1.

The 3 elements required for the combustion of a flammable gas-air mixture are
…………….

a. Oxygen

b. Ignition Source and Fuel.

c. confinement

d. a&b correct

2. An enclosure is not required for

a. the combustion of gas-air mixture to occur

b. the combustion of dust-air mixture to occur

c. the combustion of flammable mixture to occur

d. the combustion of hydrogen mixture to occur

3. Ignition Temperature is

a. the temperature at which a flammable gas-air mixture will ignite external ignition
source

b. the temperature at which a flammable gas-air mixture will ignite spontaneously

without an external ignition source

c. the temperature at which a flammable gas-air mixture

d. the temperature at which a flammable gas-air mixture will ignite without an

external ignition source

4. Relative Density of atmospheric air

a. 0.07

b. 0.1

c. 1

d. 1.56
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5. Hydrogen gas density

a. 0.07

b. 0.1

c. 1

d. 1.56

6. Propane gas density

a. 0.07

b. 0.1

c. 1

d. 1.56

7. Group I …

a. mining industry

b. surface industries with gas hazards

c. surface industries with dust hazards

8. Group ii…

a. mining industry

b. surface industries with gas hazards

c. surface industries with dust hazards

9. Group iii…

a. mining industry

b. surface industries with gas hazards

c. surface industries with dust hazards

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10. Propane is the representative gas

a. IIA

b. IIB

c. IIC

11. Ethylene is the representative gas

a. IIA

b. IIB

c. IIC

12. Hydrogen is the representative gas

a. IIA

b. IIB

c. IIC

13. Acetylene is the representative gas

a. IIA

b. IIB

c. IIC

14. Group IIC gases…

a. are easy to ignite with least amount of energy

b. are easy to ignite with most amount of energy

c. are not easy to ignite with least amount of energy

d. are not easy to ignite with least amount of energy

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15. Equipment marked II may be used…

a. in ALL gases

b. IIA gases

c. IIB and IIA gases

d. in all gases

16. Equipment marked IIA can only be used

a. in ALL gases

b. IIA gases

c. IIB and IIA gases

d. in all gases

17. IIB can be used in

a. in ALL gases

b. IIA gases

c. IIB and IIA gases

d. in all gases

18. IIC can be used

a. in ALL gases

b. IIA gases

c. IIB and IIA gases

d. in all gases

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19. Generally, ignition temperature of dusts are above the ignition temperature of most
of the gases

a. below the ignition temperature of most of the gases

b. above the ignition temperature of most of the gases

c. Same the ignition temperature of most of the gases

d.none of above

20. Group III is

a. mining industry

b. surface industries with gas hazards

c. surface industries with dust hazards

21. Group IIIA

a. Combustible fibres and flying (size greater than 500 μm).

b. Non-conductive dusts (having electrical resistivity greater than 1000 Ωm).

c. Conductive dusts (having electrical resistivity lesser than or equal to 1000 Ωm).
22. Group IIIB

a. Combustible fibres and flying (size greater than 500 μm).

b. Non-conductive dusts (having electrical resistivity greater than 1000 Ωm).

c. Conductive dusts (having electrical resistivity lesser than or equal to 1000 Ωm).
23. Group IIIC

a. Combustible fibres and flying (size greater than 500 μm).

b. Non-conductive dusts (having electrical resistivity greater than 1000 Ωm).

c. Conductive dusts (having electrical resistivity lesser than or equal to 1000 Ωm).

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24. Equipment marked IIIA

a. can only be used in IIIA dusts

b. can be used in IIIB and IIIA dusts groups

c. can be used in all dust groups

25. Equipment marked IIIB

a. can only be used in IIIA dusts

b. can be used in IIIB and IIIA dusts groups

c. can be used in all dust groups

26. Equipment marked IIIC

a. can only be used in IIIA dusts

b. can be used in IIIB and IIIA dusts groups

c. can be used in all dust groups

27. ATEX equipment group II is common for explosive atmospheres with

a. Gas

b. Dust

c. Gas and Dust

d. non of above

28. There are temperature classes (T-class) for explosion protected equipment

a. T1 to T7

b. T1 to T4

c. T1 to T5

d. T1 to T6

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29. T4 means a max surface temperature

a. 300 deg C

b. 200 deg C

c. 135 deg C

d. 450 deg C

30. The T-class is based on…

a. the maximum temperature of any part of the equipment which may be in contact
with an explosive gas when operated within its designed rating and minimum
ambient.

b. the minimum temperature of any part of the equipment which may be in contact
with an explosive gas when operated within its designed rating and maximum
ambient.

c. the maximum temperature of any part of the equipment which may be in contact
with an explosive gas when operated within its designed rating and maximum
ambient.

d. the minimum temperature of any part of the equipment which may be in contact
with an explosive gas when operated within its designed rating and minimum
ambient.

31. The T-class marking on the equipment label indicates that the relevant ignition
surfaces will not exceed the T-class temperature during normal or specified fault
conditions.

a. that the relevant ignition surfaces will exceed the T-class temperature during
normal or specified fault conditions.

b. that the relevant ignition surfaces will not exceed the T-class temperature during
normal or specified fault conditions.

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 c. that the relevant ignition surfaces will be same the T-class temperature during
normal or specified fault conditions.

d. none of above

32. The property of a flammable gas that must be considered to determine the
appropriate T-class of the equipment is the. …

a. Flash point

b. ignition temperature of the gas

c. hot surface

d. upper flammalble limit

33. Ex” equipment are designed operate in a normal design ambient temperature
range is

a. -10 to +40OC.

b. -20OC to +35oC.

c. -20OC to +40OC.

d. -20OC to +50oC.

34. a flammable gas-air mixture is present continuously or for long periods of

frequently

a. Zone 0

b. Zone 1

c. Zone 2

35. a flammable gas-air mixture is likely to occur in normal operation occasionally

a. Zone 0

b. Zone 1
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 c. Zone 2

36. a flammable gas-air mixture is unlikely to occur in normal operation, but if it does
occur, is infrequent and will persist for a short duration only.

a. Zone 0

b. Zone 1

c. Zone 2

37. dust cloud in air is continuously present or for long periods

a. Zone 20

b. Zone 21

c. Zone 22

38. dust cloud in air is likely to occur in normal operations Occasionally

a. Zone 20

b. Zone 21

c. Zone 22

39. dust cloud in air is not likely to occur in normal operation. If it does occur persists
for a shorter period only.

a. Zone 20

b. Zone 21

c. Zone 22

40. When combustible dusts ignite, there are often two explosions known…

a. as first and second

b. as secondary
c. as primary
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 d. B C correct
41. Secondary dust explosion is

a. often least destructive than the primary one

b. often more destructive than the primary one

c.is not destructive

d. none of above

42. Ignition temperature of dust layer is

a. the highest temperature at which ignition occurs in a dust layer of specified
thickness on a hot surface.
b. the lowest temperature at which ignition occurs in a dust layer of specified
thickness on a hot surface.
c. the most temperature at which ignition occurs in a dust layer of specified
thickness on a hot surface.
d. the unlike temperature at which ignition occurs in a dust layer of specified
thickness n a hot surface.
43. Ingress Protection code (IP code):
a. the numbers before the letters IP represent ability of an enclosure to prevent
ingress of solid particles (first digit) and water (second digit).
b. the numbers after the letters IP represent ability of an enclosure to prevent
ingress of solid particles (first digit) and water (second digit).
c. the numbers after the letters IP represent ability of an enclosure to prevent
ingress of water (first digit) and solid particles (second digit).
d. the numbers befor the letters IP represent ability of an enclosure to prevent
ingress of water (first digit) and solid particles (second digit).
44. ATEX Equipment Directive 94/9/EC (ATEX 95) is replaced by…..
a. ATEX Directive 2014/34/EU with effect from 20 April 2016.
b. ATEX Directive 2015/35/EU with effect from 20 May 2011.
c. ATEX Directive 2015/35/EU with effect from 20 May 2016.
d. ATEX Directive 2014/34/EU with effect from 20 April 2016.
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 45. ATEX Workplace Directive (ATEX 137) is in effect from

a. 1st July 2006, within Europe

b. 31st July 2006, within Europe

c. 1st June 2006, within Europe

d. 31st June 2006, within Europe

46. ATEX Directives are…...

a. developed to improve the trade between European Nations by removing
technical barriers to trade
b. developed to improve the trade between European Nations by Rule technical
barriers to trade
c. establish the rule improve the trade between European Nations by removing
technical barriers to trade
47. In the UK, ATEX 137 is put into effect through “Dangerous Substances and
Explosive Atmosphere Regulations (DSEAR).
a. Aim is to protect employees and other people who may be put at risk, such as
visitors to the workplace and members of the public.
b. developed to improve the trade between European Nations by removing
technical barriers to trade
c. Aim is to protect employer and other people who may be put at risk, such as
visitors to the workplace and members of the public.
d. establish the rule improve the trade between European Nations by removing
technical barriers to trade
48. Areas where explosive atmosphere may occur shall be marked with a warning
sign; “Ex” inscribed triangle with yellow background and black border

a. “You are entering into an area where explosive atmosphere may be present”
b. “You are entering into an area where dust atmosphere may be present”
c. “You are entering into an area where gasses atmosphere may be present”

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49. DSEAR requires…

a. that training should be provided to employees working with dangerous

substances to avoid risk to themselves and to others in the vicinity.

b. that training should be provided to employees working with dangerous

atmosphere to avoid risk to themselves and to others in the vicinity.

c. that training should be provided to employees working with dangerous

substances to avoid risk to explotion.

d. that training should be provided to employees working with dangerous

atmosphere to avoid risk to explotion..

50. Preventive measures to reduce the risk of explosion of flammable materials are
based on 3 principles and are applied in the following order and recognised by
DSEAR in the UK:
a. Substitution, Control, Mitigation
b. elimination, Control, Substitution
c. engineering, elimination, Substitution
51. IEC/ISO 80079 – 36 & 37 requires that it is essential to conduct comprehensive
ignition hazard assessment (IHA) on complete assembly of…………………..
a. of non – electrical (mechanical) “IPX” equipment.
b. electrical (mechanical) “Ex” equipment.
c. of non – electrical (mechanical) “Ex” equipment.
d. electrical (mechanical) “IPX” equipment.
52. IHA enables assigning…….
a. appropriate EPL (Equipment Protection Liquid) for the “Ex” equipment
b. appropriate EPL (Equipment Protection Level) for the “Ex” equipment
c. appropriate EPL (Engineering Protection Level) for the “Ex” equipment
d. appropriate EPL (Engineering Protection Liquid) for the “Ex” equipment

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53. three levels of protection assigned to “Ex” equipment per IEC standards.

a. Category 1,2,3

b. EPL a, b & c

c. IPX a, b & c

54. Normal operation

a. EPL Gc / Dc (for Zone 2)

b. EPL Gb / Db (for Zone 1)

c. EPL Ga / Da. (for Zone 0)

55. Normal operation & expected malfunctions

a. EPL Gc / Dc (for Zone 2)

b. EPL Gb / Db (for Zone 1)

c. EPL Ga / Da. (for Zone 0)

56. Normal operation, expected & rare malfunctions

a. EPL Gc / Dc (for Zone 2)

b. EPL Gb / Db (for Zone 1)

c. EPL Ga / Da. (for Zone 0)

57. Normal operation, expected & rare malfunctions

a. EPL Gc / Dc (for Zone 2)

b. EPL Gb / Db (for Zone 1)

c. EPL Ga / Da. (for Zone 0)

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58. ATEX 95 (or recent 2014/34/EU) directive specifies

a. only Three equipment groups for use in explosive atmospheres.

b. only two equipment groups for use in explosive atmospheres.

c. only Three equipment groups for use in explosive Dust.

d. only two equipment groups for use in explosive Gasses.

59. Group III equipment are common for

a. dust

b. gas

c. A B correct

d. none of above

60. Category 1

a. equipment provides very high level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 0, 1, 2 (G) and/or 20, 21, 22 (D).

b. Category 2 equipment provides high level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 1, 2 (G) and/or 21, 22 (D).

c. equipment provides normal level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 2 (G) and/or 22 (D).

61. Category 2

a. equipment provides very high level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 0, 1, 2 (G) and/or 20, 21, 22 (D).

b. Category 2 equipment provides high level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 1, 2 (G) and/or 21, 22 (D).

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 c. equipment provides normal level of protection remains energised and
functioning in zones 2 (G) and/or 22 (D).

62. Category 3

a. equipment provides very high level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 0, 1, 2 (G) and/or 20, 21, 22 (D).

b. Category 2 equipment provides high level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 1, 2 (G) and/or 21, 22 (D).

c. equipment provides normal level of protection remains energised and

functioning in zones 2 (G) and/or 22 (D).

63. All applicable type of ignition sources

a. will be taken into JSA when ignition hazard assessment is conducted.

b. will be taken into consideration when ignition hazard assessment is conducted.

c. will be taken into JSA when ignition hazard assessment is present.

d. will be taken into consideration when ignition hazard assessment is present.

64. Where the surface temperature depends on the condition of process temperature
(hot liquid), hence the marking will be specified as

a. EX

b. TX

c. IPX

d. IEC

65. Mechanically generated sparks due to thermite reaction are prevented by…

a. prohibited the use of light metals in construction of “Ex” equipment.

b. restricting the use of heavy metals in construction of “Ex” equipment.

c. prohibited the use of mild metals in construction of “Ex” equipment.

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 d. restricting the use of light metals in construction of “Ex” equipment.

66. Cat 1 (zone 0)

a. equipment construction has a limitation for using heavy metals to a value of
less than 10% in total.
b. equipment construction has a limitation for using light metals to a value of less
than 15 % in total.
c. equipment construction has a limitation for using heavy metals to a value of
less than 15 % in total.
d. equipment construction has a limitation for using light metals to a value of less
than 10% in total.
67. Cat 2 (zone 1).
a. equipment construction not to exceed 7.5% of Titanium by mass
b. equipment construction not to exceed 7.5% of magnesium by mass
c. equipment construction not to exceed 5% of magnesium by mass
d. equipment construction not to exceed 5% of Titanium by mass
68. coupling guards, motor fan cowls shall be made

a. from conductive light metal or plastic with less than 7.5% magnesium by mass.
b. from conductive metal or plastic with less than 7.5% magnesium by mass.
c. from conductive metal or plastic with less than 9.5% magnesium by mass.
d. from conductive light metal or plastic with less than 9.5% magnesium by
mass.
69. Cat 3 (zone 2) equipment ……..

a. equipment construction not to exceed 7.5% of Titanium by mass

b. equipment construction not to exceed 7.5% of magnesium by mass
c. equipment construction not to exceed 5% of magnesium by mass
d. has no special requirements.

70. Personal items, such as battery-operated wrist…..

a. not permitted.

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 b. watches shall be permitted in explosive hazardous areas if they are certified or
assessed.

c. watches shall assessed by PIC on duty

d. watches shall be permitted in explosive hazardous.

71. No individual (rig manager / plant manager) can permit use of personal items or
portable equipment which are not certified for use in hazardous areas.

a. true

b. flase

72. Ignition Prevention Level (IPL) ….

a. Ignition Protection Type are considered in EN standards / ISO to minimize the
likelihood of an ignition source becomes effective.
b. Ignition Protection Type are prevented in EN standards / ISO to minimize the
likelihood of an ignition source becomes effective.
c. Ignition Protection Type are considered in EN standards / ISO to minimize the
potential of an ignition source becomes effective.
d. Ignition Protection Type are prevented in EN standards / ISO to minimize the
potential of an ignition source becomes effective.
73. Non – Electrical equipment for hazardous areas were covered in.
a. EN 13463 series

b.BS EN 13463 series

c. ATEX 137

d. ATEX 95

74. Recently in the year 2016, ISO/IEC released two standards under.
a. BS EN 13463 series

b. 80079 – 36 & 37

c. ATEX 137

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 d. ATEX 95

75. Where the maximum surface temperature depends not on the equipment itself, but
mainly on operating conditions, the equipment shall be marked with….

a. IPX

b. EX

c. TX

d. IEC

76. Special Condition(s) for safe installation and use of “Ex” equipment in hazardous
areas marked with a suffix letter “…” as part of certification number and will be
marked on the nameplate of the equipment and also verify from O&M manual.
a. IPX
b. EX
c. TX

d. X

77. Bearing suitability for an equipment depends on its

a. minimum Speed and Minimum & Maximum Load (horizontal & Vertical).

b. Maximum Speed and Minimum & Maximum Load horizontal & Vertical).).

c. minimum Speed and Minimum & Maximum Load (Axial & Vertical).

d. Maximum Speed and Minimum & Maximum Load (Axial & Vertical).

78. Bearings are of 3 types as per ISO & recognised in ATEX; they are :

a. Sliding Plane Motion

b. Sliding Rotary Motion

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 c. Rolling Element

d, all of above.

e. none of above

79. The service life of a plane bearing is

a. possible to calculate by theoretical method

b. possible to calculate by formula method

c. not possible to calculate by theoretical method

d. not possible to calculate by formula method

80. Rolling Element Bearings, particularly, angular contact bearings are…

a.often used as rolling pair to cater heavy axial and radial loads.

b.often used as rolling pair to cater heavy axial and perpendicular loads.

c.often used as matching pair to cater heavy axial and radial loads.

d.often used as matching pair to cater heavy axial and radial loads.

81. Lubrication monitoring system shall be

a. continuous.

b. intermittent.

c. continuous or intermittent

d. continuous or intermittent by appropriate inspection.

82. Auto ignition temperature of a lubricant or coolant shall have

a. auto ignition temperature 70 above the maximum surface temperature of the

equipment.

b. auto ignition temperature 70K above the minimum surface temperature of the
equipment.

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 c. auto ignition temperature 50K above the minimum surface temperature of the
equipment.

d. auto ignition temperature 50K above the maximum surface temperature of the
equipment.

83. Seals with replenishable lubricants:

a. an effective monitoring system shall be used to check the presence of
lubricant, shall be continuous
b. an effective monitoring system shall be used to check the availalabilty of
lubricant, shall be continuous
c. an effective monitoring system shall be used to check the quality of lubricant,
shall be continuous
d. an effective monitoring system shall be used to check the presence of
lubricant, shall be continuous
84. Where belt drives are used the maximum permissible pulley misalignment is….
a. Less than 0.5 mm per 100 mm of pulley separation distances.
b. Less than 0.5 mm per 100 mm of pulley separation distances.
c. Less than 0.5 mm per 100 mm of pulley separation distances.
d. Less than 0.5 mm per 100 mm of pulley separation distances.
85. For V-belts / Vee-belts “ATEX certification is necessary”.
a. true
b. false
86. Installation & commissioning of “Ex” equipment requires. ……

a. basic understanding of various “protection types” and basic requirements for

working in hazardous areas

b. basic understanding of various “equipment protection system” and basic

requirements for working in hazardous areas

c. basic understanding of various “protection types” and type requirements for

working in hazardous areas

d. none of above
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87. When running in test is carried out on Cat 1 & Cat 2 equipment…

a. NO dust atmosphere should exist around the equipment.

b. NO gas atmosphere should exist around the equipment.

c. NO gas or dust atmosphere should exist around the equipment.

d. NO flammable atmosphere should exist around the equipment.

88. Where ATEX or IEC certificate is not traceable for an “Ex” equipment…

a. equipment cannot used

b. impat and drop test should be carried out and documented.

c. a detailed risk test & certification has to be carried out and documented.

d. a detailed risk assessment has to be carried out and documented.

89. When direction of rotation is verified…..

a. , ensure that coupling is connected to the drive.

b. , ensure that coupling is not connected to the drive.

c. , ensure that coupling is align

d. , pump ready to use

90. If a newly replaced pump is not achieving desired performance…..

a. , replace the pump

b. , a detailed risk assessment has to be carried out and documented.

c. , the direction of rotation of the motor and pump may be wrong.

d. , ensure that coupling is not connected to the drive.

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91. Maintenance activities involving flogging (knocking) or cleaning the metallic
surfaces in explosive atmospheres shall be….

a. not carried out (prohibited)

b. carried out by non flammable equipment and subtances

c. carried out using PPE and PTW should be approved by authorized person

d. carried out by non-sparking tools, made from metals like brass.

92. Vibration frequency of 2 times running speed…...

a. is an indication of bearing out of life time

b. is an indication of lack of lubrication

c. is an indication of misalignment

d. is an indication of crack on bearing

93. Running in test of Cat 1 & Cat 2…

a. equipment shall be conducted where no flammable atmosphere is present.

b. equipment shall be conducted where no flammable atmosphere is present.

c. equipment shall be conducted where no flammable atmosphere is present.

d. equipment shall be conducted where no flammable atmosphere is present.

94. Spare gaskets shall be stored……

a. flat in a humidity controlled room.

b. separated by size type, standard and rating

c. both a and b correct.

d. non of the above

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95. All bolts used in assembly of any mechanical equipment, pipes, flanges shall be of
correct size & type according to….

a. IEC
b. ATEX
c. EPL
d. Piping standrad
96. Where piping standards are not available or traceable

a. , refer to construction drawings

b. , risk assessment should be carried out and documented

c. , consult technical authority

d. , all of are above correct

97. Flange bolts are to be tightened in….

a. diametrical sequence

b. clock wise direction

c. spherical sequence

d. 180O squence

98. While breaking a flanged joint, enough care shall be taken and ensure:

a. Process line is depressurized and locked off.

b. Loosen the farthest bolt away from body.

c. all of above.
d. none of above
99. Prior to commissioning of any “Ex” equipment………...

a. verify manufacturer’s technical documentation

b. trained personnel is must

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 c. review comminsioning boundary

d. verify manufacturer’s technical documentation

100. Flanged ends of pipelines should…

a. be fitted with temporary blind and fully tightened to recommended settings

with a correct gasket, after removal of pump.

b. be fitted with temporary blind and fully tightened to recommended settings

with a correct temporary gasket, after removal of pump.

c. be fitted with full rated blank (blind) faces and fully tightened to
recommended settings with a correct gasket, after removal of pump.

d. none of above

101. Before fitting blank faces and gasket, the surfaces shall be….

a. cleaned with approved chemical substance.

b. cleaned with light metal brush.

c. cleaned with non-sparking metal brush.

d. all of above.

102. During overhauling…

a. use abrasive tool / file to clear any pitting or bumps on shaft surface.
b. use approved chemical substance to clear any pitting or bumps on shaft
surface.
c. do not use non-sparking metal brush to clear any pitting or bumps on shaft
surface.
d. do not use any abrasive tool / file to clear any pitting or bumps on shaft
surface.

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103. “Ex” equipment for use in potentially explosive atmospheres should be inspected
and maintained in accordance with….

a. IEC60079-17 standard

b. atex95 standard

c. atex137 standard

d. EN13463 standard

104. For each type of “Ex” equipment, three grades of inspection are specified.

a. Visual

b. close

c. detailed

d. invasive.

e. all of above

105. Visual inspection is an inspection which identifies,

a. without the use of tools or access equipment, those defects apparent to the
eye. (Non-invasive)

b. , including aspects covered by visual inspection, which identifies defects

only apparent using access equipment (ladder) and tools. (Non-invasive)

c. including aspects covered by close inspection, which identifies those defects

which will only be apparent by opening the enclosure using, where necessary,
tools and test equipment. (Invasive). Power must be isolated under PTW for
non-IS apparatus.

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106. Close inspection is an inspection

a. without the use of tools or access equipment, those defects apparent to the
eye. (Non-invasive)

b. , including aspects covered by visual inspection, which identifies defects

only apparent using access equipment (ladder) and tools. (Non-invasive)

c. including aspects covered by close inspection, which identifies those defects

which will only be apparent by opening the enclosure using, where necessary,
tools and test equipment. (Invasive). Power must be isolated under PTW for
non-IS apparatus.

107. Detailed inspection is an inspection,

a. without the use of tools or access equipment, those defects apparent to the
eye. (Non-invasive)

b. , including aspects covered by visual inspection, which identifies defects

only apparent using access equipment (ladder) and tools. (Non-invasive)

c. including aspects covered by close inspection, which identifies those defects

which will only be apparent by opening the enclosure using, where necessary,
tools and test equipment. (Invasive). Power must be isolated under PTW for
non-IS apparatus.

108. Effective gasket compression in a flange assembly is…..

a. ensured by 3 threads of bolts protruding through the nut.

b. ensured by 2 threads of bolts protruding through the nut.

c. ensured by 2 – 3 threads of bolts protruding through the nut.

d. all of above

109. Lubricant or anti-seizure compounds

a. applied if necessary
b. applied as per manufacture recommendation

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 c. should be applied to both the nut bearing surface and the male threads of
bolt to reduce friction.
d. should be applied to male threads of bolt to reduce friction.
110. Apply spanner tight in diametrical sequence…

a. hand tight only for pre load

b. not exceeding 20% of its rated torque value.

c. not exceeding 10% of its rated torque value.

d. not exceeding 5% of its rated torque value.

111. Tighten the bolts in diametrical sequence in steps of…..

a. 25%, 50%, 75% & 100% of torque value.

b. 15%, 25%, 50% & 100% of torque value.

c. 50%, 75% & 100% of torque value.

d. 20%, 25%, 50%, 75% & 100% of torque value.

112. Finalise the tight…….

a. in diametrical direction and ensure 2-3 threads are protruding from the nuts.
b. in clock-wise direction and ensure 2-3 threads are protruding from the nuts.
c. in random direction and ensure 2-3 threads are protruding from the nuts.
d.all of above.
113. For breaking flange joints……….
a. Wear appropriate PPE and eye protection goggles.

b. Ensure pipeline is completely depressurized and locked off, Loosen farthest bolt
away from the body.

c. all of above.

d. none of above

Saipem
Classific
ation -
General
Use
114. when de-commissioning a pump….
a. method same as braking flange joint
b. use of tools or access equipment, those defects apparent to the eye.
c. verify manufacture data sheet
d. all of above

Saipem
Classific
ation -
General
Use