Roll No. ....................................

Question Booklet Number

O. M. R. Serial No.

B. B. A. (Fourth Semester) (NEP)

EXAMINATION, 2022-23
F010401T-A : SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT
F010401T-B : RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

Questions Booklet
Paper Code Series

F 0 1 0 4 0 1 T A
Time : 1:30 Hours ] [ Maximum Marks : 75

Instructions to the Examinee : ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ’k %

1. Do not open the booklet unless you are 1. iz’u&iqfLrdk dks rc rd u [kksyas tc rd vkils dgk
asked to do so.
u tk,A
2. The booklet contains 100 questions. 2. iz’u&iqfLrdk esa 100 iz’u gSaA ijh{kkFkhZ dks 75 iz’uksa
Examinee is required to answer 75 dks dsoy nh xbZ OMR vkUlj&’khV ij gh gy djuk
questions in the OMR Answer-Sheet
gS iz’u&iqfLrdk ij ughaA iz’u&iqfLrdk nks
provided and not in the question booklet.
Booklet is in two Sections : Section-A (1-50) [k.Mksa [k.M&A (1–50) rFkk [k.M&B (51–100) esa
& Section-B (51-100). Candidate should gSA ijh{kkFkhZ dks izR;sd Hkkx ls Øe’k% 37 ;k 38 iz’u
select 37 or 38 questions respectively from djus gSaA lHkh iz’uksa ds vad leku gSaA
both sections. All questions carry equal
marks.

3. Examine the Booklet and the OMR Answer- 3. iz’uksa ds mŸkj vafdr djus ls iwoZ iz’u&iqfLrdk rFkk
Sheet very carefully before you proceed. OMR vkUlj&’khV dks lko/kkuhiwod Z ns[k ysAa nks”kiw.kZ
Faulty question booklet due to missing or
iz’u&iqfLrdk ftlesa dqN Hkkx Nius ls NwV x, gksa ;k
duplicate pages/questions or having any
other discrepancy should be got
iz’u ,d ls vf/kd ckj Ni x, gksa ;k mlesa fdlh
immediately replaced. vU; izdkj dh deh gks rks mls rqjUr cny ysAa

(Remaining instructions on the last page) ¼’ks”k funs’Z k vfUre i`”B ij½
 (Only for Rough Work)

(Remaining instructions on the last page) ¼’ks”k funs’Z k vfUre i`”B ij½
 Section–A 4. Which of the following is NOT a
component of a typical supply chain ?
(Supply Chain Management)
1. Which of the following is NOT a primary (A) Suppliers

objective of supply chain management ? (B) Customers

(C) Marketing department
(A) Cost reduction
(D) Distributors
(B) Customer satisfaction
5. What is the main goal of inventory
(C) Quality improvement
management in supply chain
(D) Employee training management ?
(A) To minimize the holding cost of
2. What is the definition of supply chain
inventory
management ?
(B) To maximize the number of
(A) The process of managing the products in stock

procurement and distribution of (C) To minimize transportation costs

(D) To maximize the production
goods and services
capacity
(B) The process of managing sales and
6. What is the purpose of demand planning
marketing activities in supply chain management ?
(C) The process of managing human (A) To estimate the number of
resources within an organization employees needed in the
organization
(D) The process of managing financial
(B) To estimate the amount of raw
transactions within an organization materials required for production
(C) To estimate the demand for
3. Which of the following strategies focuses
products or services in the market
on reducing supply chain waste and (D) To estimate the cost of goods sold
improving sustainability ?
7. Which of the following is an example of
(A) Green supply chain a push-based supply chain ?

(B) Agile supply chain (A) Make-to-stock

(B) Make-to-order
(C) Lean supply chain
(C) Demand-driven
(D) Mass customization (D) Just-in-time

F010401T (3) Set-A

8. Which of the following is a characteristic 12. What is the definition of lead time in
of a lean supply chain ? supply chain management ?
(A) High inventory levels (A) The time it takes to deliver a
(B) Long lead times
product to the customer
(C) Continuous improvement
(B) The time it takes to produce a
(D) Batch production
product
9. What is the purpose of supply chain
(C) The time it takes to place an order
visibility ?
with a supplier
(A) To track the location of products in
(D) The time it takes to process a
real-time
(B) To track employee attendance payment
(C) To track marketing campaigns
13. What is the purpose of reverse logistics
(D) To track financial transactions
in supply chain management ?
10. What is the meaning of the term
(A) To manage the flow of products
“bullwhip effect” in supply chain
from the manufacturer to the
management ?
customer
(A) The sudden increase in the demand
for a product (B) To manage the flow of products
(B) The distortion of information as it from the customer to the
moves up the supply chain manufacturer
(C) The impact of inflation on supply (C) To manage the flow of information
chain co in the supply chain
(D) The disruption of supply chain (D) To manage the flow of payments in
operations due to natural disasters the supply chain

11. The primary goal of supply chain 14. Bottleneck in supply chain management
collaboration is : is :

(A) To increase competition among (A) A point in the supply chain where
supply chain partners the flow of materials or
(B) To reduce the number of supply information is restricted
chain partners (B) A point in the supply chain where
(C) To improve communication and the flow of products is at its highest
coordination among supply chain (C) A point in the supply chain where
partners the flow of products is at its lowest
(D) To eliminate the need for supply (D) A point in the supply chain where
chain partners the flow of payments is restricted

F010401T (4) Set-A

15. Third-party logistics (3PL) is : 18. Which of the following strategies focuses
(A) The use of three different on reducing the number of suppliers to
warehouses in the supply chain improve efficiency ?
(B) The use of three different
(A) Outsourcing
transportation modes in the supply
chain (B) Dual sourcing
(C) The use of three different suppliers (C) Multiple sourcing
for a single product
(D) Single sourcing
(D) The outsourcing of logistics
activities to a specialized company 19. What is the current focus of supply chain

16. Supply chain network can be defined as : management in response to changing

(A) The physical infrastructure used to market dynamics ?

transport products in the supply (A) Cost reduction
chain
(B) Traditional marketing approaches
(B) The group of suppliers and
customers involved in the supply (C) Supplier consolidation
chain (D) Risk management
(C) The set of relationships among
supply chain partners 20. Which of the following inventory

(D) The flow of materials and management techniques aims to

information from suppliers to minimize holding costs ?
customers
(A) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)
17. What is the definition of supply chain (B) Just-in-time (JIT)
agility ?
(C) Material Requirements Planning
(A) The ability of a supply chain to
(MRP)
respond quickly to changes in
customer demand (D) Capacity planning
(B) The ability of a supply chain to
21. Which of the following is a key benefit
reduce costs and improve
of supply chain collaboration ?
efficiency
(C) The ability of a supply chain to (A) Increased information sharing
collaborate effectively with (B) Reduced competition
suppliers and customers
(C) Higher transportation costs
(D) The ability of a supply chain to
minimize risks and disruptions (D) Decreased customer satisfaction

F010401T (5) Set-A

22. Which of the following transportation 26. Which of the following is an example of
modes is generally the fastest but also the a reverse logistics activity ?
most expensive ? (A) Forward integration
(A) Air freight (B) Product recall
(B) Rail (C) New product development
(C) Trucking (D) Supplier evaluation
(D) Maritime
27. Which of the following is a key
23. Which of the following is an example of
consideration when designing a
a supply chain network design decision ?
distribution network ?
(A) Determining optimal safety stock
(A) Minimizing transportation costs
levels
(B) Maximizing production capacity
(B) Setting quality control standards
(C) Increasing product variety
(C) Selecting packaging materials
(D) Reducing customer lead time
(D) Deciding on the number and
location of distribution centers 28. Which of the following factors is not
typically included in a supplier
24. What was the primary focus of early
evaluation ?
supply chain management practices ?
(A) Quality performance
(A) Cost reduction
(B) Customer service improvement (B) Financial stability

(C) Inventory management (C) Employee satisfaction

(D) Process optimization (D) Delivery reliability

25. Which of the following strategies focuses 29. Which of the following strategies aims to

on minimizing the time it takes to fulfill reduce supply chain waste and

customer orders ? environmental impact ?

(A) Fast replenishment (A) Green supply chain

(B) Lean manufacturing (B) Lean supply chain
(C) Mass customization (C) Agile supply chain
(D) Demand-driven planning (D) Mass customization

F010401T (6) Set-A

30. Which of the following factors is not 33. Which concept expanded the scope of
typically considered in supplier selection ? supply chain management to include
reverse logistics and waste reduction ?
(A) Cost
(A) Lean manufacturing
(B) Quality (B) Six Sigma
(C) Lead time (C) Sustainability

(D) Customer satisfaction (D) Total quality management

34. Which of the following supply chain

31. Which of the following inventory
strategies focuses on maximizing
management techniques involves placing
efficiency and reducing waste ?
small, frequent orders to minimize
(A) Lean supply chain
holding costs ? (B) Agile supply chain
(A) Just-in-time (JIT) (C) Responsive supply chain
(D) Green supply chain
(B) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)

(C) Material Requirements Planning 35. The current focus of supply chain
management in response to changing
(MRP)
market dynamics :
(D) Capacity planning
(A) Cost reduction

32. What is the purpose of supply chain (B) Risk management

(C) Supplier consolidation
performance measurement ?
(D) Traditional marketing approaches
(A) To track the financial performance
36. supply chain disruption is :
of the supply chain
(A) A sudden increase in the demand
(B) To track the performance of
for a product
individual employees in the supply
(B) The distortion of information as it
chain moves up the supply chain
(C) To track the performance of (C) The impact of inflation on supply
chain costs
suppliers in the supply chain
(D) An event or circumstance that
(D) To track the performance of the
interrupts the normal flow of
supply chain as a whole operations in the supply chain

F010401T (7) Set-A

37. The purpose of supply chain integration 40. What is the role of technology in the
is : evolution of supply chain management ?
(A) To increase competition among
(A) It enables real-time data sharing
supply chain partners
and visibility across the supply
(B) To reduce the number of supply
chain partners chain
(C) To improve coordination and (B) It automates supply chain
collaboration among supply chain processes and improves efficiency
partners
(C) It supports advanced analytics and
(D) To eliminate the need for supply
predictive modeling
chain partners
(D) All of the above
38. What is the definition of supply chain
governance ? 41. Which of the following is not a key
(A) The process of managing the flow objective of supply chain management ?
of materials and information in the
(A) Cost reduction
supply chain
(B) The process of managing the (B) Improved customer service
relationships with suppliers and (C) Increased inventory levels
customers in the supply chain (D) Efficient order fulfillment
(C) The process of managing the
financial transactions in the supply 42. Which of the following is an example of
chain a supply chain network design decision ?
(D) The process of managing the legal
(A) Determining safety stock levels
and regulatory compliance in the
supply chain (B) Selecting transportation routes
(C) Setting pricing strategies
39. The purpose of supply chain
standardization is : (D) Conducting market research

(A) To ensure consistent quality of

43. Which of the following is a characteristic
products in the supply chain
of an agile supply chain ?
(B) To ensure consistent pricing of
products in the supply chain (A) High inventory levels
(C) To ensure consistent delivery of (B) Slow response to market changes
products in the supply chain
(C) Centralized decision-making
(D) To ensure consistent
(D) Flexibility and quick responsive-
communication among supply
chain partners ness

F010401T (8) Set-A

44. Which of the following metrics measures 48. What is the primary purpose of a
the efficiency of order processing and distribution center in the supply chain ?
delivery ?
(A) To manufacture products
(A) Perfect Order Fulfillment
(B) To store and manage inventory
(B) Inventory Turnover Ratio
(C) Customer Satisfaction Index (C) To negotiate contracts with
(D) On-time Delivery Performance suppliers

45. What is the key goal of demand (D) To analyze customer demand
management in supply chain patterns
management ?
49. What does the term “lead time” refer to
(A) Balancing supply and demand
(B) Maximizing profits in supply chain management ?
(C) Reducing lead time (A) The time it takes to manufacture a
(D) Minimizing transportation costs
product
46. What does the term “order fulfillment” (B) The time it takes to deliver a
refer to in supply chain management ?
product to the customer
(A) The process of managing supplier
(C) The time it takes to process an
relationships
(B) The process of receiving and order
processing customer orders (D) The time it takes to negotiate a
(C) The process of optimizing contract with a supplier
transportation routes
(D) The process of managing inventory 50. Which of the following forecasting
levels methods uses historical data to predict
47. Which of the following is a characteristic future demand patterns ?
of a responsive supply chain ?
(A) Judgmental forecasting
(A) Low product variety
(B) Long lead times (B) Time series forecasting
(C) Push-based production (C) Causal forecasting
(D) Quick response to customer
(D) Delphi method
demand changes

F010401T (9) Set-A

 Section–B 55. Data processing consists of

(Research Methodology) ......................., coding and tabulation.

51. This type of scale makes extensive use of
(A) Editing
words rather than numbers :
(B) Entry
(A) Semantic
(B) Likert (C) Classification

(C) Rating (D) None of the above

(D) Numerical
56. .................... helps to become the data
52. A questionnaire is a devise that is most
accurate, consistent with the intent of the
frequently used in collecting ...............
question and other information in the
Data.

(A) Secondary survey, and to see the datais complete in

(B) Primary all respects.

(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Coding
(D) None of the above
(B) Tabulation
53. These questions are also called fixed
(C) Editing
alternative questions :
(D) Classification
(A) Open ended
(B) Close ended 57. .................... is the process of assigning
(C) Both (A) and (B)
figures or other symbols to answers so
(D) Open response-option questions
that responses can be put into a limited
54. ..................... questionnaires contain
number of categories or classes.
definite, concrete and direct questions.
(A) Editing
(A) Unstructured
(B) Coding
(B) Structured

(C) Closed form (C) Tabulation

(D) None of the above (D) Classification

F010401T ( 10 ) Set-A
58. ...................... is the process of 62. ........................... is the most common
summarizing raw data and displaying it measure of central tendency.
in acompact form for further analysis.
(A) Mode
(A) Classification
(B) Median
(B) Coding
(C) Mean
(C) Tabulation
(D) Range
(D) Editing

59. In statistics, a ...................... is a 63. When the study is related with more than

graphical display of tabulated two variables it is termed as ....................

frequencies. Analysis.

(A) Histryogram (A) Bivariate

(B) Bar diagram (B) Multivariate

(C) Histogram (C) Casual analysis

(D) None of the above (D) Unidimensional

60. If the study is related one variable it is 64. ........... Report is a report prepared for an

called ...................... analysis. expert.

(A) Bivariate (A) Technical

(B) Correlation (B) Popular

(C) Casual analysis (C) General

(D) Unidimensional (D) Specific

61. ........................ is the middle value in the 65. A .................. is a list of the sources used.

distribution when it is arranged in by the researcher to get information for

descending or ascending order. research report.

(A) Mode (A) Bibliography

(B) Mean (B) Content

(C) Median (C) Appendix

(D) Range (D) None of the above

F010401T ( 11 ) Set-A
66. There are ..................... primary scales of 70. The number of observations falling
measurement.
within a particular class interval is called
(A) One
its class ...................... .
(B) Two

(C) Three (A) Frequency

(D) Four (B) Interval

67. ........................ is a systematic way of (C) Limits

assigning numbers or names to objects (D) Mark

and their attributes.

(A) Measurement 71. List includes letters, questionnaires, tests

(B) Classification or other tools used in collecting the data :

(C) Scaling
(A) Appendix
(D) Tabulation
(B) Glossary
68. The ...... Scale is known as nominal
(C) Literature cited
scale.
(D) Bibliography
(A) Interval

(B) Ordinal 72. When there is long time gap between

(C) Ranking data collected and presentation of report,

(D) Categorical the study may lose its significance. In

69. Nominal variables allow for .................... such cases ...................... report is

classification. presented.

(A) Quantitative (A) Summary

(B) Qualitative (B) Technical

(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Interim

(D) None of the above (D) Public

F010401T ( 12 ) Set-A
73. A list of references cited in the text : 77. The value exactly at the middle of a class

(A) Appendix interval is called .................. .

(B) Glossary (A) Mid value

(C) Literature cited (B) Class mark

(D) Bibliography (C) Limits

(D) Both (A) and (B)

74. A comprehensive listing of the works
relevant to the study of the researcher : 78. The smallest and the largest possible

(A) Appendix measurements in each class are known as

(B) Glossary class ................... .

(C) Literature cited (A) Boundaries

(D) Bibliography (B) Interval

(C) Limits
75. A/An ....................... is an alphabetical
(D) Mark
listing of unfamiliar terms with their
meaning used in the thesis. 79. It describes how an agent works to

(A) Appendix produce a particular effect or event :

(B) Glossary (A) Tentative

(C) Literature cited (B) Descriptive

(D) Bibliography (C) Explanatory

(D) Hypothesis concerning law

76. When a phenomenon cannot be fully
understood because of technical 80. Sampling technique where respondent
difficulties, the hypothesis made about is refer next set of respondents is
called ................... called ....................... .

(A) Tentative (A) Systematic

(B) Descriptive (B) Cluster

(C) Explanatory (C) Snowball

(D) Hypothesis (D) None of the above

F010401T ( 13 ) Set-A
81. Reporting means ................. through 86. ................. Report is reporting verbally in
reports. person.
(A) Asking (A) Technical
(B) Answering (B) Popular
(C) Communicating (C) Written
(D) Stating (D) Oral

82. A treatise on a single subject is called 87. Popular report is a report prepared
a ..................... . for ..................... .
(A) Monograph (A) Academic audience
(B) Thesis (B) Business managers
(C) Dissertation (C) Administrators
(D) Report (D) Laymen

83. Sampling technique where every “n”th 88. When the study is related with more than
number of respondent is taken is called two variables, it is termed as ................. .
as ................... . (A) Bivariate
(A) Systematic (B) Multivariate
(B) Cluster (C) Casual
(C) Snowball (D) Unidimensional
(D) None of the above
89. The method helps to predict the unknown
84. Sampling technique where every similar values of one variable from the known
segments are identified and than groups values of another variable are called
are chosen randomly is : ....................... analysis.
(A) Systematic (A) Correlation
(B) Cluster (B) Regression
(C) Snowball (C) Factor
(D) None of the above (D) Cluster

85. Sampling technique where lottery is 90. Where the sample size is less than 30
drawn is similar to : ................. is used.
(A) Systematic (A) F-test
(B) Cluster (B) Z-test
(C) Snowball (C) T-test
(D) Simple random sampling (D) U-test

F010401T ( 14 ) Set-A
91. If the measure of correlation is zero it 96. ............. is defined as the square-root of
indicates ....................... correlation. the average of the squared deviation from
the mean.
(A) No
(A) Range
(B) Perfect (B) Standard deviation
(C) Imperfect (C) Skewness
(D) Positive (D) Geometric mean

97. The best way of reflecting the central

92. ........... is a measure of central tendency. tendency of a set of scores where the
(A) Mean scores themselves are measured on a
nominal scale :
(B) Standard deviation
(A) Mode
(C) Mean deviation
(B) Median
(D) Range
(C) Mean
93. ............ Statistics is used to describe the (D) Range
basic features of the data in a study. 98. If we estimate a parameter with the help
(A) Descriptive of a single value, it is known as ............
(B) Business estimate.

(C) Inferential (A) Point

(D) None of the above (B) Interval

(C) Time
94. The entire domain of statistics is divided (D) None of the above
in to Descriptive statistics and ............
99. Rejecting a true null hypothesis is
statistics. committing a ........................ .
(A) Vital (A) type- I error
(B) Business (B) type-Il error
(C) Inferential (C) type- III error
(D) None of the above (D) Sampling error

95. After processing the data, the next step is 100. In testing of hypothesis, if the null
hypothesis is rejected ....................
its ..................... .
hypothesis is accepted.
(A) Editing
(A) Alternative
(B) Classifying (B) Relational
(C) Analysis (C) New
(D) Reporting (D) None of the above

F010401T ( 15 ) Set-A
4. Four alternative answers are mentioned for 4. iz’u&iqfLrdk esa izR;sd iz’u ds pkj lEHkkfor mŸkj
each question as—A, B, C & D in the booklet. A, B, C ,oa D gSaA ijh{kkFkhZ dks mu pkjksa fodYiksa esa ls
The candidate has to choose the correct
answer and mark the same in the OMR
lgh mŸkj Nk¡Vuk gSA mŸkj dks OMR vkUlj&’khV esa
Answer-Sheet as per the direction : lEcfU/kr iz’u la[;k esa fuEu izdkj Hkjuk gS %
Example : mnkgj.k %
Question : iz’u %
Q. 1 iz’u 1
Q. 2 iz’u 2
Q. 3 iz’u 3
Illegible answers with cutting and viBuh; mŸkj ;k ,sls mŸkj ftUgsa dkVk ;k cnyk x;k
over-writing or half filled circle will be gS ;k xksys esa vk/kk Hkjdj fn;k x;k mUgsa fujLr dj
cancelled.
fn;k tk,xkA
5. Each question carries equal marks. Marks 5. izR;sd iz’u ds vad leku gSaA vkids ftrus mŸkj
will be awarded according to the number of lgh gksxa ]s mUgha ds vuqlkj vad iznku fd;s tk;saxAs
correct answers you have.
6. All answers are to be given on OMR Answer 6. lHkh mŸkj dsoy vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj&i=d (OMR
sheet only. Answers given anywhere other Answer Sheet) ij gh fn;s tkus gSaA mŸkj&i=d esa
than the place specified in the answer sheet fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vykok vU;= dgha ij fn;k x;k
will not be considered valid.
mŸkj ekU; ugha gksxkA
7. Before writing anything on the OMR Answer 7. vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj&i=d (OMR Answer Sheet) ij
Sheet, all the instructions given in it should dqN Hkh fy[kus ls iwoZ mlesa fn;s x;s lHkh vuqns’kksa dks
be read carefully. lko/kkuhiwoZd i<+ fy;k tk;sA
8. After the completion of the examination 8. ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr ijh{kkFkhZ d{k fujh{kd dks
candidates should leave the examination hall viuh OMR Answer Sheet miyC/k djkus ds ckn
only after providing their OMR Answer gh ijh{kk d{k ls izLFkku djsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
Sheet to the invigilator. Candidate can carry
their Question Booklet.
iz’u&iqfLrdk ys tk ldrs gSaA
9. There will be no negative marking. 9. fuxsfVo ekfd±x ugha gSA
10. Rough work, if any, should be done on the 10. dksbZ Hkh jQ dk;Z iz’u&iqfLrdk ds vUr esa jQ&dk;Z
blank pages provided for the purpose in the
booklet.
ds fy, fn, [kkyh ist ij gh fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
11. To bring and use of log-book, calculator, 11. ijh{kk&d{k esa ykWx&cqd] dSydqysVj] istj rFkk lsY;qyj
pager and cellular phone in examination hall Qksu ys tkuk rFkk mldk mi;ksx djuk oftZr gSA
is prohibited.
12. In case of any difference found in English 12. iz’u ds fgUnh ,oa vaxszth :ikUrj.k esa fHkUurk gksus dh
and Hindi version of the question, the n’kk esa iz’u dk vaxst
z h :ikUrj.k gh ekU; gksxkA
English version of the question will be held
authentic.
Impt. : On opening the question booklet, first egRoiw.kZ % iz’uiqfLrdk [kksyus ij izFker% tk¡p dj ns[k ysa
check that all the pages of the question fd iz’u&iqfLrdk ds lHkh i`”B HkyhHkk¡fr Nis gq, gSaA
booklet are printed properly. If there is ny ;fn iz’uiqfLrdk esa dksbZ deh gks] rks d{kfujh{kd dks
discrepancy in the question Booklet, then
after showing it to the invigilator, get
fn[kkdj mlh fljht dh nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk izkIr
another question Booklet of the same series. dj ysaA