INSIGHTSIAS

IA SIMPLIFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION

INSTA CAQ COMPILATION

PRELIMS 2024

May 2024

www.insightsactivelearn.com | www.insightsonindia.com
Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

Table of Contents
ECONOMY ........................................................................................................................ 4
ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ....................................................................................... 26
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE ............................................................................................. 44
GEOGRAPHY ................................................................................................................... 53
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ............................................................................................ 78
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANIZATIONS ...................................................... 107
HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE ........................................................................................ 115
DEFENSE AND SECURITY ............................................................................................... 117
MISCELLANEOUS .......................................................................................................... 121

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

ECONOMY

1. What is the primary objective of Project ISHAN initiated by the Indian government?
(a) To provide clean drinking water to rural communities.
(b) To make air traffic operations more efficient to handle more capacity.
(c) To promote renewable energy sources.
(d) To improve agricultural productivity through advanced technology.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: India has kickstarted the process of unifying its four airspace
regions under Project Indian Single Sky Harmonized Air Traffic Management
at Nagpur (ISHAN).
● This initiative is expected to enhance air traffic management, benefiting
airlines and passengers by making operations more efficient and safer.
● Challenges include technological implementation, process changes, and
retraining of staff.
○ Currently, Indian airspace is divided into 4 FIRs i.e. Mumbai,
Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, and a sub-FIR in Guwahati, each managed
separately.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/project-ishan/
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Inheritance Tax is a tax levied on the inheritance received by beneficiaries
after the death of the owner of the assets.
2. Inheritance Tax only applies to monetary inheritance and does not include
non-monetary assets like property or investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: In India, the debate over inheritance tax as a tool to address
economic inequality is ongoing.
● What is Inheritance Tax?
○ It is a tax levied on the assets inherited by individuals from a
deceased person. The tax rate depends on the value of the inherited
property and the heir’s relationship to the decedent.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/inheritance-tax/
3. Consider the following:
1. NSE NOW
2. ONICRA
3. BSE Bolt
4. SMERA
5. NCDEX
How many of the above Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are operating in India?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Ans: (b)

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

Explanation:
● Context: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading
Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31.
● What are ETPs?
○ Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that
facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as
securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments,
derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs
operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute
trades electronically.
○ In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading
System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity
Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)
● There are a total of seven credit agencies in India viz, CRISIL, CARE, ICRA,
SMREA, Brickwork Rating, India Rating and Research Pvt. Ltd and
Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/rbis-direction-for-electronic-trading-
platforms-etps/
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the
financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with
‘Navratna status’.
2. The ‘Navratna status’ is given by the Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade.
3. IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● Context: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development
Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred
with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry
of Finance)
● IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial
Institution in 1987.
● This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making,
attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA
can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable
growth.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/ireda-get-navratna-status/
5. Consider the following statements:
1. G-Secs are issued only by the Central Government of India.
2. G-Secs are primarily used as a tool for financing state government projects.
3. G-Secs in India are always issued in the form of equity shares.
4. G-Secs are considered risk-free investments because they are backed by the
full faith and credit of the Indian government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Only statement 4 is correct.
● Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Foreign
Portfolio Investment (FPI) limits for investment in various securities will
remain unchanged for the current fiscal year.
● G-Secs, or Government Securities, are tradable instruments issued by
governments through auctions conducted by the RBI. They come in two
types: short-term, known as treasury bills, with maturities of less than one
year, and long-term, known as Government bonds or dated securities, with
maturities of one year or more. The Central Government can issue both
treasury bills and government bonds, while State Governments issue
only government bonds, also known as State Development Loans (SDLs).
● S2 is incorrect because although government securities can be used for
financing various government projects, they are not primarily used for state
government projects.
● S3 is incorrect because government securities are not issued in the form of
equity shares; Government bonds are debt instruments that the country's
government issues to raise capital from the general public.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/
6. With reference to the key differences between Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) and
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), consider the following statements:
1. FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign company,
while FPI typically involves buying securities such as stocks and bonds in
foreign companies without obtaining ownership control.
2. FDI contributes to economic growth through the transfer of technology and
skills, while FPI primarily serves to diversify investment portfolios.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● S1:FDI involves acquiring a significant ownership stake in a foreign
company, allowing the investor to have control over management decisions
and operations. In contrast, FPI entails purchasing securities like stocks and
bonds in foreign companies without obtaining ownership control. FPI
investors are not involved in the day-to-day management of the companies
they invest in.
● S2: FDI can indeed contribute to economic growth by bringing in capital,
technology, and expertise, which can stimulate local industries and create
employment opportunities. FPI, on the other hand, primarily serves the
purpose of diversifying investment portfolios and generating returns for
investors.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

7. Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in money markets?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Money market instruments are short-term financing instruments aiming to
increase the financial liquidity of businesses
● The main characteristic of money market instruments is that they can be
easily converted to cash, thereby preserving an investor's cash requirements.
● The list of money market instruments traded in the money market are-
● call/notice money market
○ The call/notice money market forms an important segment of
the Indian money market. Under call money market, funds are
transacted on overnight basis and under notice money
market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days
and 14 days.
● Certificate of Deposit
○ Lending substantial financial resources to an organization can
be done against a certificate of deposit. The operating
procedure is similar to that of a fixed deposit, except the
higher negotiating capacity, as well as lower liquidity of the
former.
● Commercial Paper
○ This type of money market instrument serves as a promissory
note generated by a company to raise short term funds. It is
unsecured, and thereby can only be used by large-cap
companies with renowned market reputation.
○ The maturity period of these debt instruments lies anywhere
between 7 days to one year, and thus, attracts a lower interest
rate than equivalent securities sold in the capital market.
● Treasury Bills
○ These are only issued by the central government of a country
when it requires funds to meet its short-term obligations.
○ These securities do not generate interest but allow an investor
to make capital gains as it is sold at a discounted rate while
the entire face value is paid at the time of maturity.
○ Since treasury bills are backed by the government, the default
risk is negligible, thus serving as an optimal investment tool
for risk-averse investors.
● Repurchase Agreements
○ Commonly known as Repo, it is a short-term borrowing tool
where the issuer availing the funds guarantees to repay
(repurchase) it in the future.

○ Repurchase agreements generally involve the trading of

government securities. They are subject to market interest
rates and are backed by the government.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

●Banker's Acceptance
○ One of the most common money market instruments traded in
the financial sector, a banker's acceptance signifies a loan
extended to the stipulated bank, with a signed guarantee of
repayment in the future.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/g-sec/
8. With reference to regulation and administration of Geographical Indication (GI) in
India, consider the following statements:
1. In India, GI registration is governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods
Act of 1999.
2. The GI tag is issued by the Geographical Indication Registry under the
Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce
and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: NABARD has initiated a study to evaluate the impact of
Geographical Indication (GI) products.
○ This study aims to assess the benefits received by artisans and
producers due to GI tags.
● In India, GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This tag is issued by the
Geographical Indication Registry under the Department of Industry
Promotion and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/impact-of-gi-certified-products/
9. What best characterizes the concept of "entrenched inflation"?
(a) A temporary increase in prices due to seasonal fluctuations in demand.
(b) Persistent and sustained rise in the general price level of goods and services
over a prolonged period.
(c) An abrupt and short-lived spike in inflation caused by external shocks to the
economy.
(d) Fluctuations in prices resulting from changes in consumer preferences and
tastes.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: In 2023, while world food prices experienced a significant decline
from their 2022 highs, India saw persistently high food inflation, reaching
9.5% in December 2023. This contrasts sharply with global deflation of -
10.1% during the same period.
● If inflation were entrenched, it would mean that prices would not come back
down, and that the new prices we see in the market would be a more
permanent fixture in the economic life of citizens.
● Entrenched inflation tends to stick around even after the immediate
problems that spurred it on have resolved.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/indias-high-food-inflation/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

10. Consider the following statements.

1. Core inflation is a measure of the total inflation within an economy,
including commodities such as food and energy prices.
2. Core inflation typically rises and falls more gradually than inflation in food
and fuel.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: In 2023, while world food prices experienced a significant decline
from their 2022 highs, India saw persistently high food inflation, reaching
9.5% in December 2023. This contrasts sharply with global deflation of -
10.1% during the same period.
● Core inflation — that is the inflation rate when prices of food and fuel are
taken away. Core inflation typically rises and falls more gradually than
inflation in food and fuel.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/indias-high-food-inflation/
11. Which of the following best defines the causes of demand-pull inflation?
(a) A decrease in the money supply coupled with an increase in aggregate
demand.
(b) An increase in the money supply coupled with a decrease in aggregate
demand.
(c) An increase in aggregate demand that exceeds aggregate supply.
(d) A decrease in aggregate demand that exceeds aggregate supply.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Demand-pull inflation occurs when the aggregate demand for goods and
services in an economy exceeds aggregate supply, leading to upward
pressure on prices. Option C accurately describes this situation where
demand outstrips supply, causing prices to rise. Options A and B describe
scenarios related to monetary policy but do not specifically address the
relationship between demand and supply. Option D describes a situation of
deflation, where demand is lower than supply, leading to falling prices.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/indias-high-food-inflation/
12. Which of the following is a consequence of hyperinflation?
(a) Increased purchasing power of money.
(b) Stable economic conditions.
(c) Erosion of savings and wealth.
(d) Decrease in nominal wages.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Hyperinflation is an extreme form of inflation characterized by rapid and out-
of-control increases in prices. One consequence of hyperinflation is the
erosion of savings and wealth as the real value of money rapidly declines.
Option C accurately describes this consequence, as individuals' savings and
assets lose value in hyperinflationary environments. Options A, B, and D are
not consequences associated with hyperinflation; instead, they may be
observed under conditions of low or stable inflation.

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/indias-high-food-inflation/
13. Which of the following statements about "Front Running" is true?
(a) Front Running is an illegal practice where a broker executes orders on a
security for its own account while taking advantage of advance knowledge of
pending orders from its clients.
(b) Front Running is a legitimate trading strategy where a broker prioritizes
executing orders for its clients ahead of its own trades.
(c) Front Running is a term used to describe a situation where investors rush to
buy stocks at the beginning of a trading session.
(d) Front Running is a regulatory requirement that mandates brokers to disclose
all pending orders to their clients before executing any trades.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: SEBI has mandated Asset Management Companies (AMCs) to
establish an institutional mechanism to deter potential market abuse,
including front-running, following recent instances observed by the market
regulator.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/front-running-2/
14. Which of the following statements accurately describe "drip pricing"?
(a) Drip pricing involves initially offering a product or service at a low price, then
gradually adding additional fees or charges throughout the purchasing
process.
(b) Drip pricing is a pricing strategy where the total cost of a product or service
is disclosed upfront, without any hidden fees or charges.
(c) Drip pricing typically occurs in industries such as airlines, hotels, and car
rentals, where additional fees for amenities or services are added after the
initial advertised price.
(d) Drip pricing is a transparent pricing practice that enhances consumer trust
and loyalty by providing clear information about all costs associated with a
product or service.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: The Department of Consumer Affairs warns against drip pricing.
● What is Drip Pricing?

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

○Drip pricing is a tactic where only part of a product’s price is

advertised, with additional charges revealed later. It’s used to
attract customers and has been labelled as a dark pattern under
Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/drip-pricing/
15. Which of the following statements regarding disinvestment is/are correct?
(a) Disinvestment refers to the process of the government selling its stake in
public sector enterprises.
(b) The primary objective of disinvestment is to raise revenue for the
government.
(c) Disinvestment often leads to increased private sector participation and
efficiency in the economy.
(d) Disinvestment is primarily aimed at nationalizing private sector enterprises.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Disinvestment refers to the process of the government selling its stake in
public sector enterprises. This can involve selling shares of state-owned
companies to private investors, thereby reducing the government's ownership
and control over these enterprises.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/repatriation-and-disinvestment/
16. Which of the following statements about anti-dumping duties is correct?
(a) Anti-dumping duties are imposed by importing countries to subsidize foreign
producers.
(b) Anti-dumping duties are taxes levied on goods that are exported below fair
market value to protect domestic industries from unfair competition.
(c) Anti-dumping duties are imposed solely to encourage free trade and open
markets.
(d) Anti-dumping duties are only applicable to goods imported from developed
countries.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Anti-dumping duties are measures imposed by importing countries to
counteract the dumping of goods, which occurs when foreign producers sell
goods in another country at prices lower than their home market prices or
below production costs. This practice can harm domestic industries by
undercutting prices and creating unfair competition. Therefore, anti-
dumping duties are imposed as taxes or tariffs on these dumped goods to
level the playing field and protect domestic industries from such practices.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/non-market-economy-status/
17. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the
appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an
improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other
countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and
REER.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three

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(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an
unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country's currency exchanges
for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the
amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. If a
domestic currency increases against a basket of other currencies inside a
floating exchange rate regime, NEER is said to appreciate. If the domestic
currency falls against the basket, the NEER depreciates.
● Statement 2 is not correct. An increase in REER means that the country's
currency has appreciated not only in nominal terms but also adjusted for
inflation. This could actually make exports more expensive and imports
cheaper, potentially reducing trade competitiveness.
● Statement 3 is true. If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other
countries, it would lead to a higher increase in the nominal exchange rate
(NEER) compared to the real exchange rate (REER), leading to a divergence
between the two.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-
against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
18. Which of the following statements regarding the Real Effective Exchange Rate
(REER) is correct?
(a) REER is a measure of the average exchange rate of a country's currency
relative to a basket of foreign currencies, adjusted for inflation.
(b) REER reflects only nominal exchange rate fluctuations without considering
inflation.
(c) REER is calculated by taking the ratio of a country's nominal exchange rate
to its GDP.
(d) REER is primarily used to measure the stability of a country's stock market.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure that takes into
account both nominal exchange rate movements and relative price changes
(inflation) between countries. Option A is correct because it accurately
describes REER, emphasizing its adjustment for inflation to provide a more
accurate reflection of a country's international competitiveness. Option B is
incorrect because it overlooks the crucial aspect of inflation adjustment in
REER calculations. Option C is incorrect because REER is not calculated
based on a country's GDP but rather on a basket of foreign currencies.
Option D is incorrect because REER is not related to measuring the stability
of a country's stock market; it focuses on the competitiveness of a country's
exports in international markets.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/performance-of-the-indian-rupee-
against-the-us-dollar-in-the-last-10-years/
19. For FY 2023-24, India’s largest trading partner is:
(a) China
(b) United States
(c) United Arab Emirates
(d) European Union
Ans: (a)
Explanation:

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● In the fiscal year 2023-24, China has overtaken the US as India's largest
trading partner, with a total two-way commerce of $118.4 billion, as per
the data from the economic think tank GTRI. India's exports to China rose by
8.7 percent to $16.67 billion, while imports increased by 3.24 percent to
$101.7 billion. Conversely, exports to the US dipped slightly to $77.5 billion,
and imports decreased by about 20 percent to $40.8 billion.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/china-indias-largest-trading-
partner/
20. Consider the following statements about India International Bullion Exchange
(IIBX):
1. The IIBX is solely focused on trading in gold bullion.
2. The IIBX is headquartered in Mumbai, the financial capital of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● S1 is incorrect because the IIBX is not solely focused on trading in gold
bullion. It facilitates trading in various precious metals including gold, silver,
platinum, and palladium.
● S2 is incorrect as the IIBX is headquartered in GIFT City (Gujarat
International Finance Tec-City) in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, not in Mumbai.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/india-international-bullion-
exchange-iibx/
21. Consider the following statements:
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in
Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of
inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Context: Recently, India’s Wholesale Price Index (WPI)-based inflation surged
to a 13-month high of 1.26%, up from 0.5%, driven primarily by increases in
food and fuel prices.
○ The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is an economic indicator that
measures the average change in prices of goods at the wholesale level,
i.e., before they reach the retail level.
○ It is used to track inflation and deflation trends in the economy by
reflecting price changes in a basket of wholesale goods.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

●
● S3: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor, Raghuram Raja in 2014
announced that the central bank had adopted the new Consumer Price Index
(CPI) (combined) as the key measure of inflation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/wholesale-price-index-wpi/
22. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1: The Tea Board is a statutory body set up under section 4 of the Tea Act,
1953 was constituted on 1st April 1954.
● S2: The present Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central
Government under the Ministry of Commerce.
● S3&S4: The head office of the Tea board is in Kolkata. Currently, the Tea
Board has two overseas offices located in Dubai and Moscow. Its functions
include rendering financial and technical assistance for the cultivation,
manufacture and marketing of tea, export promotion, aiding Research and
Development activities for augmentation of tea production and improvement
of tea quality.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/fall-in-tea-production/
23. Consider the following statements:
1. Inflation occurs when there is an overall increase in the price level of goods
and services in an economy over a period of time.
2. Hyperinflation is a term used to describe extremely high and typically
accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

3. Deflation is the opposite of inflation and occurs when the price level of goods
and services decreases over time.
4. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI) are two
measures used to gauge inflation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Statement 1: Correct. Inflation is defined as the rate at which the general
level of prices for goods and services is rising, and subsequently, purchasing
power is falling. Central banks attempt to limit inflation, and avoid deflation,
to keep the economy running smoothly.
● Statement 2: Correct. Hyperinflation is an extremely high and typically
accelerating inflation, often exceeding 50% per month. It can lead to the
quick erosion of the real value of local currency, as the prices of all goods
increase.
● Statement 3: Correct. Deflation is the decrease in the general price level of
goods and services, which can increase the real value of money. This is the
opposite of inflation and can be harmful to the economy, leading to reduced
consumer spending and increased real value of debt.
● Statement 4: Correct. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the average
change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket
of consumer goods and services. The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the
average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers
for their output. Both are used to gauge inflation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/
24. The Reserve Bank of India is using which of the following inflation indices as anchor
for 'Inflation Targeting'?
(a) CPI
(b) WPI
(c) IIP
(d) CPI(Combined)
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● The inflation target in India is indeed fixed in terms of the all-India
Consumer Price Index (CPI)-Combined. This index reflects the price
changes for a basket of goods and services consumed by households.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/issue-of-food-inflation-in-india/
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Co-Lending Loans involve collaboration between a bank and a non-banking
financial company (NBFC) to provide loans to borrowers.
2. Under the Co-Lending Model, the risk and reward are shared by both the
bank and the NBFC in a predetermined ratio.
3. Co-Lending Loans are typically used to finance large-scale infrastructure
projects exclusively.
4. The primary objective of the Co-Lending Model is to increase the reach of
credit to underserved sectors of the economy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The Finance Ministry has tasked SBI with forming a committee to
address co-lending issues, aiming to boost credit flow.
● Statement 1 is True: Co-Lending Loans involve a partnership between a bank
and a non-banking financial company (NBFC) to provide loans to borrowers.
This collaborative approach leverages the strengths of both institutions: the
reach and customer relationships of NBFCs and the funding advantages of
banks.
● Statement 2 is True: Under the Co-Lending Model, the bank and the NBFC
share the risk and reward associated with the loan in a predetermined ratio.
This means both entities contribute to the loan amount and share the
interest income and potential defaults according to their agreed proportions.
● Statement 3 is False: Co-Lending Loans are not exclusively used for large-
scale infrastructure projects. They are primarily aimed at increasing credit
access to underserved sectors such as MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium
Enterprises), agriculture, and other priority sectors.
● Statement 4 is True: The primary objective of the Co-Lending Model is to
enhance the reach of credit to underserved sectors of the economy. This
model helps in improving the flow of credit to sectors that may not be
adequately served by traditional banking channels alone, thus promoting
financial inclusion.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/co-lending-loans/
26. Consider the following statements about the Asset Reconstruction Companies
(ARCs).
1. ARCs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. The primary goal of ARCs is to manage and recover bad loans to improve the
asset quality of banks.
3. ARCs are allowed to accept deposits from the public.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has raised supervisory concerns
regarding the functioning of asset reconstruction companies (ARCs).
● Statement 1 is correct: ARCs in India are regulated by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI), which sets guidelines and standards for their operations.
● Statement 2 is correct: The primary objective of ARCs is to manage and
recover the bad loans they acquire, thereby improving the overall asset
quality of the banking sector.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: ARCs are not allowed to accept deposits from the
public. Their operations are primarily focused on the acquisition and
resolution of distressed assets, not on accepting deposits like commercial
banks.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/asset-reconstruction-companies-
arcs-2/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

27. Which of the following are common by-products of the sugar industry?
(a) Diesel, kerosene, plastic, and coal
(b) Wheat bran, rice husk, soy meal, and corn gluten
(c) Wood chips, paper pulp, natural gas, and limestone
(d) Molasses, bagasse, press mud, and ethanol
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● The sugar industry generates several by-products during the process of
extracting sugar from sugarcane or sugar beet. The most notable by-
products include:
○ Molasses: This is a viscous by-product resulting from the refining of
sugarcane or sugar beets into sugar. Molasses is often used in the
production of ethanol, animal feed, and in food products like baking
and brewing.
○ Bagasse: This is the fibrous residue left after the juice has been
extracted from sugarcane stalks. Bagasse is commonly used as a
biofuel for electricity generation and as a raw material for making
paper and biodegradable products.
○ Press Mud (Filter Cake): This is a by-product of the filtration process
during sugar production. It is rich in organic matter and is used as a
fertilizer or soil conditioner.
○ Ethanol: This is produced by fermenting the sugars present in
molasses and can be used as a biofuel or in the production of
alcoholic beverages and industrial chemicals.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/green-biohydrogen-production-in-
india/
28. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the world’s largest producer of natural graphite.
2. Graphite is among 30 critical minerals declared by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: India is discussing with Sri Lanka to acquire graphite mines, aiming
to meet the rising demand for graphite, crucial for battery anodes, especially
lithium-ion batteries.
● China is the world’s largest producer of natural graphite, accounting for
two-thirds of global supply.
● While Mozambique, Madagascar, and Brazil are significant non-Chinese
producers, China also refines over 90% of the world’s graphite for use in EV
battery anodes.
● It is among 30 critical minerals declared by India.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/graphite/
29. Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of an
Economic Capital Framework in financial institutions?
(a) To ensure compliance with regulatory capital requirements.
(b) To enhance the institution's ability to withstand economic shocks by
determining the amount of capital needed to cover all risks.
(c) To maximize shareholder value through aggressive investment strategies.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

(d) To provide a detailed breakdown of the institution's operational expenses.

Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved a record transfer of
₹ 2,10,874 crore to the Union government for 2023-24, more than double the
₹ 87,416 crore transferred last year. The RBI also increased the Contingent
Risk Buffer (CRB) to 6.50% from 6%. This surplus is based on the Economic
Capital Framework (ECF) adopted in 2019.
● What is Economic capital?
○ Economic capital is the amount of capital that a firm (in this case
RBI), usually in financial services, needs to ensure that it stays
solvent given its risk profile. It includes both realized and unrealized
reserves.
○ Economic Capital Framework Objective: The framework aims to
balance the RBI’s autonomy with the Government’s development
goals.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/economic-capital-framework-ecf-of-
rbi-and-its-implications/
30. The Bimal Jalan-led panel, constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), made
several recommendations concerning the central bank's economic capital
framework. How many of the following statements about the Bimal Jalan-led panel's
recommendations are correct?
1. The panel suggested that the RBI should maintain a much higher capital
reserve compared to international standards.
2. It recommended transferring surplus reserves from the RBI to the
government to help bridge fiscal deficits.
3. The panel emphasized that the RBI should continue to follow a conservative
approach in its risk assessment.
4. It proposed that the RBI should invest a significant portion of its reserves in
high-risk assets to maximize returns.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● About Economic Capital Framework (ECF)
○ The ECF provides a method for determining risk provisions and profit
distribution under Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, requiring the
central bank to pay profits to the government after provisions for
debts, asset depreciation, and staff contributions. It was
recommended by the Expert Committee (headed by Bimal Jalan) to
Review the Extant Economic Capital Framework of the RBI.
● The Bimal Jalan-led panel recommended:
○ S1: The total economic capital should be maintained between 20.8%
to 25.4% of the RBI’s balance sheet.
■ The panel did not suggest that the RBI maintain a much
higher capital reserve than international standards; rather, it
recommended an optimal level of reserves based on global best
practices
○ S3: Risk Capital Frameworks: Assess the adequacy of RBI reserves.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

■ Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB): Maintain within 5.5%-6.5% of

the RBI’s balance sheet.
○ The CRB is the country’s savings for a financial stability crisis, which
has been consciously maintained with the RBI in view of its role as
Lender of Last Resort.
○ Review Frequency: Review ECF every five years, or sooner if risks
change significantly.
○ Accounting Year Alignment: Sync RBI’s fiscal year (April-March) with
the government’s from 2020-21 for better policy cohesiveness.
○ Interim Dividend: Remove the interim payout structure, restricting it
to extraordinary circumstances.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/economic-capital-framework-ecf-of-
rbi-and-its-implications/
31. Consider the following statements about Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL):
1. The primary objective of KABIL is to enhance India's self-reliance in critical
and strategic minerals through overseas acquisition.
2. KABIL was formed by the collaboration of National Aluminium Company
Limited (NALCO), Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL), and Mineral Exploration
Corporation Limited (MECL).
3. KABIL focuses exclusively on the domestic mining sector to increase mineral
production in India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The primary objective of KABIL is to enhance India's
self-reliance in critical and strategic minerals through overseas acquisition.
This aligns with India's strategic goals to secure raw materials for its
industries.
● Statement 2 is correct: KABIL was formed by the collaboration of three state-
owned companies: National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO),
Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL), and Mineral Exploration Corporation
Limited (MECL).
● Statement 3 is incorrect: KABIL is not focused exclusively on the domestic
mining sector; rather, it is aimed at acquiring mineral assets abroad to
ensure a steady supply of essential minerals to India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/africa-critical-mineral-acquisition-
plan-by-india/
32. Which of the following countries holds the world's largest platinum reserves?
(a) Russia
(b) South Africa
(c) United States
(d) Canada
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: India aims to bolster its access to critical minerals in Africa to
enhance resource security and challenge China’s dominance in the region.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● South Africa is renowned for possessing the world's largest platinum

reserves. Platinum is a rare and valuable metal used extensively in various
industries, including automotive, jewelry, and electronics. South Africa's
significant platinum reserves contribute to its dominant position as the
leading producer of platinum globally.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/africa-critical-mineral-acquisition-
plan-by-india/
33. Which country holds the world's largest phosphate reserves?
(a) United States
(b) China
(c) Morocco
(d) Australia
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: India aims to bolster its access to critical minerals in Africa to
enhance resource security and challenge China’s dominance in the region.
● Morocco is known for holding the world's largest phosphate reserves.
Phosphate rock is a vital mineral used primarily in agricultural fertilizers,
making it a crucial resource for global food production. Morocco's extensive
phosphate reserves contribute significantly to its role as a key supplier in the
global fertilizer market.

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●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/africa-critical-mineral-acquisition-
plan-by-india/

34. Which of the following countries has the world's largest aluminum reserves?
(a) Russia
(b) Guinea
(c) South Africa
(d) Gabon
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: India aims to bolster its access to critical minerals in Africa to
enhance resource security and challenge China’s dominance in the region.
● Guinea is recognized as the country with the world's largest aluminum
reserves. The nation's abundant bauxite deposits contribute significantly to
its status as a key player in the global aluminum market. Bauxite is the
primary source of aluminum, and Guinea's extensive reserves ensure its
prominent position in the industry.

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/africa-critical-mineral-acquisition-
plan-by-india/
35. Which country has the largest reserves of bauxite in the world?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) Guinea
(d) India
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: India aims to bolster its access to critical minerals in Africa to
enhance resource security and challenge China’s dominance in the region.
● Guinea is renowned for possessing the largest reserves of bauxite
globally. Bauxite serves as the principal ore of aluminum, and Guinea's
extensive deposits of this mineral play a crucial role in the global aluminum
industry. The country's significant bauxite reserves contribute to its
prominence as a major player in the extraction and production of aluminum.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/africa-critical-mineral-acquisition-
plan-by-india/
36. Which country boasts the world's largest cobalt reserves?
(a) Indonesia
(b) China
(c) Democratic Republic of Congo
(d) Australia
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: India aims to bolster its access to critical minerals in Africa to
enhance resource security and challenge China’s dominance in the region.
● The Democratic Republic of Congo is widely recognized as the country
with the largest cobalt reserves in the world. Cobalt is a crucial element
in the production of lithium-ion batteries, which are extensively used in
electric vehicles and electronic devices.

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/africa-critical-mineral-acquisition-
plan-by-india/
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Bond yield is the return an investor can expect to earn if the bond is held
until maturity.
2. Bond yield is inversely related to the bond price.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is Bond Yield?
● Bond yield represents the return on capital invested in a particular bond. It
is inversely related to bond price, meaning as the price of a bond increases,
its yield decreases, and vice versa. This relationship is crucial in the bond
market, as fluctuations in yield impact the attractiveness of bonds to
investors.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/sovereign-bond-yields/
38. Consider the following statements:
1. Equity instruments are long-term debt securities issued by corporations or
governments to raise capital, typically paying periodic interest and returning
the principal at maturity.
2. Bonds represent ownership in a company and entitle the holder to a share of
the company's profits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● Bonds are indeed long-term debt securities that provide periodic interest
payments (coupons) and return the principal at maturity. They are used by
corporations and governments to raise capital for long-term investments.
● Equity instruments (like common stocks) represent ownership in a company
and give shareholders a claim to a portion of the company's profits, usually
through dividends and appreciation in stock value.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/sovereign-bond-yields/
39. Which of the following statements about fiat currency is correct?
(a) Fiat currency is backed by a physical commodity such as gold or silver.
(b) The value of fiat currency is derived from the trust and confidence that
people have in the issuing government.
(c) Fiat currency cannot be used for international trade and transactions.
(d) Fiat currency is always more valuable than commodity money.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Zimbabwe has launched its newest currency, the ZiG, which is
backed by gold and aimed at addressing the country’s long-standing issues
with currency instability and hyperinflation.
● About Gold-backed currency:
○ It has a fixed value directly tied to gold and is convertible into the
precious metal. Its money supply is constrained by available gold
reserves, offering inherent value and potential long-term stability.
○ In contrast, fiat currency lacks intrinsic value and is designated
as legal tender by governments. Its value is dictated by supply and
demand dynamics and isn’t backed by any physical commodity. Fiat
currency affords central banks greater control over printing money as
needed.
● Fiat currency is a type of money that is not backed by a physical commodity
like gold or silver but rather derives its value from the trust and confidence
that people have in the government that issues it. This trust is based on the
government's stability and its ability to maintain the currency's value. Unlike
commodity money, which has intrinsic value due to the material it is made
from, fiat currency's value is largely dependent on the economic policies and
stability of the issuing authority.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/zimbabwe-zig/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

1. Consider the following statements about Nilgiri Tahr:

1. It is listed as endangered by the IUCN.
2. It is endemic to Eastern Ghats.
3. It is a state animal of Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: The Tamil Nadu government is conducting a three-day survey to
estimate the population of the Nilgiri Tahr, a species listed as endangered by
the IUCN

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/nilgiri-tahr-2/
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife
sanctuaries.
2. More than 36% of India’s forest cover is estimated to be prone to frequent
forest fires.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Large Forest fires are raging with forest fires across Uttarakhand.
Nearly a hundred hectares of forest have been destroyed, exacerbated by dry
conditions from the prevailing heatwave.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● In some regions of Uttarakhand, fires were doused with the help of a Bambi
bucket, a specialised aerial fire-fighting tool used to pour water in targeted
areas.
● Uttarakhand faces frequent forest fires due to adverse climate conditions like
heatwaves and dry spells, exacerbated by the presence of dry pine needles
and human activities like burning forests for fresh grass and carelessly
discarding cigarette butts.
● The ISFR 2021 estimates that more than 36% of the country's forest
cover is prone to frequent forest fires.
● To address forest fires, initiatives like the National Action Plan on Forest
Fires 2018, State of Forest Report 2021 and the Forest Survey of India’s Van
Agni Geo-portal have been implemented. The Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972, prohibits setting fire in wildlife sanctuaries. Preventive measures
include the construction of watch towers for early detection, the involvement
of local communities, and the creation and maintenance of fire lines.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/forest-fire-in-uttarakhand/
3. Consider the following statements.
1. Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980
has been monitored by the Supreme Court.
2. Deemed forests refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”, but have not
been notified so by the government or in historical records.
3. Deemed forests comprise about one fourth of India’s forest land.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: In compliance with a Supreme Court order (in Feb 2024), the
Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) uploaded
the various State Expert Committee (SEC) reports on the status of unclassed
forests.
○ The SC order was in response to a PIL challenging the
constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Act Amendment (FCAA)
2023.
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Preservation of forest areas in India under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980
has been continuously monitored by the Supreme Court since the
Godavarman case judgment in 1996.
● While the concept of deemed forests has not been clearly defined in any law
including the Forest Conservation Act of 1980.
● Deemed forests, which comprise about 1% of India’s forest land, are a
controversial subject as they refer to land tracts that appear to be a “forest”,
but have not been notified so by the government or in historical records.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/indias-forests-in-peril-delays-and-
data-gaps/
4. What is the primary mechanism through which methane contributes to global
warming?
(a) Absorption of ultraviolet radiation
(b) Trapping of heat in the atmosphere
(c) Acceleration of plate tectonics
(d) Formation of ozone in the stratosphere

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Methane, like other greenhouse gases, absorbs and re-emits infrared
radiation, leading to the trapping of heat in the Earth's atmosphere. This
phenomenon, known as the greenhouse effect, contributes to global warming
by increasing the Earth's average surface temperature.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/reports-study-in-news/
5. Which of the following statements about tardigrades is true?
(a) Tardigrades are exclusively aquatic organisms found only in freshwater
environments.
(b) Tardigrades are extremophiles capable of surviving extreme temperatures,
pressures, and radiation levels.
(c) Tardigrades are photosynthetic organisms that derive their energy from
sunlight.
(d) Tardigrades belong to the phylum Cnidaria and possess stinging cells for
prey capture
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: A new marine tardigrade species discovered off the southeast coast
of Tamil Nadu has been named Batillipes chandrayaani after the
Chandrayaan-3 moon mission.
● It is the third marine tardigrade species scientifically described from Indian
waters. It features a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-
tipped sensory spines.
● They are near-microscopic aquatic animals with plump, segmented bodies
and flattened heads. They are renowned for their resilience and are among
the hardest animals (surviving mass extinctions and environmental
extremes), with marine tardigrades comprising 17% of all known tardigrade
species.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/batillipes-chandrayaani/
6. Consider the following Pairs [Elephant Reserves:State]:
1. Sonitpur ER: West Bengal
2. Rayala ER: Karnataka
3. Lemru ER: Chhattisgarh
4. Singphan ER: Nagaland
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation
●
S. No. Elephant Reserve State

1 Rayala ER Andhra Pradesh

2 Kameng ER Arunachal Pradesh

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3 South Arunachal ER Arunachal Pradesh

4 Sonitpur ER Assam

5 Dihing-Patkai ER Assam

6 Kaziranga – Karbi Anglong ER Assam

7 Dhansiri-Lungding ER Assam

8 Chirang-Ripu ER Assam

9 Badalkhol-Tamorpingla Chhattisgarh

10 Lemru ER Chhattisgarh

11 Singhbhum ER Jharkhand

12 Mysore ER Karnataka

13 Dandeli ER Karnataka

14 Wayanad ER Kerala

15 Nilambur ER Kerala

16 Anamudi ER Kerala

17 Periyar Kerala

18 Garo Hills ER Meghalaya

19 Intanki ER Nagaland

20 Singphan ER Nagaland

21 Mayurbhanj ER Odisha

22 Mahanadi ER Odisha

23 Sambalpur ER Odisha

24 Nilgiri ER Tamil Nadu

25 Coimbatore ER Tamil Nadu

26 Anamalai ER Tamil Nadu

27 Srivilliputtur ER Tamil Nadu

28 Agsthyamalai ER Tamil Nadu

29 Uttar Pradesh ER Uttar Pradesh

30 Terai ER Uttar Pradesh

31 Shivalik ER Uttarakhand

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32 Mayurjharna ER West Bengal

33 Eastern Dooars ER West Bengal

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/bhadra-tiger-reserve/
7. In which of the following states is Bhadra Tiger Reserve located?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About Bhadra Tiger Reserve:
● Situated in the Western Ghats region of Karnataka, Bhadra Tiger Reserve is
unique for being nestled within several hill ranges. It has served as both an
Elephant Reserve and the 25th Project Tiger Reserve of India since 1998,
boasting a substantial tiger population.
● Well-drained by the river Bhadra and its tributaries, it features a variety of
vegetation including dry-deciduous, moist-deciduous, shola, and semi-
evergreen patches. Other Tiger Reserves in Karnataka include Bandipura,
Nagarahole, Dandeli-Anshi, and Biligiriranga Tiger Reserve.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/bhadra-tiger-reserve/
8. Consider the following statements about Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA):
1. It is an India-led Initiative to develop an alliance of Governments,
International organizations and Industry to facilitate the adoption of biofuels.
2. India, Brazil and the US are the founding members of the alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) was launched to accelerate the global
adoption of biofuels during India’s G20 presidency (October 2023). It unites
major biofuel producers and consumers like the US, Brazil, and India.
Nineteen countries and 12 international organizations have committed to
joining or supporting the GBA. Its goal is to enhance global biofuels trade for
a more sustainable future.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/global-biofuel-alliance-gba/
9. Consider the following statements:
1. Sperm whales are the smallest species of whales.
2. Sperm whales primarily feed on plankton and small fish.
3. Sperm whales are known for their exceptionally long tusks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (d)

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Explanation:
● Context: Scientists have uncovered a fascinating aspect of sperm whale
communication: their complex vocalizations resemble Morse code, hinting at
a sophisticated “phonetic alphabet.”
●
○ These whales, renowned for their social nature, use clicking sounds
called codas to convey messages. Research on sperm whales in the
eastern Caribbean revealed a rich communication system akin to
human language.
○ Because sperm whales spend most of their time in deep waters,
their diet consists of species such as squid, sharks, skates, and
fish that also occupy deep ocean waters.
● Sperm whales are the largest toothed whales, predominantly observed in
polar regions. They inhabit deep open waters and coastal areas, facing
threats such as vessel strikes and entanglement in fishing gear. Listed as
Vulnerable by the IUCN and under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972 in India, they require conservation efforts to safeguard their
populations.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/sperm-whale/
10. Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention.
1. It is the United Nations Convention that provides the framework for the
conservation and wise use of wetlands.
2. Almost 90% of UN member states have acceded to become “Contracting
Parties”.
3. It does not consider underground aquifers and human-made sites as
wetlands.
4. The Montreux Record is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
How many of the above statements are NOT correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 3 are not correct.
● The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is the
intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation
and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
● The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came
into force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of UN member states, from all the
world’s geographic regions, have acceded to become “Contracting Parties”.
● The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and
rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands,
peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other
coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice
paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.
● Montreux Record under the Convention is a register of wetland sites on the
List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological
character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of
technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
● It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/constructed-wetlands/

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11. In which of the following states is Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Odisha
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Assam
(d) Manipur
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The National Green Tribunal has taken note of construction activities in
Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary.
● Located in the foothills of the Himalayas in Assam’s Sonitpur district, it is
part of the Sonitpur Kameng Elephant Reserve along with Nameri National
Park. Recognized as an Important Bird Area by Birdlife International, it
boasts diverse fauna including Asian Elephants, Indian Bison, Leopards, and
various deer species, and rich flora with different types of forests. The
sanctuary is intersected by perennial rivers like Dolsiri, Gabharu, Gelgeli,
Belsiri, and Sonairupai.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/places-in-news/
12. Consider the following statements:
1. All parts of Oleander are safe for consumption.
2. Oleander is a drought-tolerant plant.
3. Oleander is not toxic to humans and animals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Only statement 2 is correct.
● Context: Kerala temples ban oleander flower offerings following a woman’s
suspected poisoning death from consuming oleander leaves.
● Oleander is a poisonous plant known scientifically as Nerium oleander.
It contains toxic compounds throughout its parts, including leaves and
flowers. Ingestion of oleander can lead to symptoms such as vomiting,
nausea, bloody diarrhoea, and irregular heart rhythm.
● They are fast-growing evergreen shrubs or small trees native to Europe
and Asia. In Kerala, they are also called arali and kanaveeram. Oleander is
tolerant to heat, drought, wind, air pollution, salt, and poor soil.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/oleander-flowers/
13. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in
a tree or a log of wood?
(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear
Ans; (b)
Explanation:

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● Orangutans, the only great apes found outside of Africa, inhabit Sumatra
and Borneo in Southeast Asia. They prefer tropical forests, particularly in
river valleys and floodplains. With an extremely low reproductive rate, their
populations are highly vulnerable. All three species are classified as Critically
Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
● They have been observed as using sticks for fishing out bugs from bark.
Researchers have also spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from
fruit and scrape insects from a hole in a tree in the wild.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/orangutan-diplomacy/
14. Consider the following statements:
1. Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
2. Sundarbans mangrove forest is not home to any endangered species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the
Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
● Features:
○ Sundarban in India is its largest mangrove ecosystem.
○ Sundarban Reserve Forest of Bangladesh is the largest mangrove
forest in the world.
○ It contains Sundarbans Tiger Reserve, Sundarban Wetland,
Sundarbans National Park and Biosphere Reserve.
○ It is the only mangrove forest in the world inhabited by tigers
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
15. In which of the following states is Sundarbans National Park located?
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) Meghalaya
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Sundarbans National Park is a national park in West Bengal, India, and
core part of tiger reserve and biosphere reserve. It is part of the Sundarbans
on the Ganges Delta and adjacent to the Sundarban Reserve Forest in
Bangladesh.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/sundarbans-mangrove-ecosystem/
16. In which of the following states is Kaziranga National Park located?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Manipur
Ans: (c)
Explanation:

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● Context: Kaziranga National Park in Assam has achieved a significant

milestone by recording its highest revenue in its 50-year history during the
2023-24 tourism year. The park also witnessed a surge in visitors, with a
total of 3,27,493 tourists, including 13,919 foreign visitors.
● About Kaziranga National Park:
○ Located in the State of Assamand is the single largest undisturbed
and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
○ International Status:
■ It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.
■ It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife
International.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/kaziranga-national-park/
17. Roundworms belong to the phylum
(a) Nematoda
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Annelida
(d) Cnidaria
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Researchers at Princeton University discovered that the roundworm
Caenorhabditis elegans, commonly known as C. elegans, exhibits an
intriguing behaviour where offspring inherit the knowledge of avoiding
disease-causing bacteria consumed by their parents.
● Roundworms or eelworms constitute the phylum Nematoda.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-
elegans/
18. What does the Keeling Curve indicate?
(a) Global temperature fluctuations over time.
(b) Changes in atmospheric oxygen levels.
(c) Variation in Earth's magnetic field strength.
(d) Fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● The Keeling Curve, named after Charles David Keeling, is a graph that
plots the ongoing change in concentration of atmospheric carbon
dioxide (CO2) over time. Initiated in the late 1950s, this curve is one of the
most critical pieces of evidence for ongoing climate change due to human
activities, particularly the burning of fossil fuels. Keeling's measurements
from the Mauna Loa Observatory in Hawaii show a steady increase in
atmospheric CO2 concentrations over decades. This curve is pivotal in
understanding the relationship between human activities and the rise in
greenhouse gases, which contribute to global warming and climate change.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/concentration-of-carbon-dioxide-
keeling-curve/
19. Consider the following statements about Semal trees:
1. It is endemic to Eastern Himalaya.
2. It was listed as an Endangered species by the IUCN.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Semal trees, crucial to Udaipur’s Holi festivities, face peril in south
Rajasthan. Despite their ecological significance, thousands are cut annually
for bonfires, violating forest laws.
● Semal trees, also known as silk cotton trees or Bombax Ceiba, are large,
fast-growing trees (large deciduous trees, known for their Crimson red
flowers) native to India. Ayurvedic medicines can be prepared from every
part of the tree (e.g., roots are used for treating ailments such as diabetes,
etc). It is worshipped by many tribal communities in Rajasthan (e.g. Garasia
tribe, Kathodi tribe) and Madhya Pradesh. Its seed produces edible oil, used
in making soaps. Semal plays a crucial role in the forest ecosystem,
providing habitat and food for various species, including rock bees, moths,
sparrows, and bugs. Additionally, tribal communities rely on Semal for food,
crafting, and cultural beliefs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/semal-trees/
20. Kanwar Lake, also known as Kabar Taal, is significant for which of the following
reasons?
(a) It is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in India and an important bird
sanctuary.
(b) It is the deepest natural lake in India, known for its unique marine
biodiversity.
(c) It is the largest saltwater lake in India, famous for its floating islands.
(d) It is an artificial lake created for irrigation purposes in the 20th century.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Kanwar Lake in Begusarai, Bihar, is in critical condition due to
encroachment and drying, severely impacting bird habitats.
● About the lake:
○ Kanwar Lake (also known locally as Kabartal) is Asia’s largest
freshwater oxbow lake, formed by the meandering Burhi Gandak
River, a tributary of the Ganga. This rainfed lake fills up during the
monsoon. Recognized as a wetland of international importance under
the Ramsar Convention (the only one from Bihar), it was declared a
protected area in 1986 and later designated as a sanctuary to prevent
bird poaching.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/kanwar-lake-bihar/
21. Consider the following statements about Orcas:
1. Orcas are the largest species of the dolphin family.
2. Orcas are found only in the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:

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● They are the largest dolphins, recognized by their black-and-white

colouring, reaching up to 8 meters in length and weighing up to 6 tonnes.
Highly intelligent and social, they use echolocation for communication and
hunting.
● While powerful predators, they are not aggressive towards humans in the
wild. Pods, or maternally related groups, have distinct communication
patterns. Orcas are listed as Data Deficient on the IUCN Red List and under
CITES Appendix II.
● They are found in diverse marine environments, from Arctic to Antarctic
regions to tropical seas.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/strait-of-gibraltar/
22. Consider the following statements:
1. The Greater Adjutant Stork is listed as "Endangered" on the IUCN Red List.
2. This species of stork primarily inhabits wetlands in Southeast Asia and
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Greater Adjutant Stork
● Distribution: Known as ‘Hargila,’ primarily found in Assam (80%) and
Bihar, India, and Cambodia.
● Habitat: Wetlands, nests in tall trees with closed canopies and bamboo
clumps.
● Threats: Hunting, habitat destruction, felling of nest trees, and wetland
degradation.
● Conservation Status: IUCN: Nearly Threatened (NT).
● Significance: The Greater Adjutant Stork plays a vital role in nutrient
recycling and maintaining ecosystem health.

●
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2024-whitley-gold-award/

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23. In which of the following states is Phawngpui National Park located?

(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Tripura
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● A rare hemi-parasitic terrestrial plant (Phtheirospermum lushaiorum) has
been found in Phawngpui National Park of Mizoram. Lushaiorum is named
after “Lushai” tribe of Mizoram.
● Phawngpui National Park, also known as Phawngpui Blue Mountain
National Park, is one of two national parks in Mizoram, India, the other
being the larger Murlen National Park. Located about 300 km from Aizawl in
the Lawngtlai district near Burma, it encompasses Phawngpui, Mizoram’s
highest peak at 2,157 meters, along with the surrounding reserve forest.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/places-in-news-3/
24. In which of the following states is Murlen National Park located?
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Tripura
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Murlen National Park is a national park located in the Champhai district
Mizoram in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/places-in-news-3/
25. With reference to India’s Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh, India.
2. It is primarily known for its population of the Indian elephant.
3. It is a part of the Eastern Ghats and features a variety of habitats including
forests, grasslands, and wetlands.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Location: Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary is indeed located in the state of
Andhra Pradesh, India, which makes statement 1 correct.
● Notable Fauna: The sanctuary is well-known for its population of the Indian
elephant, confirming statement 2 as correct.
● Habitats: It is part of the Eastern Ghats and encompasses various habitats
including forests, grasslands, and wetlands, so statement 3 is correct as well.

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●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/places-in-news-3/
26. Consider the following statements about Himalayan Ibex:
1. It is a species of wild goat found only in the Himalayan region.
2. It is a carnivorous mammal, preying on small animals for sustenance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About Himalayan Ibex:
● The Himalayan ibex, a subspecies of the Siberian ibex, is native to the
Himalayan region spanning India, Pakistan, Tibet, and Nepal. Scientifically
known as Capra sibirica hemalayanus, it thrives in high-altitude areas
between 3,000 and 5,800 meters. In India, it’s primarily found in Jammu
and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. These sturdy wild goats
weigh about 90 kg, stand 40 inches tall, and sport large curved horns with
notches. Their coat ranges from light brown to reddish-brown, with a woolly
texture in winter. Typically found in small herds, they can reach speeds of up
to 50 km/h. The Himalayan ibex is classified as Near Threatened on the
IUCN Red List.
● Additionally, the Himalayan Ibex is primarily herbivorous, feeding on
grasses, herbs, and shrubs, and not carnivorous.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/census-to-estimate-blue-sheep-and-
himalayan-ibex/
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Blue Sheep are also known as Bharal.
2. The Blue Sheep has a distinctive blue coat that helps it blend into its rocky
environment.
3. Blue Sheep are known for their remarkable ability to navigate steep and
rocky terrain with ease.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three

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(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1 is Correct: The Bharal, or blue sheep, is a Himalayan caprine species with
the scientific name Pseudois nayaur, the sole member of its genus. Found in
the high Himalayas, it inhabits regions across India, Bhutan, China,
Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.
● S2 is Incorrect: Despite their name, Blue Sheep do not have a blue coat.
Their coat is typically a bluish-grey, which may have contributed to their
name, but it is not distinctly blue.

○
● S3 is Correct: Blue Sheep are known for their remarkable ability to navigate
steep and rocky terrain with ease, which helps them evade predators and
survive in their harsh mountainous habitats.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/census-to-estimate-blue-sheep-and-
himalayan-ibex/
28. Consider the following statements:
1. The Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) is a global initiative aimed at
conserving and restoring mangrove ecosystems.
2. The initiative was launched during the COP26 conference held in Glasgow,
Scotland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: The first global mangrove assessment by the International
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), warns of the imminent collapse
of South India’s mangrove ecosystems due to pollution, deforestation, and
coastal development.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) is indeed
a global initiative focused on the conservation and restoration of mangrove
ecosystems. Mangroves play a critical role in coastal protection, biodiversity,
and carbon sequestration.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mangrove Alliance for Climate was not
launched at the COP26 conference in Glasgow. It was launched at COP27
held in Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt, in 2022.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/mangrove-ecosystem/

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29. The ‘Global Climate Risk Index’, which evaluates the impact of extreme weather
events on countries and quantifies their vulnerability to climate change, is published
by which organization?
(a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
(b) World Bank
(c) Germanwatch
(d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The economic toll of climate change is staggering, with recent UN
studies revealing that global GDP could have been 37% higher without
warming since 1960.
● The Global Climate Risk Index is published annually by Germanwatch, a
non-governmental organization based in Germany. This index analyzes and
ranks countries based on the impact of weather-related events such as
storms, floods, and heatwaves, considering factors like fatalities and
economic losses. The objective is to highlight the need for political and policy
measures to address climate vulnerabilities and adapt to the adverse effects
of climate change.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/economic-cost-of-climate-change/
30. In which of the following states is ‘Ghughwa National Fossil Park’ located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Odisha
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Archaeologists from Ashoka University recently unearthed
prehistoric artefacts made from fossil wood at the National Fossil Park in
Ghugwa, Madhya Pradesh.
● About Ghughwa National Fossil Park:
○ Located in the Dindori district, Madhya Pradesh, was established as a
National Park in 1983. Situated in a tropical dry deciduous
landscape, it boasts fossilized plants dating back between 40 million
and 150 million years ago. The park is renowned for its preserved
fossils of various woody plants like eucalyptus, date palm, and neem,
as well as climbers, leaves, flowers, fruits, and even dinosaur egg
fossils.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/national-fossil-park-in-ghugwa-
madhya-pradesh/
31. Which organization is responsible for the initiative known as the "Global Species
Action Plan Online Knowledge Platform"?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
(c) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
(d) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: IUCN launched the Global Species Action Plan Online
Knowledge Platform, known as GSAP SKILLS, at the Fourth meeting of the
Subsidiary Body on Implementation, Convention on Biological Diversity.

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● About GSAP Skills:

○ The Global Species Action Plan (GSAP) SKILLS platform brings GSAP
content online, enabling real-time updates of technical tools and
resources. Its purpose is to facilitate global collaboration and
partnerships by connecting decision-makers, species conservation
practitioners, and experts at all levels. The platform’s objectives
include providing real-time updates on technical resources and
ensuring their accessibility and relevance. It also offers information
on species conservation interventions, actions, and sub-actions for
each Global Biodiversity Framework target, along with details on
actors and technical tools.
○ Managed by IUCN, the platform meets the needs of governments and
stakeholders for species conservation actions. Additionally, it receives
support from the Ministry of Environment, the Republic of Korea, and
the Tech4Nature Initiative launched by IUCN and Huawei in 2020.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/global-species-action-plan-online-
knowledge-platform-gsap-skills/
32. Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Biodiversity Framework was adopted during the 15th meeting of
the Conference of the Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological
Diversity (CBD).
2. The framework includes specific targets related to the protection of at least
30% of the planet’s land and ocean areas by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Global Biodiversity Framework was indeed
adopted during COP15, which highlights the global commitment to
addressing biodiversity loss.
● Statement 2 is correct: The framework includes ambitious targets, such as
protecting at least 30% of the world’s land and marine areas by 2030, known
as the "30 by 30" target.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/global-species-action-plan-online-
knowledge-platform-gsap-skills/
33. Consider the following statements:
1. Eucalyptus trees have leaves that are typically fragrant and contain essential
oils.
2. The wood of Eucalyptus trees is primarily used for making paper and not for
construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About Eucalyptus:

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● It is native to Australia, Tasmania, and nearby islands, and is an evergreen

tree primarily planted for fuel and furniture wood, as well as paper and
pulp production. However, concerns arise due to its high water
consumption, toxicity to animals, and flammable oil emissions. Despite
being a biomass production champion, its rapid growth exacerbates water
depletion and soil fertility reduction, leading to ecological concerns.
● known for their fragrant leaves, which contain essential oils used in various
medicinal and industrial applications.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/eucalyptus-trees/
34. Consider the following statements about Global Environment Facility (GEF):
1. It was established in 1991 to address global environmental issues.
2. The GEF operates independently of the United Nations.
3. The World Bank serves as the trustee of the GEF Trust Fund.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: At the Fourth International Conference on Small Island Developing
States (SIDS4) in St. John’s, Antigua and Barbuda, the Global
Environment Facility (GEF) emphasizes sustainable development for SIDS.
● The GEF was established in 1991 to address global environmental issues.
● The GEF provides grants and funding to developing countries for projects
related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land
degradation, and chemicals and waste.
● The GEF operates independently of the United Nations.
● The World Bank serves as the trustee of the GEF Trust Fund.
● The GEF works in partnership with international institutions, NGOs, and the
private sector.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/small-island-developing-states-
sids4/

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POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) provides for law relating
to expenditure incurred by ‘leaders of a political party’.
2. The RP Act provides that a recognised political party can appoint a maximum
of 40 star campaigners while a registered unrecognized political party can
appoint up to 20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Several political parties have released the list of their star
campaigners for the upcoming Lok Sabha General Elections.
○ The Representation of the People Act, 1951, defines rules around star
campaigners, who are leaders of political parties appointed for
campaigning.
○ A recognised political party can appoint a maximum of 40-star
campaigners while a registered unrecognized political party can
appoint up to 20.
○ These campaigners can incur travel expenses for campaigning
without affecting candidates’ expenditure limits.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/star-campaigners/
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 39 of the Constitution lists certain directive principles of state policy,
which are meant to be guiding principles for the enactment of laws, but are
not directly enforceable in any court of law.
2. If a law is made to give effect to DPSPs in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) and
in the process, the law violates Article 14, Article 19 or Article 31, then the
law cannot be challenged by invoking the right to equality or the rights under
Article 19.
3. Article 31C was introduced by The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment
Act, 1971.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Article 31C protects laws enacted to ensure the “material resources of the
community” are distributed to serve the common good (Article 39(b)) and that
wealth and the means of production are not “concentrated” to the “common
detriment” (Article 39(c)).
● Article 39 of the Constitution lists certain directive principles of state policy,
which are meant to be guiding principles for the enactment of laws, but are
not directly enforceable in any court of law.

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● As per Article 31C, these particular directive principles (Articles 39(b) and
39(c)) cannot be challenged by invoking the right to equality (Article 14) or
the rights under Article 19 (freedom of speech, right to assemble peacefully,
etc).
● Article 31C was introduced by The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment
Act, 1971.
● The 25th amendment was challenged in the seminal Kesavananda Bharati
case (1973) in which 13 judges held by a narrow 7-6 majority that the
Constitution has a “basic structure” that cannot be altered, even by a
constitutional amendment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/article-31c/
3. In legal terms, what does the "Eggshell Skull" refer to?
(a) A defendant with an exceptionally fragile mental state
(b) A petitioner with a pre-existing medical condition that makes them more
susceptible to harm
(c) A legal defense strategy used in cases of self-defense
(d) A doctrine that limits the liability of defendants in cases of unforeseeable
consequences
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Supreme Court rejected the application of the ‘eggshell skull’
rule in a medical negligence case, restoring a compensation of Rs 5 lakhs
awarded by the district consumer forum.
● What is the ‘eggshell skull’?
○ The “eggshell skull” rule, also known as the “thin skull rule” in some
cases, is a legal principle applied in civil litigation. Essentially, it
dictates that a defendant in a lawsuit is liable for all injuries caused
to the plaintiff, even if the plaintiff’s condition makes them more
susceptible to harm than an average person.
○ In this case, Jyoti Devi suffered prolonged pain due to a needle left in
her abdomen after surgery. While lower courts applied the rule, the
SC ruled it inapplicable as Jyoti didn’t have pre-existing
vulnerabilities. The ruling emphasized prolonged suffering and
delayed justice as factors justifying the enhanced compensation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/eggshell-skull-rule/
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court in the case of Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain recognised that
free and fair elections are a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution of
India, and any laws or policies that would violate this principle could be
struck down.
2. A five-judge constitution Bench in 2006, in the case of Kuldip Nayar v. Union
of India held that the right to vote is “pure and simple, a statutory right”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Accused persons in prison can contest polls but are barred from
voting. The legal status distinguishes between the right to vote and the right
to be elected.

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● In 1975, the Supreme Court in the case of Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain
recognised that free and fair elections are a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution of India, and any laws or policies that would violate this
principle could be struck down.
● Though free and fair elections have been placed on the highest constitutional
pedestal, the Supreme Court has held that the rights to elect and be elected
do not enjoy the same status. For instance, a five-judge constitution Bench
in 2006, in the case of Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India held that the right to
vote (or the right to elect as it was called) is “pure and simple, a statutory
right”. This means that voting is not a fundamental right and can be
repealed.
● The same was held for the right to be elected by the Bench, ruling that laws
enacted by Parliament could regulate both these statutory rights.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/election-rights-of-prisoners/
5. Which of the following statements regarding Article 39(b) of the Indian Constitution
is correct?
(a) It mandates the provision of adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
(b) It directs the state to ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and
women.
(c) It emphasizes the distribution of ownership and control of material resources
to serve the common good.
(d) It guarantees the right to education to all citizens.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The Supreme Court has reserved its verdict on whether private
properties can be considered ‘material resources of the community’ under
Article 39(b) of the Constitution.
● Article 39(b) directs the state to distribute material resources for the common
good, while Article 31C empowers the state to take over such resources.
Additionally, Article 39(c) aims to prevent wealth concentration.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/article-39b-of-the-constitution/
6. Consider the following statements regarding the State Legislative Council.
1. The constitution leaves the choice of having a Legislative Council to the
Parliament.
2. A Council cannot have more than a third of the number of MLAs in the state,
and not less than 40 members.
3. The states having Legislative Council are Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka,
Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Under Article 168, states can have either one or two Houses of legislature.
Article 169 leaves the choice of having a Vidhan Parishad to individual
states.

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● Under Article 171, a Council cannot have more than a third of the
number of MLAs in the state, and not less than 40 members. A third of
the MLCs are elected by MLAs, another third by a special electorate
comprising sitting members of local government bodies such as
municipalities and district boards, 1/12th by an electorate of teachers, and
another 1/12th by registered graduates. The remaining members are
appointed by the Governor for distinguished services in various fields.
● Besides Andhra Pradesh, five other states have Vidhan Parishads — Bihar,
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, UP. Jammu and Kashmir had a
Council until the state was bifurcated into the Union Territories of J&K and
Ladakh.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/prs-legislative-researchs-annual-
review-of-state-laws-2023/
7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court of India has recognized the right to die with dignity as a
fundamental aspect of the right to life under Article 21.
2. The Right to Peaceful Death is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian
Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation: What is the Right to Peaceful Death?
● The Right to Peaceful Death refers to the right of individuals to pass away
with dignity and without unnecessary suffering.
● It is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution. However, the
Supreme Court of India has recognized the right to die with dignity as a
fundamental aspect of the right to life under Article 21. This recognition
came in the landmark case of Common Cause (A Regd. Society) v. Union of
India (2018), where the court upheld the legality of passive euthanasia and
the right to make advance directives for medical treatment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/right-to-peaceful-death/
8. Which of the following statements about ‘Article 350A’ of the Indian Constitution is
correct?
(a) It guarantees the right to constitutional remedies.
(b) It mandates the provision of free and compulsory education to children.
(c) It provides for the instruction of primary education in mother tongue.
(d) It establishes the right to freedom of speech and expression.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Education in the mother tongue is emphasized through various provisions
and initiatives:
● Article 350A: Mandates states to provide primary education to linguistic
minority groups in their mother tongue.
● Section 29 of the Right to Education Act, 2009: Advocates for the medium of
instruction to be in the mother tongue whenever possible.
● NISHTHA FLN: Promotes teaching in mother tongue, regional language, and
home language.

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● 52 Entry-Level Primers: Developed by NCERT and Indian Institute of

Languages for teaching children in various mother tongues and local
languages.
● International Mother Language Day: Observed on 21st February, initiated by
Bangladesh and recognized by UNESCO in 1999.
● Yuelu Proclamation by UNESCO: Emphasizes the importance of preserving
and promoting linguistic diversity.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/education-in-mother-tongue/
9. Which of the following methods, through the use of Directive principles, does the
Constitution guarantee worker welfare and protect labor rights?
1. It makes provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity
relief.
2. It exhorts the government to take steps to secure the participation of workers
in the management of industries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Acts like the Maternity Benefit Act or its amendment have been enacted in
the spirit of the DPSP (Article 42).
● Statement 2: These are socialist principles which draw their moorings from
the history of economic thought in India. India upholds an economic system
based on the principles of equity, fairness and justice, and therefore, such
rights (provisions) are crucial to ensure labour welfare.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/balancing-fundamental-rights-and-
directive-principles/
10. Consider the following statements about National Consumer Disputes Redressal
Commission:
1. The NCDRC is a statutory body constituted under the Consumer Protection
Act, 1986.
2. The NCDRC has jurisdiction to entertain consumer complaints where the
value of goods or services and compensation is claimed up to one crore
rupees.
3. The NCDRC is headquartered in Mumbai.
4. Appeals against the orders of the NCDRC can be made directly to the
Supreme Court of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
ANs:(b)
Explanation:
● S1: The NCDRC was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to
provide a mechanism for the quick resolution of consumer disputes.
● S2: Centre notifies rules for Consumer Protection (Jurisdiction of the District
Commission, the State Commission and the National Commission) Rules,
2021

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○ The revised pecuniary jurisdiction for entertaining consumer

complaints shall be upto -
■ 50 lakh for District Commissions,
■ More than ₹ 50 lakh to ₹ 2 Crore for State Commissions and
■ More than ₹ 2 Crore for National Commission
● S3: The NCDRC is headquartered in New Delhi, not Mumbai.
● S4: Orders of the NCDRC can be appealed directly to the Supreme Court of
India, making it the apex consumer dispute redressal authority before
reaching the highest judicial body.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/services-under-the-consumer-
protection-act/
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Right to Property was originally a fundamental right under the Indian
Constitution.
2. The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution removed the Right to
Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
3. The Right to Property is now a legal right under Article 300A of the Indian
Constitution.
4. The Right to Property cannot be restricted or regulated by the government.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● S1: True: The Right to Property was originally a fundamental right under the
Indian Constitution, enshrined in Articles 19(1)(f) and 31.
● S2: True: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed the Right to Property
from the list of Fundamental Rights. This amendment was enacted to
facilitate land reforms and address issues related to property holdings and
acquisition.
● S3: True: After the 44th Amendment, the Right to Property was made a legal
right under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution. This article states that
no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law, which
means the right is now subject to reasonable restrictions and is not absolute.
● S4: False: The Right to Property, as a legal right under Article 300A, can be
regulated and restricted by the government through the authority of law.
This allows the state to impose reasonable restrictions on property rights in
the public interest, such as for land acquisition and other regulatory
purposes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/supreme-court-orders-in-news/
12. Article 21 in the Constitution of India is related to:
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom of Religion
(c) Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
(d) Right against Exploitation
Ans: (c)
Explanation:

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● Article 21 of the Constitution of India states, "No person shall be

deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure
established by law." This fundamental right is a cornerstone of Indian
democracy, ensuring that every individual enjoys the right to live with dignity
and personal freedom. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted this
article expansively to include various derivative rights such as the right to
privacy, the right to a healthy environment, the right to shelter, and the right
to education. This broad interpretation underscores the importance of Article
21 in safeguarding the fundamental human rights of individuals against
arbitrary state actions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/supreme-court-orders-in-news/
13. Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Backward
Classes (NCBC):
1. The NCBC was given constitutional status by the 102nd Amendment Act,
2018.
2. The NCBC has the power to include or exclude communities from the Central
List of OBCs.
3. The NCBC's recommendations are binding on the government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
● It was established as a statutory body under the NCBC Act, 1993, and was
granted Constitutional Status through the 102nd Constitution
Amendment Act, 2018, with the insertion of Article 338B. The commission
consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three other Members in the
rank and pay of Secretary to the Government of India. Its mandate includes
investigating and monitoring all matters related to the safeguards provided
for socially and educationally backward classes. Additionally, the NCBC
advises the Central Government on OBC inclusion/exclusion requests
from state or central governments. Parliament has the power to include or
exclude communities from the Central List of OBCs.
● The commission presents its report to the President annually and at other
times as it deems fit. If the Government disagrees with its recommendations,
it must record its reasons.
● While the NCBC makes recommendations regarding the inclusion or
exclusion of communities in the Central List of OBCs, these
recommendations are not binding on the government. The final decision
rests with the government.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/ncbc-recommends-increasing-the-
reservation-quota-for-obcs/
14. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the concept of the “Right to
Dissent” in a democracy?
(a) The right to dissent allows citizens to peacefully oppose government policies
without fear of retribution.
(b) The right to dissent is an essential component of free speech and a
functioning democracy.
(c) Government authorities in a democracy have the right to suppress dissent to
prevent disruptions to public order.
(d) Both Statements (a) and (b) are correct.

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Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Recent incidents involving Sitaram Yechury and G Devarajan,
where changes were made to their speeches aired on Doordarshan and AIR,
have sparked controversy.
● Statement A is correct because the right to dissent is fundamental in a
democracy, allowing individuals and groups to express disagreement with
government actions and policies without facing retaliation or punishment.
This freedom is crucial for a healthy, dynamic political environment where
diverse opinions can contribute to better governance and accountability.
● Statement B is also correct as the right to dissent is closely linked to the
broader concept of free speech, which is a cornerstone of democratic
societies. This right ensures that citizens can freely express their views,
challenge authority, and participate in public discourse, which are all vital
for democracy to thrive.
● Statement C is incorrect because while governments may regulate dissent to
ensure it does not incite violence or chaos, outright suppression of dissent is
contrary to democratic principles. Democracies must balance maintaining
public order with protecting individual rights to free expression and protest.
Suppression of dissent typically leads to authoritarianism rather than the
healthy functioning of a democratic society.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/use-of-state-funded-media-during-
polls/
15. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the President to specify Scheduled
Tribes.
3. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India establishes Tribes’ Advisory
Councils.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. Article 342 (i)
empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule
establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils. STs constitute 8.6% of the Population
(census 2011). Draft National Tribal Policy, 2006 records 698 STs in India.
Bhil is the largest tribal group (38%) followed by Gonds. Madhya Pradesh has
the highest tribal Population in India. Santhal are the oldest Tribes in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-vital-role-played-by-tribal-
communities-in-preserving-forests/
16. Which of the following statements about ‘Form 17C’ is correct?
(a) Form 17C is used for the registration of a new political party with the
Election Commission of India.
(b) Form 17C is a statutory form used for recording the counting of votes in
elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) Form 17C is the form used by candidates to declare their assets and
liabilities before contesting in elections.

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(d) Form 17C is used to report election campaign expenses by political parties to
the Election Commission.
Ans: (b)
Explanation;
● Context: A dispute has arisen over the Election Commission’s (EC) handling
of voter turnout data, particularly related to Form 17C.
○ Form 17C records detailed polling data, including the number of
votes cast and rejected at each booth.
○ The Commission maintained there is no legal mandate for it to make
public the total number of votes cast in each polling station. It says
copies of Form 17C are shared with the polling agents present
immediately upon the close of polling.
● About Form 17C:
○ The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 require the EC to maintain two
forms- Forms 17A and 17C. Form 17A records the details of every
voter who enters a polling booth and casts their vote. Form 17C
contains the total number of votes cast.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/form-17c/
17. Consider the following statements about ‘Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot
System’ (ETPBS):
1. ETPBS is designed for use only by overseas citizens of the country.
2. ETPBS allows eligible voters to receive their postal ballots electronically and
return them via postal mail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) is a system
designed to facilitate voting for certain categories of voters who cannot vote
in person. This includes service voters (such as members of the armed
forces), their spouses, and other eligible individuals like those in diplomatic
missions. The key feature of ETPBS is that it allows these voters to receive
their postal ballots electronically. Once they receive the ballot, they can mark
their choices and return the ballot via postal mail. This system aims to make
the voting process more accessible and efficient for those who are unable to
vote in person due to their service obligations or location.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/special-categories-of-voters/
18. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
(a) Supreme Court of India
(b) Election Tribunals
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) High Courts
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Article 329(b) of the Constitution, found in Part XV alongside articles 324-
329, governs electoral matters.
● Article 324 grants the Election Commission powers to oversee elections,
while Article 329 addresses the judiciary’s role in electoral affairs.

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● Article 329(a) prohibits the judiciary from challenging laws regarding

electoral district boundaries or seat allocation.
● Article 329(b), as amended by the Constitution (19th Amendment) Act,
1966, mandates that elections can only be questioned through an
election petition presented according to laws made by the appropriate
Legislature.
● The Representation of the People Act, 1951, further establishes the
authority of high courts to hear and decide on election petitions, with
Supreme Court review possible.
● In past rulings, the Supreme Court clarified that “election” in Article 329(b)
encompasses the entire electoral process, from notification to result
declaration, and barred judicial interference at intermediary stages.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/article-329-b/

GEOGRAPHY

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Second Thomas Shoal is located near the Spratly Islands.
2. The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the East China Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation
● Context: Tensions have escalated at the Second Thomas Shoal, with China
blocking manoeuvres and disrupting supply missions. The Philippines has
refuted China’s claim of reaching an agreement over the South China Sea
dispute, labelling it as propaganda.
● Second Thomas Shoal (located near the Spratly Islands) is a submerged reef
in the South China Sea. The shoal is within the Philippines’ exclusive
economic zone (EEZ) but is also claimed by China.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/second-thomas-shoal-reef/
2. What is the "nine-dash line"?
(a) A maritime boundary line drawn by China to claim sovereignty over a vast
portion of the South China Sea.
(b) A historical demarcation line indicating traditional fishing grounds in
Southeast Asia.
(c) A boundary marker established by international consensus to delineate
territorial waters in the Pacific Ocean.
(d) An imaginary line used by navigators to indicate safe shipping lanes in the
Indian Ocean.
Ans: (a)
Explanation: About the South China Sea:
● It is a vast area of the western Pacific Ocean, stretching from Singapore and
the Strait of Malacca in the southwest to the Strait of Taiwan in the
northeast. It is a region of significant geopolitical tension due to various
territorial disputes. One major dispute involves the “nine-dash line”
claimed by China, which encompasses most of the South China Sea and
overlaps with the exclusive economic zone claims of several other countries,
including Brunei, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Taiwan, and Vietnam.
Key disputed features include:

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○Paracel Islands (controlled by China but also claimed by Taiwan and

Vietnam)
○ Spratly Islands (claimed by multiple countries including China,
Taiwan, Vietnam, the Philippines, and Malaysia)
○ Scarborough Shoal (claimed by China, Taiwan, and the Philippines)
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/second-thomas-shoal-reef/
3. Arrange the following locations in the direction of North to South:
1. Paracel Island
2. Spratly Island
3. Natuna Island
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
●

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/second-thomas-shoal-reef/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

4. Consider the following pairs[River: Origin]:

1. Narmada River: Amarkantak Hill
2. Tapi River: Satpura Range
3. Cauvery River: Brahmagiri Range
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Narmada River System
○ The Narmada is a river located in central India.
○ It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh
state.
○ It outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South
India.
○ It is one of the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada,
the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west.
○ The river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and
Maharashtra.
○ It drains into the Arabian Sea in the Bharuch district of Gujarat.
● The Tapi River System
○ It is a central Indian river. It is one of the most important rivers of
peninsular India with the run from east to west.
○ It originates in the Eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya
Pradesh state.
○ It flows in a westward direction, draining some important historic
places like Madhya Pradesh’s Nimar region, East Vidarbha region and
Maharashtra’s Khandesh in the northwest corner of the Deccan
Plateau and South Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Cambay of
the Arabian Sea.
○ The River Basin of Tapi River lies mostly in eastern and northern
districts of Maharashtra state.
○ The river also covers some districts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
as well.
○ The principal tributaries of Tapi River are Waghur River, Aner River,
Girna River, Purna River, Panzara River and Bori River.
● The River Cauvery originates at Talakaveri in Coorg District of Karnataka in
Brahmagiri Range of hills in the Western ghats
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/baseflow-in-rivers/
5. With reference to criterion for declaring heat wave in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at
least 400C or more for Plains and at least 30 0C or more for Hilly regions.
2. The peak month of the heat wave over India is May.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:

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● Context: A recent study by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology

(IITM) predicts a significant warming of the Indian Ocean, leading to a tenfold
increase in marine heatwaves, from an average of 20 days per year to 220–
250 days per year. The Arabian Sea experiences maximum warming.
●

●
● What is the period of heat waves over India?
○ It is occurring mainly during March to June and in some rare cases
even in July. The peak month of the heat wave over India is May.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/indian-ocean/
6. Consider the following statements:
1. Indonesia is the world's largest island country by total area.
2. The capital city of Indonesia is Manila.
3. Mount Fuji, an iconic volcano, is located in Indonesia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Only statement 1 is correct.
● S1: Indonesia is an archipelago comprising over 17,000 islands and is the
world's largest island country by total area.
● S2:Manila is the capital of the Philippines.
○ The Indonesian Government has devised a plan to relocate the
capital to Nusantara, a new city, which is reportedly under
construction on the eastern coast of Borneo, approximately 870 miles
north of Jakarta.
● S3: Mount Fuji is located in Japan, not Indonesia. Indonesia is known for its
volcanoes, including Mount Bromo and Mount Krakatoa, but not Mount Fuji.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/indonesia/
7. The Atacama Desert is renowned for being:
(a) The wettest desert on Earth
(b) The coldest desert on Earth
(c) The hottest desert on Earth
(d) The driest desert on Earth
Ans: (d)
Explanation:

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● Context: The completion ceremony for the TAO telescope site was held in
Santiago, Chile.
● The Atacama Desert is famous for its extreme aridity, making it the driest
desert on Earth. Its unique climate conditions have led to its reputation as
one of the most inhospitable environments on the planet.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/the-university-of-tokyo-atacama-
observatory-tao-project/
8. What geological feature is characteristic of the Atacama Desert?
(a) Sand dunes
(b) Volcanoes
(c) Salt flats
(d) Mountain ranges
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Salt flats, also known as salars, are a prominent geological feature of the
Atacama Desert. These vast expanses of dried salt lakes create a surreal
landscape that adds to the desert's unique allure.
Rfer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/the-university-of-tokyo-atacama-
observatory-tao-project/
9. Shaksgam Valley is situated to the
(a) East of Aksai Chin
(b) North of the Karakoram watershed
(c) South of Gilgit
(d) South of Nubra Valley
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Shaksgam Valley (also called Trans-Karakoram Tract) is an area of about
5,200 km2 north of the Karakoram watershed, administered by China,
but claimed by India. While under Pakistan’s control since 1947, Pakistan
recognized Chinese sovereignty over it in the 1963 Sino-Pakistan Agreement.
India disputes this claim, asserting it is part of the Kashmir region. The
Shaksgam Valley is strategically important due to its proximity to the
Siachen glacier, a critical area amidst India-China tensions.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/shaksgam-valley-of-pakistan-
occupied-kashmir/

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10. Consider the following statements about Mount Ruang:

1. It is located in the Andes mountain range.
2. It is an active volcano situated in Indonesia.
3. It is the highest peak in Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 Only
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering
the highest level of alert.
● Indonesia is home to many volcanoes due to its location along the Pacific
Ring of Fire, where several tectonic plates meet and interact. This
convergence creates intense geological activity, including the subduction of
oceanic plates beneath continental plates, which leads to volcanic eruptions.
Indonesia has approximately 130 active volcanoes.
● Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands.
Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and Semeru.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/
11. Consider the following volcanoes:
1. Krakatau
2. Merapi
3. Semeru
How many of the above volcanoes are situated in Indonesia?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ruang volcano recently erupted, triggering the
highest level of alert.
● Mount Ruang is a stratovolcano situated in Indonesia’s Sulawesi Islands.
Other notable volcanoes in Indonesia include Krakatau, Merapi, and
Semeru.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/mount-ruang-indonesia/
12. Which of the following statements about meteor showers is correct?
(a) Meteor showers occur when comets pass close to Earth's orbit.
(b) Meteor showers are caused by the collision of asteroids with Earth's
atmosphere.
(c) Meteor showers happen when Earth passes through the debris left behind by
a comet or asteroid.
(d) Meteor showers only occur during daytime.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The Eta Aquariids meteor showers, active from April 16, will peak
on May 5 and 6.

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○ This annual event, caused by debris from Halley’s Comet, peaks on

May 5 and 6. It’s known for its rapid speed, producing long, glowing
tails. Best observed from the Southern Hemisphere, around 30 to 40
meteors can be seen per hour during peak times.
● Meteor showers occur when Earth's orbit intersects with the debris trail
left behind by a comet or, less commonly, an asteroid. As Earth moves
through this debris field, particles burn up in the atmosphere, creating
streaks of light commonly known as "shooting stars." Comets, with their
dusty tails, are the primary source of meteor showers.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/eta-aquariid-meteor-shower/
13. The Bhadra river originates from the
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Amarkantak Range
(d) Eastern Himalaya
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The Bhadra is a river in Karnataka state in southern India.
● It originates in Gangamoola near Kudremukha, Western Ghats range, and
flows east across the southern part of Deccan Plateau, joined by its
tributaries the Somavahini near Hebbe, Thadabehalla, and
Odirayanahalla. It flows through the towns of Kudremukh, Kalasa,
Horanadu, Haluvalli, Balehonnur, Balehole and Narasimharajapura.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/bhadra-tiger-reserve/
14. ‘Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura, and Kalapani’ are in news related to:
(a) Border disputes between India and Pakistan
(b) Territorial disputes between Israel and Syria
(c) Conflict between India and Nepal
(d) Maritime disputes in the South China Sea
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Nepal plans to introduce a new Rs 100 currency note featuring
disputed territories with India, including Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura, and
Kalapani.
● Previously, in 2020, Nepal passed its second Constitution Amendment Bill
which provided legal status to its claims over these territories
● India has objected to this move, considering it an “artificial enlargement” of
territorial claims.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/lipulekh-limpiyadhura-and-
kalapani-nepal/
15. Arrange the following territories in the direction of West to East:
1. Lipulekh
2. Limpiyadhura
3. Kalapani
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-3-1
(c) 1-3-2
(d) 2-1-3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:

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● Kalapani is the largest territorial dispute between Nepal and India, situated
at a tri-junction with Tibet (China). The disagreement stems from the origin
of River Kali, demarcated in the Treaty of Sagauli (1816). Nepal claims the
river west of Kalapani as the main River Kali, originating at Limpiyadhura or
Lipulekh pass, while India argues it originates from a rivulet named
Pankhagad, defining the border differently.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/lipulekh-limpiyadhura-and-
kalapani-nepal/
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Mullaperiyar Dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar
rivers.
2. The Periyar National Park is located around the dam's reservoir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● It is a masonry gravity dam situated on the Periyar River in Thekkady, Idukki
district, in Kerala.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/mullaperiyar-dam-issue-5/

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17. Consider the following statements about Hopen Island:

1. It is located in the Caribbean Sea.
2. It is known for its tropical climate and lush rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: The first case of a walrus dying from bird flu was recorded on
Hopen Island in the Svalbard archipelago. However, it’s unclear whether it
was the H5N1 or H5N8 strain, and there’s a possibility that other walruses
found also had bird flu.
● Hopen, an island in the Svalbard archipelago (Norway), was discovered in
1596 during Willem Barentsz’s expedition. Since 1947, the Norwegian
Meteorological Institute has operated a staffed weather station on the island
with a crew of four. Hopen is home to a significant number of polar bears in
winter. Additionally, Hopen is recognized as an Important Bird Area by
BirdLife International
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/hopen-island-svalbard-archipelago/
18. Consider the following statements:
1. It is a country in Northeast Africa.
2. It was the largest country by area in Africa and the Arab League until the
secession of one of its territories.
3. It has been plagued by violent conflict and humanitarian crises recently.
Above statements refer to which one of the following nations?
(a) Chad
(b) Eritrea
(c) Sudan
(d) Ethiopia
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Sudan is a country in Northeast Africa. It borders the Central African
Republic to the southwest, Chad to the west, Egypt to the north, Eritrea to
the northeast, Ethiopia to the southeast, Libya to the northwest, South
Sudan to the south, and the Red Sea. It was the largest country by area in
Africa and the Arab League until the secession of South Sudan in 2011.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/darfur-sudan/
19. Consider the following statements about Urban Heat Island:
1. UHI is caused by the absorption of solar radiation by buildings and
pavement, which is then re-radiated as heat.
2. The UHI effect is more pronounced during the night than during the day.
3. Planting more trees in urban areas can exacerbate the UHI effect.
4. UHI contributes to increased energy consumption for cooling purposes in
urban areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● S1: Correct. Urban Heat Island (UHI) is primarily caused by the absorption of
solar radiation by urban surfaces like buildings and pavement, which leads
to increased heat release compared to natural surfaces like vegetation.
● S2: Correct. The UHI effect is often more pronounced during the night as
urban structures retain heat absorbed during the day and release it slowly,
keeping temperatures elevated compared to surrounding rural areas.
● S3: Incorrect. Planting trees in urban areas can mitigate the UHI effect by
providing shade and evaporative cooling through transpiration, thereby
reducing surface temperatures.
● S4: Correct. UHI contributes to increased energy consumption for cooling
purposes in urban areas, as higher temperatures necessitate more extensive
use of air conditioning and other cooling systems to maintain indoor comfort
levels.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/reports-study-in-news-3/
20. What is the Batagay crater?
(a) A volcanic crater located in Russia's Kamchatka Peninsula.
(b) A meteorite impact crater found in northern Canada.
(c) A thermokarst depression in the Siberian tundra.
(d) An artificial excavation site in South America.
Ans: (c)
Explanation;
● Context: Siberia’s “gateway to the underworld,” the Batagay crater, is
expanding at an alarming rate of 35 million cubic feet (1 million cubic
meters) annually due to permafrost thaw.
● What is Batagaika Crater?
○ Located in Russia’s Far East is the world’s largest permafrost
crater, formed by melting permafrost dating back to the Quaternary
Ice Age. It began to form in the 1960s when surrounding forest
clearance triggered permafrost thaw, causing the land to sink.
However, thawing permafrost poses environmental risks, as the
release of organic carbon into the atmosphere could exacerbate global
warming.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/batagay-crater-permafrost/
21. Consider the following statements:
1. Permafrost is only found in polar regions.
2. Permafrost is a type of rock formation.
3. Permafrost is not affected by climate change
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Explanation:

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● Permafrost refers to ground that remains frozen for two or more

consecutive years, typically found in polar regions but also in some
high-altitude or high-latitude regions.S1 is incorrect because permafrost
can also exist in non-polar regions. S2 is incorrect because permafrost is not
a type of rock but rather a type of ground condition. S3 is incorrect because
permafrost is indeed affected by climate change, with rising temperatures
causing it to thaw, which can lead to infrastructure damage, such as roads,
buildings, and pipelines, due to ground instability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/batagay-crater-permafrost/
22. Consider the following statements about the Aravalli Range:
1. It is the oldest mountain range in India.
2. It stretches from Gujarat to West Bengal.
3. Mount Abu, the only hill station in the state of Rajasthan, is located in the
Aravalli Range.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● The Supreme Court has prohibited four states—Delhi, Rajasthan, Haryana,
and Gujarat—from granting fresh mining leases in the Aravalli region.
● This directive, based on a report by the Central Empowered Committee
(CEC), includes hills and a 100-meter-wide buffer zone around them.
● The Aravalli Range, among the world’s oldest fold mountains, is home to
diverse flora and fauna, with significant rivers originating from its slopes.
However, it faces major threats such as illegal mining, deforestation, and
undermining of the Natural Conservation Zone (NCZ) designation,
particularly by Haryana.
● Mount Abu is Rajasthan's only hill station, which is located in the Sirohi
district, within the Aravalli Range.
●
●

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/places-in-news/

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23. Which of the following statements about the Cook Islands is correct?
(a) The Cook Islands is an independent country in free association with New
Zealand.
(b) The Cook Islands is a territory of Australia.
(c) The Cook Islands is a part of French Polynesia.
(d) The Cook Islands is a sovereign state within the United Nations.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The Cook Islands in association with New Zealand, is spearheading deep-
sea mining exploration for minerals crucial in electric car batteries.
● The Cook Islands, a self-governing island state, is situated in the South
Pacific Ocean, with its capital at Avarua on Rarotonga Island. The
Northern islands are low-lying coral atolls, while the Southern islands are
larger and volcanic.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/places-in-news/
24. Which of the following statements about auroras is true?
(a) Auroras occur only in the Northern Hemisphere.
(b) Auroras are caused by the reflection of sunlight off polar ice caps.
(c) The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth's
atmosphere.
(d) Auroras are only visible during daytime.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The colors of auroras are determined by the types of gases in the Earth's
atmosphere. When charged particles from the Sun collide with gas molecules
in the Earth's atmosphere, they emit light of various colors. Oxygen
molecules typically produce green and red auroras, while nitrogen molecules
produce blue and purple auroras.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/
25. During a geomagnetic storm:
(a) The Earth's magnetic field weakens, allowing more solar radiation to
penetrate the atmosphere.
(b) The Earth's magnetic field strengthens, shielding the planet from solar
radiation.
(c) The Earth's magnetic field remains unchanged, having no effect on solar
radiation.
(d) The Earth's magnetic field fluctuates, causing disturbances in the
magnetosphere and ionosphere.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:

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● Geomagnetic storms occur when there is a significant disturbance in the

Earth's magnetosphere, caused by changes in the solar wind or solar
magnetic field interacting with the Earth's magnetic field. These storms can
lead to fluctuations in the Earth's magnetic field, causing disturbances in the
magnetosphere and ionosphere. These disturbances can result in various
effects such as auroras, radio communication disruptions, and potential
damage to satellites and electrical power grids. Therefore, option D is the
correct choice as it accurately describes the impact of geomagnetic storms on
the Earth's magnetic field.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/
26. With reference to Coronal mass ejections (CMEs), consider the following statements:
1. CMEs are bursts of solar wind expelled from the Sun's corona.
2. CMEs primarily consist of charged particles, such as protons and electrons.
3. CMEs have little to no impact on Earth's magnetic field and ionosphere.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● S1: Correct. Coronal mass ejections (CMEs) are indeed bursts of solar wind
expelled from the Sun's corona. These ejections are significant events
involving the release of a large amount of plasma and magnetic field from the
solar corona into space.
● S2: Incorrect. While CMEs do consist of charged particles, they are not
primarily composed of charged particles. CMEs contain mostly plasma,
which is a state of matter consisting of ionized gas particles. This plasma
contains charged particles like protons and electrons, but it also includes
neutral particles.
● S3: Incorrect. CMEs can have a significant impact on Earth's magnetic field
and ionosphere. When the charged particles associated with a CME interact
with Earth's magnetosphere, they can cause geomagnetic storms, which may
disrupt satellite operations, communication systems, and power grids.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/geomagnetic-storms/
27. Consider the following statements about Chabahar Port:
1. Chabahar Port is located in Oman.
2. It serves as a crucial hub for trade between India, Afghanistan, and Iran.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● Chabahar Port is indeed located in Iran, specifically in the southeastern

region of the country, near the border with Pakistan. It serves as a
significant strategic point for trade, particularly for India, Afghanistan, and
Iran, providing an alternative route for connectivity and reducing dependence
on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. The port has
garnered international attention for its potential to boost regional trade and
economic development, especially with the construction of infrastructure
such as roads and rail links connecting it to Afghanistan and beyond.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/chabahar-port-4/
28. Consider the following statements:
1. Chabahar port is located in Iraq.
2. Chabahar port is solely operated by India.
3. Chabahar port is primarily used for military purposes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: The US has warned of potential sanctions following India’s signing
of a 10-year contract with Iran to operate the Chabahar port.
● Chabahar port is located in Iran, not Iraq (S1 is incorrect). While India has
invested significantly in the development of the Chabahar port, it is not
solely operated by India (S2 is incorrect). The strategic importance of
Chabahar lies in its role as a gateway for trade to Afghanistan and Central
Asia, providing an alternative route that bypasses Pakistan. Chabahar port is
primarily a commercial port, and its main purpose is trade, not military
activities (S3 is incorrect).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/chabahar-port-5/
29. Which of the following statements about Sahul is correct?
(a) Sahul is an ancient civilization located in South America.
(b) Sahul is the largest island in the world, situated in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) Sahul is a landmass that once connected Australia, New Guinea, and
Tasmania.
(d) Sahul is a term used to describe a traditional dance form in Africa.
Ans: (c)
Explanation;
● Sahul refers to the landmass that existed during the last glacial maximum
when the sea levels were lower, connecting present-day Australia, New
Guinea, and Tasmania into a single landmass. This land bridge facilitated
human migration and the spread of flora and fauna between these regions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/sahul/
30. With reference to Soil nailing, consider the following statements:
1. Soil nailing is a technique used to stabilize slopes and excavations.
2. Soil nails are typically installed vertically to provide maximum stability.
3. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to
enhance its strength.
4. Soil nailing is primarily used in soft soils with high moisture content.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one

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(b) Only two

(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statement 1: Correct. Soil nailing is indeed a technique used to stabilize
slopes and excavations. It involves inserting reinforcing elements, called soil
nails, into the ground to create a composite mass that resists deformation.
● Statement 2: Incorrect. Soil nails are typically installed at an angle, not
vertically. The angle of installation is usually between 10 to 20 degrees from
the horizontal to provide optimal stability and resistance to the forces acting
on the slope or excavation.
● Statement 3: Correct. The technique involves the insertion of reinforcing
elements, usually steel bars, into the soil to enhance its strength and
stability.
● Statement 4: Incorrect. While soil nailing can be used in various soil types, it
is not primarily for soft soils with high moisture content. The method is
versatile and can be used in a range of soil conditions, but it is particularly
effective in stiff clays, dense sands, and other cohesive soils.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/soil-nailing/
31. Which of the following conditions are most likely to lead to the development of
thunderstorms?
(a) High-pressure systems with descending air
(b) Warm, moist air rising into cooler air
(c) Cold, dry air descending into warmer air
(d) Stable air masses with minimal vertical movement
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: India is establishing its first research testbed to study severe
thunderstorms known as Nor’westers, primarily affecting the eastern and
northeastern regions.
● Thunderstorms are most likely to develop under conditions where
warm, moist air rises into cooler air. This process is called convection. As
the warm, moist air ascends, it cools and the water vapor condenses into
clouds, releasing latent heat. This heat further fuels the rising air, leading to
the formation of cumulonimbus clouds, which are characteristic of
thunderstorms. In contrast, high-pressure systems with descending air, cold,
dry air descending into warmer air, and stable air masses with minimal
vertical movement do not favor the development of thunderstorms because
they do not promote the necessary rising motion and moisture needed for
thunderstorm formation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/norwesters/
32. Consider the following statements regarding Nor’westers:
1. Nor’westers are most commonly observed during the pre-monsoon months,
particularly from March to May.
2. These thunderstorms predominantly affect the coastal regions of India,
especially the western coast.
3. Nor’westers play a crucial role in the agriculture of eastern India by providing
much-needed rain for crops such as jute and rice.
4. The primary cause of Nor’westers is the interaction between hot and humid
air from the Bay of Bengal and cold, dry air from the northwest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statement 1: Correct. Nor’westers are indeed most commonly observed
during the pre-monsoon months, particularly from March to May. This is the
period when the conditions for their formation are most favorable.
● Statement 2: Incorrect. Nor’westers predominantly affect the eastern and
northeastern regions of India, particularly states like West Bengal, Odisha,
Bihar, Assam, and Jharkhand, rather than the coastal regions of the western
coast.
● Statement 3: Correct. Nor’westers are vital for the agriculture of eastern India
as they provide essential rainfall for crops such as jute and rice, helping to
mitigate the effects of dry conditions.
● Statement 4: Incorrect. While the interaction between hot, humid air from
the Bay of Bengal and cold, dry air from the northwest contributes to the
formation of Nor’westers, this is not the primary cause. The primary
mechanism involves intense surface heating and the lifting of moist air,
leading to the development of these violent thunderstorms.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/norwesters/

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33. Consider the following pairs[Location/region: Country ]:

1. New Caledonia: Spain
2. Cartagena: Switzerland
3. Region of Murcia: Sudan
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● S1: A state of emergency has been declared by France in New Caledonia,
including curfews and bans on gatherings and alcohol sales.
○ New Caledonia is a French overseas territory in the South West
Pacific Ocean. Its maritime neighbours include Australia, Fiji, New
Zealand, Papua New Guinea, and Vanuatu. Though it is one of the
European Union’s Overseas Countries and Territories (OCTs), New
Caledonia is not part of the EU, Euro, or Schengen zones. The
Lagoons of New Caledonia and associated coral reef ecosystem are a
UNESCO World Heritage site.

○
● S2 and S3: Spain has refused permission for an Israel-bound ship carrying
arms to call at the southeastern port of Cartagena. The Marianne Danica,
carrying nearly 27 tons of explosive material from India’s Madras
○ What is a Port of Call?: A port of call is a designated stop where a
ship docks during its journey. It serves as a temporary destination
where passengers and cargo can embark or disembark, and where
the ship can refuel, take on supplies, or undergo maintenance if
necessary.
○ Cartagena is a port city and naval base in the Murcia region of
southeast Spain.

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○
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/places-in-news-2/
34. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth's magnetic field is generated by the motion of molten iron alloys in
its outer core.
2. The Earth's magnetic field has remained constant throughout geological
history.
3. The magnetic north and south poles of the Earth are fixed and do not move.
4. The Earth's magnetic field protects the planet from the solar wind and
cosmic radiation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: About 600 million years ago, Earth’s magnetic field weakened
significantly, allowing more solar radiation to reach the planet.
● Statement 1 is true because the Earth's magnetic field is indeed generated by
the motion of molten iron alloys in the Earth's outer core. This process,
known as the geodynamo, creates electric currents which, in turn, produce
magnetic fields.
● Statement 2 is false because the Earth's magnetic field has not remained
constant throughout geological history. It undergoes periodic reversals and
fluctuations.
● Statement 3 is false because the magnetic north and south poles are not
fixed. They wander over time due to changes in the flow of molten iron within
the Earth's outer core.
● Statement 4 is true because the Earth's magnetic field acts as a shield,
protecting the planet from harmful solar wind and cosmic radiation, which
would otherwise strip away the atmosphere and expose the surface to
intense radiation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/earths-magnetic-field-2/
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth's magnetic north pole is the point on the Earth's surface where the
geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically downwards.

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2. The magnetic north pole is located at the same position as the geographic
North Pole.
3. The magnetic south pole is the point on the Earth's surface where the
geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically upwards.
4. The current magnetic north pole is moving towards Russia at a rate of
approximately 10 kilometers per year.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1: Correct: The Earth's magnetic north pole is indeed the point on the
Earth's surface where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically
downwards. This is where a magnetic compass needle would point straight
down.
● S2: Incorrect: The magnetic north pole is not located at the same position as
the geographic North Pole. They are distinct and the magnetic north pole
moves due to changes in the Earth's magnetic field.
● S3: Correct: The magnetic south pole is the point on the Earth's surface
where the geomagnetic field lines are directed vertically upwards.
● S4: Incorrect: While the magnetic north pole is indeed moving, the current
rate is closer to approximately 34 miles (55 kilometers) per year, not 10
kilometers per year.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/earths-magnetic-field-2/
36. Consider the following statements:
1. The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
2. The Strait of Gibraltar separates the continents of Europe and Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:

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● Context: A sailing yacht sank in Moroccan waters near the Strait of Gibraltar
after being rammed by orcas.
● About the Strait of Gibraltar:
○ It is a vital shipping route connecting the Mediterranean Sea to
the Atlantic Ocean and has been the site of recent orca attacks on
vessels. It acts as a natural choke point between Europe and Africa.

○
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/strait-of-gibraltar/
37. The Kaundinya and Kaigal rivers are tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) Krishna River
(b) Palar River
(c) Kaveri River
(d) Pennar River
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The Sri Lankan golden-backed frog has been rediscovered in India after 200
years at Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary.
● Located in the Kuppam and Palmaner Ranges of Chittoor district, Andhra
Pradesh, it is the only sanctuary in the state known for Asian elephants. The
Kaundinya and Kaigal tributaries of the Palar River flow through it.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/places-in-news-3/
38. Consider the following statements:
1. Ujani Dam is situated on the Bhima River.
2. The dam is located in the state of Karnataka, India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Six people, including two children, drowned after their boat
capsized in the Ujani dam backwaters in Maharashtra’s Pune district due to
strong winds and rains.
● About Ujani Dam:
○ Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur
district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric
power.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

39. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chandrabagha River originates in the Eastern Ghats.
2. It flows through the state of Odisha in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About Bhima River:
● It is also known as the Chandrabagha River, it is a major tributary of the
Krishna River. Originates in the Bhimashankar hills near Karjat, Pune
District, Maharashtra. Flows southeast through Maharashtra, Karnataka,
and Telangana, merging into the Krishna River at Kadlur, Karnataka.
Pandharpur, an important pilgrimage centre, is situated on its right bank.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/
40. Which of the following countries does Israel share a border with?
(a) Lebanon
(b) Jordan
(c) Egypt
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Explanation:

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/
41. Which of the following statements about stratovolcanoes is correct?
(a) They are primarily composed of basaltic lava flows.
(b) They are characterized by gentle slopes and broad bases.
(c) They typically erupt with low explosivity.
(d) They are also known as composite volcanoes.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Stratovolcanoes, also known as composite volcanoes, are characterized
by their steep slopes and conical shape, which are formed by alternating
layers of lava flows, volcanic ash, cinders, and volcanic rocks. Unlike shield
volcanoes, which are primarily composed of basaltic lava flows and have
gentle slopes, stratovolcanoes exhibit a more explosive nature due to the
viscosity of their magma. They often erupt with high explosivity, producing
pyroclastic flows, lahars, and ash plumes. Therefore, option D is correct.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/indonesias-mount-ibu/

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42. Mount Ibu is located in:

(a) Indonesia
(b) Japan
(c) Philippines
(d) Papua New Guinea
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Indonesia’s Mount Ibu on Halmahera island erupted, sending ash
4 km high with purple lightning flashing around its crater.
● About Mount Ibu
○ Mount Ibu is a stratovolcano on the northwest coast of Halmahera
Island, Indonesia. It stands 1,377 meters above sea level and spans
16 km east-west and 13 km north-south. Known for frequent
eruptions, it recorded 21,100 eruptions in 2023, making it the second
most active volcano in Indonesia.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/indonesias-mount-ibu/
43. Consider the following statements:
1. Nanda Devi, the second highest peak in India, is located in the Kumaon
Himalayas.
2. The Kumaon Himalayas are bounded by the Sutlej River to the west and the
Kali River to the east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Kumaon Himalayas:
● Location: West-central Himalayas in northern India, within Uttarakhand,
northwest of Nepal.
● Boundaries: Between the Sutlej River (west) and Kali River (east).
● Ranges: Part of the Siwalik Range (south) and Great Himalayas (north).
● Highest Peaks: Nanda Devi and Kamet.
● Lakes: Naini Lake, Sattal, Bhimtal, Naukuchiya Tal.
● Hill Stations: Nainital, Ranikhet, Almora.
● Indigenous People: Tharus, Bhutiyas, Jaunsaris, Buksas, Rajis.
● Concerns: Ecologically fragile and seismic-prone area.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/kumaon-himalayas/
44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Shiwalik Range is primarily composed of sedimentary rocks.
2. This range is known for its rich deposits of fossil fuels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:

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● The Shiwalik Range is primarily composed of sedimentary rocks. However, it

does not have significant fossil fuel deposits and has a lower average
elevation, typically ranging from 900 to 1,200 meters above sea level.
● Extent: 1,600 km from the Teesta River (Sikkim) through Nepal and India to
northern Pakistan.
● Parallel: Runs with the Himalayan system from Haridwar (Ganges) to the
Beas River.
● Composition: Low sandstone and conglomerate hills.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/kumaon-himalayas/
45. Which of the following statements correctly describe the location of the Gulf of
Naples?
(a) The Gulf of Naples is situated on the eastern coast of Italy, in the Adriatic
Sea.
(b) The Gulf of Naples is located in the southern part of Italy, along the
Tyrrhenian Sea.
(c) The Gulf of Naples is found in the northern region of Italy, bordering the
Ligurian Sea.
(d) The Gulf of Naples is located on the western coast of Italy, in the
Mediterranean Sea near Rome.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The Gulf of Naples is a geographical feature situated in the southern part of
Italy, specifically on the southwestern coast, along the Tyrrhenian Sea.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/campi-flegrei-italy/

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46. Where is Campi Flegrei (Phlegrean Fields) volcano located?

(a) Greece
(b) Italy
(c) Spain
(d) France
Ans: (b)
Explanation: What is Campi Flegrei?
● Campi Flegrei (Phlegrean Fields) is an active volcanic area near Naples, Italy,
known for its complex volcanic system rather than a single volcano. The
region’s caldera, formed 39,000 years ago, spans 12-15 km in diameter, with
one-third under the Tyrrhenian Sea. It is the largest active caldera in Europe
and more active than nearby Mount Vesuvius. Campi Flegrei has been
restless since 1950 due to bradyseism, a phenomenon involving surface
movement from underground magma chamber activity. Its last eruption in
1538 created Monte Nuovo.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/campi-flegrei-italy/
47. Consider the following statements regarding Urban heat island.
1. An urban heat island is experienced when certain areas within a city
experience higher heat load than surrounding areas on the same day.
2. It is a local and temporary phenomenon.
3. Construction of high-rise buildings rather than two storey building helps in
reducing the Urban heat island.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● An urban heat island is a local and temporary phenomenon experienced
when certain pockets within a city experience higher heat load than
surrounding or neighbouring areas on the same day. The temperature
variation can range between 3 to 5 degrees Celsius.
● Rural areas have relatively larger green cover in the form of plantations,
farmlands, forests and trees as compared to urban spaces. This green cover
plays a major role in regulating heat in its surroundings.
● On the contrary, urban areas lack sufficient green cover or gardens and are
often developed with highrise buildings, roads, parking spaces, pavements
and transit routes for public transport. As a result, heat regulation is either
completely absent or man-made.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/rising-heat-stress-and-its-
mitigation/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Consider the following statements about Salmonella :

1. It is a virus.
2. Its infection is typically transmitted through airborne droplets.
3. It can cause food poisoning.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Only statement 3 is correct.
● Context: Over the past six months, US customs authorities have rejected
31% of all spice-related shipments from Mahashian Di Hatti (MDH) due to
salmonella contamination concerns.
● Salmonella is a genus of bacteria that can cause food poisoning in humans.
● It is one of the most common causes of foodborne illness worldwide.
● Salmonella bacteria typically infect the intestinal tract and can cause
symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, fever, and vomiting.
● Contamination usually occurs through the consumption of
contaminated food or water, particularly raw or undercooked poultry,
eggs, meat, and dairy products.
● Proper food handling, cooking, and hygiene practices are essential for
preventing salmonella infections.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/salmonella-contamination-in-
spices/
2. Which of the following statements about biohacking is true?
(a) Biohacking exclusively involves genetic modification of organisms.
(b) Biohacking is primarily focused on enhancing human performance through
technological means.
(c) Biohacking refers to illegal activities involving biological materials.
(d) Biohacking is a term used only in the context of medical research.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Biohacking is gaining traction in India, with enthusiasts
experimenting with various techniques like cryotherapy and IV therapy.
● What is Biohacking?
○ Biohacking involves using scientific knowledge and experimentation
to optimize one’s body and mind. It encompasses various practices
aimed at improving physical and mental performance, longevity, and
overall well-being.
● Examples of biohacking include:
○ Dietary Modifications: Following specific diets like ketogenic diet or
intermittent fasting to enhance energy levels and metabolic health.
○ Supplementation: Taking supplements such as vitamins, minerals, or
nootropics to improve cognitive function, mood, or physical
performance.
○ Physical Training: Engaging in tailored exercise routines, including
high-intensity interval training (HIIT) or strength training, to build
strength, endurance, and resilience.

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○Sleep Optimization: Employing techniques like sleep tracking,

creating ideal sleep environments, or using sleep aids to enhance
sleep quality and duration.
○ Mindfulness Practices: Practicing meditation, deep breathing
exercises, or mindfulness techniques to reduce stress, improve focus,
and promote mental well-being.
○ Biometric Monitoring: Using wearable devices or apps to track metrics
such as heart rate variability, sleep patterns, and activity levels to
gain insights into overall health and performance.
○ Biofeedback Devices: Utilizing devices like neurofeedback or heart
rate variability monitors to train the body’s physiological responses
and improve stress management and emotional regulation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/biohacking/
3. What is ‘K2-18b’, sometimes mentioned in the news?
(a) Electric Missile
(b) Solar powered satellite
(c) Exoplanet
(d) Water technology
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The James Webb Space Telescope is gearing up for a significant
mission targeting K2-18b, a distant planet with potential for extra-terrestrial
life.
● Scientists are focusing on detecting dimethyl sulphide (DMS) in its
atmosphere, a gas primarily produced by life on Earth. Preliminary data
suggests a high probability of DMS presence.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-
dms/
4. Consider the following statements about James Webb Space Telescope:
1. JWST is primarily designed to study Earth's atmosphere.
2. JWST operates in low Earth orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About James Webb Space Telescope:
● Collaboration between NASA, ESA, and the Canadian Space Agency.
● Launched in December 2021.
● Currently positioned at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, around 1.5
million km from Earth’s orbit.
● Largest and most powerful infrared space telescope.
● Objectives: To explore cosmic history from the Big Bang to the
evolution of galaxies, stars, planets, and our Solar System.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/01/k2-18b-and-dimethyl-sulphide-
dms/
5. How does ethylene gas affect the ripening of fruits and vegetables?
(a) It inhibits the production of enzymes involved in ripening.
(b) It accelerates the breakdown of carbohydrates, leading to ripening.
(c) It increases the acidity of fruits, enhancing their flavor profile.

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(d) It reduces the water content in fruits, resulting in faster ripening.

Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Ethylene:
● Ethylene is a colorless, flammable, and lighter-than-air hydrocarbon gas with
a sweet, musky odour and the chemical formula C₂ H₄ or H₂ C=CH₂ .
● It is the simplest alkene and the second simplest unsaturated hydrocarbon.
● Ethylene is a plant hormone that regulates growth and senescence and
is used in agriculture to ripen fruits and germinate seeds.
○ Ethylene gas promotes fruit ripening by stimulating the breakdown of
complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars, which leads to softening,
color changes, and flavor development
● Ethylene is also widely used in the chemical industry, and the world
produces more ethylene than any other organic compound.
● Polyethene is produced using ethylene.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/ethylene/
6. Which of the following statements about mRNA vaccines are correct?
(a) mRNA vaccines use a harmless virus to deliver genetic material into the
body's cells.
(b) mRNA vaccines work by introducing a small piece of the virus's genetic
material into the body, which prompts the immune system to produce
antibodies.
(c) mRNA vaccines do not require the use of adjuvants, as they stimulate a
robust immune response on their own.
(d) mRNA vaccines have been widely used for decades in various medical
applications prior to their adoption for COVID-19
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: AstraZeneca has acknowledged that its COVID-19 vaccine, known
as Covishield in India, can lead to a rare side effect called Thrombosis with
Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
○ Despite this rare side effect, experts assert that the benefits of
vaccination, particularly in saving lives during the pandemic,
outweigh the risks.
○ The risk period for TTS is shortly after vaccination.
● mRNA vaccines, such as Moderna and Pfizer-BioNTech developed for COVID-
19, work by delivering a small piece of the virus's genetic material (mRNA)
into cells. Once inside the cell, the mRNA instructs the cell to produce a
protein similar to one found on the virus's surface. This prompts the immune
system to recognize and produce antibodies against the virus.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/thrombosis-with-thrombocytopenia-
syndrome-tts/
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Thrombosis is the process of blood clot formation within a blood vessel.
2. Thrombosis only occurs in arteries.
3. Thrombosis is always caused by physical injury to the blood vessel.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)

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Explanation:
● Only statement 1 is correct.
● Context: AstraZeneca has acknowledged that its COVID-19 vaccine, known
as Covishield in India, can lead to a rare side effect called Thrombosis with
Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
○ Despite this rare side effect, experts assert that the benefits of
vaccination, particularly in saving lives during the pandemic,
outweigh the risks.
○ The risk period for TTS is shortly after vaccination.
● Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot (thrombus) within a blood vessel,
obstructing the flow of blood through the circulatory system. It can occur in
both arteries and veins. While physical injury can contribute to thrombosis,
it can also arise from other factors such as prolonged immobility, certain
medical conditions, or genetic predispositions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/thrombosis-with-thrombocytopenia-
syndrome-tts/
8. Which of the following statements about oxytocin is true?
(a) It is produced by the adrenal glands.
(b) It is primarily involved in regulating blood pressure.
(c) It is released during childbirth and breastfeeding.
(d) It is a hormone that stimulates hunger.
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About Oxytocin:
● Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by
the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in various physiological
processes, including childbirth and breastfeeding. During labor, oxytocin
helps stimulate uterine contractions, facilitating the birthing process. After
childbirth, it promotes milk ejection by causing contraction of the cells
surrounding the mammary glands, aiding in breastfeeding.
● However, its misuse of milch cattle to boost yield is harmful. Regulated
under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940, administering
oxytocin is deemed animal cruelty and is punishable under the Prevention of
Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/use-of-oxytocin-on-cattle/
9. Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is correct?
(a) Infrared radiation has shorter wavelengths than ultraviolet radiation.
(b) X-rays have lower frequencies than microwaves.
(c) Gamma rays have higher energy than visible light.
(d) Radio waves travel faster through a vacuum compared to visible light.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of electromagnetic
radiation arranged in order of increasing frequency and decreasing
wavelength. Gamma rays are at the highest frequency end of the
spectrum and possess the highest energy. Visible light, on the other hand,
falls within a specific range of frequencies and has lower energy compared to
gamma rays.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/290993/
10. Consider the following statements about ‘Goldene’:
1. It is a one-atom-thick sheet of gold.
2. It is a 2-dimensional allotrope of gold.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Goldene is a one-atom-thick sheet of gold. It marks the first instance of a
metal being formulated into a freestanding 2D sheet.
● Goldene is made by sandwiching silicon between titanium carbide layers,
depositing gold atoms on top, and then etching away the titanium carbide
layers (using a chemical called Murakami’s reagent), resulting in the creation
of a free-standing, one-atom-thick layer of gold.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/goldene/
11. Which of the following statements about peptides is true?
(a) Peptides are composed of two or more amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(b) Peptides are exclusively found in animal cells.
(c) Peptides are synthesized in the mitochondria.
(d) Peptides are composed of nucleic acids.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: A peptide derived from cows shows promise in treating deadly drug-
resistant bacterial infections, particularly those caused by Klebsiella
pneumoniae.
● Peptides are short chains of amino acids, typically composed of around 2 to
50 amino acids, linked together by peptide bonds. These bonds form between
the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another,
resulting in the formation of a peptide bond. Peptides play crucial roles in
biological processes such as signaling, enzyme function, and structural
support. They are not exclusively found in animal cells, as they are also
present in plants and microorganisms. Peptides are synthesized in the
ribosomes, not in the mitochondria.
Rfer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/peptide/
12. Consider the following statements:
1. MQ-9B drones are primarily designed for reconnaissance missions only.
2. MQ-9B drones have the capability for both reconnaissance and strike
missions.
3. MQ-9B drones are powered by nuclear energy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Only statement 2 is correct.
● Context: The Indian Army and Air Force plan to deploy MQ-9B Predator
drones at Sarsawa and Gorakhpur air bases in Uttar Pradesh to enhance
surveillance along the Line of Actual Control with China.

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● The US-made drones, with a flight time of over 36 hours and capable of
reaching heights of 40,000 feet, will bolster India’s surveillance capabilities,
particularly in the Indian Ocean Region and along its borders with China and
Pakistan. The MQ-9B has previously been instrumental in monitoring anti-
piracy operations and providing surveillance over long distances.
● MQ-9B, available in two variants – SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian, serves
multiple roles such as surveillance and airborne early warning. Operated by
the Indian Navy since 2020, the SkyGuardian is the next generation of
remotely piloted aircraft systems (RPAS), capable of flying for over 40 hours
in all weather conditions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/mq-9b-predator-drones-2/
13. Which of the following statements about Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is
correct?
(a) MRI uses X-rays to create detailed images of the body's internal structures.
(b) MRI works by detecting the response of certain atoms to strong magnetic
fields and radiofrequency pulses.
(c) MRI is primarily used to measure blood pressure in the cardiovascular
system.
(d) MRI can only produce images of bones and cannot visualize soft tissues.
ANs: (b)
Explanation:
● Contect: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a non-invasive diagnostic
procedure used to obtain images of soft tissues within the body, such as the
brain, cardiovascular system, and joints.
● What is an MRI Scanner?
○ An MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) scanner is a medical
device that uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to
generate detailed images of the inside of the body, particularly
the soft tissues like the brain, muscles, and organs.
● How does it work?
○ When a patient enters the MRI machine, their body’s hydrogen atoms
align with the magnetic field. Radio waves are then used to
temporarily disrupt this alignment. When the radio waves are turned
off, the hydrogen atoms return to their aligned state, emitting energy
that is detected by the scanner.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/magnetic-resonance-imaging-mri/
14. What was the primary objective of China's Chang’e-6 mission?
(a) To establish a colony on Mars
(b) To study the atmospheric composition of Moon
(c) To explore the outer reaches of the Kuiper Belt
(d) To investigate the surface of Jupiter's moon, Europa
Ans:(b)

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Explanation:
● Context: China’s Chang’e-6 mission, launched successfully, aims to
collect rocks from the Moon’s far side, a complex endeavor requiring
precise planning.
● About the Chang Mission:
○ Chang’e-6, China’s mission to the Moon’s far side, aims to retrieve 2
kilograms of samples, a feat never accomplished before. Unlike the
Chang’e-5 mission, which brought back samples from the near side
in 2020, this mission targets the unexplored territory of the far side.
The spacecraft, equipped with a communications satellite called
Queqiao-2, will land in the South Pole-Aitken basin, the Moon’s
largest impact basin.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/chinas-change-6-mission/
15. Consider the following statements:
1. Microcontroller chips typically integrate a CPU, memory, and various
peripherals on a single chip.
2. Microcontroller chips are primarily used in high-performance computing
applications.
3. Microcontroller chips do not require any external components to function.
4. Microcontroller chips are only programmed using specialized hardware and
cannot be programmed via software.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: IIT Madras startup Mindgrove Technologies has launched Secure
IoT, India’s first microcontroller chip, which is cheaper and more efficient.
● Microcontroller chips are designed to contain all the essential components
needed for a computing system on a single integrated circuit. This includes a
central processing unit (CPU), memory (both volatile and non-volatile), and a
range of peripherals such as input/output ports, timers, analog-to-digital
converters, communication interfaces, etc. Option A is correct because it
accurately reflects the typical architecture of microcontroller chips. Option B
is incorrect because microcontroller chips are generally not used in high-
performance computing; instead, they are utilized in embedded systems, IoT
devices, consumer electronics, etc. Option C is incorrect because while
microcontroller chips integrate many components, they often require external
components such as power supplies, oscillators, and sometimes additional
memory or communication devices to function properly. Option D is incorrect
because microcontroller chips can be programmed using a variety of
methods, including specialized hardware tools as well as via software
development environments and programming languages.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/secure-iot/
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Kalibr missiles are exclusively used by the Israeli military.
2. Kalibr missiles are primarily designed for ground-to-air combat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Russia has ordered tactical nuclear weapons drills as a warning to
Ukraine’s allies amid rising tensions.
● TNWs, or Tactical Nuclear Weapons, are weapons not classified as “strategic”
under US-Russian arms control agreements. They include short-range
options like land-based missiles (less than 500 km range) and air- or sea-
launched weapons (less than 600 km range). TNWs are the least-regulated
nuclear weapons category under arms control agreements and are widely
present in nuclear arsenals worldwide.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/tactical-nuclear-weapons/
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Liquid oxygen is obtained through the compression and cooling of gaseous
oxygen.
2. Liquid oxygen is typically stored at room temperature to prevent evaporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Liquid oxygen is obtained through the process of compressing and cooling
gaseous oxygen. At extremely low temperatures, around -183 degrees Celsius
(-297 degrees Fahrenheit), oxygen gas condenses into a liquid state. This
liquid form is widely used in various industrial and medical applications,
including rocket propulsion, medical oxygen therapy, and metal cutting. It is
not a compound but rather a phase of the element oxygen, and it is not
naturally occurring in the Earth's atmosphere in liquid form. Additionally,
due to its low boiling point, liquid oxygen must be stored at extremely cold
temperatures to prevent it from evaporating.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/semi-cryogenic-pre-burner-ignition-
test-article-pita/
18. Which of the following statements about Cryogenic Engines are true?
(a) Cryogenic engines use supercooled propellants, typically liquid hydrogen and
liquid oxygen, to achieve high thrust and efficiency.
(b) Cryogenic engines are primarily used in interstellar space travel due to their
ability to withstand extreme temperatures.
(c) Cryogenic engines operate at temperatures below -100 degrees Celsius to
enhance combustion efficiency.
(d) Cryogenic engines are less efficient compared to traditional rocket engines
due to the complexities involved in handling supercooled propellants.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: ISRO recently achieved a milestone by conducting the first
PreBurner Ignition trial for the Semi-Cryogenic Engine (SCE)-200.

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● Cryogenic engines indeed use supercooled propellants, such as liquid

hydrogen and liquid oxygen, which offer higher specific impulse and thus
higher efficiency compared to traditional rocket engines. This enables them
to achieve higher thrust and efficiency, making them suitable for various
space missions.
● Cryogenic engines are not primarily used in interstellar space travel, and
they do not operate at temperatures below -100 degrees Celsius. Instead,
they operate at extremely low temperatures, typically below -183 degrees
Celsius for liquid hydrogen and below -183 degrees Celsius for liquid oxygen,
to maintain them in their liquid state.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/semi-cryogenic-pre-burner-ignition-
test-article-pita/
19. Consider the following statements about Neural Processing Units (NPUs):
1. NPUs are primarily used for traditional CPU tasks such as arithmetic and
logic operations.
2. NPUs are only applicable in the field of natural language processing.
Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Recently, Apple launched the M4 chip with the iPad Pro. Its key
feature includes a 16-core Neural Engine which is equivalent to an NPU.
● Neural Processing Units (NPUs) are specialized processors designed for
accelerating machine learning operations, crucial for AI tasks like speech
recognition and image processing.
● Neural Processing Units (NPUs) are specialized processors designed to
accelerate neural network processes, crucial for machine learning
algorithms. They excel in AI-related tasks like speech recognition and image
processing, enabling efficient handling of complex operations in consumer
gadgets. NPUs play a crucial role in deploying AI-powered applications
directly on hardware, enhancing performance in various devices.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/neural-processing-units-npus/
20. Consider the following statements about the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs):
1. NTDs primarily affect populations in developed countries.
2. There are only a few NTDs recognized by global health organizations.
3. NTDs have minimal impact on socioeconomic development and public
health.
How many of the above statements are NOT correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● WHO has released a progress report on Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs)

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

● NTDs are a group of diverse infections caused by parasites, bacteria, viruses,

and other pathogens that primarily affect populations in tropical and
subtropical regions. These diseases often receive inadequate attention and
resources, leading to limited research, diagnosis, and treatment options.
Examples of NTDs include malaria, dengue fever, Chagas disease,
leishmaniasis, etc
● S1: Incorrect. NTDs primarily affect populations in developing countries
where access to healthcare and sanitation is limited.
● S2: Incorrect. There are more than 20 NTDs recognized by global health
organizations such as the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
● S3: Incorrect. NTDs have a significant impact on socioeconomic development
and public health, causing disability, stigma, and loss of productivity among
affected populations. They often perpetuate cycles of poverty by hindering
economic growth and development in affected regions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/reports-in-news-9/
21. ‘Bletchley Declaration’, which was in the news recently, is associated with which
field?
(a) Global terrorism
(b) Plastic pollution
(c) Artificial Intelligence
(d) UNSC reforms
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Bletchley Declaration, named after the historic code-breaking site,
signifies a global commitment to addressing AI’s ethical and security
challenges, particularly generative AI. Signed at the AI Safety Summit (in
2023), it highlights the increasing global recognition of AI risks and involves
major world powers like China, the EU, India, and the US.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/artificial-intelligence-and-its-impact-
on-cybersecurity/
22. Which of the following statements about ‘Direct Air Capture and Storage’ (DACS) is
true?
(a) DACS is a technology solely used for capturing carbon dioxide emissions
from industrial sources.
(b) DACS involves the extraction of carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere
and its subsequent storage or utilization.
(c) DACS is primarily focused on trapping methane emissions from landfills and
agricultural activities.
(d) DACS is a process that solely relies on natural processes to remove carbon
dioxide from the atmosphere.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The world’s largest Direct Air Capture and Storage (DAC+S) plant,
Mammoth, has commenced operations in Iceland.
○ This Swiss company Climeworks’ second commercial DAC+S facility
surpasses its predecessor, Orca, in size.

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● Direct Air Capture and Storage (DAC+S) is a technology designed to

remove carbon dioxide (CO2) directly from the atmosphere at any
location. It is a form of Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) technology, distinct
from carbon capture methods typically carried out at the point of emissions.
The captured CO2 can then be permanently stored in deep geological
formations or utilized for various applications. DAC+S plants aim to
contribute to efforts to reduce CO2 levels in the atmosphere, addressing
climate change concerns. ‘
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/mammoth-worlds-largest-direct-air-
capture-and-storage-dacs-plant/
23. Consider the following statements about Foot Rot Disease:
1. The causative agent of Foot Rot Disease is typically a fungal pathogen.
2. It is transmitted through airborne spores.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has developed a
biocontrol agent, Trichoderma asperellum, to manage foot rot disease in
Basmati rice crops.
● About Foot Rot Disease: It is a fungal disease affecting Basmati rice crops,
primarily at the seedling stage. Caused by Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-
seed borne pathogen. Spreads through the plant root, leading to stem
base colonization. Symptoms include pale yellowing, elongation, drying, and
eventual death of seedlings. Current treatments involve chemical fungicides
like Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb), harmful to soil and consumers.
● Trichoderma asperellum: Biocontrol agent offering a non-chemical
alternative, aiding disease management while minimizing environmental
harm.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/foot-rot-disease/
24. AlphaFold 3, sometimes mentioned in the news, is a
(a) new software for predicting protein structures with unprecedented accuracy.
(b) robotic device used for protein crystallization.
(c) gene-editing tool used for modifying DNA sequences.
(d) vaccine developed for COVID-19.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● AlphaFold is an AI tool by Google’s DeepMind to predict protein folding
since 2018. It aims to understand 3D protein shapes, crucial for biology and
health. Versions like AlphaFold 3 offer about 80% accuracy and model DNA,
RNA, and more. Protein folding is vital for biological function and disease
understanding. While AlphaFold aids drug development, its limitations
include a lack of explanation for protein folding and restricted access.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/alphafold-3/
25. With reference to new COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, consider the
following statements:
1. FLiRT is less transmissible than previous variants.
2. FLiRT is associated with milder symptoms compared to other variants.

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Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: New COVID variants, collectively known as FLiRT, have emerged in
India.
● FLiRT is a sub-variant of the Omicron lineage with new mutations. It is
characterized by increased transmissibility and the ability to potentially
evade immunity from vaccines and previous infections. Its symptoms
are similar to those of earlier variants, including fever, cough, fatigue and
digestive issues with a heightened transmission rate. FLiRT demands
stringent precautions.
● While KP.2 is more infectious than its predecessor, JN.1, it has shown
lower overall infectivity. Symptoms are similar to the JN.1 variant, including
sore throat, runny nose, coughing, and fever. Safety measures such as
wearing masks, practising hand hygiene, and maintaining physical
distancing remain crucial to prevent the spread of these variants and
mitigate the impact of the pandemic.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/flirt/
26. Consider the following statements:
1. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic information from the nucleus to the
cytoplasm for protein synthesis.
2. RNA is more stable than DNA and less susceptible to mutations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● S1: Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a type of RNA that carries genetic information
from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where
proteins are synthesized. Therefore, it accurately reflects the role of RNA in
protein synthesis.
● S2: RNA is generally less stable than DNA and is more prone to mutations
due to the presence of ribose sugar and the lack of a stabilizing thymine base
pair.

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/roundworm-caenorhabditis-
elegans/
27. Consider the following statements about Environmental DNA (eDNA):
1. eDNA refers to the genetic material present in the environment, such as soil,
water, or air.
2. It is primarily used for tracking the presence or abundance of species in
aquatic ecosystems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● S1: Environmental DNA (eDNA) refers to the genetic material obtained
directly from environmental samples such as soil, water, or air. It can
provide valuable information about the organisms present in an environment
without the need to directly observe or capture them.
● S2: While eDNA is frequently used in aquatic ecosystems due to the ease of
sample collection and the high concentration of genetic material in water, it
is also applicable to terrestrial and aerial environments.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/armoured-sailfin-catfish-asc/
28. Consider the following statements:
1. Measles is caused by bacteria.
2. Measles primarily affects the digestive system.
3. Measles can be prevented by vaccination.

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How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Measles is not caused by bacteria but by a virus known as the measles
virus.
● Measles primarily affects the respiratory system, not the digestive system.
● Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent measles. The measles
vaccine, typically administered as part of the MMR (measles, mumps, and
rubella) vaccine, provides immunity against the virus.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/measles-vaccine/
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Trans fats are healthier than saturated fats because they lower LDL
cholesterol levels.
2. Trans fats are formed through an industrial process called hydrogenation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Trans fats are artificially created through a process called hydrogenation,
where hydrogen is added to vegetable oil to make it solid at room
temperature. This process is often used in the production of margarine,
shortening, and some processed foods to increase their shelf life and improve
texture. Trans fats have been linked to various health issues, including an
increased risk of heart disease, as they raise LDL (bad) cholesterol levels
while lowering HDL (good) cholesterol levels.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/ultra-processed-foods-upf/
30. Consider the following statements:
1. 3D printing technology only works with plastics.
2. 3D printing is a subtractive manufacturing process.
3. 3D printing enables rapid prototyping and customized manufacturing.
4. 3D printing can only produce small-sized objects.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● S1: Incorrect. While plastics are commonly used in 3D printing, the
technology is not limited to plastics. It can also work with metals, ceramics,
and various other materials.

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● S2: Incorrect. 3D printing is an additive manufacturing process, meaning

it adds material layer by layer to create an object, as opposed to subtractive
manufacturing, which removes material from a block or stock.
● S3: Correct. 3D printing is widely utilized for rapid prototyping and
customized manufacturing due to its ability to create complex shapes and
designs quickly and cost-effectively.
● S4: Incorrect. While 3D printing started with producing small-sized objects,
advancements in technology have enabled the production of larger objects,
including entire buildings and aircraft components.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/14/hot-test-of-a-liquid-rocket-engine/
31. Which of the following statements about photons are true?
(a) Photons are fundamental particles that exhibit both wave-like and particle-
like properties.
(b) Photons have zero rest mass and travel at the speed of light in a vacuum.
(c) Photons are only emitted by artificial sources such as lasers and light bulbs.
(d) Photons can only be detected using specialized equipment designed for
particle physics experiments.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Photons are elementary particles that behave both as particles and waves.
This phenomenon is known as wave-particle duality, a fundamental principle
of quantum mechanics.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/high-energy-photon-source-heps/
32. Which of the following phenomena is explained by the wave-particle duality of
photons?
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Gravitational lensing
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The photoelectric effect refers to the emission of electrons from a material
when it is exposed to light. This phenomenon can be explained by the
particle-like nature of photons, where each photon carries a discrete amount
of energy that can be transferred to an electron upon collision.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/high-energy-photon-source-heps/
33. How does a telescope work?
(a) By emitting its own light to illuminate distant objects.
(b) By physically extending to reach distant objects and capture images.
(c) By creating a vacuum to enhance visibility of celestial bodies.
(d) By using mirrors or lenses to gather and focus light from distant objects.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Telescopes work by using mirrors or lenses to gather and focus light from
distant objects, thus making them appear closer and more detailed. This
process enables astronomers and enthusiasts to observe celestial bodies
such as stars, planets, and galaxies with greater clarity and precision.
Refer:: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/nancy-grace-roman-telescope/

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34. Which of the following statements about xenotransplantation is true?

(a) Xenotransplantation refers to the transplantation of organs or tissues within
the same species.
(b) Xenotransplantation is exclusively limited to human-to-human organ
transplantation.
(c) Xenotransplantation is a term used to describe the process of artificial organ
generation in a laboratory setting.
(d) Xenotransplantation involves transplanting organs or tissues from one
species to another.
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Xenotransplantation involves the transplantation of organs or tissues from
one species to another, typically from animals to humans. This approach
holds promise for addressing the shortage of human organs available for
transplantation
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/first-human-recipient-of-pig-kidney-
transplant-dies/
35. Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?
(a) Regulation of blood pressure
(b) Production of red blood cells
(c) Filtration of waste products from the blood
(d) Regulation of electrolyte balance
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The production of red blood cells is primarily regulated by the hormone
erythropoietin, which is produced in the kidneys. However, the kidneys
themselves do not directly produce red blood cells.
● Red blood cell (RBC) production (erythropoiesis) takes place in the bone
marrow under the control of the hormone erythropoietin (EPO).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/first-human-recipient-of-pig-kidney-
transplant-dies/
36. Consider the following statements:
1. GPT-4o is an AI model developed by OpenAI for natural language processing
tasks.
2. GPT-4o is specifically designed for image recognition tasks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation
● Context: OpenAI has introduced GPT-4o, its newest and most advanced AI
model, designed to enhance ChatGPT by making it smarter, faster, and free
for all users.
● Features of GPT-4o:
○ This model, named “Omni,” represents a significant upgrade from
previous models by supporting multimodal interactions—processing
and responding to text, audio, and images.

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○Unlike its predecessors, which used separate models for different

tasks, GPT-4o integrates all functionalities into a single model,
improving efficiency and response speed.
○ GPT-4o’s capabilities include real-time translations, emotion
detection in audio, and understanding and interacting with visual
inputs like screenshots and documents.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/gpt-4o/
37. Which of the following statements about mitogenomes is true?
(a) Mitogenomes are typically linear DNA molecules found in the mitochondria of
eukaryotic cells.
(b) The size of mitogenomes is highly conserved across different species, with
very little variation.
(c) Mitogenomes are inherited maternally in most animals, which means they
are passed down from mother to offspring.
(d) Mitogenomes do not encode any proteins involved in cellular respiration.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: A recent study has traced the ancestry of South African leopards to
an ice age, revealing their origins from two unique clades in southern and
central Africa.
● This research involved analysing the mitogenomes—DNA found outside
the cell nucleus and inherited maternally.
● These mitogenomes provide a reliable record of genetic mutations over time,
allowing scientists to track the evolution and migration of leopards.
● S1: Mitogenomes are typically circular DNA molecules, not linear.
○ Mitogenomes, short for mitochondrial genomes, are DNA molecules
found outside the nucleus of a cell, within the mitochondria.
○ Mitochondria are often referred to as the powerhouses of the cell
because they generate the cell’s energy.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/mitogenome/
38. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between a white
hole and a black hole?
(a) A black hole emits light and other forms of radiation, while a white hole
absorbs all light and matter that comes near it.
(b) A black hole is a region of space where nothing, not even light, can escape
due to strong gravitational pull, while a white hole is a theoretical region of
space where matter and light can only exit, but nothing can enter.
(c) Both black holes and white holes absorb all matter and light that come near
them, but black holes are formed from the collapse of massive stars, while
white holes are formed from the expansion of space.
(d) Black holes and white holes are both theoretical constructs; neither exists in
the observable universe.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Researchers from Oxford University have provided the first
observational proof of “plunging regions” around black holes, confirming
a key prediction of Einstein’s theory of gravity.
○ The study demonstrated that there are areas near black holes where
matter ceases to orbit and plunges directly into the black hole,
experiencing some of the strongest gravitational forces in the galaxy.
○ It confirms Einstein’s theory, which states that particles close to a
black hole cannot maintain circular orbits and instead rapidly fall
inwards at nearly the speed of light.

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● A black hole is a well-established astronomical object resulting from the

gravitational collapse of a massive star. Its defining characteristic is that it
has an event horizon beyond which nothing can escape its gravitational pull,
not even light, making it appear black.
● On the other hand, a white hole is a theoretical construct predicted by the
equations of general relativity. Unlike black holes, white holes expel
matter and light, and theoretically, nothing can enter them. However,
white holes have not been observed, and their existence remains speculative.
Thus, the correct answer is B, as it accurately describes the fundamental
difference between the two concepts.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/plunging-regions/
39. Consider the following statements:
1. LUPEX is a joint mission between ISRO and NASA.
2. LUPEX aims to explore the lunar south pole region.
3. One of the primary objectives of LUPEX is to search for water ice on the
Moon.
4. LUPEX will use only Indian technology and hardware for its lander.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The India-Japan joint moon mission, the Lunar Polar
Exploration Mission (LUPEX), is expected to launch in a few years.
● The Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a collaborative mission
between the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which makes statement S1 incorrect.
The primary objectives of LUPEX include exploring the lunar south pole
region and searching for water ice on the Moon.
● The mission involves both Japanese and Indian technologies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/lunar-polar-exploration-mission-
lupex/
40. Consider the following statements:
1. AlphaFold is an artificial intelligence system developed by DeepMind.
2. AlphaFold's primary purpose is to predict protein structures from their
amino acid sequences.
3. AlphaFold's accuracy in predicting protein structures has significantly
surpassed that of previous methods.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation: AI Tools in Drug Development:
● AlphaFold 3 and RoseTTAFold All-Atom:
● Developers: AlphaFold is developed by DeepMind, a Google company, and
RoseTTAFold by the University of Washington.

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● Functionality: These tools use deep neural networks to predict the three-
dimensional structures of proteins and their interactions with drugs. They
provide a major leap in predicting not just static protein structures but also
dynamic interactions with various biological molecules, including DNA, RNA,
and small molecules.
● Performance: In tests, AlphaFold 3 accurately predicted drug interactions
76% of the time, outperforming RoseTTAFold All-Atom at 40%.
Refer:https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/ai-in-drug-development/
41. Consider the following statements about PREFIRE mission:
1. It is a collaboration between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA) to
study the impact of permafrost melting on global climate change.
2. It also involves deploying satellites to monitor wildfire activity and predict
future fire outbreaks globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation: NASA’s PREFIRE mission
● Context: Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-InfraRed Experiment (PREFIRE)
polar mission is set to unlock the mysteries of Earth’s poles by capturing
new data on heat emissions.
● Consisting of a pair of CubeSats, PREFIRE will measure far-infrared
radiation, shedding light on how different polar properties contribute to heat
dissipation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/nasas-prefire-mission/
42. Consider the following statements about Bacterial Pathogens Priority List (BPPL):
1. The BPPL is a list created by the World Health Organization (WHO) to guide
research and development of new antibiotics.
2. The list includes bacterial pathogens that are considered a high priority for
addressing antimicrobial resistance.
3. The pathogens on the BPPL are categorized based on their level of threat to
public health and the need for new antibiotics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) updated its Bacterial
Pathogens Priority List (BPPL), highlighting critical priority pathogens that
pose significant global health threats due to their resistance to treatment and
ability to spread resistance.
○ About BPPL:
■ The Bacterial Pathogens Priority List (BPPL) is a crucial tool in
combating antimicrobial resistance. Introduced by the WHO in
2017, it initially listed 13 bacterial pathogens to guide
research and development efforts for new antibacterials.

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■The 2024 list categorizes 15 families of antibiotic-resistant

bacteria into critical, high, and medium-priority groups to aid
in prioritizing responses. Some high-priority pathogens, like
Salmonella and Shigella, burden low- and middle-income
countries, posing challenges in healthcare settings.
■ Antibiotic resistance, driven by misuse and overuse of
antimicrobials, makes infections harder to treat and increases
the risk of severe illness and death.
● The WHO Bacterial Priority Pathogens List serves as a vital tool in combating
antimicrobial resistance, updating rankings to address evolving threats.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/bacterial-pathogens-priority-list-
bppl/
43. Consider the following statements:
1. Red dwarfs are the most common type of star in the Milky Way galaxy.
2. Red dwarfs have a shorter lifespan compared to larger stars like the Sun.
3. Red dwarfs are cooler and less luminous than the Sun.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● Context: Astronomers at the University of Liège in Belgium discovered an
Earth-sized exoplanet, SPECULOOS-3 b, orbiting an ultra-cool red dwarf, 55
light-years away.
● S1: Red dwarfs are indeed the most common type of star in the Milky Way
galaxy, making up the majority of stars.
● S2: Red dwarfs have much longer life spans compared to larger stars like the
Sun. Their nuclear fusion processes occur at a slower rate, allowing them to
burn their fuel more efficiently and last much longer, often tens to hundreds
of billions of years.
● S3: Red dwarfs are cooler and less luminous than the Sun. Their surface
temperatures are lower, and they emit less light, which makes them less
visible from a distance compared to brighter stars like the Sun.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/speculoos-3-b/
44. Consider the following statements:
1. All viruses contain either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not both.
2. Viruses can replicate independently without a host cell.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Giant viruses, dating back 1.5 billion years, discovered in
Yellowstone’s geothermal springs shed light on Earth’s early conditions.

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○ A giant virus, also known as a “girus,” is notably large, with some

exceeding typical bacteria in size. They are classified within the
phylum Nucleocytoviricota.
● S1: All viruses contain either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, but not
both.
● S2: Viruses cannot replicate independently; they require a host cell to
reproduce.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/giant-viruses/
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Doppler radar can measure the velocity of an object towards or away from
the radar.
2. Doppler radar is only used for weather forecasting and cannot be used in
other fields.
3. Doppler radar works by emitting microwave signals and analyzing the
frequency shift of the returned signals.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1 is Correct: Doppler radar can indeed measure the velocity of an object
towards or away from the radar. This is one of its primary functions,
especially in weather forecasting where it measures the speed of precipitation
particles.
● S2 is Incorrect: Doppler radar is not only used for weather forecasting; it is
also used in various other fields such as aviation, police speed enforcement,
and even astronomy.
● S3 is Correct: Doppler radar works by emitting microwave signals and
analyzing the frequency shift of the returned signals. This frequency shift
occurs due to the Doppler effect, which helps in determining the speed and
direction of the moving objects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/doppler-radar-speed-guns/
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Venus is the second planet from the Sun.
2. Venus has the longest rotation period of any planet in the Solar System.
3. Venus has no moons or rings.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Conext: A new study suggests that Venus is losing water much faster than
previously thought, with researchers identifying a mechanism in the
Venusian ionosphere responsible for this accelerated water loss.
● S1 - Venus is indeed the second planet from the Sun, coming after Mercury.

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● S2 - Venus has a very slow rotation, taking about 243 Earth days to
complete one rotation, which is longer than any other planet in our Solar
System.
● S3 - Unlike many other planets, Venus does not have any natural satellites
or ring systems.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/venus/
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe.
2. Hydrogen gas (H₂ ) is highly flammable and can be used as a fuel.
3. Hydrogen can be found in large quantities in the Earth's atmosphere.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1: Hydrogen makes up roughly 75% of the elemental mass of the universe.
It is found in stars and is the primary fuel for nuclear fusion in stars,
including our Sun.
● S2: Hydrogen gas is highly flammable and burns in the presence of oxygen to
produce water, making it a potential clean fuel source.
● S3: Hydrogen is relatively scarce in the Earth's atmosphere because it is light
and can easily escape into space. Most hydrogen on Earth is found in
compounds like water (H₂ O) and hydrocarbons.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/places-in-news-3/
48. The ‘Copernicus Programme’ is an initiative of the
(a) United States
(b) Russia
(c) Japan
(d) European Union
Ans: (d)
Explanation: About Copernicus programme:
● The Copernicus programme is an EU initiative that utilizes satellite and
ground-based data to address climate change, disaster management, and
other global challenges.
● The Copernicus Emergency Management Service (EMS) is a component of
the broader Copernicus program, an initiative by the European Union (EU)
aimed at providing comprehensive Earth observation and monitoring
services.
● The Copernicus EMS specifically focuses on delivering timely and accurate
geospatial information to support emergency response efforts during natural
disasters, humanitarian crises, and other emergencies.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/copernicus-ems-programme/
49. Which of the following statements about amoeba is incorrect?
(a) Amoebas reproduce by binary fission, where one cell divides into two
identical daughter cells.
(b) Amoebas have a fixed shape due to their rigid cell walls.
(c) Amoebas use pseudopodia for locomotion and capturing food.
(d) Amoebas are eukaryotic organisms, meaning they have a true nucleus and
membrane-bound organelles.

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Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: A girl from Kerala, has died from amoebic meningoencephalitis, a
rare brain infection caused by Naegleria fowleri, known as the ‘brain-eating
amoeba.‘
● Amoebas do not have a fixed shape because they lack a rigid cell wall.
Instead, they have a flexible plasma membrane that allows them to
change shape. This flexibility aids in their movement and feeding process, as
they extend and retract pseudopodia (false feet) to move and capture prey.
The other statements are correct: amoebas reproduce by binary fission (A),
use pseudopodia for locomotion and food capture (C), and are eukaryotic
organisms with a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles (D).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/naegleria-fowleri/
50. Consider the following statements:
1. Malaria is caused by a virus transmitted by mosquitoes.
2. The most deadly form of malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
3. The Anopheles mosquito is the primary vector for transmitting malaria.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Serum Institute of India (SII) has begun exporting the
‘R21/Matrix-M’ malaria vaccine to Africa, targeting children in malaria-
endemic regions.
● S1: Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite of the genus Plasmodium,
not a virus. The disease is transmitted through the bite of infected Anopheles
mosquitoes.
● S2: Plasmodium falciparum is responsible for the most severe and fatal cases
of malaria.
● S3: Malaria is primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of female
Anopheles mosquitoes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/malaria-vaccine-r21-matrix-m/
51. Which of the following statements correctly distinguish between biohydrogen and
green hydrogen?
(a) Biohydrogen is produced through electrolysis of water using renewable
energy sources, while green hydrogen is generated from biomass.
(b) Biohydrogen is obtained from biological processes involving microorganisms,
whereas green hydrogen is produced by splitting water using renewable
energy sources like solar or wind power.
(c) Both biohydrogen and green hydrogen are produced using fossil fuels but
with different technological processes.
(d) Biohydrogen and green hydrogen are terms used interchangeably for
hydrogen produced from any renewable source
Ans: (b)
Explanation:

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● Biohydrogen refers to hydrogen gas produced through biological

processes, such as the fermentation of organic matter by
microorganisms. This process utilizes biological materials and
microorganisms to generate hydrogen. On the other hand, green hydrogen is
produced by the electrolysis of water, where electrical energy from renewable
sources like solar, wind, or hydro power is used to split water molecules into
hydrogen and oxygen. This makes green hydrogen environmentally friendly
and sustainable, as it relies on renewable energy sources and produces no
greenhouse gases during production.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/green-biohydrogen-production-in-
india/
52. Consider the following statements:
1. Bird flu affects only domestic poultry and has never been known to infect
humans.
2. Bird flu primarily affects humans and rarely affects birds.
3. H5N1 is the most common subtype of bird flu that infects humans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Australia’s first human case of bird flu has been confirmed in a
child who contracted the H5N1 virus while in India. The child returned
from India in March and fell ill with the flu virus. Although avian influenza
rarely infects humans, it can cause severe illness and has a high mortality
rate.
● About Avian influenza:
○ It is commonly known as bird flu, is a highly contagious viral
infection that primarily affects birds, including wild and domestic
poultry. The H5N1 strain, first identified in 1996, has a mortality
rate of about 60% in humans. Symptoms range from mild flu-like
symptoms to severe respiratory issues and neurological problems. In
India, outbreaks of avian influenza have occurred since 2006, with
millions of birds culled to control its spread. India’s strategy involves
detecting and culling infected birds. Antiviral treatments are available
for human cases.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/avian-influenza/
53. Which of the following statements about ‘electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing’
(eVTOL) aircraft are correct?
1. eVTOL aircraft primarily rely on electric propulsion systems.
2. eVTOL aircraft are designed to operate in traditional airports only.
3. eVTOL aircraft are expected to reduce urban traffic congestion by providing a
new mode of aerial transportation.
4. eVTOL aircraft are less environmentally friendly compared to traditional
helicopters due to higher energy consumption.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)

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Explanation:
● Context: IIT Madras-incubated ePlane Company is set to launch eVTOL
(electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing) aircraft in Bengaluru.
● S1 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft indeed rely on electric propulsion systems,
which distinguish them from traditional fuel-powered aircraft.
● S2 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are designed to take off and land vertically,
allowing them to operate from a variety of locations, not just traditional
airports. They can use helipads, vertiports, and other smaller areas.
● S3 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft are anticipated to help alleviate urban traffic
congestion by providing an alternative, efficient mode of transportation over
short distances, particularly in densely populated urban areas.
● S4 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are generally considered more
environmentally friendly than traditional helicopters because they use
electric power, which can be sourced from renewable energy, and produce
fewer emissions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/evtol-electric-vertical-take-off-and-
landing-aircraft/
54. The "Zero Debris Charter" is related to:
(a) A global initiative to reduce plastic waste in oceans
(b) A corporate policy focusing on workplace cleanliness
(c) An aviation industry commitment to minimize space debris
(d) A government mandate on urban waste management
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Recently, twelve nations signed the Zero Debris Charter at the
ESA/EU Space Council, committing to making space activities debris-
neutral by 2030.
● The Zero Debris Charter aims to achieve debris-neutrality in space by
2030. The Charter is part of ESA’s comprehensive Zero Debris approach,
which involves significant internal reforms and the development of debris
mitigation technologies under its Space Safety Programme. ESA estimates
over one million pieces of space debris larger than one-centimetre orbit
Earth, posing severe risks to satellites and astronauts.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/zero-debris-charter/
55. Which of the following statements about antibodies is correct?
(a) Antibodies are produced by T cells.
(b) Antibodies are primarily involved in cell-to-cell communication.
(c) Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to
foreign substances.
(d) Antibodies are only effective against bacterial infections.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Option A is incorrect because antibodies are produced by B cells, not T
cells. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, while B cells are
responsible for humoral immunity, which includes antibody production.
● Option B is incorrect because antibodies primarily function as defense
molecules by recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as
pathogens. While they can facilitate certain immune responses, they are not
primarily involved in cell-to-cell communication.
● Option D is incorrect because antibodies can target various types of
pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi. They are not
restricted to bacterial infections.

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● Option C is the correct answer because antibodies, also known as

immunoglobulins, are specialized proteins produced by B cells in
response to the presence of antigens (foreign substances). These
antibodies bind to specific antigens, marking them for destruction by other
immune cells or neutralizing their harmful effects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/nephrotic-syndrome-2/
56. Consider the following statements about AstroSat:
1. AstroSat is India's first dedicated space observatory launched by NASA.
2. It observes celestial sources only in visible light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● AstroSat is indeed India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space
observatory, but it was launched by the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO), not NASA. Additionally, AstroSat observes celestial
sources in various wavelengths of light, from ultraviolet to X-rays, not
just visible light.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/astrosat-3/
57. Which of the following best defines a biomarker?
(a) A biological substance used exclusively in genetic engineering experiments.
(b) An indicator of a biological state or condition, often used in diagnosing,
monitoring, or predicting outcomes of diseases or treatments.
(c) A type of microscope used to visualize cellular structures at high
magnification.
(d) A mathematical model used to predict population dynamics in ecology.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: A recent study has unveiled a breakthrough in identifying and
tracking renal diseases associated with nephrotic syndrome.
○ Employing a hybrid methodology, scientists discovered that anti-
nephrin autoantibodies serve as a reliable biomarker for monitoring
disease progression, offering the potential for personalized
therapeutic strategies. Biomarkers, like blood pressure, are used in
clinical assessments.
● A biomarker is a measurable indicator of a biological state or condition.
These can be molecules, genes, proteins, or characteristics that can be
detected and measured objectively. They are extensively used in various
fields of medicine and biology, including diagnostics, monitoring disease
progression, assessing treatment efficacy, and predicting patient outcomes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/nephrotic-syndrome-2/
58. Consider the following statements about "Jumping Genes":
1. Jumping genes are sequences of DNA that can move or transpose themselves
to new positions within the genome of a single cell.
2. Transposable elements can create mutations and alter the cell's genetic
identity.
3. Transposable elements were first discovered by Barbara McClintock in maize
(corn).

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How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● S1: Jumping genes, or transposable elements, have the ability to move
around within the genome, which is why they are called "jumping genes."
● S2: When transposable elements move to new locations, they can disrupt
genes or regulatory regions, leading to mutations that can affect the
organism's traits and genetic identity.
● S3: Barbara McClintock's pioneering work on maize led to the discovery of
transposable elements, for which she was awarded the Nobel Prize in
Physiology or Medicine in 1983.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/stellaria-mcclintockiae/
59. Which of the following statements about Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs) is/are true?
1. FRBs are brief but intense bursts of radio waves that last only a few
milliseconds.
2. The precise origins of FRBs are well understood and linked to specific types
of stars.
3. Some FRBs repeat, meaning they originate from the same source multiple
times.
4. FRBs have been detected from sources both within our galaxy and from
extragalactic sources.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1, 3, and 4
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, and 4
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1 is True. Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs) are indeed brief but intense bursts of
radio waves that last only a few milliseconds. They are known for their high
energy and short duration.
● S2 is False. The precise origins of FRBs are not yet well understood. While
there are many hypotheses, including neutron stars, black holes, and
magnetars, no definitive link has been established to specific types of stars.
● S3 is True. Some FRBs have been observed to repeat, meaning they emit
multiple bursts from the same source. These repeating FRBs have helped
astronomers to study the phenomena more closely.
● S4 is True. FRBs have been detected from sources within our galaxy (the
Milky Way) as well as from extragalactic sources, indicating that these bursts
occur in a variety of cosmic environments.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/astronomical-transients-2024-shaw-
prize-for-astronomy/
60. Consider the following statements:
1. Venus has a longer day than its year.
2. Venus has a thick atmosphere composed mainly of nitrogen.
3. Venus rotates in the opposite direction to most other planets in the solar
system.

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How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● S1: A single day on Venus (one full rotation on its axis) takes about 243
Earth days, while it takes about 225 Earth days for Venus to complete one
orbit around the Sun.
● S2: Venus's atmosphere is primarily composed of carbon dioxide (about
96.5%), not nitrogen. The atmosphere is extremely dense and contributes to
the planet's intense greenhouse effect.
● S3: Venus has a retrograde rotation, meaning it rotates from east to west,
opposite to the direction of most other planets in the solar system which
rotate from west to east.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/volcanoes-on-venus-fresh-lava-
flows-detected/
61. Which space agency launched the Magellan Mission?
(a) European Space Agency (ESA)
(b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
(c) Russian Federal Space Agency (Roscosmos)
(d) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Magellan Mission
● Launched by NASA in 1989, the Magellan mission was the first spacecraft to
image the entire surface of Venus. It used Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) to
create high-resolution maps, revealing signs of volcanism, tectonic activity,
and turbulent surface winds on Venus.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/volcanoes-on-venus-fresh-lava-
flows-detected/

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INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANIZATIONS

1. Consider the following statements about Chemical Weapons Convention:

1. It is an arms control treaty administered by the Organisation for the
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW).
2. It aims to eliminate the production, stockpiling, and use of chemical
weapons.
3. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while the State of Palestine
has neither signed nor acceded to the treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Context: The U.S. accuses Russia of using the chemical compound
chloropicrin against Ukrainian forces, violating the Chemical Weapons
Convention.
● Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
○ Entered into force in 1997. It Prohibits the development, production,
stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons. It Monitors the elimination
of chemical weapons.
○ India is a signatory and party, and it enacted the Chemical Weapons
Convention Act, 2000.
● As of August 2022, 193 states have become parties to the CWC and accept
its obligations. Israel has signed but not ratified the agreement, while
three other UN member states (Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan)
have neither signed nor acceded to the treaty. Most recently, the State of
Palestine deposited its instrument of accession to the CWC on 17 May 2018.
In September 2013, Syria acceded to the convention as part of an agreement
for the destruction of Syria's chemical weapons.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/chloropicrin/
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Interpol is an international organization focused solely on combating
terrorism.
2. Interpol operates independently from national law enforcement agencies.
3. Interpol facilitates international police cooperation but does not have the
authority to make arrests.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Only statement 3 is correct.
● Contect: India at 19th Interpol Conference of Heads of National Central
Bureau

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○ Online radicalization remains a major global security challenge.

Internet platforms, especially social media, are utilized by terrorists
for radicalization, indoctrination, recruitment, and financing of terror
activities.
● Interpol, short for the International Criminal Police Organization, is an
international organization that facilitates cooperation between law
enforcement agencies worldwide. While it provides a platform for sharing
information and coordinating efforts to combat various forms of crime,
including terrorism, it does not have its own law enforcement agents
and cannot make arrests. Instead, it acts as a liaison between national law
enforcement agencies, assisting them in sharing intelligence and
coordinating cross-border operations. Interpol's headquarters is located in
Lyon, France, not Geneva, Switzerland (which is the location of various other
international organizations).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/report-study-in-news/
3. Which one of the following nations may be in immediate danger of having the
"largest hunger crisis in history," according to a recent UN warning?
(a) Somalia
(b) Palestine
(c) Sudan
(d) Myanmar
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The UN warns of imminent starvation in Darfur, Sudan, as
escalating violence worsens the country’s hunger crisis.
● Civil war since April 2023 has led to a devastating humanitarian situation,
with people resorting to eating “grass and peanut shells” to survive,
according to the World Food Programme.
● About the Darfur region:
○ It is a region in western Sudan that has been plagued by violent
conflict and humanitarian crises. The area has experienced ethnic
tensions between Arab and African communities, leading to
widespread violence and human rights abuses.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/darfur-sudan/
4. Which of the following statements about the United Nations Office of Counter-
Terrorism (UNOCT) is correct?
(a) It was established in 2001 after the 9/11 attacks.
(b) It primarily focuses on military interventions to combat terrorism.
(c) It is responsible for coordinating global efforts to counter terrorism.
(d) It operates independently from other UN agencies.
Ans: (c)
Explanation: About UNOCT:
● Established in 2017, the United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism
(UNOCT) oversees the UN Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund, which was initially
established in 2009 and later transferred to UNOCT. The UN Counter
Terrorism Centre (UNCCT) serves as its primary capacity-building arm,
aiming to enhance the visibility, advocacy, and resource mobilization
for UN counter-terrorism efforts. Its functions also include strengthening
the delivery of UN counter-terrorism capacity-building assistance to Member
States.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/u-n-counter-terrorism-trust-fund/

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5. Which of the following statements about the ‘Hague Convention’ of UNESCO is true?
(a) The Hague Convention aims to regulate maritime navigation and prevent
conflicts over territorial waters.
(b) The Hague Convention addresses issues related to international trade and
tariffs on agricultural products.
(c) The Hague Convention primarily focuses on the protection of cultural
heritage during armed conflicts.
(d) The Hague Convention is concerned with the establishment of diplomatic
relations between nations.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: UNESCO is commemorating the 70th anniversary of the Hague
Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in Armed Conflict
● The Convention is the first legal framework solely dedicated to safeguarding
movable and immovable heritage. It shields cultural property during both
peace and conflict. With 135 member states, including India, the
Convention and its 1954 and 1999 Protocols aim to protect cultural
treasures, with the latter introducing the concept of Enhanced Protection for
Cultural Properties.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/hague-convention/
6. Consider the following statements about Global Alliance of National Human Rights
Institutions (GANHRI):
1. GANHRI is an independent non-governmental organization advocating for
human rights globally.
2. It primarily focuses on providing humanitarian aid in conflict zones around
the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: The Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions
(GANHRI) has deferred the accreditation of India’s National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) for the second consecutive year, which could impact
India’s voting rights at the Human Rights Council and some UNGA bodies.
● 1: GANHRI is is a global network of national human rights institutions
(NHRIs) which coordinates the relationship between NHRIs and the United
Nations human rights system, and is unique as the only non-UN body whose
internal accreditation system, based on compliance with the 1993 Paris
Principles, grants access to UN committees. Institutions accredited by the
Subcommittee for Accreditation (SCA) of GANHRI with "A status", meaning
full compliance with the Paris Principles, are usually accorded speaking
rights and seating at human rights treaty bodies and other UN organs,
mainly to the Human Rights Council. GANHRI representatives often present
statements on behalf of individual NHRIs or the regional groups.
○ GANHRI is constituted as a non-profit entity under Swiss law, and
has one member of staff representing it at the United Nations Office
at Geneva.
● S2: GANHRI's primary focus is on promoting and protecting human rights
through its member institutions, rather than providing humanitarian aid in
conflict zones.

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/global-alliance-of-national-human-
rights-institutions-ganhri/
7. Consider the following statements about International Telecommunication Union :
1. It is the United Nations specialized agency.
2. It is the oldest of the UN’s 15 specialized agencies.
3. It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● It is the United Nations specialized agency for information and
communication technologies (ICTs). Founded in 1865, it is the oldest of the
UN’s 15 specialized agencies. ITU allocates global radio spectrum and
satellite orbits, develops technical standards for network interconnectivity,
and aims to improve ICT access for underserved communities. Based in
Geneva, Switzerland, ITU is part of the UN Development Group and operates
12 regional offices. It functions as an intergovernmental public-private
partnership with 193 member states and around 800 sector members. India,
a member since 1952, was re-elected to the ITU Council for the 2019-2022
term.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/18/world-telecommunication-and-
information-society-day/
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Antarctic Treaty prohibits all military activity, including the
establishment of military bases and fortifications, as well as nuclear
explosions and the disposal of nuclear waste.
2. The Antarctic Treaty allows for territorial claims but requires countries to
resolve disputes through the International Court of Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The Antarctic Treaty, signed on December 1, 1959, and in force since
June 23, 1961, is an international agreement governing activities in
Antarctica. It designates the continent as a scientific preserve, ensuring it
remains exclusively for peaceful purposes. Initially signed by 12 countries,
the treaty now includes 56 signatories, with India joining in 1983. Key
provisions prohibit military activities, promote scientific cooperation,
and ban nuclear explosions and radioactive waste disposal.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/antarctic-parliament-meets-in-
kochi/

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9. Consider the following statements:

1. The ICC is a permanent international court established to prosecute
individuals for genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime
of aggression.
2. The ICC can prosecute crimes committed by nationals of non-member states
if the crime occurred on the territory of a member state.
3. All countries in the world are members of the ICC.
4. The ICC is part of the United Nations system and reports directly to the UN
Security Council.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Prosecutor of the International Criminal Court (ICC) requested
arrest warrants against leaders of Hamas and Prime Minister Benjamin
Netanyahu of Israel about the October 7, 2023 attacks and the war in
Palestine.
● Statement 1 is correct: The ICC is indeed a permanent international court
established to prosecute individuals for genocide, crimes against humanity,
war crimes, and the crime of aggression.
● Statement 2 is correct: The ICC can prosecute crimes committed by nationals
of non-member states if the crime occurred on the territory of a member
state. This principle is known as territorial jurisdiction.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Not all countries in the world are members of the
ICC. As of now, there are 123 member states, but some countries, including
major powers like the United States, Russia, and China, are not members.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: The ICC is an independent institution and is not
part of the United Nations system. While the ICC may receive referrals from
the UN Security Council, it does not report directly to it.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/icc-issues-arrest-warrant-against-
isreals-pm-and-hamas-leader/
10. Consider the following statements regarding the International Court of Justice (ICJ):
1. The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
2. The ICJ's primary function is to adjudicate disputes between member states.
3. The ICJ can hear cases involving non-state actors and individuals.
4. The judgments of the ICJ are binding on all member states of the United
Nations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation
● S1 is Correct: The ICJ is indeed the principal judicial organ of the United
Nations, as established by the UN Charter.
● S2 is Correct: The primary function of the ICJ is to adjudicate legal disputes
between states.

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● S3 is Incorrect: The ICJ does not have jurisdiction over cases involving non-
state actors or individuals; it only deals with cases between states.
● S4 is Incorrect: While the judgments of the ICJ are binding on the states
involved in a particular case, they are not binding on all member states of
the United Nations.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/22/icc-issues-arrest-warrant-against-
isreals-pm-and-hamas-leader/
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Arab League was founded in 1945 with the primary goal of fostering
economic cooperation among its member states.
2. The headquarters of the Arab League is located in Cairo, Egypt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Arab League was indeed founded in 1945, but
its primary goal was to promote political, economic, cultural, scientific, and
social programs designed to promote the interests of the Arab countries, and
to coordinate political action and safeguard their independence and
sovereignty, rather than focusing solely on economic cooperation.
● Statement 2 is correct: The headquarters of the Arab League is located in
Cairo, Egypt. This has been the case since its establishment, with a brief
relocation to Tunis from 1979 to 1990.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/arab-league-summit/
12. Consider the following statements about the International Solar Alliance (ISA) :
1. The ISA was launched by China and India in 2015 to promote solar energy
usage globally.
2. Membership to the ISA is open only to countries located within the Tropic of
Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: Spain has become the 99th member of the International Solar
Alliance (ISA). Spain handed over the ISA Instrument of Ratification during a
meeting between Spain’s Ambassador to India

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/international-solar-alliance-7/
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Palestine consists of two separate geographical regions, the West Bank and
the Gaza Strip.
2. The Oslo Accords were agreements between Israel and Palestine that aimed
to achieve a peace treaty.
3. Palestine is a full member state of the United Nations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Ireland, Norway, and Spain plan to formally recognize the state of
Palestine, highlighting a shift in international opinion. Recently, 143
countries, including India, called for UN recognition of Palestine. The
International Criminal Court has sought arrest warrants for Israeli leaders
and Hamas for war crimes.
● S1: The Palestinian territories include the West Bank and the Gaza Strip,
which are geographically separate and have distinct political and
administrative contexts.

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● S2: The Oslo Accords, signed in the 1990s, were a series of agreements
between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) with the goal
of achieving a peace treaty and establishing a framework for future relations.
● S3: Although Palestine is not a full member state of the United Nations, it
has been granted non-member observer state status since 2012, which
allows it to participate in General Assembly debates and activities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/
14. Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Arab League?
(a) Promoting political cooperation among Arab countries
(b) Coordinating military defenses among Arab countries
(c) Facilitating cultural exchanges between Arab countries
(d) Enhancing economic integration within the Arab region
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About the Arab League:
● It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of
Africa. Formed in Cairo on March 22, 1945, it aims to promote Arab
interests and coordinate political, cultural, economic, and social
programs among its members. The League also seeks to settle disputes
among member states and provide mutual military support. Its headquarters
is in Cairo, Egypt, and its official language is Arabic. The League has 22
members, with founding members including Egypt, Syria, and Iraq. Four
nations have observer status: Brazil, Eritrea, India, and Venezuela.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/manama-declaration/
15. Consider the following statements about the World Intellectual Property
Organization (WIPO):
1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
2. It primarily focuses on regulating patents and trademarks, with minimal
involvement in copyright matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: WIPO member states approved a historic new Treaty on intellectual
property (IP), genetic resources (GR), and traditional knowledge (TK),
following decades of negotiations.
● The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) was established in
1967 through the WIPO Convention, transforming the earlier United
International Bureau for the Protection of Intellectual Property (BIPRI) into
WIPO. As a specialized agency of the United Nations, WIPO serves as a global
forum for intellectual property (IP) services, policy, information, and
cooperation. Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, WIPO boasts a
membership of 193 member states, including India. WIPO administers
several key treaties, such as the Berne Convention, Washington Treaty, Paris
Convention, and the Singapore Treaty on the Law of Trademarks, among
others
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/28/wipo-treaty/

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16. Consider the following statements about the World Health Organization (WHO):
1. The WHO was established in 1948 and is a specialized agency of the United
Nations.
2. The WHO's headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
3. The WHO is responsible for overseeing international public health, setting
global health standards, and coordinating responses to health emergencies.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is true: The World Health Organization (WHO) was indeed
established on April 7, 1948, and it is a specialized agency of the United
Nations responsible for international public health.
● Statement 2 is true: The WHO's headquarters is located in Geneva,
Switzerland.
● Statement 3 is true: The WHO is responsible for setting global health
standards, overseeing international public health efforts, and coordinating
responses to health emergencies, among other functions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/health-for-all-mandate-of-who/

HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE

1. Consider the following statements about Raja Ravi Varma:

1. He is often referred to as the "Father of Modern Indian Art."
2. He was born in France and later moved to India.
3. He created an epic painting “Shakuntala searching for Dushyanta”.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● Raja Ravi Varma was born on April 29, 1848, in Kilimanoor, a village in
present-day Kerala , India. He was a self-taught artist who learned to paint
by observing the works of European artists and by studying books on art.
● His work is considered one of the best examples of this fusion. Varma is
sometimes called the first modern Indian artist.
● Varma’s works are known for combining Hindu mythological subject matter
with European realist historicist painting style.
● Some of his works include Shakuntala, Woman Holding a Fruit, and Hamsa
Damayanti.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/raja-ravi-varma-3/
2. Consider the following statements about Hicky’s Bengal Gazette:
1. It was the first newspaper published in India.
2. It was established by James Augustus Hicky in the 19th century.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: On World Press Freedom Day (May 3), India remembers Hicky’s
Bengal Gazette, the country’s first newspaper.
● Launched in 1780 by James Augustus Hicky in Kolkata, it highlighted
government corruption and civic issues but faced closure due to lawsuits. It
was a weekly English-language publication that faced closure in 1782 after
criticizing Governor General Warren Hastings.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/hickys-bengal-gazette/
3. Consider the following Indian literary works:
1. Sahṛ dayaloka-Locana
2. Panchatantra
3. Ramcharitmanas
How many of the above have been included in ‘UNESCO's Memory of the World Asia-
Pacific Regional Register’ recently?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Ramcharitmanas, Panchatantra and Sahṛ dayāloka-Locana have been
included in ‘UNESCO's Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register’.
This inclusion is a proud moment for India, a confirmation of the country's
rich literary heritage and cultural legacy. It signifies a step forward in global
cultural preservation efforts, highlighting the importance of recognizing and
safeguarding the diverse narratives and artistic expressions that shape our
shared humanity. By honouring these literary masterpieces, society not only
pays homage to the creative genius of their creators but also ensures that
their profound wisdom and timeless teachings continue to inspire and
enlighten future generations.
● The 'Ramcharitmanas', 'Panchatantra', and 'Sahṛ dayaloka-Locana' are such
timeless works that have deeply influenced Indian literature and culture,
shaping the nation's moral fabric and artistic expressions. These literary
works have transcended time and place, leaving an indelible mark on readers
and artists both within and outside India. It is noteworthy that
‘Sahṛ dayaloka-Locana’, ‘Panchatantra’, and ‘Ramcharitmanas’ were
authored by Acharya Anandvardhan, Pt. Vishnu Sharma, and Goswami
Tulsidas, respectively.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/15/unescos-memory-of-the-world-asia-
pacific-regional-register/
4. Consider the following statements about Hampi’s Virupaksha Temple:
1. The Virupaksha Temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
2. It was built during the reign of the Hoysala Empire.
3. The temple complex includes a notable tall gopuram that serves as an
architectural marvel.

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How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: A portion of Hampi’s Virupaksha temple collapsed due to heavy
rains.
● The Virupaksha Temple is indeed dedicated to Lord Shiva, who is
worshipped here as Virupaksha.
● The temple was built during the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire, which
was one of the greatest Hindu kingdoms in South India.
● The temple complex features a towering gopuram, which is an excellent
example of Dravidian architecture and serves as an iconic structure of the
temple.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/27/hampis-virupaksha-temple/
5. Pachmarhi and Adamgarh Hills are famous for:
(a) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(b) Rock Paintings
(c) Tea Plantations
(d) Ancient Temples
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Prehistoric art in India
● Upper Palaeolithic Period: Earliest paintings, such as linear
representations of animals like bison, elephants, and tigers, alongside stick-
like human figures, found at sites like Bhimbetka and Jwalapuram.
● Mesolithic Period: Predominantly depicting human scenes of hunting and
community dances, with animals painted in a naturalistic style and humans
in a stylistic manner. Major sites include Pachmarhi and Adamgarh Hills.
● Neolithic-Chalcolithic Period: Characterized by pottery and metal tools
depicted in rock paintings, with predominant colours of white and red
possibly made from grinding haematite and limestone. Men are portrayed as
adventurous, and animals appear youthful and majestic. Notable sites
include the Chambal region and Daimabad in Maharashtra.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/ancient-rock-paintings/

DEFENSE AND SECURITY

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Torpedoes are primarily used in aerial combat.
2. Torpedoes can only travel in a straight line.
3. Torpedoes are propelled by a variety of mechanisms including steam,
electricity, and combustion engines.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:

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● Only statement 3 is correct.

● Context: The DRDO successfully tested the SMART (Supersonic Missile-
Assisted Release of Torpedo) system, a missile-assisted torpedo release
system designed to bolster the Navy’s anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
○ It can launch lightweight torpedoes targeting submarines hundreds of
kilometres away, beyond the conventional range.
● S1: Torpedoes are primarily used in naval warfare, not aerial combat. Aircraft
typically deploy bombs or missiles.
● S2: Torpedoes are capable of adjusting their trajectory to some extent,
allowing them to pursue moving targets underwater. They are not restricted
to traveling only in a straight line.
● S3: Torpedoes have been propelled by various means over the years,
including steam, electricity (as in electric torpedoes), and combustion
engines.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/290814/
2. Consider the following statements about Border Roads Organisation (BRO):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It functions under the control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. It develops and maintains road networks in India's border areas and friendly
neighboring countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
● Border Roads Organisation:
● The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a statutory body under the
ownership of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India. BRO
develops and maintains road networks in India's border areas and friendly
neighboring countries. This includes infrastructure operations in 19 states
and three union territories (including Andaman and Nicobar Islands) and
neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, Tajikistan
and Sri Lanka.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/shinku-la-tunnel/
3. Shakti Exercise is a bilateral exercise between the armies of India and
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Japan
(d) France
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● India and France have commenced the 7th edition of the India-France Joint
Military Exercise SHAKTI in Umroi, Meghalaya.
● About Exercise SHAKTI: It is a biennial training event alternating between
India and France, with the last edition being held in France in November
2021. Objectives include achieving physical fitness, refining tactical
operations, and exchanging best practices.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/exercises-in-news-2/

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4. Consider the following statements:

1. Exercise ‘Tarkash’ is a biennial training event conducted alternatively in
India and France.
2. The last edition took place in France in November 2021.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Exercise ‘Tarkash’
● The seventh edition of the Indo-U.S. joint counter-terrorism exercise,
‘Tarkash’, recently took place in Kolkata between India’s National Security
Guard (NSG) and U.S. Special Operations Forces (SOF).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/exercises-in-news-2/
5. The ‘Naresh Chandra Committee’ and ‘Shekatkar Committee’ were often mentioned
in news recently, related to:
(a) Economic reforms in India
(b) Education policy reforms
(c) Defense and security reforms in India
(d) Environmental conservation initiatives
Ans: (c)
Explanation
● Kargil Review Committee & Group of Ministers: After the 1999 Kargil
battle, highlighted the necessity for a unified war-fighting approach.
● Naresh Chandra Committee: Advocated structural changes in higher
defence management.
● Shekatkar Committee: Led by Lt Gen. (retd) D.B. Shekatkar, recommended
the creation of the CDS post and theatre commands, emphasizing unified
planning.
● CDS Appointment & Department of Military Affairs (DMA): Steps towards
achieving jointness among the armed forces, following recommendations
from the Shekatkar Committee.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/16/theaterisation-of-india-armed-
forces/

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MISCELLANEOUS

1. Consider the following statements About Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) India:
1. It operates as an independent body reporting directly to the Union Minister of
Home Affairs.
2. Its functions include receiving, analyzing, and disseminating information on
suspicious financial transactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:About Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) India:
● FIU-IND, established in 2004, operates as an independent body reporting
directly to the Economic Intelligence Council led by the Finance
Minister. Its functions include receiving, analyzing, and disseminating
information on suspicious financial transactions. It coordinates efforts with
national and international agencies to combat money laundering and terror
financing. Additionally, India employs specialized agencies like the
Enforcement Directorate and Central Bureau of Investigation and
participates in international cooperation through memberships in
organizations like FATF and the Eurasian Group.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/30/new-alert-indicators-under-pmla/
2. The policy brief "Standards for a Net Zero Iron and Steel sector in India" is published
by which organization?
(a) UNEP
(b) IEA
(c) IPCC
(d) WEF
Ans: (b)
Explanation: ‘Standards for a Net Zero Iron and Steel sector in India’
● Released by the International Energy Agency
● The policy brief emphasizes standards for low and near-zero emissions steel
(including the promotion of Green Steel), covering measurement
methodologies and defining emissions thresholds.
● India ranks as the world’s second-largest steel-producing country,
contributing 7% of total crude steel productionIndia’s steel industry
presently represents 12% of carbon dioxide emissions, a figure projected to
double by 2030, fueled by government infrastructure initiatives.
● Initiatives to standardize the steel sector in India include the Steel Scrap
Recycling Policy of 2019, the Perform, Achieve, and Trade (PAT) scheme
under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, and the
establishment of 14 Task Forces by the Ministry of Steel to support the
development of a “Roadmap for Green Steel.” Globally, initiatives such as the
Steel Breakthrough launched during COP26 in 2021 and the Steel Standard
Principles introduced at COP28 in 2023 focus on defining and establishing
measurement methodologies for low and near-zero emissions steel.

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● The International Energy Agency is a Paris-based autonomous

intergovernmental organisation, established in 1974, that provides policy
recommendations, analysis and data on the global energy sector. The 31
member countries and 13 association countries (including India) of the IEA
represent 75% of global energy demand.
● India, which joined the IEA Family as an Association country in 2017, sent a
formal request for full membership to IEA ministers in October 2023.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/reports-study-in-news/
3. Consider the following statements:
1. The Goldman Environmental Prize is also known as the Green Nobel Award.
2. The Prize was awarded by Goldman Sachs Foundation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Alok Shukla, a forest and tribal rights activist of Chhattisgarh
Bachao Andolan, has won the 2024 Goldman Environmental Prize for his
campaign saving over 4 lakh acres of forests in Chhattisgarh’s Hasdeo
Aranya region from 21 planned coal mines.
○ The Hasdeo Aranya forests, spread across 1.70 lakh hectares in
Chhattisgarh, are vital for biodiversity, home to 25 endangered
species, 92 bird species, and 167 rare plants. The Hasdeo River, fed
by these forests, irrigates 741,000 acres of farmland. Chhattisgarh,
with 44% forest coverage, ranks third in India.
● The award, also known as the Green Nobel, is given by the Goldman
Environmental Foundation to grassroots environmental leaders worldwide,
with winners receiving USD 200,000.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/02/goldman-environmental-prize-2/
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research(NCPOR) is an
autonomous institution of the Department of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. The NCPOR is responsible for administering the Indian Antarctic Programme
and maintains the Indian government's Antarctic research stations, Bharati
and Maitri.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research(NCPOR) is an Indian
research and development institution, situated in Vasco da Gama, Goa.
● It is an autonomous institution of the Department of the Ministry of Earth
Sciences, Government of India which is responsible for administering the
Indian Antarctic Programme and maintains the Indian government's
Antarctic research stations, Bharati and Maitri.

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/03/46th-antarctic-treaty-consultative-
meeting/
5. Consider the following statements about Petroleum and Explosives Safety
Organization (PESO):
1. It is a department formed by the Government of India under the Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade of the Ministry of Commerce
and Industry.
2. It has been serving the nation as a nodal agency for regulating safety of
hazardous substances such as explosives, compressed gas and petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO) (est. 1898; HQ:
Nagpur; under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry), was established
during British rule as the Department of Explosives. It oversees the
administration of various acts including the Explosives Act, 1884, and the
Petroleum (Production) Act, 1934. PESO regulates the import, export,
transport, storage, and usage of petroleum products, explosives, and
flammable materials. It operates autonomously under the Chief Controller of
Explosives. PESO frames rules and regulations for various sectors such as
cinematography, gas cylinders, petroleum, and explosives. Its officers are
selected through the Union Public Service Commission into the Indian
Petroleum and Explosives Safety Service cadre.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/draft-new-explosives-bill/
6. Consider the following statements about Competition Commission of India:
1. It is the chief national competition regulator in India.
2. It is a statutory body within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the chief national
competition regulator in India. It is a statutory body within the Ministry
of Corporate Affairs and is responsible for enforcing the Competition Act,
2002 to promote competition and prevent activities that have an appreciable
adverse effect on competition in India. The CCI looks into cases and
investigates them if the same has a negative impact on competition.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/standard-essential-patents-seps/
7. Consider the following statements about Spices Board:
1. It is one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of
Commerce & Industry.
2. It is responsible for the overall development of the cardamom industry and
export promotion of 52 spices listed in the schedule of the Spices Board Act,
1986.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Spices Board was constituted on 26th February 1987 under the Spices
Board Act 1986 (No. 10 of 1986) with the merger of the erstwhile Cardamom
Board (1968) and Spices Export Promotion Council (1960). Spices Board is
one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of
Commerce & Industry. It is an autonomous body responsible for the export
promotion of the 52 scheduled spices and development of Cardamom (Small
& Large).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/issues-with-indias-food-regulatory-
system/
8. Which one of the following has recently organized ‘#PlayTrue Campaign’?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Sports Authority of India
(c) National Anti-Doping Agency
(d) Election Commission of India
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) India recently wrapped up
its #PlayTrue Campaign, attracting over 12,133 participants.
● What is the #PlayTrue Campaign?
○ The #PlayTrue Campaign, organized by NADA India, aims to raise
awareness about clean sports and anti-doping practices. Through
activities like quizzes and awareness sessions, it promotes fair play
and integrity in sports, aligning with the World Anti-Doping Agency
(WADA) vision.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/playtrue-campaign/
9. Which of the following statements accurately describes apartheid in South Africa?
(a) Apartheid was a policy implemented to promote racial equality and
integration in South African society.
(b) Apartheid was a system of institutionalized racial segregation and
discrimination enforced by the South African government.
(c) Apartheid was primarily aimed at fostering multiculturalism and diversity in
South Africa.
(d) Apartheid was a movement led by Nelson Mandela to establish equal rights
for all citizens regardless of race.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: South Africa prepares to commemorate 30 years of freedom amidst
ongoing challenges of inequality, poverty, and a tense upcoming election.
● What was Apartheid?

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○It was a system of institutionalized racial segregation and

discrimination enforced by the South African government from 1948
to 1994. Under apartheid, non-white South Africans, particularly
black people, were systematically oppressed and denied basic rights,
including the right to vote and access to education, healthcare, and
employment opportunities.
○ For example, the apartheid government enforced laws such as the
Group Areas Act, which designated specific residential areas for
different racial groups, leading to forced removals of non-white
communities from their homes to segregated townships.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/04/30-years-since-apartheid-ended-in-
south-africa/
10. World Press Freedom Index is published by
(a) International Press Institute
(b) The Associated Press
(c) UNESCO
(d) Reporters Without Borders
Ans: (d)
Explanation: World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) 2024
● India ranked 159 out of 180 countries in the annual WPFI 2024, released by
Reporters Without Borders (RSF), a Paris-based NGO advocating for
freedom of information.
● Published on World Press Freedom Day (May 3) with the theme “A Press for
the Planet: Journalism in the Face of the Environmental Crisis”. Top 3
ranked countries: Norway, Denmark, and Sweden
● Indicators: Based on five indicators: Political, Economic, Legislative, Social,
and Security.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/reports-study-in-news-2/
11. Consider the following statements about GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT):
1. Under the GST laws, the GSTAT is a specialized appellate authority for
resolving disputes.
2. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the Appellate
Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the GST
Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State GST
Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of Jharkhand High
Court, has been appointed as President of the GST Appellate Tribunal
(GSTAT) for a four-year term by the Appointment Committee of Cabinet.

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● Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second appeal in
GST laws and the first common forum of dispute resolution between Centre
and States. The appeals against the orders in first appeals issued by the
Appellate Authorities under the Central and State GST Acts lie before the
GST Appellate Tribunal, which is common under the Central as well as State
GST Acts. Being a common forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure that
there is uniformity in redressal of disputes arising under GST, and therefore,
in implementation of GST across the country.
● Chapter XVIII of the CGST Act provides for the Appeal and Review
Mechanism for dispute resolution under the GST Regime. Section 109 of this
Chapter under CGST Act empowers the Central Government to constitute, on
the recommendation of Council, by notification, with effect from such date as
may be specified therein, an Appellate Tribunal known as the Goods and
Services Tax Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders
passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/gst-appellate-tribunal-gstat/
12. Consider the following statements about Central Drugs Standard Control
Organisation:
1. It operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. It is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical trials, setting drug
standards, and ensuring quality control of imported drugs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) will now
exclusively have the authority to issue manufacturing licenses for new drugs
intended for export, removing this power from state governments.
● The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) operates under
the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, headquartered in New Delhi. It
oversees regulatory functions under the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and
rules 1945. CDSCO is responsible for approving drugs, conducting clinical
trials, setting drug standards, and ensuring quality control of imported
drugs. It operates through 9 zonal offices across the country.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/06/central-drugs-standard-control-
organisation-cdsco-3/
13. Consider the following statements about the National Health Authority(NHA):
1. National Health Agency (NHA) is an attached office of the Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare.
2. NHA has been set up by the Government of India to implement Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) through State level Health Agencies.
3. NHA is governed by a Governing Board chaired by the Union Minister for
Health and Family Welfare.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)

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Explanation:
● Context: A study in Chhattisgarh revealed that despite the Pradhan Mantri
Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), out-of-pocket spending (OOPE) on health
remains high, particularly in private hospitals, due to the widespread
practice of dual billing.
● National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for
implementing India’s flagship public health insurance/assurance scheme
called “Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana” & has been
entrusted with the role of designing strategy, building technological
infrastructure and implementation of “National Digital Health Mission” to
create a National Digital Health Eco-system.
● National Health Authority is the successor of the National Health Agency,
which was functioning as a registered society since 23rd May, 2018.
Pursuant to Cabinet decision for full functional autonomy, National Health
Agency was reconstituted as the National Health Authority on 2nd January
2019, under Gazette Notification Registered No. DL –(N) 04/0007/2003-18.
● NHA has been set-up to implement PM-JAY, as it is popularly known, at
the national level. An attached office of the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare with full functional autonomy, NHA is governed by a
Governing Board chaired by the Union Minister for Health and Family
Welfare. It is headed by a Chief Executive Officer (CEO), an officer of the
rank of Secretary to the Government of India, who manages its affairs. The
CEO is the Ex-Office Member Secretary of the Governing Board.
● To implement the scheme at the State level, State Health Agencies (SHAs) in
the form of a society/trust have been set up by respective States. SHAs have
full operational autonomy over the implementation of the scheme in the
State including extending the coverage to non SECC beneficiaries.
● NHA is leading the implementation for Ayushman Bharat Digital
MissionABDM in coordination with different ministries/departments of the
Government of India, State Governments, and private sector/civil society
organizations.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/07/pradhan-mantri-jan-arogya-yojana-
pmjay/
14. Consider the following statements about National Health Systems Resource Centre
1. It was established under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM).
2. It prepares National Health Account (NHA) estimates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: India’s healthcare system is witnessing positive developments, with
significant increases in government health expenditure (GHE) as a proportion
of GDP and per capita expenditure.
● National Health Systems Resource Centre
○ It was established in 2006-07 under the National Rural Health
Mission (NRHM) of Government of India to serve as an apex body for
technical assistance.
○ National Health Account (NHA) estimates prepared by the National
Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC),

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Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/08/good-news-for-indias-healthcare-
system/
15. World Migration Report is published by
(a) United Nations Population Fund
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) International Organization for Migration
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● 2024 World Migration Report By International Organization for
Migration (IOM) Conflict and climate change stand as the chief catalysts
behind global displacement, resulting in around 281 million international
migrants globally, with 117 million individuals displaced, marking a historic
peak. India, in particular, faces significant impacts, as climate factors
notably influence internal migration from regions such as Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh. India hosts the largest population of
international migrants worldwide, totalling 18 million, predominantly in
countries like the UAE, USA, and Saudi Arabia. Furthermore, in 2022, India
emerged as the foremost recipient of remittances, surpassing the significant
milestone of receiving over USD 111 billion, indicative of its substantial role
in the global migrant workforce and economy. About the IOM: Established in
1951 as part of the UN System, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It
comprises 175 member states and aims to address displacement issues and
facilitate pathways for regular migration. It leads initiatives like the Global
Compact For Migration.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/reports-study-in-news-3/
16. Consider the following statements about UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) Scheme:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
2. It is a part of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016.
3. The scheme is jointly funded by the central government and state
governments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) - UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik),
a government-backed initiative to improve infrastructure and connectivity in
India, especially in remote and underserved regions, completes six years. It is
a vital component of India's National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP) 2016,
launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) on October 21, 2016, with
a 10-year vision.
● The scheme is jointly funded by the central government and state
governments.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/09/analysis-of-indias-aviation-sector/
17. Consider the following statements about Shinku La tunnel:
1. It is the longest tunnel in Asia, stretching over 10 kilometers.
2. The tunnel serves as a vital link between Manali and Leh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is set to begin work on the
Shinku La tunnel, which will be the world’s highest, facilitating all-weather
connectivity from Manali to Leh.
● The Shinku La tunnel, constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO),
will be the world’s highest tunnel at 15,800 ft, surpassing China’s Mila
tunnel. Spanning 4.1 km along the Nimmu-Padam-Darcha route, it will
provide all-weather connectivity from Manali to Leh, cutting the distance by
60 km.
● This tunnel is significant as it offers an alternative route to Ladakh,
streamlining transportation to strategic areas like Kargil, Siachen, and the
Line of Control.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/10/shinku-la-tunnel/
18. ‘Amplifying the Global Value of Earth Observation’ report is published by the
(a) World Trade Organization
(b) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) Indian Space Research Organisation
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The report released by the World Economic Forum
● Earth Observation (EO) technologies gather data about Earth’s natural and
artificial features. EO includes remotely sensed data from satellites and in-
situ data from sensors.
● EO could also help reduce over 2 billion tonnes of CO2 annually by 2030
through early warning systems and environmental impact monitoring.
● Global initiatives like MethaneSAT and Allen coral Atlas aim to address these
challenges and leverage EO for various purposes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/reports-in-news-9/
19. Consider the following statements about the Indian Council of Medical Research
(ICMR):
1. It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion
of biomedical research.
2. It has established the Clinical Trials Registry – India (CTRI).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:

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● The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (founded 1911; HQ: New
Delhi) is India’s top biomedical research organization, responsible for
formulating, coordinating, and promoting medical research. Its mission
includes conducting and implementing medical research for societal benefit
and translating innovations into public health solutions. Funded by the
Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of
Health & Family Welfare.
● Clinical Trials Registry – India (CTRI) is the government of India's
official clinical trial registry. The National Institute of Medical Statistics of
the Indian Council of Medical Research established the CTRI on 20 July
2007. Since 2009 the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation has
mandated that anyone conducting clinical trials in India must pre register
before enrolling any research participants.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/11/icmr-dietary-guidelines/
20. What is the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
(a) A maritime zone where coastal states have exclusive rights to exploit and
manage natural resources.
(b) A region designated for military exercises by coastal states.
(c) An area where international fishing vessels have unrestricted access.
(d) A zone where foreign vessels have priority access to marine resources.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is a maritime zone established by the
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It extends up to
200 nautical miles from the coastal baseline of a country. Within this zone,
the coastal state has exclusive rights to explore, exploit, conserve, and
manage both living and non-living resources. These rights include fishing, oil
and gas extraction, and other economic activities. Other countries' vessels
enjoy freedom of navigation through the EEZ, but they must comply with the
coastal state's laws and regulations regarding resource exploitation.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the
nature and purpose of the Exclusive Economic Zone.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/13/freshwater-under-the-ocean-bed/
21. Global Report on Internal Displacement 2024 is released by the
(a) WEF
(b) UNPF
(c) OECD
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● The report was released by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre
(IDMC)
● A report by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC) reveals that
about 76 million people were internally displaced (IDPs) globally by the end
of 2023, up from over 71 million in 2022. Of these, over 68 million were
displaced due to conflict and violence, with Sudan, Syria, the Democratic
Republic of the Congo, Colombia, and Yemen hosting nearly half.
● In South Asia, Manipur is a significant contributor.
● The Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre or IDMC is an international
non-governmental organization established in 1998 by the Norwegian
Refugee Council in Geneva. It is focused on monitoring and providing
information and analysis on the world’s internally displaced persons
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/

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22. A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’ is released by the

(a) IPCC
(b) UNCCD
(c) UNEP
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● A report, titled ‘Land Squeeze’, released by the International Panel of
Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food)
● In India, over 70% of arable land faces degradation and desertification.
Additionally, the top 10% of landowners control 45% of the farmland, and
the average agricultural holding is just 1.08 hectares (2015-16).
● What is Land Squeeze?: Land Squeeze refers to the increasing and
converging pressures on global farmland, leading to issues like land
degradation, desertification, land concentration, and fragmentation
● IPES-Food is an international non-profit association, with the goal to
promote transition to sustainable food systems around the world and it was
registered in Belgium in the year 2015.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/
23. World Wildlife Crime Report 2024 is released by the
(a) WWF
(b) FATF
(c) UNODC
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
● A report covering 2015-2021 reveals that rhinoceroses and cedars were the
most impacted animal and plant species, respectively. The largest number of
seizures during this period involved corals, followed by crocodilians and
elephants.
● Animal species seizures increased from 2015 to 2019 before declining in
2020 and 2021, while plant species seizures saw a sharp rise in 2020 and
2021.
● Wildlife crime, defined as the illegal taking, possession, trade, or use of wild
animals and plants or their derivatives, is driven by demand for medicine,
pets, bushmeat, and ornamental plants, along with the high profits from
illegal trade and corruption undermining regulations.
● Globally, efforts to combat wildlife crime include the UNODC’s Global
Programme for Combating Wildlife and Forest Crime, launched in 2014, and
the Wildlife Crime Initiative by TRAFFIC and WWF
● The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), established in
1997 by merging the UNDCP and the Crime Prevention and Criminal
Justice Division, focuses on combating illicit drug trafficking and abuse,
crime prevention, criminal justice, international terrorism, and political
corruption. It adopted its current name in 2002 and is part of the United
Nations Development Group
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/reports-in-news-10/
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Project BHISHM is an initiative by the Indian Army.
2. The project aims to enhance the combat capabilities of T-90 and Arjun tanks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: The Indian Air Force conducted a test of BHISHM portable hospital
cubes in Agra, marking the first such test by the IAF.
● BHISHM cubes are part of “Project BHISHM” aimed at providing a rapid
medical response for up to 200 casualties. Equipped with innovative tools,
including AI and data analytics, the cubes are easily transportable and
deployable within 12 minutes, suitable for various emergency scenarios.
These cubes were strategically deployed during the Pran Pratishtha
ceremony in Ayodhya earlier this year to enhance medical preparedness and
response capabilities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/bhishm-portable-hospital-cubes/
25. With reference to Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act
(CAATSA)', consider the following statements.
1. CAATSA was enacted in response to Russia's interference in the 2016 U.S.
elections.
2. The primary goal of CAATSA is to enhance the U.S. military presence in
Eastern Europe.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: India and Iran signed a 10-year contract on Chabahar Port, but the
US State Department warned against business deals with Iran due to
potential sanctions under CAATSA.
● S1: CAATSA was enacted in response to various actions by Russia,
including its interference in the 2016 U.S. elections, its involvement in the
conflict in Ukraine, and its support for the Assad regime in Syria.
● S2: It, enacted in 2017, is a US law targeting countries engaged with
Russia, North Korea, and Iran through economic sanctions. It imposes
penalties on nations conducting significant transactions with Russian
intelligence and military entities. In 2018, the US House of Representatives
passed an amendment exempting India from CAATSA sanctions for
purchasing the S-400 missile defence system from Russia.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/17/countering-americas-adversaries-
through-sanctions-act-caatsa-4/
26. India's 'No First Use' policy is related to:
(a) Environmental conservation
(b) Trade regulations
(c) Nuclear weapons
(d) Space exploration
Ans: (c)
Explanation:

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● Context: Fifty years ago (1974), India conducted its first nuclear test,
Operation Smiling Buddha, in Pokhran, marking its entry into the nuclear
club.
● India's 'No First Use' (NFU) policy is a commitment that it will not use
nuclear weapons as a means of warfare unless first attacked by an adversary
using nuclear weapons. This policy is a part of India's nuclear doctrine,
which emphasizes maintaining a credible minimum deterrent and adheres to
the principle of non-use of nuclear weapons against non-nuclear weapon
states. The NFU policy reflects India's stance on nuclear disarmament and
its strategic restraint in the use of nuclear capabilities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/50-years-since-indias-first-nuclear-
test/
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Muria Tribe is predominantly found in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
2. The Muria people are known for their unique Ghotul system, which is a
traditional youth dormitory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: Muria tribal farmer practices the traditional ‘deda’ seed preservation
method, handed down by his ancestors.
● About the Murias Tribe:
○ They are a sub-group of the Gond tribe, primarily residing in
Chhattisgarh, India. They are known for their involvement in the
Muria Rebellion of Bastar in 1876, which was a revolt against
Gopinath Kapardas, the diwan of Bastar. The Murias have unique
customs, including the practice of burying the dead in structures
called “Gudi,” where a stone is placed 6 to 7 feet high. Additionally,
they have a social institution known as “Ghotul,” where young
boys and girls have the freedom to choose their own life
partners.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/muria-tribe/
28. The "Father of the White Revolution in India" significantly contributed to which of
the following projects?
(a) Green Revolution
(b) Operation Flood
(c) Blue Revolution
(d) Golden Revolution
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Dr. Verghese Kurien (1921-2012):

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● Also known as the ‘Father of the White Revolution in India,’ he

spearheaded ‘Operation Flood,‘ the world’s largest agricultural program. He
established 30 farmer-run institutions and played a key role in the success
of the Amul brand, leading India to become the world’s largest milk producer
in 1998. His efforts extended to managing the Delhi Milk Scheme and
making India self-sufficient in edible oils. Honoured with the Ramon
Magsaysay Award, Krishi Ratna, World Food Prize, and India’s highest
civilian awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan),
National Milk Day on November 26 commemorates his birth anniversary.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/20/manthan-film/
29. Consider the following statements about Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI):
1. DCGI is a constitutional body established by the Government of India.
2. DCGI ensures the safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs and cosmetics in
India.
3. DCGI operates independently of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) heads the Central Drugs
Standard Control Organization, overseeing the approval of licenses for
specified drug categories in India, including blood products, vaccines, and
IV fluids. DCGI operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
and establishes standards for drug manufacturing, sales, import, and
distribution in the country.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/materiovigilance-programme-of-
india-mvpi-platform/
30. Consider the following statements about the Whitley Gold Award:
1. The award is given annually to an individual or organization for outstanding
contributions to wildlife conservation.
2. It includes a significant cash prize intended to support the awardee’s ongoing
conservation efforts.
3. Recipients are selected solely based on their academic achievements in
environmental science.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Dr Purnima Devi Barman from India has been awarded the 2024
Whitley Gold Award (dubbed ‘Green Oscar’) by the UK charity Whitley
Fund for Nature (WFN) for her efforts to save the Greater Adjutant Stork
(Hargila).

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● The Whitley Gold Award is a prestigious accolade awarded annually to

individuals or organizations for their exceptional contributions to wildlife
conservation. It includes a substantial cash prize that is intended to support
the awardee’s ongoing conservation projects. However, recipients are not
selected solely based on their academic achievements in environmental
science. Instead, the selection criteria emphasize practical conservation
efforts and demonstrable impact in the field of wildlife conservation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/purnima-devi-barman-wins-the-
2024-whitley-gold-award/
31. Which of the following is the primary objective of the Materiovigilance Programme of
India (MvPI)?
(a) To monitor the use of drugs in India
(b) To ensure the safety of medical devices in India
(c) To track the distribution of vaccines in India
(d) To promote the development of new medical technologies in India
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), through a circular,
has directed all device license holders and manufacturers to report any
adverse events on the Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI)
platform to mitigate risks and ensure public health safety.
● About MvPI:
○ It was launched in 2015, and has been overseen by the Indian
Pharmacopoeia Commission since 2018. It serves as the National
Coordination Centre, focusing on monitoring Medical Device-
associated Adverse Events (MDAE) and raising awareness among
healthcare professionals. MDAE reports can be submitted by
various stakeholders, including clinical specialists, biomedical
engineers, nurses, pharmacists, and patients.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/materiovigilance-programme-of-
india-mvpi-platform/
32. Who coordinates the Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI)?
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(b) Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
(c) Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)
(d) Quality Council of India (QCI)
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI) was launched in 2015, and is
overseen by the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission since 2018.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/21/materiovigilance-programme-of-
india-mvpi-platform/
33. ‘Travel and Tourism Development Index’ (TTDI) 2024 is released by
(a) International Civil Aviation Organization
(b) World Travel and Tourism Council
(c) UN Tourism
(d) World Economic Forum
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● The World Economic Forum (WEF) released the TTDI 2024

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● TTDI assesses factors and policies for sustainable and resilient Travel and
Tourism development. This second edition evolved from the Travel & Tourism
Competitiveness Index (TTCI), WEF’s flagship index since 2007.
● India’s rank improved to 39 in 2024 from 54 in 2021
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/reports-in-news-11/
34. Global Land Outlook is released by
(a) UNFCCC
(b) IPCC
(c) UNEP
(d) UNCCD
Ans: (d)
Explanation:Global Land Outlook Thematic Report on Rangelands and
Pastoralists
● Released by the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
● The report examines the relationship between rangelands and their human
communities, particularly pastoralists, to identify protection strategies.
● Rangelands, comprising ecosystems like grasslands, savannahs, and deserts,
cover over 54% of the Earth’s surface, with 78% in drylands.
● Up to 50% of rangelands are degraded due to factors like land use changes,
excessive grazing, and urban expansion.
● In India, rangelands cover about 121 million hectares, with 100 million
hectares underutilized.
● The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD),
adopted in 1994, is the sole legally binding international agreement linking
environment and development to sustainable land management. India has
ratified it.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/reports-in-news-11/
35. ‘Water For Shared Prosperity’ is released by
(a) UNESCO
(b) World Bank
(c) UN Water
(d) UNEP
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The World Bank report, released at the 10th World Water Forum in Bali,
Indonesia, defines shared prosperity as boosting prosperity for the poorest
to achieve equitable societies.
● Four building blocks of prosperity: Health and Education, Jobs and Income,
Peace and Social Cohesion, and Environment.
● Population growth, urbanization, and climate change increase global water
access disparity.
● In 2022, 197 million people in the world lacked safe drinking water, and 211
million lacked basic sanitation.
● World Water Forum: Held every three years, co-hosted by the World Water
Council and a host country. Aims to raise water issues on the political
agenda and support international water issue resolutions.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/reports-in-news-11/
36. Consider the following statements about the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
1. CCI operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. The primary legislation governing CCI is the Competition Act, 2002.
3. CCI has the authority to impose penalties on enterprises that violate
competition laws.

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How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● Context: At the 15th Foundation Day event of the Competition Commission
of India (CCI), the Attorney General of India highlighted the challenges digital
markets pose for global competition regulators.
● S1: CCI operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
● S2: The primary legislation governing CCI is the Competition Act, 2002.
● S3: CCI has the authority to impose penalties on enterprises that violate
competition laws.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/23/competition-commission-of-india-2/
37. Which of the following statements about the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and
Urban Transformation (AMRUT) Scheme are correct?
(a) The primary focus of AMRUT is to ensure basic infrastructure services such
as water supply, sewerage, urban transport, and parks are provided in cities.
(b) AMRUT is exclusively targeted towards rural areas, aiming to uplift
agricultural infrastructure.
(c) Under AMRUT, selected cities receive financial assistance from the state
government for improving urban amenities and infrastructure.
(d) AMRUT was launched in collaboration with UNESCO to promote cultural
heritage preservation in urban areas.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
● Context: Telangana is implementing Shallow Aquifer Management (SAM) pilot
models in Habsiguda and Sainikpuri to address groundwater depletion and
flooding.
● Option A is Correct: One of the main objectives of AMRUT is to ensure
that all households have access to basic services such as water supply,
sewerage, urban transport, and parks, focusing primarily on urban areas.
● Option B is Incorrect: AMRUT is specifically designed for urban areas and
does not target rural regions.
● Option C is Incorrect: Through AMRUT, selected cities receive financial
assistance from the central government to improve urban amenities and
infrastructure, promoting sustainable urban development.
● Option D is Incorrect: AMRUT is a scheme initiated by the Government of
India and is not directly linked with UNESCO or cultural heritage
preservation initiatives.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/shallow-aquifer-management-sam/
38. Consider the following statements:
1. The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a single book
translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
2. The prize money for the International Booker Prize is split equally between
the author and the translator.
3. The International Booker Prize was established to recognize an author's body
of work rather than a single book.
4. The International Booker Prize and the Booker Prize for Fiction are the same
award, just under different names.

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How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is true. The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a
single book that has been translated into English and published in the UK or
Ireland.
● Statement 2 is true. The prize money for the International Booker Prize is
indeed split equally between the author and the translator, recognizing the
contribution of both in bringing the work to an English-speaking audience.
● Statement 3 is false. The International Booker Prize used to be awarded for
an author's body of work when it was first established, but since 2016, it has
been awarded for a single book.
● Statement 4 is false. The International Booker Prize and the Booker Prize for
Fiction are distinct awards. The Booker Prize for Fiction is awarded to an
original novel written in English, whereas the International Booker Prize is
awarded for a translated work.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/2024-international-booker-prize/
39. What happens when an aircraft experiences turbulence?
(a) The aircraft engines stop working.
(b) The aircraft loses control and plummets.
(c) The passengers feel sudden and erratic movements.
(d) The aircraft immediately requires an emergency landing.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● When an aircraft experiences turbulence, it encounters irregular motion
caused by changes in the air flow, such as wind shear, jet streams, or
atmospheric pressure changes.

●
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/24/turbulence/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

40. Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
(IBC):
1. The IBC aims to consolidate and amend the laws relating to reorganization
and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and
individuals in a time-bound manner.
2. The IBC was enacted in 2016 to address the issues of insolvency and
bankruptcy, thereby providing a clear and speedy resolution process.
3. Under the IBC, the resolution process for a corporate debtor is to be
completed within a period of 180 days, extendable by a further 90 days if
necessary.
4. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) acts as the adjudicating
authority for insolvency resolution for companies and limited liability
partnerships (LLPs).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
● Context: The Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has
successfully facilitated the full settlement of operational creditors’ claims for
five companies.
● Consolidation and Amendment: The primary objective of the IBC is to
consolidate and amend laws related to reorganization and insolvency
resolution for corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a
time-bound manner. This helps in promoting entrepreneurship, availability
of credit, and balancing the interests of all stakeholders.
● Enactment in 2016: The IBC was enacted in 2016 to provide a streamlined,
efficient process for resolving insolvencies. This helps in protecting the value
of the debtor's assets and ensuring their optimal use.
● Resolution Timeframe: The IBC stipulates that the insolvency resolution
process for a corporate debtor should ideally be completed within 180 days,
which can be extended by an additional 90 days if necessary, making a total
of 270 days.
● Role of NCLT: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is designated as
the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution of companies and
limited liability partnerships (LLPs), playing a crucial role in the
implementation of the IBC.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-pre-packaged-insolvency-
resolution-process-ppirp/
41. Consider the following statements about the Institute of Chartered Accountants of
India (ICAI):
1. ICAI is the second-largest accounting body in the world.
2. ICAI is responsible for setting the accounting and auditing standards in
India.
3. Membership in ICAI is mandatory for practicing chartered accountants in
India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

Ans: (c)
Explanation:
● The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is a statutory body
established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, by the Indian
Parliament to regulate the chartered accountancy profession in the country.
It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India,
with its headquarters in New Delhi. As the world’s second-largest
professional body of chartered accountants, ICAI is governed by a Council
comprising elected and nominated members. Its functions include regulating
the profession, conducting examinations and education, providing
continuing professional education, formulating accounting standards,
ensuring ethical standards, and exercising disciplinary jurisdiction.
Additionally, ICAI contributes input on policy matters to the government.
● To practice as a chartered accountant in India, one must be a member of
ICAI, ensuring adherence to professional standards and ethical guidelines.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/institute-of-chartered-accountants-
of-india-icai/
42. Which of the following states is the Nyishi tribe primarily found in?
(a) Assam
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Nagaland
(d) Manipur
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Anshu Jamsenpa, the first woman from Arunachal Pradesh’s Nyishi
tribe, has scaled Mount Everest.
● About the Nyishi tribe
○ It is the largest ethnic group in Arunachal Pradesh. They consider
themselves descendants of Abo Tani, believed to be the first human,
thus aligning with the Tani Group of Tribes, which includes the Adi,
Gallo, and Apatani. Their society lacks a caste system and rigid class
distinctions. Polygyny is practised, and their major festival is
Longte.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/29/anshu-jamsenpa/
43. The Alma-Ata Declaration is primarily related to:
(a) Environmental Protection
(b) Primary Health Care
(c) Nuclear Disarmament
(d) International Trade
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● The Alma-Ata Declaration was adopted at the International Conference on
Primary Health Care, which took place in Alma-Ata (now Almaty),
Kazakhstan, in 1978. The declaration emphasized the importance of primary
health care as the key to achieving the goal of "Health for All" by the year
2000. It called for urgent and effective national and international action to
develop and implement primary health care throughout the world,
particularly in developing countries. The declaration highlighted the
necessity of universal access to essential health care services, community
participation, and the integration of health into all aspects of development.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/health-for-all-mandate-of-who/

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Insta Current Affairs Quiz Compilation (May - 2024)

44. The "United Nations Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award" is presented to
individuals who have made significant contributions to promoting gender equality
within military operations. Which of the following statements about the award is
correct?
(a) The award is given exclusively to female military personnel.
(b) It recognizes the efforts of military personnel in integrating gender
perspectives into peacekeeping missions.
(c) The award was established in the year 2000.
(d) Only individuals from countries contributing the highest number of troops to
UN missions are eligible for the award.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
● Context: Major Radhika Sen, an Indian military peacekeeper serving with the
United Nations in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, will receive the
2023 United Nations Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award.
● The UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award, established by the
Office of Military Affairs in the Department for Peace Operations, honours a
military peacekeeper who has effectively integrated a gender perspective into
peacekeeping activities. Awardees are selected from nominees recommended
by Force Commanders and Heads of Mission across all peace operations. The
award acknowledges individuals’ commitment to promoting the principles of
UN Security Council Resolution 1325 on Women, Peace, and Security.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/30/major-radhika-sen/

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