16-02-2025

9610ZMD801433240015 MD

PHYSICS

1) The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the emitter
plate. Light source is put on and a saturation photo current is recorded. An electric field is switched
on which has a vertically downward direction :-

(1) The photo current will increase

(2) The kinetic energy of the electrons will increase
(3) The stopping potential will decrease
(4) The threshold wavelength will increase

2) The first excited state of hydrogen atom is 10.2 eV above its ground state. The temperature is
needed to excite hydrogen atoms to first excited level, is :-

(1) 7.9 × 104 K

(2) 3.5 × 105 K
(3) 5.8 × 107 K
(4) 14 × 106 K

3) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in the figure what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel ?

(1) 75oC
(2) 67oC
(3) 33oC
(4) 25oC

4) When the temperature of a gas filled in a closed vessel is increased by 1°C, its pressure increases
by 0.4 percent. The initial temperature of gas was :-

(1) 250 °C
(2) 25 °C
(3) 250 K
(4) 25 K

5) An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of –13°C. the coefficient of performance of

the refrigerator is 5. The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) will be :-
(1) 325°C
(2) 325 K
(3) 39°C
(4) 320°C

6) Given below are two statements :

Statements (I) : Planck's constant and angular momentum have same dimensions.
Statements (II) : Linear momentum and moment of force have same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) statement I is true and statement II is false.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) statement I is false and statement II is true

7) The initial and final temperatures of water as recorded by an observer are (40.6 ± 0.2)°C and
(78.3 ± 0.3)°C. Calculate the rise in temperature with proper error limits.

(1) (35.5 ± 0.5)°C

(2) (36.6 ± 0.5)°C
(3) (37.7 ± 0.5)°C
(4) (37.7 ± 0.1)°C

8) The inputs to the digital circuit are shown below. The output Y is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) In the given circuit, the voltage across load resistance (RL) is : -

(1) 8.75 V
(2) 9.00 V
(3) 8.50 V
(4) 14.00 V

10) A body is thrown horizontally from the top the building. The time taken by the body to hit the
ground is 6 sec at an angle 60° with the horizontal. Find the height of the building and velocity with
which the body was projected.

(1) 160 m,
(2) 160 m,
(3) 180 m,
(4) 180 m,

11) A river is flowing at a rate of 5 km/h. The swimmer swims across the river with a velocity of 8
km/h with respect to water. The magnitude of resultant velocity of man will be?

(1) km/h
(2) km/h
(3) km/h
(4) km/h

12) In the diagram shown the velocity of image will be along

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

13) In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of refractive

index is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) none of these

14) Two coherent monochromatic light waves of intensities I and 9I are susperposed. The maximum
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are -
(1) 5I and I
(2) 16I and 4I
(3) 9I and I
(4) 9I and 3I

15) Find intensity of electric field at point P (as shown) in the given point charge distributions.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A negative charge particle (–q, m) is revolving around a uniformly charged long wire 2λ. Find
speed of the particle.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) If N/C and cm2 then find electric flux.

(1) 6 Nm2/C
(2) 6 × 10–2 Nm2/C
(3) 6 × 10–4 Nm2/C
(4) –4 × 10–4 N/C
18) A weight can be hung in any of the following four ways by string. In which way the tension will
be maximum?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A block is placed on a rough floor and a horizontal force F is applied on it. The force of friction f
by the floor on the block is measured for different values of F and a graph is plotted between them :
-

(1) The graph is a straight line of slope 45°

(2) The graph is straight line parallel to the F axis
The graph is a straight line of slope 45° for small F and a straight line parallel to the F- axis for
(3)
large F.
(4) The graph is straight line parallel to f axis.

20) Assertion (A): Angular speed, linear speed and kinetic energy change with time but angular
momentum about the sun remains constant for a planet orbiting the sun.
Reason (R): Angular momentum about the sun is constant as no torque acts on the planet.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

21) Find the gravitational potential at the mid point (P) of the line joining earth and moon as shown

in above figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady
current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is:

a linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly
(1)
decreasing for the outside region.
a linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing
(2)
one with 1/r dependence for the outside region.
a linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly
(3)
increasing one for the outside region.
(4) uniform and remains constant for both the regions.

23) The radius of the circular conducting loop shown in figure is R. Magnetic field is decreasing at a
constant rate α. Resistance per unit length of the loop is ρ. Then current in wire AB is (AB is one of

the diameters) :-

(1)
from A to B

(2)
B to A

(3)
from A to B
(4) zero

24) The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current I, is M and the magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant, the
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 2

25) Two coils are placed closed to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends
upon _________

(1) the rates at which currents are changing in two coils

(2) relative position and orientation of the two coils
(3) the materials of the wires of the coils
(4) the currents in the two coils

26)

At t = 0 a charge q is at the origin and moving in the y-direction with velocity . . The charge
moves in a magnetic field that is for y > 0 out of page and given by and for y < 0 into the page
and given . The charge's subsequent trajectory is shown in the sketch. From this information,
we can deduce that

(1) q > 0 and | B1 | < | B2 |

(2) q < 0 and | B1 | < | B2 |
(3) q > 0 and | B1 | > | B2 |
(4) q < 0 and | B1 | > | B2 |

27) It a mass m moving with velocity collides with same mass m if collision is perfect inelastic,
then displacement for its SHM.

(1)

(2)

(3) NONE
(4)

28) Two ball of same mass m are released from different extreme position as shown in diagram. If
there collision is elastic, then at what time particle A will reach at same position again ?

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec

(3)

(4)

29) A person standing at a distance of 6m from a source of sound receives sound wave in two ways,
one directly from the source and other after reflection from a rigid boundary as shown in figure. The
maximum wavelength for which, the person will receive maximum sound intensity, is :

(1) 4m

(2)

(3) 2 cm

(4)

30) Speed of sound wave in air :

(1) is independent of temperature

(2) increases with pressure
(3) increases with increases in humidity
(4) decreases with increases in humidity
31) Assertion (A) : The choke coil limits the alternating current in the circuit.
Reason (R) : The choke coil reactance is independent of the frequency of the alternating current.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) For the series LCR circuit shown in the figure, what is the resonance frequency and the

amplitude of the current at the resonating frequency :-

(1) 2500 rad s–1 and A

(2) 2500 rad s and 5A
–1

(3)
2500 rad s–1 and A
(4) 25 rad s–1 and A

33) Electric field of plane electromagnetic wave propagating through a non–magnetic medium is
given by E = 20cos(2 × 1010 t–200x) V/m. The dielectric constant of the medium is equal to :
(Take µr = 1)

(1) 9
(2) 2

(3)

(4) 3

34) In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103
V/m. Then the amplitude of the magnetic field is -

(1) 2.7×103 T
(2) 9×103 T
(3) 3×10–3 T
(4) 3×10–5 T

35) For the circuit shown, the value of current(I) at time t =1.0s, 2.5s and 3.5s will respectively be
________ A.
[Voltage distribution V(t) is shown by Fig. (1) and the circuit is shown in Fig. (2)]

(1) 2.5, 0, 2.5

(2) -2.5, 0, -2.5
(3) -2.5, 0, 2.5
(4) 2.5, 0, -2.5

36) As the temperature decrease, the electrical resistance :

(1) decreases for both conductors and semiconductors

(2) increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
(3) decreases for conductors but increase for semiconductors
(4) increases for both conductors and semiconductors.

37) In the given figure, the charge stored in capacitor, when points A and B are joined by a

connecting wire is ______ .

(1) 36
(2) 63
(3) 46
(4) 64

38) Two capacitor having capacitance C1 and C2 respectively are connected as shown in figure.
Initially, capacitor C1 is charged to a potential difference V volt by a battery. The battery is then
removed and the charged capacitor C1 is now connected to uncharged capacitor C2 by closing the
switch S. The amount of charge on the capacitor C2, after equilibrium is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) Find the value of V if there is no slipping anywhere on cylinder:

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

40) The grinding stone of a flour mill is rotating at 600 rad/sec. for this power of 1.2 KW is used. the
effective torque on stone in N–m will be :–

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) A sphere P of mass m & velocity , undergoes an oblique & perfectly elastic collision with
identical sphere Q initially at rest. After collision if sphere P moves at angle 65° with horizontal; then
at what angle sphere Q will move ?

(1) 25°
(2) 65°
(3) 45°
(4) Data insufficient
42) A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1) to (3,
5, 2). The work done during this displacement is

(1) 90 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 30/ J

43) Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown. All the three particles are
moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity on the outermost particle is v0, then the ratio of tensions

in the three sections of the string is

(1) 3 : 5 : 6
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 6 : 9 : 10
(4) 7 : 6 : 11

44) When a drop splits up into n number of drops, then : -

(1) volume increases

(2) volume decreases
(3) energy is absorbed
(4) energy is liberated

45) Two balloons are blown into spherical shapes of unequal sizes and are connected together
through a narrow tube as shown in the figure. Then :

(1) the smaller balloon becomes bigger

(2) the bigger balloon becomes smaller
(3) both balloons collapse
(4) the smaller becomes smaller and bigger becomes bigger

CHEMISTRY

1) Calculate the amount of Ni needed in the Mond's process given below Ni + 4CO → Ni (CO)4
If CO used in this process is obtained through a process, in which 6 g of carbon is mixed with 44 g of
CO2. [Ni = 58. 7]
(1) 14.675 g
(2) 29.35 g
(3) 58.7 g
(4) 28 g

2) Which of the following relationships of Heisenberg, are correct?

I. II.

III. IV.

(1) I and IV only

(2) I, II and IV only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV

3) For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)

Kc = 66.9 at 350° C and Kc = 50.0 at 448° C. The reaction has:

(1) ΔH = +ve
(2) ΔH = –ve
(3) ΔH = zero
(4) ΔH sign can not be determined

4) Which of the following solutions would have same pH?

(1) 100 mL of 0.2 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.4 M NH3

(2) 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 50 mL of 0.2 M NH3
(3) 100 mL of 0.3 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.6 M NH3
(4) All will have same pH

5) Consider an ideal gas reaction

A(g) → B(g); ΔG = 76.5 joule
ΔH = 276.5 joules at 300 K, then, equilibrium temperature of reaction will be :

(1) 298 K
(2) 414. 75 K
(3) 596 K
(4) 207.25 K

6) In the following reaction hydrazine is oxidized to N2.

N2H4 + OH– → N2 + H2O + e
The equivalent weight of N2H4 (hydrazine) is:

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

7) The equivalent weight of sodium carbonate [Na2CO3] is

(1) 40
(2) 53
(3) 55.85
(4) 63

8) Which of the following aqueous solution has highest freezing point ?

(1) 0.1 molal Al2(SO4)3

(2) 0.1 molal BaCl2
(3) 0.1 molal AlCl3
(4) 0.1 molal NH4Cl

9) Elevation in boiling point was 0.52°C when 6 g of a compound X was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular mass of the compound X is: (Kb for water is 0.52 per 1000 g of water.)

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 600
(4) 180

10) For the reaction 2A + 3B → products, A is in excess and on changing the concentration of B from
0.1 M to 0.4 M, rate becomes doubled, Thus, rate law is :-

(1) R = k[A]2[B]2
(2) R = k[A] [B]
0 0
(3) R = k[A] [B]
(4) R = k[B]1/2

11) Assertion: Rate of reaction depends upon the concentration of the reactants.
Reason: The order of reaction can be negative with respect to a substance present in the reaction.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct

12) In a reaction 2A + 3B → 5C + 3D rate of appearance of D is 9 × 10–4 mol L–1sec–1. What will be

rate of disappearance of A (mol L–1sec–1) ?

(1) 3 × 10–4
(2) 6 × 10–4
(3) 9 × 10–4
(4) 2 × 10–4

13) The passage of electricity in the Daniel cell when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is from :

(1) Cu to Zn in the cell

(2) Cu to Zn outside the cell
(3) Zn to Cu outside the cell
(4) Zn to Cu in the cell

14) The specific conductance of a salt of 0.01 M concentration is 1.061 × 10–4 Scm–1. Molar
conductance (Scm2mol–1) of the same solution will be :

(1) 1.061 × 10–4

(2) 1.061
(3) 10.61
(4) 106.1

15) Which of the following condition is correct for operation of electrolytic cell ?

(1) ΔG = 0, E = 0
(2) ΔG < 0, E > 0
(3) ΔG > 0, E < 0
(4) ΔG > 0, E > 0

16) Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

(1) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(2) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(3) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
(4) C6H5CH2Br

17) product of reaction is :-

(1) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(2) CH3–CH2CH2COOH
(3) CH2=CH–CH2CH3

(4)

18) Consider the following reaction

Major product B is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

(1) Serine
(2) Alanine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Lysine

20) Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) CH3—CH2—CH=N—OH
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

21) Which can give iodoform test ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–OH

22)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In the given reaction :

[X] and [Y] will respectively be :

(1) C6H5COOH and CH3OH

(2) C6H5CH2OH and HCOOH
(3) only C6H5COOH
(4) only CH3OH

24) Order of acidic strength in the following carboxylic acids :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > III > IV > I
(3) III > II < IV > I
(4) I > IV > II > III

25) What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations?

I.

II.

III.

(1) II > I > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) III > I > III
(4) I > II > III

26)

Column-I Column-II

A. P. phenylethene

B. Q. 6-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexene

C. R. 1-ethylcyclohexa-1, 4-diene

D. S. phenylethyne

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(2) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q

27) Ozonolysis of 2,3-dimethyl but-1-ene followed by reduction with zinc and water gives:

(1) Methanal and hexanoic acid

(2) Ethanoic acid and butanone
(3) Methanal and 3-methylbutan-2-one
(4) Butanoic acid and 2,3-dimethyl butanoic acid

28) In the following sequence of reactions the compound A is,

A B C CH3CHO + HCHO

(1) Ethylene
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Propene
(4) 1-Butene

29) The correct statement regarding ethane conformation is.

Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is not possible, because ethane
(1) molecule contains both sigma (σ) bond and pi(π) bond between the carbon and carbon and
ethane has very high boiling point.
Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is not possible, because ethane
(2) molecule contains a pi(π) bond between the carbon and carbon and ethane has very low melting
point.
Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is not possible, because ethane
(3)
molecule contains both sigma (σ) bond and pi(π) bond between the carbon and carbon.
Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is possible because of cylindrical
(4)
symmetry of sigma (σ) bond between carbon-carbon atoms.

30) In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule, to give a
product 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is:

(1)

(2)

(3) (1) and (2)

(4)

31) The diagonal partner of element B is :

(1) Li
(2) Al
(3) Si
(4) Mg

32) The first ionisation potential of Na, Mg and Si are respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1. The
ionisation potential of Al will be closer to:

(1) 760 kJ mol–1

(2) 575 kJ mol–1
(3) 801 kJ mol–1
(4) 419 kJ mol–1

33) Assertion (A):- Shielding effect increases in a group from top to bottom.
Reason (R):- More the electrons in the penultimate shell, more is the shielding effect.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

34) What is not true about resonance ?

(1) The resonating structures are hypothetical

(2) The unpaired electrons in various resonating structures are same
(3) Hybrid structure is least energetic
(4) Hybrid structure is most energetic

35) N2 and O2 are converted to monopositive cations and respectively. Which is incorrect?

(1) In , the N—N bond is weakened

(2) In , the bond order increases
(3) In , the paramagnetism decreases
(4) becomes diamagnetic

36) Assertion (A):- Na2SO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is insoluble.

Reason (R):- Lattice energy of BaSO4 exceeds its hydration energy.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

37) Lattice energy of BeCO3(I), MgCO3(II) and CaCO3(III) is in order :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I > II > III
(3) I < III < II
(4) II < I < III

38) The oxidation state of iron in Na4[Fe(CN)]5(NOS) is :

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) zero

39) Find IUPAC name of the hydrate isomer of CrCl3 ⋅6H2O, which is having lowest electrical
conductivity.

(1) Hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(2) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III)chloridedihydrate
(3) Pentaaquachloridochromium(III) chloridemonohydrate
(4) None

40) Which of the given complex species is following E.A.N. Rule?

(1) [Ca(EDTA)]2-
3+
(2) [Cr(en)3]
(3) [CoBrCl(trien)]+
(4) [Ni(dmg)2]

41) IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is :

(1) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV)

(2) Dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV)
(3) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid
(4) Hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid.

42) Which of the following order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands?

– – 2– – –
(1) Cl < F < C2O4 < NO2 < CN
– 2– – – –
(2) NO2 < C2O4 < Cl < F < CN
2– – – – –
(3) C2O4 < F < Cl < NO2 < CN
– – – – 2–
(4) F < Cl < NO2 < CN < C2O4

43) The compound that cannot be formed by xenon is :

(1) XeO3
(2) XeF4
(3) XeCl4
(4) XeO2F2
44) Trisilyamine (SiH3)3N is :

(1) Trigonal pyramidal and acidic

(2) Trigonal pyramidal and basic
(3) Trigonal pyramidal and neutral
(4) Trigonal planar and weakly basic

45) All Zn(+II) compounds are white because :

(1) Zn2+ has a d10 configuration and the d-subshell is full

(2) Zn2+ shows d-d transition
(3) Zn2+ has no electron in the 4s-subshell
(4) Zn is not a transition element

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion (A) :- The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on marks
and fecal pellets.
Reason (R) :- Counting the actual number of tigers is impossible or very time-consuming.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

2) Assertion : In sigmoid growth curve, population finally stabilizes itself.

Reason : Finally, the death rate increases than the birth rate.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

3) When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive and
start spreading fast because the invaded land does not have its natural

(1) Competitors
(2) Predators
(3) Parasites
(4) Symbionts

4) Assertion :- Detritus food chain may be connected with grazing food chain at some levels.
Reason :- Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals and some of the organisms
are of Omnivorous nature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5) Assertion : Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem leads to the destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason : Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

6) Assertion (A) : Productivity, decomposition, energy flow and nutrient cycling are the four
important components of an ecosystem. Reason (R) : Secondary productivity is the rate of
assimilation of food energy by the consumers.

(1) A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is false.
(4) Both are incorrect.

7) The most direct threat to biodiversity is :-

(1) Increased levels of atmospheric CO2

(2) Depletion of ozone layer
(3) Over exploitation of selected species
(4) Habitat destruction

8) Identify species area relationship graph :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) Assertion : The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called vertebrochondral ribs.
Reason : They do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the seventh rib with the help of
hyaline cartilage.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

10) Which of the following is not correct with respect to synovial joints.

(1) Presence of fluid filled cavity between the articulating surfaces.

(2) The joint between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column is of this pattern.
(3) They allows considerable movement.
(4) Saddle joint is an example of synovial joint.

11) How many among the following are not the disorders of muscular system?
(i) Arthritis (ii) Tetany
(iii) Myasthenia gravis (iv) Gout

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) How many statements among the following is/are correct.

(i) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can increase the duration of inspiration.
(ii) Pons region of brain can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre and hence can
alter the respiratory rate.
(iii) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
(iv) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognize changes in CO2 and
H+ concentration.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

13) Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) pO2 is the major factor which affects the binding of CO2 with haemoglobin.
(2) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high as in the tissues, more binding of CO2 with Hb occur.
RBC contains a very high conc. of carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same in the
(3)
plasma.
(4) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

14) Which of the following event of cardiac cycle is responsible for increasing the flow of blood into
the ventricles by 30 percent.

(1) Joint diastole

(2) Atrial systole
(3) Atrial diastole
(4) Ventricular systole

15) Which ion plays an important role in clotting.

(1) Potassium
(2) Sodium
(3) Calcium
(4) None of the above

16) The origin of heart is

(1) Ectodermal
(2) Mesodermal
(3) Endodermal
(4) Ecto-mesodermal

17) Assertion : Pons interconnect different regions of brain.

Reason : It consists of fibre tracts.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

18) Assertion: The axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ ions at resting state.
Reason: At resting state the axonal membrane possess a positive charge on its outer surface and
negative charge on its inner surface.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

19) Statement I: Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates reabsorption of water and
electrolytes by the proximal tubules of kidney.
Statement II: Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

20) Which of the following is incorrectly matched with following description

Gland Hormones Function

(1) Pineal gland Melatonin Pigmentation of the skin

Responsible for
(2) Hypothalamus Oxytocin contraction of smooth
muscles

Parathyroid
(3) Parathyroid gland Hypocalcemic hormone
hormone

(4) Ovary Progesterone Support pregnancy

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Which of the following hormone acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates the secretion of water
and bicarbonates ions

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) Gastric inhibitory peptide

22) One of the following is not the feature of centriole.

(1) Form the basal body of Cilia & flagella.

(2) It consist of hub and spokes made of protein.
(3) Covered by plasma membrane.
(4) It has an organisation like the cart wheel.

23) In the membrane of erythrocyte ....A.... % of protein & ....B.... % of lipid is present.
(1) A = 40%, B = 62%
(2) A = 52%, B = 40%
(3) A = 40%, B = 52%
(4) A = 50%, B = 50%

24) Assertion : Lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrate, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid.
Reason : Lysosomes vesicles is very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes.

(1) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are not correct.
(3) Assertion is correct and the Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

25) Statement-I : Centriole begin to move towards opposite poles of the cell in anaphase.
Statement-II : Condensation of chromosomes is completed in metaphase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:-

(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct.

26) How many successive generations of mitosis must occur to produce 32 cells from a single cell?

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6

27) Study the four statements (A–D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them :
(A) Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.
(B) Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
(C) Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker.
(D) The word systematics is derived from the later word 'systema' which means systematic
arrangement of organisms.
The two correct statements are

(1) A and D
(2) A and B
(3) B and C
(4) C and D

28) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

(i) Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and genetic work is a member of this class.
(ii) They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or rarely unicellular, e.g., Penicillium.
(iii) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous.
(iv) The most notable disease caused by prions are covine spongiform on encephalopathy (BSE)
commonly caused mad low disease in cattle.

(1) Both (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (ii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

29) Match the type of protozoans given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and
choose the correct option.

Column – I Column – II
(Type of protozoans) (Examples)

(A) Amoeboid protozoans (I) Paramecium

(B) Ciliated protozoans (II) Plasmodium

(C) Flagellated protozoans (III) Entamoeba

(D) Sporozoans (IV) Sleeping sickness

(1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(2) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

30) Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

List-I List-II

Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or

(a) Spirogyra (i)
female gametophyte

(b) Adiantum (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte

Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called

(c) Funaria (iii)
prothallus

Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent

(d) Cycas (iv)
multicellular sporophyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)

31) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : The first stage of sporophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

32) Which of the following statements is true ?

Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperm the male and the female gametophytes do
(1)
not have independent free living existence.
(2) Seed bearing plants follow haplontic pattern
(3) Most algal genera are diplontic
(4) Most bryophytes do not have haplo-diplontic life cycle.

33) Which of the following is correct regarding the passage of urine

DCT → Collecting duct → Renal calyx → Renal papilla → Renal Pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(1)
→ Urethra
PCT → Collecting duct → Renal calyx → Renal Pelvis → Renal papilla → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(2)
→ Urethra
DCT → Collecting duct → Renal papilla → Renal calyx → Renal Pelvis → Urethra → Urinary
(3)
bladder → Ureter
DCT → Collecting duct → Renal papilla → Renal calyx → Renal Pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(4)
→ Urethra

34) Assertion : Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst for water.
Reason: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the Anterior lobe of pituitary gland.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

35) Microtubules are the constituents of :-

(1) Cilia, flagella and peroxisomes

(2) Spindle fibre, centrioles and cilia
(3) Centrioles, spindle fibre and chromatin
(4) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

36) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(A) Endomembrane system (a) Hydrolytic enzymes (i) RER

(B) Golgi appratus (b) Packaging of material (ii) Autophagy

 (C) Ribosomes (c) ER (iii) Lysosome formation

(D) Lysosome (d) Protein synthesis (iv) Lipid synthesis

(1) A-c-iv, B-b-iii, C-d-i, D-a-ii
(2) A-b-iv, B-c-iii, C-d-i, D-a-ii
(3) A-b-iv, B-c-iii, C-a-i, D-d-ii
(4) A-c-iv, B-b-iii, C-a-i, D-d-ii

37) Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell

division. Which is this stage?

(1) Prophase-I during meiosis

(2) Prophase-II during meiosis
(3) Prophase of mitosis
(4) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis

38) Name the stages of cell cycle at which one of the following events occurs and selects the correct
option for the following :-
(A) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
(B) Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
(C) Appearance of nucleolus.
(D) Disintegration of nuclear membrane.

(A)-Telophase, (B)-Metaphase,
(1)
(C)-Telophase, (D)-Prophase
(A)-Metaphase, (B)-Prophase,
(2)
(C)-Metaphase, (D)-Anaphase
(A)-Prophase, (B)-Telophase,
(3)
(C)-Metaphase, (D)-Anaphase
(A)-Metaphase, (B)-Anaphase,
(4)
(C)-Telophase, (D)-Prophase

39) Stem modified into leaf like structure and leaves are changed into spines in -

(1) Bougainvillea
(2) Australian acacia
(3) Opuntia
(4) All the above

40) The floral formula belongs to

(1) Pea
(2) Wheat
(3) Marigold
(4) Ladyfinger

41) Which diagram represent to palmately compound leaf?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Casparian strips occur in

(1) Epidermis of dicot root

(2) Endodermis of dicot stem
(3) Outermost cortex of dicot stem
(4) Endodermis of dicot root

43) Consider the following plant tissues :

(A) Axillary buds
(B) Fascicular vascular cambium
(C) Interfascicular cambium
(D) Cork cambium
(E) Intercalary meristem
Identify the lateral meristems among the above.

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
(4) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

44) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of -

(1) ATP and NADH + H+

(2) ATP only
(3) ATP and NADPH + H+
(4) ATP, ADP and NADH + H+

45) The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at

(1) 700 nm
(2) 660 nm
(3) 780 nm
(4) 680 nm

46) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Yellow to yellow
(A) (I) Chlorophyll a
orange

(B) Yellow green (II) Chlorophyll b

(C) Blue green (III) Xanthophyll

(D) Yellow (IV) Carotenoid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

47) Oxidative Decarboxylation in link reaction occur between–

(1) Citric acid and Acetyl CoA

(2) α-ketoglutaric acid and succinic acid
(3) Succinic acid and malic acid
(4) Pyruvic acid and Acetyl CoA

48) In mitochondrial ETS, cytochrome 'C' acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between :-
(1) Cytochrome C reductase complex and Cytochrome C oxidase complex
(2) NADH dehydrogenase complex and Succinic dehydrogenase complex
(3) Succinic dehydrogenase complex and Cytochrome C reductase complex
(4) Cytochrome C oxidase complex and ATP synthase

49) The step in which FADH2 is produced in :-

(1) Succinate → Fumaric acid

(2) Pyruvate → Acetyl-CoA
(3) α-ketoglutarate → Succinyl-CoA
(4) Malate → OAA

50) The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and also played a major role in its discovery :

(1) Phototropism
(2) Root initiation
(3) Gravitropism
(4) Apical Dominance

51) Which of the following growth regulators is an carotenoid derivative ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid

52) Which of the following is correct about parapodia?

(1) They are dorsal appendages which help in locomotion.

(2) They are locomotary structures in Hirudinaria.
(3) It is the most distinctive character of phylum annelida.
(4) They are present in aquatic annelids like Nereis.

53) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Mollusca.

(1) Body is covered by calcareous shell.

(2) Segmented body with distinct head.
(3) Gills are present in mantle cavity.
(4) The mouth contains radula.

54) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

A Saccoglossus (i) Mollusca

B Anopheles (ii) Hemichordata

 C Aplysia (iii) Echinodermata

D Ophiura (iv) Arthropoda

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

55) Statement-I : Skin of amphibians is dry without scales.

Statement-II : Tympanum represents ear in amphibians as well as reptiles.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

56) Which of the following structure is not associated with the members of class Aves?

(1) Hollow long bones

(2) Dry skin without glands
(3) Fully ossified endoskeleton
(4) Viviparous with direct development

57) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
Reason : Gap junction connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

58) Statement-I : The protective coloration of frog is called mimicry.

Statement-II : Frogs maintain ecological balance because these serve as an important link of food
chain and food web in the ecosystem.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

59) Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the given figure and select the correct option-
 (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Scutellum Coleorhiza Plumule Coleoptile
(2) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
(3) Shoot apex Coleoptile Epiblast Radicle
(4) Scutellum Endosperm Epiblast Coleorhiza
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Select the correct option :

(A) Rice (i) Papaver

Multi carpellary depends on temperature

(B) (ii)
syncarpous & light

loose viability after 30

(C) Pollen viability (iii)
min of release

(D) Generative cell (iv) Spindle shaped

(1) B-(i) & D-(iv) are wrongly matched
(2) A-(iii) & C-(ii) are incorrectly matched
(3) A-(iii) & D-(iv) are correctly matched
(4) A-(iii) & D-(iv) are not correctly matched

61) Identify the correct statements :-

(A) Pollination by water is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.
(B) Wind pollination is quite common in grasses.
(C) Self-incompatibility is a outbreeding device which prevents inbreeding depression.
(D) In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by a
mucilaginous covering.
(E) Cellular endosperm is the most common type of endosperm in angiosperm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, C, D, E only
(3) A, E only
(4) A, B, C only

62) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

63) Statement I: Chromosomal mutations can be caused by the addition or deletion of

chromosomes in a set.
Statement II: Mutations do not affect the phenotype of an organism.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.

64) Assertion: Genetic make up of sperm determines the sex of human child.
Reason: Males are homogametic in humans.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

65) The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & C.
Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

(2) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(3) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone
(4) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

66) Griffith carried out his experiments on mice using which pathogenic bacterium?

(1) Haemophilus influenzae

(2) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(4) Yersinia pestis

67) Match the following genetic experiments with their conclusions :-

Column-I Column-II

Demonstrated the phenomenon of

(A) Griffith’s experiment (1)
transformation

Hershey and Chase

(B) (2) Proved DNA is the genetic material
experiment

Meselson and Stahl Showed DNA replication is semi-

(C) (3)
experiment conservative

Proposed the double helix model of

(D) Watson and Crick (4)
DNA
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

68) Assertion = Primary treatment of waste water is mainly a physical process.

Reason = Primary treatment involves sedimentation and filtration processes.

(1) A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both are incorrect.

69) The correct sequence in the process of development of human embryo is :

(1) fertilization—zygote—cleavage—morula—blastula— gastrula

(2) fertilization—cleavage—morula—zygote—blastula— gastrula
(3) fertilization—zygote—blastula—morula—cleavage— gastrula
(4) cleavage—zygote—fertilization—morula—blastula— gastrula

70) Which of the following hormones is not a secretory product of human placenta?

(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin

(2) Prolactin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

71) The time for optimum chances of conception in a woman is ________ starting from the day of
menstruation.

(1) 1st day

(2) 4th day
(3) 14th day
(4) 26th day

72)

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R:
Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for
bringing a healthy baby.
Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the
new born baby.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

73) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right site of its implantation

into a woman. Then, select the option with correct matching.

Contraceptive device Site of implant

(1) LNG - 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implant Subcutaneous tissue

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Match the column-I & column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
 Column-I Column-II

1 Natural method a Saheli

2 Barrier method b Tubectomy

3 IUDs c Withdrawal

4 Oral contraceptives d Diaphragm

5 Surgical method e Progestasert

(1) d - 1, c - 2, e - 3, a - 4, b - 5
(2) c - 1, d - 2, a - 3, b - 4, a - 5
(3) e - 1, a - 2, b - 3, d - 4, c - 5
(4) c - 1, d - 2, e - 3, a - 4, b - 5

75) In the basic structure of an antibody, how many disulphide bonds are present between heavy and
light chains ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

76) Given below is a list of some components of innate immunity.

(a) Skin (b) Monocyte
(c) Tears from eyes (d) Saliva in mouth
(e) Interferons (f) Mucus coating
How many of them do not belong to physiological barrier ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

77) How many of the drugs in a box belong to the structure given below ?

Hashish, Marijuana,
Morphine, Charas
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

78) Interferon are used for treating :

(1) Ringworm
(2) Malaria
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Hepatitis C

79) Statement-I : Synapsids were the mammal like early reptiles which gave rise to mammals.
Statement-II : Sauropsids were the lizard like reptiles which gave rise to different dinosaurs,
modern reptiles and birds.

(1) Both statements are not correct.

(2) Both statements are correct.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

80) Gene pool is :

(1) Genotype of an individual of a population

(2) Different genes of all individuals of a species found in an area
(3) Pool of artificially synthesised genes
(4) Genes of a genus

81) Select the incorrect statements.

(1) Natural selection is a heritable variation and by reproduction leave greater number of progeny.
During stabilization of natural selection more individuals acquire value other than mean
(2)
character value
(3) By the time of 500 million years ago invertebrates were formed and were active
(4) Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs which do not dry in sun unlike those of amphibians

82)

Match the following enzymes with their functions :

(a) Restriction (i) Joins the

endonuclease DNA fragements

(b) Restriction (ii) Extends primers on

exonuclease genomic DNA template

(iii) Cuts DNA at

(c) DNA ligase
specific position

(d) Taq (iv) Removes nucleotides

polymerase from the ends of DNA
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

83) Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal
(b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect
movement of DNA.
(c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the distance it travels through it.
(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation.
Choose correct answer from the options given below

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

84) The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of

the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) ?

(1) Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers

(2) ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(3) ori-original restriction enzyme
(4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure

85) Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector

Construction of first
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii)
rDNA molecule

Agrobacterium
(c) (iii) DNA polymerase
tumefaciens

Salmonella
(d) (iv) Cry proteins
typhimurium
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Match List -I with List - II.

List-I List-II

a Protoplast fusion i Totipotency

b Plant tissue culture ii Pomato

c Meristem culture iii Somaclones

d Micropropagation iv Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a → iii, b → iv, c → ii, d → i
(2) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii
(3) a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii
(4) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i

87) The protien encoded by the gene cryIAc and cryIIAb, controls :

(1) Cotton bollworm

(2) Corn borer
(3) Cotton borer
(4) All the above

88)

Which of the following disaccharide has "1-4" glycosidic linkage ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Starch
(3) Lactose
(4) All the above

89)

Chitin is a :-
(1) Structural polysaccharide
(2) Nutritional polysaccharide
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Branched polysaccharide

90) Which of the following is most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere ?

(1) Collagen
(2) RuBisCO
(3) Pepcase
(4) Insulin
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 4 3 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 4 3 3 1 1 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 2 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 1 4 4 1 2 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 1 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) In electric field photoelectron will experience force and accelerate opposite to the field so
it's K.E. increase (i.e., stopping potential will increase), no change in photoelectric current,
and threshold wavelength.

2) According to kinetic interpretation of temperature

K.E. = kT

⇒ 10.2 × 1.6 × 10–19 = × (1.38 × 10–23)T

⇒ T = 7.9 × 104 K

3)

4)

Using, PV = nRT
Since volume is constant

∴ or T1 = T2 ×

or T1 = (T1 + 1)
T1 = (T1 + 1) 0.99
⇒ T1 = 250 K

5) C.O.P. =

5=
T1 = 312K or 39°C

6) [h] = [ML2T-1]
[L] = [ML2T-1]
[P] = [MLT-1]
[ ] = [ML2T-2]
(Here h is planck's constant, L is angular momentum, P is linear momentum and is moment
of force)

7) Given = (40.6 ± 0.2)°C and = (78.3 ± 0.3)°C

Rise in temperature = 78.3 – 40.6 = 37.7°C

rise in temperature = (37.7 ± 0.5)°C

8)
Output of NAND gate,
Output of NOT gate,
Output of OR gate, Y = Y1 + Y2 =

9)

= 8.75 V

10)

= 180 m
vx = ux

tan 60° =
vy = uy + gt
vy = 0 + 10 × 6 = 60 m/s

vx = = m/s
vx = ux = m/s

11)

= m/s

12)

13)
⇒ μ2 sinr = μ1 sin i = constant
1sin45 = sin i
i = 30°

14)

Imax = (3I + I)2 = 16 I

Imin = (3I – I)2 = 4 I

15)

Center to corner distance is and here field and here field

So, net electric field = E' = 2(3E) cos 45°
16) Force of attraction of wire on -q will provide required centripetal force

where,
E will be radially away from wire, so force on charge will be towards the wire

17)

ϕ = 4 – 3 – 5 = –4
ϕ = –4 Ncm2/C

18)

Component of tension forces is balancing the weight of block. More will be the angle more
should be the value of tension so that its vertical component can balance the weight of block.
So the answer will be (3).

19)

By theory.

20)
21)

VP = VEarth + VMoon

22)

23)

24)

case-1

case-2
M' = 2M

25)

Mutual inductance depends on

(i) Geometry
(ii) Medium
(iii) Orientation

26)

for first half :

∴ q should be positive
Radius in first half > radius in second half
| B1 | < | B2 |

27) m mass moving with speed collide with same mass m inelastically then
From momentum conservation,
m + 0 = 2m

(velocity of combined mass at mean position)

Now
and from

A=
and combined mass is moving towards - A initially at mean
Hence equation will be x = – A sin ωt

28) After t = T/4 = 1 sec, ball will colloide at C and velocity will interchange now ball A will
oscillate with angular amplitude 4°. Now time taken to move from mean position to 2° means

half of angular amplitude will be calculate by using θ = θ0 sin

2° = 4°sin ⇒ sin =

⇒ =

⇒t= = = sec
So, time taken by ball to reach at A position again is

t' = 1 sec + sec =

29)
Δx = 10 – 6 = 4m = nλ

λ=
for maximum value of λ
n = 1 (minimum)
λ = 4m

30) Speed of sound wave in air increases with increase in humidity. Due to presence of
moisture decreases the density of air.

31) The choke coil works as a resistance for A.C. current.

i.e
The inductive reactance is directly propotional to the inductance & the frequency of circuit.

32) In case of Resonance

ωr = = 2500 rad/s

i=
peak value = irms =

33) Speed of wave =

Refractive index =
Now refractive index =
⇒ εr = 9

34)

B= = 3 × 10–5 T

35) From graph (figure 1) voltage at t = 1.0 s , V =2.5V

At t=2.5s, V= 5V
At t=3.5s, V=7.5V

Current,

36) For
1. conductors a is (+)ve
2. semiconductors a is (-)ve

37) At steady state, capacitor behaves as an open circuit and current flows in circuit as shown
in the figure below.

Current,
Potential difference across capacitor is
V = 6i = 1 × 6 = 6V
Charge stored in capacitor,

38) We have
Let V be the final voltage.
Then,
As
39) V = Vcm – Rω = 4 – 2 (1) = 2 m/s

40)

Power, P=τ×ω

so, = 2 N-m

41) For elastic oblique collision of same mass

θ1 + θ2 = 90º
65° + θ2 = 90°
θ2 = 90º – 65°
θ2 = 25°

42)

Force along will be;

displacement covered,

=
Work done,

43)
ω will be same for three particles
T1 – T2 = mω2 L (i)
T2 – T3 = mω2 (3L) (ii)
2
T3 = mω (6L) (iii)
T3 = 6mω L, T2 = 9mω2 L, T1 = 10mω2 L T3 : T2 : T1 = 6 : 9 : 10
2

44) When a drop of liquid split into a large number of drops, the surface area of the liquid
increases. And surface energy is increased by absorbing energy.

45) Air flows from higher to lower pressure and smaller balloon has higher pressure as excess

pressure ∝ .
CHEMISTRY

46)

WNi = 1 × × 58.7 = 14.675 g

47) I. ΔP·Δx ≥ (By definition)

II. ⇒ ΔE = V·ΔP

⇒ ΔP·Δx = ΔE·Δt

III.

48) As T ↑ ⇒ Keq ↓ ⇒ ΔH < 0

49) (1) pOH = pKb + log

(2) pOH = pKb + log

(3) pOH = pKb + log

50) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
76.5 = 276.5 – (300) ΔS
300 ΔS = 200

ΔS =

Tequilibrium = = 414.75
51) N2H4 + OH– → N2 + H2O + e–

52)

53) For NH4Cl, i = 2 which is lowest among the given solute. Hence depression in freezing
point will be least for it.

54)

55) 2A + 3B → product A is in excess then Rate law

Rate = k[B]n given Rate1 = k[0.1]n
given Rate2 = 2Rate1 = k[0.4]n

From (1) and (2) n =

then Rate law

56)

Rate ∝ [Concentration]n
Where n is the order of reaction
(Expect for zero order reaction)

57)

Given :

= = 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

58)

The passage of electricity in the Daniel cell when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is
from Cu to Zn outside the cell

59)
= 10.61 Scm2mol–1
60)

For operation of electrolytic cell ; ΔG > 0 ; E < 0 because electrolytic cell requires an external
source of energy to drive a non-spontaneous reaction.

61) SN1 ∝ stability of intermediate carbocation.

(3) maximum stable intermediate.

62)

63)

64) Lysine

65)
66)

If the carbonyl compound present, then it gives iodoform test.

67)

68)
This is a Cannizzaro reaction is which more reactive molecule is oxidised and less reactive
molecule is reduced.

69)

Acidic strength increase due to increase in stability of carboxylate ion.

Stability of carboxylate ion ∝ Acidic strength of carboxylic acid.
Acidic strength ∝ electron withdrawing group.

70) Stability of the given cations can be understood by the following structures.
Hence, the stability of carbocation decreases
II > I > III

72)

73) CH3—CH=CH2 CH3—CH(Br)—CH3 CH3—CH=CH2

CH3CHO + HCHO

74) Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane molecule is possible because of cylindrical
symmetry of sigma (σ) bond between carbon-carbon atoms as ethane does not have π-bond.

75)

76)
77) Al has I.P. lower than Mg and higher than Na as it has configuration 3s23p1.

79)

Fact based

80)

M.O. configuration of N2 :

M.O. configuration of :

M.O. configuration of O2 :

M.O. configuration of :

82) Lattice energy decreases with increase in size of the ions. The size of the cations Be2+ <
Mg2+ < Ca2+

83) Na+[Fe+2(CN)5(NOS)]4–

84) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl ⋅2H2O; hydrate isomer of the complex has lowest electrical conductivity,
because it gives only two ions on ionisation in aqueous medium.

85) [Ca(EDTA)]2- 20 – 2 + (6 × 2) = 30
[Cr(en)3]3+ 24 – 3 + (2 × 2 × 3) = 33
[CoBrCl(trien)]+ 27 – 3 + 2 + 2 + (4 × 2) = 36
[Ni(dmg)2] 28 – 2 + (4 × 2) = 34

86) H2[PtCl6] is an acid, not salt hence its name : Hexachlorooplatinic (IV) acid.

87) Correct order in spectrochemical series of ligands is :

Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–
As CN– ligand is involved in synergic bonding so CN– is a strong field ligand.
 88) The compound that cannot be formed by xenon is XeCl4 because of steric crowding of Cl
atoms.

89) Trisilyamine N(SiH3)3 is Trigonal planar and weakly basic as lone pair of nitrogen is
involved in back bonding.

90) All Zn2+ compounds are white because Zn2+ has d10 configuration and the d-subshell is full.

BIOLOGY

96) Functional components of ecosystem and energy transfer across trophic levels are two
different aspects.

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 225

100) NCERT-XI Pg. # 227

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 227

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 189,190

104) NCERT XI Page #199

105) NCERT XI Page # 196

106) NCERT XI Page # 203

107) NCERT XI Page # 236

108) NCERT XI Page # (232

109) NCERT XI Page # 242

110) NCERT XI Page # 240, 242, 243, 246

111) NCERT XI Page # 247

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 99, 100

113) NCERT Page no. 131

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122, 123

116)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

1 → 2 → 4 → 8 → 16 → 32

119)

3. A- Ill, B -1, C - IV, D - II

Explanation:
Column - I (Type of protozoans) I Column - II (Examples):
• (A) Amoeboid protozoans - (111) Amoeba
• These protozoans move and capture food using pseudopodia. Example: Amoeba.
• (B) Ciliated protozoans - (I) Paramecium
• These protozoans have cilia for locomotion and feeding. Example: Paramecium.
• (C) Flagellated protozoans - (IV) Trypanosoma
• These protozoans use flagella for movement. Example: Trypanosoma (causes sleeping
sickness).
• (D) Sporozoans - (II) Plasmodium
• These are non-motile protozoans and are parasitic.· Example: Plasmodium (causes malaria).

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 206-207

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

125)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95-99

127)

NCERT-XI Pg#127

128)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123-124

142) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 43

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44,45

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48

146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 49

147) OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

148) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80,84

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 19

150)

Generative cell is spindle shaped cell.

Pasavee has multicarpellary syncarpous condition.
In Rice, pollen grains remain viable only 30 minutes.

151) Among the abiotic agent, wind is most common.

Nuclear endosperm is most common in angiosperms.

152) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 54

 153) NCERT XII, Page # 72

154)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71

155)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83

156)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

157) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

165) NCERT Page 151

166) NCERT Page 150, 151

167) NCERT Page no 158

168)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 135

169) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 93

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 120

171)

NCERT XII, Page # 120

172)

The correct answer is Option 2: a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii.

Explanation:

A. (a) Restriction endonuclease → (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position:

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences called restriction sites.
 A. (b) Restriction exonuclease → (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA:

Restriction exonucleases act by cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the ends of a DNA strand.

A. (c) DNA ligase → (i) Joins the DNA fragments:

DNA ligase is responsible for joining DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.

A. (d) Taq polymerase (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template:

Taq polymerase is a thermostable enzyme used in PCR to synthesize DNA by extending primers.

173) (a): Incorrect because DNA is negatively charged and moves towards the positive
terminal (anode), not the anode terminal as stated.
(b ): Incorrect because the gel concentration does affect the movement of DNA. A higher
concentration of the gel impedes the movement of larger DNA fragments, while smaller ones
travel faster.
(d): Incorrect because pure DNA can't be directly visualized by UV light; it requires a DNA
stain like ethidium bromide to be visible under UV light.

175)

The correct answer is Option 3: (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-i, (d)-ii.

Explanation:

A. Bacillus thuringiensis (iv) Cry proteins:

A. Bacillus thuringiensis produces Cry proteins (Bt toxins), which are used in genetically
modified crops to provide resistance against insect pests.

B. Thermus aquaticus (iii) DNA polymerase:

A. Thermus aquaticus is a bacterium that thrives in high temperatures and produces Taq DNA
polymerase, which is widely used in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

C. Agrobacterium tumefaciens (i) Cloning vector:

A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains the Ti plasmid, which is used as a cloning vector for
transferring genes into plants.

D. Salmonella typhimurium → (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule:

A. Salmonella typhimurium was used in the construction of the first recombinant DNA
molecule by Paul Berg and his team.

177)

The proteins encoded by the genes Cry1Ac and Cry1Ab control Cotton bollworm.
These genes are derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) and are commonly
used in genetically modified (GM) cotton plants. The proteins produced by these genes are
toxic to the cotton bollworm larvae, disrupting their digestive system and leading to their
death.
180) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 148