance testing, II – Unit testing, III – static code analysis, IV – regression

testing
B. I – Unit testing, II – performance testing, III – regression testing, IV – static code
analysis
C. I – regression testing, II – Unit testing, III – static code analysis, IV – performance
testing
D. I – performance testing, II – Unit testing, III – regression testing, IV – static code
analysis

72. Which of the following correctly matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal
review?

A. Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews

B. Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings
C. Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review
D. Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

73. Given the following test activities and tasks:

A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports

2. Identifying test data to support the test cases

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3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data

4. Analysing inconsistencies to determine their cause

Which of the following best matches the activities with the tasks?

A. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

74. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe

• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is most likely being used?

A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Inspection

75. Which of the following statements best describes how test cases are derived from a use
case?

A. Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviours
performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors
B. Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and
creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components
C. Test cases are generated by analysing the interactions of the actors with the system to
ensure the user interfaces are easy to use
D. Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process
flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

76. Which of the following best matches the descriptions with the different categories of test
techniques?

1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object

2. The processing within the test object is checked
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked
5. User stories are used as the test basis

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A. Black-box testing – 4, 5; White-box testing – 1, 2; Experience-based testing – 3

B. Black-box testing – 3; White-box testing – 1, 2; Experience-based testing – 4, 5
C. Black-box testing – 4; White-box testing – 1, 2; Experience-based testing – 3, 5
D. Black-box testing – 1, 3, 5; White-box testing – 2; Experience-based testing – 4

77. Which of the following best describes stress testing?

A. Measuring the system behavior for increasing system loads (e.g., the number of users
that work simultaneously, number of transactions)
B. Measuring the processing speed and response time for particular use cases, usually
dependent on increasing load
C. Observation of the system behavior dependent on the amount of data (e.g., processing of
very large files)
D. Observation of the system behavior when the system is overloaded

78. Which of the following are includes in non-functional testing?

I. Load testing
II. Usability testing
III. Compatibility testing
IV. Control Flow testing
V. State transition testing

A. I, II, and III

B. I, II, and IV
C. II, III, IV and V
D. I, II, III and V

79. You are working as a test manager on a large project. You need a tool that will support
traceability of tests, test results, and bugs to the test basis. What kind of tool do you need?

A. Static analysis tool

B. Test management tool
C. Security tool
D. Coverage measurement tool

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80. Consider the following state transition diagram for a credit card only, unattended gasoline
pump.

Assume that you want to develop the minimum number of tests to cover each transition
in the state transition diagram. Assume further that each test must start and end at the
beginning state “Waiting for customer”. How many tests do you need?

A. 4
B. 7
C. 1
D. Infinite

ANSWER:
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. D
12. C
13. D
14. C
15. C
16. A
17. D

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18. C
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. D
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. B
45. C
46. D
47. A
48. D
49. C
50. C
51. B
52. C
53. A
54. A
55. C
56. A
57. A
58. D
59. D
60. C
61. B
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. D
66. D
67. D

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68. D
69. C
70. D
71. A
72. A
73. A
74. B
75. A
76. A
77. D
78. A
79. B
80. A

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