

NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 67


Section-A (Physics) 7. A stone is thrown vertically downward with an

1. The de Broglie wavelength of a thermal electron initial velocity of 40 m/s from the top of a
at 27°C is λ. When the temperature is increased building. If it reaches the ground with velocity
to 927°C, its de-Broglie wavelength will become: 60 m/s, then the height of the building is:
λ (Take g = 10 m/s )
2
(1) 4λ (2)
2 (1) 140 m (2) 80 m
λ (3) 100 m (4) 120 m
(3) (4) 2λ
4
8. A concave lens of focal length, 25 cm is
2. The ratio of the radii of two circular coils is 1 : 2. sandwiched between two convex lenses, each of
The ratio of currents in the respective coils such focal length, 40 cm. The power in dioptre of the
that the same magnetic moment is produced at combined lens would be:
the centre of each coil: (1) 9 (2) 1
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 0.01 (4) 55
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 9. A network of resistors is connected across a
3. The current in an inductor of self inductance 4 H
10 V battery with internal resistance of 1 Ω as
changes from 4 A to 2 A in 1 second. The e.m.f.
shown in the circuit diagram. The equivalent
induced in the coil is:
resistance of the circuit is:
(1) 2 V (2) –4 V
(3) 8 V (4) –2 V 2Ω 2Ω
4. An electromagnetic wave is moving along
negative z(–z) direction and at any instant of
2Ω
time, at a point, its electric field vector is
4Ω 4Ω
3jˆ V/m . The corresponding magnetic field at
that point and instant will be:
8 –1
(Take c = 3 × 10 ms ) 10 V 1Ω
(1) −10iˆ nT (2) î nT
14 12
(1) Ω (2) Ω
(3) − î nT (4) 10iˆ nT 3 7
14 17
5. Two amplifiers of voltage gain 20 each, are (3) Ω (4) Ω
7 3
cascaded in series. If 0.01 volt a.c. input signal is 10. The correct statement about the variation of
applied across the first amplifier, the output a.c.
viscosity of fluid with increase in temperature:
signal of the second amplifier in volt is:
(1) viscosity of both liquids and gases increases
(1) 4.0 (2) 0.01 (2) viscosity of liquids increases
(3) 0.20 (4) 2.0 (3) viscosity of liquids decreases
6. A linearly polarised monochromatic light of (4) viscosity of gases decreases
intensity 10 lumen is incident on a polarizer. The 11. Let L1 and L2 be the orbital angular momentum
angle between the direction of polarisation of the of an electron in the first and second excited
light and that of the polariser such that the states of hydrogen atom, respectively. According
intensity of output light is 2.5 lumen is: to the Bohr's model, the ratio L1 : L2 is:
(1) 75° (2) 30° (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 45° (4) 60° (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 2

E 

68 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
12. During simple harmonic motion of a body, the

m m
(1) 4u (2) 2u
energy at the extreme positions is: k k
(1) is always zero
1 k m
(2) purely kinetic (3) u (4) u
2 m k
(3) purely potential
16. A
(4) both kinetic and potential B Y
13. The output of the logic circuit shown is
Q
R equivalent to a/an:
(1) NOR gate (2) AND gate
P θ (3) NAND gate (4) OR gate
θ S 17. The plot of current I flowing through a conductor
O versus the applied voltage V across the ends of a
conductor is:
When a body of mass 'm' just begins to slide as
shown, match list-I with List-II: I I
List-I List-II
(1) (2)
(a) Normal reaction (i) P
(b) Frictional force (fS) (ii) Q V V
(c) Weight (mg) (iii) R
(d) mgsinθ (iv) S
Choose the correct answer from the options I I
given below:
(3) (4)
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) V V
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
18. The value of resistance for the colour code of the
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) given resistor is:
14. Twelve point charges each of charge q coulomb
are placed at the circumference of a circle of
radius r with equal angular spacing. If one of the Orange Gold
Blue Yellow
charges is removed, the net electric field (in N/C)
at the centre of the circle is : (ε0 – permittivity of (1) (470 ± 47) kΩ (2) (360 ± 36) kΩ
free space)
(3) (360 ± 18) kΩ (4) (36 ± 36) kΩ
13q
(1) (2) zero
4πε0 r 2 19. An inductor coil of self inductance 10 H carries a
q 12q current of 1 A. The magnetic field energy stored
(3) (4)
4πε0 r 2
4πε0 r 2 in the coil is:
15. A block of mass m is moving with initial velocity (1) 2.5 J (2) 20 J
(3) 5 J (4) 10 J
u towards a stationary spring of stiffness constant
20. The dimensions of mutual inductance (M) are:
k attached to the wall as shown in the figure.
–2 2 2 2 –2 2
(1) [MLT A ] (2) [M L T A ]
Maximum compression of the spring is:
2 –2 –2 2 –2 –2
(3) [ML T A ] (4) [M LT A ]
(The friction between the block and the surface is
21. A strong magnetic field is applied along the
negligible)
direction of velocity of an electron. The electron
u would move along:
m (1) the original path (2) a helical path
(3) a circular path (4) a parabolic path

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 69
22. In a photoelectric experiment, blue light is 27. A fluid of density ρ is flowing in a pipe of varying
capable of ejecting a photoelectron from a cross-sectional area as shown in the figure. The
specific metal while green light is not able to Bernoulli's equation for the motion becomes:
eject a photoelectron. Ejection of photoelectrons
p2
is also possible using light of the colour:
(1) Red (2) Violet p1 υ 2∆t
(3) Orange (4) Yellow υ 1∆t h2
h1
23. When the circular scale of a screw gauge
completes 2 rotations, it covers 1 mm over the 1 2
(1) p + ρυ = constant
pitch scale. The total number of the circular scale 2
divisions is 50. The least count of the screw 1 2
(2) ρυ + ρgh = constant
gauge in metre is: 2
–5 –2
(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) p + ρgh = constant
–3 –4
(3) 10 (4) 10
1 2
24. A beam of light is incident vertically on a glass (4) p + ρυ + ρgh = constant
2
slab of thickness 1 cm, and refractive index 1.5. 28. At some instant, the number of radioactive atoms
A fraction 'A' is reflected from the front surface
in a sample is N0 and after time 't' the number
while another fraction 'B' enters the slab and
decreases to N. It is found that the graphical
emerges after reflection from the back surface.
representation 'ln N' versus 't' along the y and x
Time delay between them is:
–10 –11 axes respectively is a straight line. Then the slope
(1) 5 × 10 s (2) 10 s
(3) 5 × 10
–11
s (4) 10
–10
s of this line is:
(2) λ
–1
25. Given below are two statements: One is labelled (1) –λ
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (3) –λ
–1
(4) λ
Reason (R). 29. A particle of mass 4 M kg at rest splits into two
Assertion (A): A standing bus suddenly
particles of mass M and 3 M. The ratio of the
accelerates. If there were no friction between the
feet of a passenger and the floor of the bus, the kinetic energies of mass M and 3M would be:
passenger would move back. (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
Reason (R): In the absence of friction, the floor (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
of the bus would slip forward under the feet of 30. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is given '+Q'
the passenger.
In the light of the above statements, choose the charge to its outer surface. The electric potential
most appropriate answer from the options given R
at a distance from the centre of the sphere
below: 3
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true will be:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
3 Q
correct explanation of (A) (1)
4πε0 R
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
1 Q
correct explanation of (A) (2)
4πε0 3R
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
26. A gas undergoes an isothermal process. The 1 Q
(3)
specific heat capacity of the gas in the process is: 4πε0 R
(1) 0.5 (2) zero 1 Q
(4)
(3) 1 (4) infinity 4πε0 9R

E 

70 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
31. Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed Section-B (Physics)

of 35 m/s. Wind starts blowing after some time 36. The fraction of the original number of radioactive
with a speed of 12 m/s in East to West direction.
atoms that disintegrates (decays) during the
The direction in which a boy standing at the
average life time of a radioactive substance will
place should hold his umbrella is:
be :
 12 
(1) tan −1   w.r.t. wind
 37  1
(1)
 12  1+ e
(2) tan −1   w.r.t. rain
 35  e −1
(2)
 12  e +1
(3) tan −1   w.r.t. wind
 35  e −1
(3)
 12  e
(4) tan −1   w.r.t. rain
 37  1
(4)
32. The ratio of the moments of inertia of two e
spheres about their diameter and having same 37. Three capacitors, each of capacitance 0.3 µF are
mass and their radii in the ratio 1 : 2 is: connected in parallel. This combination is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 connected with another capacitor of capacitance

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1 0.1 µF in series. Then the equivalent capacitance

of the combination is:
33. A string is wrapped along the rim of a wheel of
2
(1) 0.09 µF (2) 0.1 µF
moment of inertia 0.10 kg-m and radius 10 cm.
(3) 0.01 µF (4) 0.9 µF
If the string is now pulled by a force 10 N, then
38. Given below are two statements:
the wheel starts to rotate about its axis from rest.
Statement-I: The magnetic field of circular
The angular velocity of the wheel after 2 seconds
current loop at very far away point on the axial
is:
line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic
(1) 80 rad/s (2) 10 rad/s
dipole.
(3) 20 rad/s (4) 40 rad/s Statement-II: The magnetic field due to
34. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square
density, its acceleration due to gravity acting on a of the distance from the centre on the axial line.
body: In light of above statements, choose the most
(1) increases with increasing depth appropriate answer from the options given
(2) is independent of the mass of the earth below:
(3) is independent of the mass of the body (1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is

(4) increases with increasing altitude correct.

35. If λX, λI, λM and λγ are the wavelengths of X-rays, (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
infrared rays, microwaves and γ rays respectively,
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
then:
incorrect.
(1) λM < λI < λX < λγ
(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(2) λX < λγ < λM < λI
incorrect.
(3) λX < λI < λγ < λM
(4) λγ < λX < λI < λM

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 71
 The correct statement, about the motion of the
S
39. ~ D1 D2 particle is:
D
T (1) The particle is accelerated throughout its
D4 motion.
D3
(2) The particle is accelerated continuously for
The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier
time t0 then moves with constant velocity.
when switch S is open. The output voltage (V0)
pattern across RL when S is closed is: (3) The particle is at rest.
V0
(4) The particle moves at constant velocity up to
a time t0 and then stops.
(1)
42. The temperature at which the rms speed of
t atoms in neon gas is equal to the rms speed of
hydrogen molecules at 15°C is:
V0 (Atomic mass of neon = 20.2 u, molecular mass
(2) of H2 = 2 u)
3
t (1) 2.9 K (2) 0.15 × 10 K
3 3
(3) 0.29 × 10 K (4) 2.9 × 10 K
V0
43. Air is pushed carefully into a soap bubble of
radius r to double its radius. If the surface tension
(3)
of the soap solution is T, then work done in the
t
process is:
(1) 24 πr T (2) 4 πr T
2 2
V0
(3) 8 πr T (4) 12 πr T
2 2

(4) 44. Given below are two statements: One is labelled

t as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
40. When a particle with charge +q is thrown with Assertion (A): Gauss's law for magnetism states
an initial velocity v towards another stationary
that the net magnetic flux through any closed
charge +Q, it is respelled back after reaching the
surface is zero.
nearest distance r from +Q. The closest distance
that it can reach if it is thrown with initial velocity Reason (R): The magnetic monopoles do not
2v, is: exist. North and South poles occur in pairs,
r r r r allowing vanishing net magnetic flux through the
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 16 8 4 surface.
41. The figure given below shows the displacement In the light of the above statement, choose the
and time, (x-t) graph of particle moving along a most appropriate answer from the options given
straight line: below:
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
x (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
to t

E 

72 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
45. A monochromatic light of frequency 500 THz is 48. Two planets are in a circular orbit of radius R

incident on the slits of a Young's double slit and 4R about a star. At a specific time, the two
experiment. If the distance between the slits is planets and the star are in a straight line. If the
0.2 mm and the screen is placed at a distance 1 period of the closest planet in T, then the star
m from the slits, the width of 10 fringes will be: and planets will again be in a straight line after a
12
[THz = 10 Hz] minimum time:
(1) 15 mm 1
(1) (4) 3 T
(2) 30 mm
(3) 3 mm (2) 2 T
(4) 1.5 mm
(3) 8 T
46. An a.c. source given by V = Vm sin ωt is
2
connected to a pure inductor L in a circuit and Im (4) (4) T
is the peak value of the ac current. The 49. A string of length l is fixed at both ends and is
instantaneous power supplied to the inductor is:
vibrating in second harmonic. The amplitude at
V I
(1) − m m sin(2ωt) antinode is 2 mm. The amplitude of a particle at
2
l
2
(2) VmIm sin (ωt) a distance from the fixed end is:
8
2
(3) – VmIm sin (ωt)
(1) 4 mm
V I
(4) m m sin(2ωt)
2 (2) 2 mm
47. In a metre bridge experiment, the null point is at
(3) 2 3 mm
a distance of 30 cm from A. If a resistance of
16Ω is connected in parallel with resistance Y, (4) 2 2 mm
the null point occurs at 50 cm from A. The value
50. The determination of the value of acceleration
of the resistance Y is:
X Y due to gravity (g) by simple pendulum method
employs the formula,
L
g= 4π2
A J B T2
The expression for the relative error in the value
of 'g' is:
∆g  ∆L ∆T 
E K (1) 4π2 
= −2
g  L T 
40
(1) Ω
3 ∆g  ∆L ∆T 
(2) 4π2 
= +2
g  L T 
64
(2) Ω
3
∆g ∆L ∆T
(3) = −2
48 g L T
(3) Ω
3
112 ∆g ∆L ∆T
(4) Ω (4) = +2
3 g L T

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 73
 Section-A (Chemistry) 55. Which of the following is not correct about
51. Match List-I with List-II :
postulates of kinetic molecular theory of
List-I List-II
gases?
(Monomers) (Polymers)
(1) Volume of the gas is due to the large
(a) Caprolactam (i) Bakelite
number of molecules of the gas.
(b) Ethylene glycol and (ii) Nylon 6,6
(2) Average kinetic energy of molecules is
Benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic
directly proportional to the absolute
acid
temperature of the gas.
(c) Hexamethylenediamine (iii) Nylon-6
(3) The molecules move randomly with different
and adipic acid
speeds in different directions.
(d) Phenol and (iv) Terylene
Formaldehyde (4) Pressure of the gas is due to the collision

Choose the correct answer from the options of molecules against the walls of the

given below : container.

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 56. The work done when 1 mole of a gas
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) expands reversibly and isothermally from
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) pressure of 5 atm to 1 atm at 300 K is
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (Given log 5 = 0.6989 and R = 8.314 J K mol )
–1 –1

52. Which of the following is the correct statement ? (1) 150 J (2) + 4014.6 J
+ +
(1) Al is more stable than In (3) –4014.6 J (4) zero J
+ +
(2) Ga is more stable than Al
57. LiF is sparingly soluble in water because it has
+ +
(3) Al is more stable than Ga
+ +
(1) small electronegativity.
(4) Ga is more stable than In
(2) high lattice enthalpy.
53. Which one of the following statements is
(3) low hydration enthalpy.
true about the structure of CO23− ion ?
(4) partial covalent character.
(1) Out of the three C–O bonds, two are
58. What is the correct order for boiling points of
longer and one is shorter.
the following compounds ?
(2) It has three sigma and three π-bonds.
(1) BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(3) All three C-O bonds are equal in length
(2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
with a bond order in between 1 and 2.
3 (3) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(4) It can be explained by considering sp
hybridization. (4) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > BiH3

54. Which one of the following electrons in the 59. A ferromagnetic substance becomes a

ground state will have least amount of permanent magnet when it is placed in a
energy? magnetic field because
(1) An electron in 2p orbital of carbon atom. (1) domains are not affected by magnetic field.
(2) The electron of copper atom present in (2) domains get randomly oriented.
4s orbital. (3) all the domains get oriented in the direction
(3) The outermost electron in sodium atom. of magnetic field.
(4) An electron in hydrogen atom.
(4) all the domains get oriented in the direction
opposite to the direction of magnetic field.

E 

74 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
60. Which one is not a D-sugar ? 63. Match List-I with List-II :

CHO List-I List-II
H OH (a) Element which (i) Mn
(1) exhibits +3 oxidation
OH H
state only
CH2OH (b) Element which exhibits (ii) Zn
CHO more number of
H OH oxidation states
(2) (c) Element which is a (iii) Sc
H OH reducing agent in its
CH2OH +2 oxidation state
CH2OH (d) Element which is not (iv) Cr
considered as a
transition element
C=O
Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) H OH
given below :
CH2OH (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
CHO (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
HO H
(4) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
H OH
CH2OH (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

61. Match List-I with List-II : 64. Given below are two statements :
List-I List-II Statement - I : The product of reaction of

(Amines) (pKb values) phenol with bromine depends on the nature of

solvent.
(a) N-methylmethanamine (i) 9.30
Statement - II : Reaction of phenol with
(b) Ammonia (ii) 9.38
bromine in CHCI3 gives monosubstituted bromo
(c) N-methylaniline (iii) 4.75
derivative whereas reaction of phenol with
(d) Benzenamine (iv) 3.27
bromine water yields trisubstituted bromo
Choose the correct answer from the options
derivative of phenol.
given below : In light of the above statements, choose the most
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) appropriate answer from the options given
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) below:
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement–II are
62. The number of bridging carbonyl groups in
correct
[Co2(CO)8] and [Mn2(CO)10], respectively are
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement–II are
(1) 2 and 2
incorrect
(2) 2 and 4
(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(3) 0 and 2
incorrect
(4) 2 and 0

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 75
65. Match List-I with List-II : 68. Which one of the following is the correct order
List-I List-II of decreasing bond enthalpies for the given
(Example of (Nature of dispersion species ?
Colloidal medium and (1) N2 > O2 > O22 − > O2−
Systems) dispersed phase)
(2) N2 > O2 > O2− > O22 −
(a) Insecticide (i) Dispersion medium-liquid
spray Dispersed phase - solid (3) O2 > N2 > O2− > O22 −
(b) Whipped (ii) Dispersion medium – gas
(4) O22 − > O2− > O2 > N2
Cream Dispersed phase – liquid
(c) Paint (iii) Dispersion medium– liquid 69. The correct reaction among the following is

Dispersed phase – liquid Br Br Na

(1) + 
dry ether
→
(d) Hair (iv) Dispersion medium– liquid
Cream Dispersed phase - gas Mg
(2) 2CH3CH2Br 
dry ether
→ CH3CH2CH2CH3
Choose the correct answer from the options
Na
given below : (3) 2CH3CH2Br 
Ethanol
→ CH3CH2CH2CH3

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) Br Na

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (4) CH3CH2Br + 2 
dry ether
→
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
CH2CH2
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
66. The solubility product of BaSO4 in water is
–9
1.5 × 10 . The molar solubility of BaSO4 in 70. Given below are two statements :
0.1 M solution of Ba(NO3)2 is Statement-I : Aldehydes and ketones having at
–8
(1) 0.5 × 10 M least one α-hydrogen undergo aldol condensation
–8
(2) 1.5 × 10 M in the presence of dilute alkali as catalyst.
–8
(3) 1.0 × 10 M Statement-II : When aldol condensation is
–8
(4) 2.0 × 10 M carried out between two different aldehydes, it is
67. The correct order of acid strength of the called cross aldol condensation. Ketones do not
following molecules is give this reaction.
OH In light of the above statements, choose the most
(1) C2H5OH < H2O < CH3COOH < appropriate answer from the options given
below:
OH (1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
(2) C2H5OH < H2O < < CH3COOH
is correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
OH
correct.
(3) H2O < C2H5OH < < CH3COOH
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect.
OH
(4) H2O < < C2H5OH < CH3COOH (4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
incorrect.

E 

76 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
71. The incorrect statement among the following Choose the correct answer from the options

regarding food preservatives is given below :
(1) antioxidants used in wine are SO2 and (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
sulphites. (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(2) antioxidants help in preserving the food (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

longer. (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

75. Alkali metals, though white, impart a
(3) antioxidants react with oxygen with a slower
rate than food. characteristic colour to the flame because of

(4) sorbic acid and propanoic acid are good food (1) oxidation of metal in the presence of flame.

preservatives. (2) excitation of valence electrons.

72. One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of (3) gain of electrons,

water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour (4) excitation and coming back of valence

pressure is electrons to the original level.

(1) 0.20 (2) 0.50 76. Identify the set from the following sets in which

(3) 0.33 (4) 0.25 all species can exhibit disproportionation

73. Match List-I with List-II : reactions.

List-I List-II (1) Cl2 ,ClO2− ,ClO3− ,S 8

Elements Atomic radii (pm)
(a) O (i) 88 (2) ClO4− ,ClO − ,ClO2− ,F2
(b) C (ii) 74 (3) ClO3− ,ClO4− ,H2 O2 ,ClO –
(c) B (iii) 66
(4) ClO2− ,ClO3− ,ClO4– ,Cl2
(d) N (iv) 77
77. For the reaction, 2A → B. rate = k[A] .
2
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : If concentration of reactant is doubled, then the
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (a) rate of reaction will be doubled.
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (b) rate constant will remain unchanged, however
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) rate of reaction is directly proportional to the
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) rate constant.
74. Match List-I with List-II : (c) rate constant will change since rate of
List-I List-II reaction and rate constant are directly

(Compound) (Boiling Point in K) proportional to each other.

(a) (i) 300.9 (d) rate of reaction will increase by four times.
Identify the set of correct statements :
(b)
(ii) 282.5 Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(c) (iii) 309.1 (1) (a), (b) only
(2) (b), (d) only
(3) (c), (d) only
(d) (iv) 341.9
(4) (a), (c) only

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 77
78. Match List-I with List-II : 80. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Commercial name) (Chemical name)
(a) Separation of (i) Fractional
(a) Calgon (i) Sodium aluminium
aniline-water distillation
silicate (hydrated)
mixture (b) Permutit (ii) Sodium carbonate
(b) Separation of (ii) Distillation (c) Soap (iii) Sodium hexameta-
aniline-chloroform under reduced phosphate
(d) Washing soda (iv) Sodium stearate
mixture pressure
Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) Separation of (iii) Distillation given below :
glycerol from (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
spent-lye (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(d) Separation of (iv) Steam distillation (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
different fractions
81. Chlorine shows the bleaching action in the
of crude oil
presence of moisture due to the formation of
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) HOClO (2) H2O2
given below : (3) O (4) HOCl
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) 82. The product formed in the following reaction
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) sequence is
(i) HBr,Benzoyl peroxide, heating
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 
(ii) Alcoholic KOH
→
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
79. Match List-I with List-II : (2) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
List-I List-II
(4) CH3–CH2–CH–CH3
(a) 4.48 litres of (i) 0.2 moles
O2 at STP OH
22 23
(b) 12.022 × 10 (ii) 12.044 × 10
83. The three cells with their E °(cell ) values are given
molecules molecules
below :
of H2O
Cells E °(cell) / V
(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g
(a) Fe | Fe || Fe | Fe
2+ 3+
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP 0.404
(b) Fe | Fe || Fe , Fe | Pt
2+ 3+ 2+
(Given – Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 L) 1.211
(c) Fe | Fe || Fe , Fe | Pt
3+ 3+ 2+
0.807
Choose the correct answer from the options
The standard Gibbs free energy change values
given below :
for three cells are, respectively
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(F represents charge on 1 mole of electrons)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (1) +2.424 F, +2.422 F, +2.421 F
(2) –0.808 F, –2.422 F, –2.421 F
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) –2.424 F, –2.422 F, –2.421 F
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) –1.212 F, –1.211 F, –0.807 F

E 

78 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
84. The increasing order of reactivity of the following 87. A student collected samples from two water

compounds towards acid catalysed dehydration is bodies A and B in a metro city. The biochemical
(a) CH3–CH2–OH oxygen demand for 'A' is 3 ppm while for B is
found to be 18 ppm. Which one of the following
is true?
(b) OH
(1) Both A and B are polluted.
(2) A is clean but B is polluted.
(c) CH3–CH–OH (3) A is polluted but B is clean.
(4) Both A and B are clean.
CH3 88. Consider the following reaction taking place in
1 L capacity container at 300 K.
(d) CH3–C(CH3)2–OH  
A + B  C + D
Choose the correct answer from the options
If one mole each of A and B are present initially
given below :
and at equilibrium 0.7 mol of C is formed, then
(1) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d) equilibrium constant (KC) for the reaction is
(2) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b) (1) 1.2 (2) 6.2
(3) (c) < (a) < (b) < (d) (3) 5.4 (4) 9.7
(4) (b) < (c) < (a) < (d) 89. Λ °m for NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4,
85. The chain length of silicones can be controlled by 2 –1
425.9 and 91.05 S cm mol respectively. If
–1
adding conductivity of 0.001028 mol L acetic acid
–5 –1
(1) SiCl4 (2) (CH3)2SiCl2 solution is 4.95 × 10 S cm , find the degree of
dissociation of the acetic acid solution
(3) (CH3)3SiCl (4) CH3SiCl3
(1) 1.00 (2) 0.1233
Section-B (Chemistry) (3) 1.233 (4) 0.01233
90. The compound obtained by addition of water to
86. The major products formed in the following
an alkyne having more than two carbons, in
reaction are presence of HgSO4 and dilute H2SO4 at 333 K is
H3C (1) an aldehyde (2) an alcohol
O (3) a ketone (4) a vicinal diol
H3C H3C + HI → ?
91. Given below are two statements :
H3C
Statement-I : The Ellingham diagram provides
H3C an idea about the feasibility of a reaction.
(1) CH2, CH3I Statement-II : The Ellingham explains the rate
of the reduction reactions.
H3C
In light of above statements, choose the most
H3C appropriate answer from the options given
(2) H C I, CH3–OH below
3
(1) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
H3C
is correct.
H3C (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) H C OH, CH3–OH correct.
3

H3C (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

incorrect.
H3C (4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(4) H C incorrect.
3 OH, CH3–I
H3C

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 79
92. The product(s) formed from the following NH2
reaction is/are Br Br
NH2
R–CH2–C–CH2–R
CrO3, H2SO4
? (1) (2)
High Temperature

O Br
(1) RCH2COOH only Br
NH2 HNCOCH3
(2) R–CH2–CH–CH2–R only
(3) (4)
COOH
(3) RCOOH and RCH2COOH
Br Br
(4) RCOOH only
98. Which one of the following is the correct order
93. Identify the pair of Lanthanoides with one strong
of spin-only magnetic moment for the given
oxidant and one strong reductant. complexes?
(1) Yb(II), Eu(II) (2) Eu(IV), Lu(III) 3–
(1) [Fe(CN)6] > [Co(H2O6] > [MnCl6]
2+ 3–

(3) Ce(IV), Eu(II) (4) Ce(IV), Tb(IV) 3– 3– 2+

(2) [MnCl6] > [Fe(CN)6] > [Co(H2O)6]
94. A monochromatic infrared range finder of power
3– 2+ 3–
1 mW emits photons with wavelength 1000 nm (3) [MnCl6] > [Co(H2O)6] > [Fe(CN)6]
in 0.1 second. The number of photons emitted 2+ 3– 3–
(4) [Co(H2O)6] > [MnCl6] > [Fe(CN)6]
in 0.1 second is
–34
(Given : h = 6.626 × 10 Js, c = 3 × 10 ms ,
8 –1
99. Which statement among the following is not
23
Avogadro number = 6.022 × 10 )
correct?
14 34
(1) 5 × 10 (2) 30 × 10 (1) Ferrimagnetism arises due to the alignment of
11 37
(3) 5 × 10 (4) 30 × 10
magnetic moments of the domains in the
95. The correct IUPAC name of the following substance in parallel and anti-parallel
compound is :- directions in unequal numbers.
O (2) Replacing some silicon atoms by boron atoms
in crystal of silicon produces p-type
semiconductor.
(1) 4-methylhex-3-en-2-one
(3) Replacing some germanium atoms by
(2) 4-ethylpent-3-en-2-one
phosphorus atoms in crystal of germanium
(3) 3-methylhex-3-en-4-one
produces n-type semiconductor.
(4) 2-ethylhex-3-en-4-one
96. At 300 K, 250 mL of gas A at 1 bar pressure is (4) When conduction band and valence band
overlap, a semiconductor is obtained.
mixed with 500 mL of gas B at 2 bar pressure in
a 1.0 L flask. Gas A does not react with gas B. 1
100. The plot of ln k vs for the following reaction
The final pressure of the mixture is : T
(1) 2.15 bar (2) 2.50 bar 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) 1.25 bar (4) 1.00 bar gives a straight line with the slope of line equal to
4
97. The major product (P) formed in the following –1.0 × 10 K. Activation energy for the reaction
reaction sequence is in J mol is
–1

NO2
(i) Sn, HCl, ∆ (Given R = 8.3 J K mol )
–1 –1

(ii) (CH3CO)2O, Pyridine (P) (1) 4.0 × 10

–2
(2) 8.3 × 10
–4

(iii) Br2, CH3COOH Major Product 4 2

– (3) 8.3 × 10 (4) 4.0 × 10
(iv) OH

E 

80 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
Section-A (Biology : Botany) Choose the correct answer from the options

101. Which one of the following structures is haploid
given below:
in its ploidy level?
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) Microspore Mother Cell
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c).(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) Protonemal cell of a moss
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) Primary Endospore Nucleus
107. The process of individuals of the same species
102. Select the correct statement related to the
that have come into the habitat from elsewhere
activity of cork cambium.
during the time period under consideration is
(1) The cork differentiated from cork cambium, is
referred as :
impervious to water due to deposition of
tannins and resins. (1) Emigration (2) Competition

(2) Cuts the cells only on the outer side. (3) Immigration (4) Association

(3) Cuts the cells on inner as well as outer side. 108. Which of the following come under the "Evil
(4) The outer cells differentiate into phelloderm. Quartet"?
103. Which one of the following process is responsible (a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
for the release of N2 in the atmosphere? (b) Over-exploitation
(1) Ammonification (c) Alien species invasion
(2) Denitrification (d) Mortality
(3) Biological nitrogen fixation (e) Competition
(4) Industrial Nitrogen fixation Choose the correct answer from the options
104. DNA replication is semi-conservative in nature
given below :
was experimentally proved in eukaryotes by : (1) (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Macleod and McCarty
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Meselson and Stahl
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Talyor and his colleagues
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Hershey and Chase
109. Given below are two statements :
105. High dose of UV-B causes inflammation of
Statement – I : Cellulose is a polymeric
cornea and is called as :
polysaccharide.
(1) Colour-blindness Statement – II : The building blocks of
(2) Evening-blindness cellulose are glucose molecules.
(3) Snow-blindness In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) UV-blindness correct answer from the options given below :
106. Match List - I with List - II (1) Statement - I is incorrect but Statement –
List – I List - II II is correct
(a) ETS complex-l (i) Cyt bc1 (2) Both Statement - I and Statement – II are
(b) ETS complex-II (ii) Cyt a, a3 and correct
2 copper centres (3) Both Statement - I and Statement – II are
(c) ETS complex-Ill (iii) NADH
incorrect
dehydrogenase
(4) Statement - I is correct but
(d) ETS complex-IV (iv) Ubiquinone and
Statement - II is incorrect
FADH
dehydrogenase

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 81
110. The living differentiated cells, that lost the 114. Identify the correct statements related to the
capacity to divide anymore, can regain the androecium in the flower.
capacity of division under certain conditions. (a) The sterile stamens are called staminodes.
This phenomenon is termed as : (b) When stamens are attached to petals they are
(1) Maturation (2) Differentiation called epipetalous.
(3) Dedifferentiation (4) Redifferentiation (c) Monadelphy is seen in China-rose.
111. Match List - I with List - II (d) Polyadelphy is seen in Pea.
List-I List-II (e) Variation in the length of anther filaments is
(a) Haemophilia (i) Inborn error of seen in Mustard.
metabolism which Choose the correct answer from the options
lacks an enzyme given below :
that converts
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
phenylalanine
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
into tyrosine.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(b) Down's (ii) Sex-linked recessive
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
Syndrome disorder, defect in
115. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
blood coagulation.
(c) Phenylketonuria (iii) Presence of as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
additional copy of Reason (R).
X-chromosome Assertion (A) : The growth of multicellular
(44+XXY) organism is due to mitosis.
(d) Klinefelter's (iv) Additional copy of Reason (R) : Mitosis is also called as equational
Syndrome chromosome division and it offers genetic stability.
number 21 In the light of the above statements, choose the
Choose the correct answer from the options correct answer from the options given below :
given below:
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) correct explanation of (A)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
112. Identify the cytochrome which acts as a mobile the correct explanation of (A)
carrier for the transfer of electrons between (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
complex III and IV? 116. Identify the correct set of statements with regard
(1) Cytochrome a3 to properties of humus.
(2) Cytochrome b c1 (a) Highly resistant to microbial action.
(3) Cytochrome c (b) Dark coloured amorphous substance.
(4) Cytochrome a (c) End product of detritus food chain.
113. Which one of the following is not a criterion of (d) Reservoir of nutrients.
genetic material? (e) Undergoes decomposition very fast.
(1) Should be able to express itself in the form of Choose the correct answer from the options
Mendelian character. given below :
(2) Should be able to generate its replica. (1) (a), (b) and (e) only
(3) Should be stable chemically and structurally. (2) (a) and (b) only
(4) Should not provide the scope for changes for (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
evolution. (4) (a), (b) and (d) only

E 

82 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
117. The products of light reaction in photosynthesis 124. Removal of apical dominance by decapitation is

are: utilised for :
(1) ATP, NADPH, O2 and H2O (1) Early senescence
(2) ATP, NADPH and H2O (2) Hedge making
(3) ATP, NADPH and CO2 (3) Preparing weed-free lawns
(4) ATP, NADPH and O2 (4) Suppressing the activity of intercalary
118. Which one of the following experiments of meristem
Frederick Griffith resulted in the discovery of 125. Which of the following statements about
bacterial transformation?
(1) S-strain (heat killed) + R-strain (live) facilitated diffusion is incorrect?
→ injected in to Mice → Mice died (1) Porins are involved in this process.
(2) S-strain → injected in to Mice → Mice died (2) Movement of molecule occurs against the
(3) R-strain → injected in to Mice → Mice lived concentration gradient.
(4) S-strain (heat killed) → injected in to Mice (3) ATP is not required for this process,
Mice lived (4) Special proteins of the membrane help in this
119. Which hormone is used to induce immediate process.
stomatal closure in leaves? 126. Species Area relationship is described by the
(1) Gibberellin (2) Abscisic Acid following equation.
(3) Auxin (4) Cytokinin log S=log C+Z log A
120. Select the correct statements with respect to where Z is :
pleiotropism. (1) Species richness
(a) A gene is said to be pleiotropic if it affects (2) Slope of the line
more than one trait. (3) Y-intercept
(b) Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy. (4) Area
(c) A condition where one gene has several 127. Genetically engineered insulin for human is
alleles is referred to as pleiotropism. produced from :
(d) A trait is said to be pleiotropic if several (1) Pseudomonas putida
genes control it. (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Rhizobium meliloti
given below : (4) Escherichia coli
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only 128. Which of the following physical properties of
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only water is/are responsible for providing water, the
121. Which of the following is the correct equation of high tensile strength and high capillarity during
exponential growth? ascent of sap in the plants?
rpt rst
(1) Nt = N0 e (2) Nt = N0 e (1) Cohesion, adhesion and surface tension
rt rnt
(3) Nt = N0 e (4) Nt = N0 e (2) Cohesion only
122. Which of the following plants possesses the (3) Adhesion and cohesion
placentation of ovules borne on central axis with (4) Surface tension and cohesion
no septa? 129. Choose the mismatched pair of leaf character
(1) Pea (2) China-rose with its example :
(3) Primrose (4) Lemon
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy - China-rose
123. What will be the ploidy of endosperm of a seed
(2) Leaf tendril - Pea
produced after crossing tetraploid female plant
with tetraploid male plant? (3) Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis
(1) Hexaploid (2) Diploid (4) Palmately compound - Alstonia
(3) Triploid (4) Pentaploid

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 83
130. In prophase I of Meiosis, chromosomes start 134. Match List - I with List - II
pairing together and synapsis takes place. This List – I List – II
process occurs during which of the following (a) Cedrus (i) Pteridophyte
stage? (b) Adiantum (ii) Gymnosperm
(1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene (c) Sphagnum (iii) Liverwort
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (d) Marchantia (iv) Moss
131. Given below are two statements : one is labelled Choose the correct answer from the options
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as given below :
Reason (R). (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Assertion (A) : Restriction enzyme is a type of (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
endonuclease. (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Reason (R) : Restriction enzyme cuts the two (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
strands of DNA at specific positions within the 135. Phloem sap in the plants mainly consists of:
DNA. (1) fructose and sucrose
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) glucose and water
correct answer from the options given below : (3) sucrose and water
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) fructose and water
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Section-B (Biology : Botany)
correct explanation of (A) 136. Which of the following bond is formed as a result

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not of reaction of carboxyl group of one amino acid

the correct explanation of (A) with amino group of other amino acid with
elimination of water?
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) Hydrogen Bond
132. Axillary buds are derived from the activity of:
(2) Glycosidic Bond
(1) Secondary meristem
(3) Peptide Bond
(2) Apical meristem
(4) Phosphodiester Bond
(3) Intercalary meristem
137. Which of the following was proved by girdling
(4) Lateral meristem
experiment?
133. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(1) Symplastic movement of water occurs
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
through interconnected protoplast.
Reason (R). (2) Xylem is responsible for uptake of water.
Assertion (A) : A father will never pass the (3) Phloem is responsible for translocation of food.
gene for haemophilia to his sons. (4) Apoplastic movement of water occurs
Reason (R) : Haemophilia is sex-linked (X- through intercellular spaces.
linked) recessive trait. 138. Identify the fungi which do not belong to the
In the light of the above statements, choose the group of other fungi among the following.
correct answer from the options given below : (1) Puffballs
(2) Mushrooms
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Bracket Fungi
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) Sac-fungi
correct explanation of (A)
139. The ratio of carbon dioxide fixation between C4
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not plants and C3 plants is :
the correct explanation of (A) (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

E 

84 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
140. Following crops have been extensively cultivated (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not

in CO2 rich atmosphere for higher yield : the correct explanation of (A)
(1) Carrots and Tomatoes (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) Wheat and Sugar beet
144. Which of the following are not correct regarding
(3) Tomatoes and Bell pepper
decomposition of wastes?
(4) Sugar beet and Cabbage
141. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (a) Low temperature inhibits decomposition.
(b) Warm and moist environment favours the
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled us
process.
Reason (R).
(c) The process is anaerobic.
Assertion (A) : In rDNA technology non
(d) It is slower if detritus is rich in proteins and
recombinants transformed bacteria grow on the
medium containing ampicillin as well as medium carbohydrates.
containing tetracycline. (e) Detritus is degraded into simpler inorganic
Reason (R) : Recombinant plasmids contain the substances by fungal and bacterial enzymes.
foreign DNA or gene of interest. Choose the correct answer from the options
In the light of the above statements, choose the given below :
correct answer from the options given below : (1) (c), (a) and (d) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) (c), (d) and (e) only (4) (b) and (c) only
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 145. Which of the following is not a character of
correct explanation of (A) collenchyma tissue?
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not (1) They occur in layers below epidermis in
the correct explanation of (A) dicotyledonous plants.
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (2) They consist of cells with thick corners due to
cellulose deposition.
142. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air
(3) They are usually dead and without
from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is
protoplasts.
measured in terms of :
(4) They provide mechanical support to the
(1) Swedberg units (2) Monomeric units
growing part of the plant.
(3) Dobson units (4) Balton units 146. Assuming that fur colour of an animal is dark,
143. Given below are two statements : one is labelled range of colour shade and white. A cross is made
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as between a male (AABBCC) with dark fur colour
Reason (R). and a female (aabbcc) with white fur colour.
Assertion (A) : Semiconservative replication What would be the fur colour of F1 generation?
(1) Range of colour shade
was experimentally proved by Mathew Meselson
(2) All dark colour
and Franklin Stahl (1958).
(3) All white colour
Reason (R) : Meselon and Stahl used
(4.) All intermediate colour
15
radioactive isotope N and equilibrium density 147. Which of the following pair of micronutrients
gradient centrifugation technique. would help in the light phase of photosynthesis
to help in the reaction leading to oxygen
In the light of the above statements, choose the
evolution?
correct answer from the options given below : (1) Manganese and Molybdenum
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) Molybdenum and Iron
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) Manganese and Chlorine
(4) Zinc and Chlorine
correct explanation of (A)

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 85
148. Which of the following set represents the correct Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
labelling of A, B, C and D with respect to the 151. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
given diagram? as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as

A Reason (R)
B
C Assertion (A) : With the help of several
ommatidia, a cockroach can perceive several
images of an object, ie, mosaic vision.
D
Reason (R) : Mosaic vision gives more
(1) A-Seed Coat, B-Scutellum, sensitivity but less resolution.
C-Endocarp, D-Mesocarp
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) A-Seed Coat, B-Scutellum
C-Micropyle, D-Endocarp most appropriate answer from the option
(3) A-Pericarp, B-Coleoptile given below :
C-Endosperm, D-Scutellum (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) A-Seed Coat, B-Cotyledon,
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
C-Endosperm, D-Hypocotyle
149. Given below are two statements : one is labelled correct explanation of (A)

as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Reason (R). the correct explantation of (A)
Assertion (A) : The beginning of diplotene is (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
recognised by the dissolution of the
152. Inadequate supply of oxygen to heart muscles
synaptonemal complex and formation of X
leads to a symptom of acute chest pain. This
shaped structures called chiasmata.
disorder of the circulatory system is identified as :
Reason (R) : In oocytes of some vertebrates,
(1) Cardiac arrest
diplotene can last for months or years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) Heart failure
correct answer from the options given below : (3) Coronary Heart Disease
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) Angina pectoris
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 153. In Drosophila, the genes for color of body and
correct explanation of (A) color of eyes are situated on _________.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) not the (1) autosomes
correct explanation of (A) (2) Y-chromosome
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) X-chromosome
150. The construction of the first recombinant DNA (4) both the sex chromosomes
emerged from the possibility of linking a gene 154. An intestinal hormone that stimulates the
encoding antibiotic resistance with a native
pancreas to release watery secretion that is rich
plasmid of which of the following organism?
in bicarbonate ions :
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(1) Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
(2) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Enterokinin
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (3) Secretin
(4) Cholecystokinin
(4) Escherichia coli

E 

86 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
155. The hormone releasing IUDs among the 161. The term ‘blue Revolution’ is related with :

following are : (1) Development of water reservoirs
(a) Multiload 375 (2) Honey and its by products
(b) LNG - 20 (3) Fishery industry
(c) Progestasert (4) Various crop plants and their by products
(d) Lippe’s loop
162. The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested for
(e) Vaults
years or months in:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) diplotene (2) Diakinesis
options given below :
(3) Metaphase - I (4) Telophase - I
(1) (c) and (e) only
163. Which one of the following is not an Assisted
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only Reproductive Technology (ART) used by childless
(4) (a) and (d) only couples to have children?
156. Which of the following disorders represents (1) IUD (2) IVF
decrease in respiratory surface due to damaged (3) IUT (4) ZIFT
alveolar walls? 164. A population with finite resources shows a
(1) Bronchitis (2) Asthma logistic growth curve where the correct sequence
(3) Emphysema (4) Hypocapnia of events will be :
157. Which of the following is/are vegetative (1) Acceleration phase → Deceleration →
propagule(s)? Asymptote
(a) Eyes of Potato (2) Acceleration phase → Lag phase → Stationary
(b) Zoospore of Chlamydomonas phase
(c) Rhizome of Ginger (d) buds in Hydra
(3)Lag phase → Acceleration phase →
(e) Bulbil of Agave
Deceleration → Asymptote
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) Stationary phase → Acceleration phase → Lag
options given below :
phase → Asymptote
(1) (a), (c), (e) only (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
165. A low frequency recombination indicates that the
(3) (b), (d) only (4) (e) only
158. In a cell, the separation of DNA strands is genes are :
(1) Located close to each other
brougth about by the enzyme DNA helicase,
(2) Not linked
whereas in PCR, the separation of DNA strands
(3) Present on different chromosomes
is due to :
(4) Located far apart from each other
(1) Two sets of Primers
166. Arrange the following male sex accessory ducts
(2) Taq DNA polymerase
in the correct sequence for the transport of
(3) Deoxynucleotides
sperms from the testes.
(4) High temperature
(a) Epididymis (b) Ejaculatory duct
159. Which of the following types of epithelium lines
(c) Vasa efferentia (d) Rete testis
the walls of blood vessels?
(e) Vas deferens
(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Ciliated epithelium
options given below :
160. Endemism refers to :
(1) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
(1) Species evenness
(2) (d), (c), (a), (e), (b)
(2) Species confined to that region
(3) (d), (e), (a), (c), (b)
(3) Species diversity
(4) (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)
(4) Species richness

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 87
167. In the regulation of respiration, a chemo-sensitive 174. In a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, which of
area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the medulla the following statements is correct?
region of the brain, is highly sensitive to :
(1) Enzymes make transition from substrate to
(1) CO2 (2) O2
product more difficult.
(3) N2 (4) HCO3−
(2) Enzymes increase the activation energy for
168. Chylomicrons are :
(1) micro-sized lipid molecules formation of transition state.

(2) protein coated fat globules (3) Enzyme-substrate complex formed during a
(3) spherical aggregates of fatty acids reaction lasts for a very long time.
(4) fat coated protein globules
(4) Enzyme decrease the activation energy for
169. Genetic Drift occurs due to :
formation of transition state.
(1) Sudden population migration
(2) Continuous gene migration 175. Given below are two statements :

(3) Mutation Statements-I : Membrane-bound organelles of

(4) Natural selection the endomembrane system coordinate cellular
170. Immuno-suppressants are administered to burn-
functions.
patients or during organ transplantation to
Statement-II : Mitochondria and chloroplasts
suppress :
(1) Cytokine storm are not considered a part of the endomembrane
(2) Humoral immunity system.
(3) Cell-mediated immunity
In the light of the above statements choose the
(4) Innate immunity
most appropriate answer from the options
171. Normal sleep-wake cycle in a human body is
given below :
maintained by the secretion of :
(1) Thymus gland (1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is

(2) Pineal gland correct

(3) Pituitary gland (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Thyroid gland correct
172. Air bladder is found in : (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Aves incorrect
(2) Cyclostomata
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(3) Chondrichthyes
incorrect
(4) Osteichthyes
176. One of the strands of double stranded DNA has
173. With respect to nucleosome, which of the
following statements is incorrect? base composition as follows : 15% A, 15% T,
(1) Nucleosomes are seen as ‘beads on string’ 40% G and 30% C. What will be the percentage
under Electron Microscope of these bases in the complementary strand?
(2) DNA is wrapped around positively charged
(1) 15% A, .10% T, 40% G, 15% C
histone octamer to form nucleosome.
(3) Nucleosome is the repeating unit of (2) 15% A, 15% T, 40% G, 30% C
chromatin (3) 15% A, 40% T, 15% G, 30% C
(4) Nucleosome contains 120 bp of DNA helix (4) 15% A, 15% T, 30% G, 40% C

E 

88 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
177. Given below are two statements: 181. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Statement-I : Amphibians and reptiles have a (1) Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the
ends of the sarcomere.
3-chambered heart with two atria and a single
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine.
ventricle; and oviparous in nature.
(3) Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding
Statement-II : Crocodiles possess a 4 sites.
chambered heart with two ventricles and two (4) Actin and regulatory proteins are located in
atria; and viviparous in nature. thin filament.
182. How many Y-chromosomes are present in 2
nd

In the light of the-above statements, choose the

polar body in human beings?
most appropriate answer from the options
(1) 00 (2) 23
given below : (3) 02 (4) 01
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II 183. Which one of the following hormones reduce the
is correct blood pressure?
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (1) Atrial Natriuretic factor
correct (2) Aldosterone
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) Angiotensin-II
incorrect (4) Antidiuretic hormone
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 184. Which of the following hormones are secreted in
incorrect women only during pregnancy?
178. Herbarium, Botanical gardens, Museum, (a) Relaxin (b) Oxytocin
Zoological parks and Key are considered as- (c) hCG (d) hPL
(1) Environmental aids (e) Progesterone
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) Pollution aids
options given below :
(3) Taxonomical aids
(1) (b) and (e) only
(4) Trophic aids (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
179. Ear wax secreting cells have which type of (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
epithelium? (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
(1) Exocrine glandular epithelium 185. Bee-keeping helps to improve the yield of

(2) Compound epithelium following crops EXCEPT _________.

(1) Sunflower (2) Apple
(3) Endocrine glandular epithelium
(3) Mustard (4) Jowar
(4) Columnar epithelium
Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
180. Select the correct sequence of events occurring
186. Match List-I with List-II regarding sensory
during Prophase-I of Meiosis-I.
organs in human.
(a) Nuclear envelope breakdown
(b) Synaptonemal complex formation (a) Organ of corti (i) Photo receptors
(c) Compaction of chromosomes (b) Nasal mucosa (ii) Gustatory receptors
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata (c) Taste buds (iii) Auditory receptors
(e) Crossing over (d) Retina (iv) Olfactory receptors
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Choose the correct answer from the options
options given below : given below :
(1) (c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (e) (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (b) → (c) → (a) → (d) → (e) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(3) (c) → (a) → (b) → (e) → (d) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii). (d)-(iv)
(4) (c) → (b) → (e) → (d) → (a) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 89
187. Given below are two statements : 191. Identify the properties of a good vector used in
Statement-I : Pyramid of energy is always rDNA technology.
upright and is the most efficient.
(a) It should have origin of replication supporting
Statement-II : Pyramid of biomass in sea is
high copy number.
generally inverted.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (b) It should have preferably more than '2'
most appropriate answer from the options recoginition sites.
given below : (c) the restriction sites in vector should be in the
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is antibiotic resistant genes.
correct
(d) It should have suitable marker genes.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(e) It should be easy to isolate and purify.
correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Choose the most appropriate answer from the
incorrect options given below :
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) (c), (d) and (e) only
incorrect
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
188. Terrestrial adaptations necessitated the
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
production of :
(1) Lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and (4) (a), (c) and (e) only
uric acid 192. Given below two statements : one is labelled as
(2) Lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like ammonia Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
and urea
Reason (R).
(3) Highly toxic nitrogenous wastes like ammonia
and urea Assertion (A) : The nematode can not survive
(4) Highly toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and
in a transgenic host which expresses specific
uric acid
interfering RNA.
189. Which biological process leads to decrease in
Reason (R) : Nematode specific gene
fish-eating bird population near a water body
containing toxicants from industrial drainage? introduced in the host produces both sense and

(1) Biochemical oxygen demand antisense complementary RNA which initiate

(2) Accelerated Eutrophication RNA interference in the host cell.
(3) Biomagnification In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Algal bloom most appropriate answer from the options
190. What would be the proportions of light and
given below :
hybrid density DNA molecule, respectively if
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Meselson and Stahl's experiment was continued
(2) Both (A) and (R) arc correct and (R) is the
for 60 minutes ?
(1) 25%, 75% correct explanation of (A)

(2) 75%, 25% (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) 100%, 0% the correct explanation of (A)
(4) 50%, 50%
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

E 

90 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
193. Match List - I with List – II 195. Which one of the following features are not true

List – I List - II for chordates?
(a) Adhering (i) Establish a barrier that
(a) Heart is dorsal.
junctions that prevents leakage
(b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
of extracellular fluid
across a layer of cells (c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and
(b) Tight (ii) Functions like rivets single.
junctions and fasten cells (d) Post-anal tail is present.
together into strong
(e) Notochord is present.
sheets
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(c) Gap (iii) Pass information
junctions through neuro- options given below :
transmitters from (1) (a), (d) and (c) only
one cell to another
(2) (b) and (c) only
(d) Synaptic (iv) Provide cytoplasmic
(3) (a) and (c) only
junctions channels from one
cell to adjacent cell (4) (e) only
for communication 196. Match List - I with List - II
Choose the correct answer from the options List – I List - II
given below:
(a) Chromoplasts (i) Proteins
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (b) Amyloplasts (ii) Oil and fats
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (c) Elaioplasts (iii) Starch
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (d) Aleuroplasts (iv) Carotene
194. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
Choose the correct answer from the options
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as given below :
Reason (R). (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Assertion (A) : In human beings. Insulin is (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
synthesized as a pro-hormone which needs to be (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
processed before it becomes fully mature and (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
functional.
197. Match List - I with List - II
Reason (R) : The extra stretch of C-peptide is
List - I List - II
to be removed from A-peptide and B-peptide
(a) Puccinia (i) Parasitic fungus
chain of insulin.
on mustard
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options (b) Neurospora (ii) Dead substrates
given below : (c) Saprophytes (iii) Wheat rust
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (d) Albugo (iv) Biochemical and
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Genetic work
Choose the correct answer from the options
correct explanation of (A)
given below :
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
the correct explanation of (A) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 91
198. Select the correct match regarding adaptive In the light of the above statements, choose the
radiation of Australian marsupials corresponding most appropriate answer from the options
to placental mammals. given below :
(1) Tasmanian Wolf - Bobcat (1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(2) Marsupial mouse - Mole correct
(3) Spotted Cuscus - Lemur (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Numbat - Flying Squirrel correct
199. Given below are two statements : (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-I : When an infected female incorrect
Anopheles mosquito bites, it releases (4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
gametocytes of Plasmodium into the healthy incorrect
person. 200. If a DNA molecule is shortened by 25 base pairs,
Statement-II : The female Anopheles mosquito how many helical turns will be reduced from its
takes up sporozoites of Plasmodium with blood structure?
meal from an infected person, suffering from (1) 3 (2) 2.5
malaria. (3) 2 (4) 1

E 

92 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)

ANSWER KEY NEET(UG)-2022(Overseas)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 1 4 4 1 4 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 4 4 4 4 4 1 2 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 3 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 2 4
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 2 3 1 1 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 3
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 4 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 3
Que. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 4 1 2 4 4 1 2 4
Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
Ans. 3 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 3 2 2 2 2 3
Que. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 3 2
Que. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
Ans. 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 1 3 1
Que. 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 2 1 2 1 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 1 4
Que. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195
Ans. 4 1 1 3 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 2 3
Que. 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 1 1 3 3 2

1. At T1 = 27°C = 300 K 2. Since, M = IA

λ1 = λ ∴ M1 = M2 ⇒ I1 πr12 = I2 πr22
and T2 = 927°C = 1200 K 2
I1  r2  4
λ2 = ? ⇒
= = 
I2  r1  1
h h 3
λ= = and E = KBT 3. L = 4H
p 2mE 2
di (2 − 4)
1  ε = −L = −4 = –4(–2) = 8 V
∴λ∝ dt 1
T
4. Wave is propagating along –z direction
λ1 T2 1200 
= = = 2 E = 3jˆ v / m
λ2 T1 300
E0 3
λ λ  B0 = =
λ2 = 1 = C 3 × 108
2 2
–9
= 10 × 10 î T = 10 î nT

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 93
 10. Viscosity of liquid decreases with increase of
5.  A V = A V1 A V2
temp.
= 20 × 20 = 400
11.
st nd
I and 2 excited state of hydrogen corresponds
v out
= A v ⇒ vout = AV(vin) nd
to 2 and 3 orbital.
rd

v in
n1 = 2 and n2 = 3
= 400 (0.01) = 4 V
nh
 L=
6.  I = I0 cos θ
2
2π

25 L1 n1 2
2.5 = 10 cos θ ⇒
2
= cos θ
2
∴ = =
100 L 2 n2 3

1 12.
⇒ cosθ = ⇒ θ = 60° Extreme
2 position (v = 0)
7.
2
v – u = 2gh
2
Mean
position
v 2 − u2 3600 – 1600
⇒h= = = 100 m
2g 2 × 10
∴ At extreme position K.E. = 0
f1 f2 f3 So, Total energy = Purely Potential Energy
Q=N fs
R=
8.

=P θ mg cosθ
sin θ
mg θ S = mg
f1 = f3 13. O
f2 = –25 cm Q = Normal reaction
f1 = f3 = 40 cm
P = mg sinθ
1 1 1 1
 = + +
fnet f1 f2 f3 R = Friction force

1 S = Weight (mg)
and P =
fnet (m)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(i)
1 1 1 1
=
∴ – + 
fnet 40 25 40 14. E at centre = 0
2 1 1 Because of symmetry when one charge is
= − =
40 25 100 cm removed
100  kq 1 q
∴P= = 1D E= 2 =
100 r 4πε0 r 2

( E due to 10 charges will cancel and out each
2Ω 2Ω other
9. 2Ω ∴ Enet will be only because of 11 charge)
th

k
4Ω 4Ω u
15. m

1 2 1 2
mu = kx
1Ω 2 2
10V
m
4 4 8 17 x= u
Req. = + 2 + +1 = + 3 = Ω k
3 3 3 3

E 

94 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)

16. y = (A + B) + (A + B) 1mm
23. Pitch = = 0.5 mm
2

=
(A + B)·(A + B) (By De'Morgans theorem) Pitch
L.C. =
No.of division of circular scale
= (A + B) .(A + B) 0.5 × 10 –3 –5
= = 10
50
= A + B ⇒ OR Gate
24.
17. By Ohm's law : V = IR ⇒ V ∝ I
A
I 1 cm µ g = 1.5
V∝I
B
s µg c
V v= µ ga = =
t µa vg
s = 2 (Thickness of slab)
18.
t=
s
=
(
2 × 10 –2 × 3)
O BYG
vg 3 × 108 × 2
B B R O Y G B V G W cµ a 2c –10
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 ⇒ vg = = = 10 s
µg 3

Multiplier 1 10 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109

25.  There is no friction between feet of passenger
Tolerance (%) : Gold, Silver, None and floor of bus so passenger will not move back
5 10 20 when seen from ground
(360 ± 18) kΩ So Assertion is false but reason is true.
1 2 26.  Q = ms ∆T
19. E = LI
2
as ∆T = 0
1
= × 10 × 12 s = Q/m∆T = ∞
2
27. By using Bernoullis equation
10
= =5J 1 2
2 p+ ρv + ρgh = constant
2
20. Dimensional formula of mutual inductance
28. N = N0e λ
– t

2 –2 –2
= [ML T A ]
ln N = ln N0 + lne(e λ )
– t

 
21.  F = q v×B ( ) ln N = –λt + ln N0
  ∴ Slope = –λ
Since v and B are parallel
∴ θ = 0° 29. m v1
Fm = Bqv sin0° = 0 4m
∴ Original path
u1 =0 3m v2
22.  Wavelength of blue, indigo and violet light is

less than green light  Fext = 0 ∴ ∆P = 0

∴ Energy of blue, indigo and violet light is more ⇒ P1 + P2 = 0 ⇒ P1 = –P2
than green light P2
and E =
Hence, violet light is capable of ejecting of 2m
photoelectron. 1 E1 3m 3
∴E∝ ⇒ = =
m E2 m 1

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 95
 35.
+ + + + +
30. +
+ + R → Radio λ↓
Q
R
+ + m → Micro
+ +
r= I → Infrared
+ +
+ V → Visible
+
+
+ U → UV ray
+ + + +
X → X-ray
Here potential inside sphere will be equal to
potential on surface of sphere. G → γ-ray

kQ 1 Q λ m > λI > λX > λγ

v= =
R 4πε0 R N 0 – N N 0 – N 0 e – λt
36. =1–eλ
– t
=
vr = 35 m/s N0 N0
31.
θ 1
t = Tav =
λ
e –1
So = 1 – e λ λ = 1 –e =
– / –1

vw = 12 m/s e
12 –1  12  C1 × C2
tanθ = ⇒ θ = tan   w.r.t rain 37.  C eq. =
35  35  C1 + C2
32.  I ∝ mR
2
0.9 × 0.1 × 10−12
=
C = 0.09 µF
m1 1 eq.
1 × 10−6
=
m2 1
0.3 µF 0.1 µF
R1 1
=
R2 2 0.3 µF
2
I1 m1  R1  0.3 µF
∴= × 
I2 m2  R 2 
2
1 1 + –
=1×  =
2 4
33. I = 0.1 Kg m
2
µ0 Ia2
38. B =
r = 10 × 10 m
–2 2 (a2 + x2 )3/2

F = 10 N
a
t = 2 sec x

 τ = Iα = rF
rF 10 –1 × 10
∴=
α
–2
= –1
= 10 rads
I 10 When, x >> a
 ω = ω0 + αt
µ0 Ia2 µ0 Ia2
∴ ω = 0 + αt =
Then, B =
2 (x2 )3/2 2 x3
⇒ ω = 10 × 2 = 20 rads
–1

Magnetic field on axis of dipole

34. Acceleration due to gravity acting on a body is
µ0 M
independent of the mass of the body. B=
2π x 3
 GM  1
 g = 2  B∝ 3
 R  x
∴ Statement I correct and statement II incorrect.

E 

96 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)

1 c D
39. When switch S close then in − cycle diode D So, β= n × .
2 f d
becomes F.B. and behave as wire. So current 3 × 107 1
= 10 × × =0.03 m =30 mm
doesn't flow from R and output zero. 500 × 10 12
0.2 × 10−4
kq q 46. According to question
1
40. mv 2 = 1 2
2 r V = Vm sin ωt
1 I = Im sin (ωt – π/2) = –Im cos ωt
⇒r∝
v2  Pinst. = VI
2 2
r1  v 2   2v  2
= =  =  4 ∴ Pinst. = –(Vm sin ωt) (Im cos ωt) ×
r2  v1   v  2
− Vm I m
r r = sin(2ωt)
⇒ r2 = 1 = 2
4 4  1 30 X
47. = =
41.  2 70 Y
x
3
⇒ X =Y …
.(1)
rest 7
50 X 1
= =
50 YR / R + Y 1
YR 3 YR
⇒X= ⇒ Y=
t0 t R+Y 7 Y+R
⇒ 3(Y + R) = 7R ⇒ 3Y + 3R = 7R
⇒ 3Y = 4R
3RT
42.  Vrms = 4R 4 × 16 64
M ⇒ Y= = =
3 3 3
∴ VNe = VH2 48. According to question

T ∝R
2 3

3RT 3R(288)
⇒ =
20.2 2 T2 R3
∴ ⇒ x = 64T ⇒ x = 8T
2 2
∝
T 288 x2 64R 3
⇒ =
20.2 2
49. 2 mm
⇒ T = 2.9 × 10 K
3

43. 8πT(r22 − r12 )

Work done = /2

= 8πT (4r – r ) = 24 πr T
2 2 2
 = λ; 2A = amplitude at anti node = 2mm
 
44. ∫ B.ds = 0 Amplitude = 2A sinkx
2π   
 Magnetic monopoles do not exist. = 2mm sin
λ  8 
45. According to question πλ π
= 2mm sin   = 2mm sin  
f = 500 × 10 Hz
12
λ 4 4
–3
d = 0.2 × 10 m 2mm
= = 2 mm
D=1m 2
n = 10
nλ D c c
β= and f = ⇒λ=
d λ f

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 97
 61.
L
50. g= 4π2
T2
Amines pKb
∆g ∆L 2∆T (a) 3.27
∴ = + CH3–N–CH3
g L T
H
51.
(b) •• 4.75
Polymer Monomer N H3
Bakelite Phenol and formaldehyde (c) H–N–CH3 9.30
Nylon 6, 6 Hexamethylenediamine and adipic
acid
Nylon 6 Caprolactam
Terylene Ethylene glycol and Benzene-1, 4-
(d) NH2 9.38
dicarboxylic acid
52. Ga is more stable than Al as inert pair effect
+ +

becomes more effective down the group.

53. All three C–O bonds are equal in length with a 62. CO CO CO
bond order in between 1 and 2 due to CO Co Co CO =2
resonance.
CO CO CO
54. An electron in Hydrogen atom will have least
amount of energy because value of
n (principal quantum number) is least which is 1. CO CO CO CO
55. Volume of the gas is due to the large number of CO Mn Mn CO =0
molecules of the gas is not correct because CO CO
CO CO
volume of the gas is equal to volume of
63.
container. 2 2 6
(a) Element which (iii) Sc[1s 2s 2p
p  2 6 2 1
56. W = –2.303 nRT log  1  exhibits +3 3s 3p 4s 3d ]
 p2  oxidation state
+3 2
Sc [1s 2s 2p
2 6

2 6 0 0
J only 3s 3p 4s 3d ]
 5atm 
W=
−2.303 × 1mol × 8.314 × 300K × log   (b) Element which (i)
2
Mn [1s 2s 2p
2 6
Kmol  1atm  2 6 2 5
exhibits more 3s 3p 4s 3d ]
W = –2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × 1 × log 5 number of (oxidation state
W = –2.303 × 8.314 × 300 × 0.6989 oxidation states from +2 so +7)
2 2 6
(c) Element which is a (iv) Cr [1s 2s 2p
W = –4014.58 J reducing agent in
2 6
3s 3p 4s 3d ]
1 5

+2 2 2 6
57. LiF is sparingly soluble in water because it has its +2 oxidation Cr [1s 2s 2p
2 6 0 4
state 3s 3p 4s 3d ]
high lattice enthalpy which dominates hydration +2
Cr acts as a
enthalpy. reducing agent,
+3
58. BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 Cr is stable
because of its
Top to bottom, molecule weight increases so configuration -
boiling point increases but due to H-Bonding in 3
t2g eg0
.
NH3, the order becomes (d) Element which is (ii)
2
Zn [1s 2s 2p
2 6

2 6 2 10
BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 not considered as 3s 3p 4s 3d ]
+2 2 2 6
a transition Zn [1s 2s 2p
59. All the domains get oriented in the direction of 2 6 0 10
element 3s 3p 4s 3d ]
magnetic field.
as it is pseudo
↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
transition
60. Because last carbon (asymmetrical) has –OH
element.
group on left hand side.

E 

98 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
64. Bromination product depends on nature of (c) CH3COOH is acid, with acid strength greater

solvent. CHCl3 gives monosubstituted bromo than all and have pKa = 4.76

derivative as CHCl3 is a solvent of low polarity OH

CH3COOH > > H2O > C2H5OH
whereas reaction of phenol with bromine water

yields trisubstituted bromo derivative of phenol. 68. N2 = (B.O. = 3)

65. O2 = (B.O. = 2)
Dispersion medium Gas
Insecticide spray O2− = (B.O. = 1.5)
Dispersed Phase Liquid
O22 − = (B.O. = 1)
Dispersion medium Liquid
Whipped Cream Bond order ∝ Bond enthalpies
Dispersed Phase Gas
So, N2 > O2 > O2− > O22 −
Dispersion medium Liquid
Paint 69.
Dispersed Phase Solid Br Br
Na
+ +2 NaBr
Dispersion medium Liquid dry ether
Hair cream
Fittig reaction
Dispersed Phase Liquid
70. Aldehydes and ketones having at least one

66. 

BaSO4 
+2 2−
 Ba + SO4 α-hydrogen undergo a reaction in the presence

Ksp = [Ba ] [SO24− ]

+2
of dilute alkali as catalyst to form β-hydroxy

= 1.5 × 10 = S
–9 2 aldehydes (aldol) or β-hydroxy ketones (ketol),

respectively. This is known as Aldol reaction.

S = 1.5 × 10−9 = 3.87 × 10−5
71. (1) It is a true statement
Ba(NO3)2 → Ba (aq) + 2NO3− (aq)
+2

(2) It is a true statement

[Due to common ion] → (0.1 + S') (S') = Ksp
(3) It is incorrect or false statement.
–9
(0.1) × S' = 1.5 × 10 ( 0.1 >> S')
(4) It is a also a true statement

S' = 1.5 × 10 M
–8
72. Relative lowering in vapour pressure = Mole

67. (a) Alcohols are weaker acids than water because fraction of solute

alkoxide are better proton acceptor than nsolute

∴ xsolute =
nsolute + nsolvent
hydroxide.
1
=
(b) Phenols are better acids than alcohols because 1+ 3
1
phenoxide ion is more stable by resonance. = = 0.25
4

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 99
73. List-I List-II (d) If the concentration of reactant is doubled the
Elements Atomic radii (pm) rate of reaction will increase four times as per the
(a) O (iii) 66 pm
rate equation.
(b) C (iv) 77 pm
2
i.e., rate = K[2K]
(c) B (i) 88 pm
rate = 4K
(d) N (ii) 74 pm
(b) Rate constant is independent of concentration
B>C>N>O
but temperature dependent.
As we move across the period from left to right
78. Knowledge based
atomic radius decreases due to increase in
nuclear charge. 79. (a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP → 6.4 g
74. Boiling point increases with increase in number
V 4.48
=
nO = = 0.2 moles
of carbon atoms and decreases with branching. 2 22.4 22.4
Option (a) has 5 carbon atoms but w =n × MO2 =0.2 × 32 =6.4 g
Option (b) has 6 carbon atoms
(b) 12.022 × 10 molecules of H2O → 0.2 moles
22

∴ B.P. of (b) > (a)

N 12.022 × 1022
Option (c) and (d) have '5' carbon atoms each but nH = = 2 × 10 –1 =
= 0.2 moles
2O NA 23
6.022 × 10
option (c) has one branch and option (d) has two
(c) 96 g of O2 → 67.2 litres at STP
branches.
w V
∴ B.P. of (c) > (d) =
M 22.4
∴ Order of B.P. : b > a > c > d
96 V 96 × 22.4
= = V = 67.2 litres
75. The alkali metals and their salts impart 32 22.4 32
(d) 88 g of CO2 → 12.044 × 10 molecules
23
characteristic colour in an oxidising flame. This is
because the heat from the flame excites the w N 88 N
= ∴ =
valence electron which comes back to the ground M NA 44 6.022 × 1023

state to emit light of wavelength in visible region. N = 6.022 × 10 × 2

23

23
76. The species which can undergo both oxidation = 12.044 × 10 molecules
and reduction exhibit disproportionation 80. Knowledge based
reactions.
81. Chlorine reacts with water to form HCl and
i.e., If the central atom is the species which can
HClO.
show both increase and decrease in O.N. then it
shows disproportionation reaction. But HClO (hypochlorous acid) is unstable and
Clearly Option 2, 3, 4 are not possible as they all
easily dissociates to form nascent oxygen
−
have ClO 4
as common species which is having
HClO → HCl + [O]
Cl already in +7 oxidation state.
Nascent oxygen is a more powerful oxidising
77.
2
Rate = K[A]
agent which is responsible for the bleaching

nature.

E 

100 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
(i) HBr/peroxide Mechanism :

82. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2  →
Heat (Anti M.R.)

4
(1)

(2)
83. formula ∆G = −nFE ocell
o

∴ ∆G = –6 × F × 0.404
o
(a) n = 6
= –2.424 F (3)
∴ ∆G = –2 × F × 1.211
o
(b) n = 2
= –2.422 F
∴ ∆G = –3 × F × 0.807
o
(c) n = 3 87. The amount of BOD in water is a measure of the
= –2.421 F amount of organic matter in the water, in terms
84. Order of reactivity of alcohols towards acid of how much oxygen will be required to break it
down biologically.
catalyst dehydration is
If BOD < 5 ppm (clean water)
3° > 2° > 1° If BOD ≥ 17 ppm (highly polluted water)
88. A + B    C + D
∴ a < c < d but option (2) is least because OH
t=0, n= 1 1 0 0
2
group is attached sp hybridised carbon atom and t=teq, n= 1–x 1–x x x
Moles of C at equilibrium = x = 0.7
partial bond character develops between C–OH
∴ Concentrations at equilibrium are :
bond. n 1− x
[A] = = =−
1 0.7 =0.3
V 1
85. The chain length of the silicone polymer can be
n 1− x
[B] = = =−
1 0.7 =0.3
controlled by adding Me3SiCl [CH3]3SiCl. V 1
n x
The reaction of the sequence can be represented [C]= = = 0.7
V 1
as :
n x
 R + Me3SiCl → Me3Si – R + Cl  [D]= = = 0.7
V 1
This blocks the end of the silicon polymer and
[C]'[D]' 0.7 × 0.7 49
thus terminates the chain propagation. K=
C = = = 5.4 (approx)
[A]'[B]' 0.3 × 0.3 9
2Cl  → Cl2
κ × 1000
H3C 89. We know, Λm =
M
86. H3C O + HI → On putting values,
H3 C
H3C (4.95 × 10−5 ) × 1000
Λm =
0.001028
H 3C 2 –1
= 48.15 S cm mol
H 3C I + CH 3OH
Λom Λom(CH COONa) + Λom(HCl) − Λom(NaCl)
Now, =
3
H 3C
= 91.05 + 425.9 – 126.4
2 –1
Whenever one of the alkyl group is a tertiary = 390.55 S cm mol
group, the halide formed is a tertiary halide. Λm 48.15
=
α =
o
= 0.123
Λm 390.55

 E
 
NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS) 101
90. Hydration of Ethyne gives aldehyde but hydration 94. (P) Power = 1 mW = 10 watt
–3

of alkynes having more than 2 carbons gives

–3 –4
ketone. E = P × t = 10 × 0.1 = 10 J
λ = 1000 nm = 1000 × 10 m = 10 m
–9 –6
Lets assume, propyne as our alkyne.
We know,
2+ +
Hg /H
CH3 –C ≡CH + H–OH CH3 –C=CH 2
333 K
E = nhν
O–H
Here, E = Energy of n photons
Tautomerisation
n = number of photons
CH3 –C–CH3 hν = energy of 1 photon

O hc
10 = n ×
–4

Propan-2-one λ
91. Ellingham diagram provides an idea or gives a –4 n × (6.626 × 10−34 ) × (3 × 108 )
10 =
10−6
prediction about the feasibility of thermal
n= 5 × 1014 photons
reduction of an ore.
O
2 4
Ellingham diagram do not deal with the kinetics 5
1
95. 3
6
of a reduction reaction.
Longest parent chain is selected by giving lowest
92. Ketones are oxidised under vigorous conditions numbering to ketone.
IUPAC name – 4-methyl hex-3-en-2-one
i.e., strong oxidising agents and at elevated
96. Moles of gas is conserved
temperature. ntotal = nA + nB

Oxidation involves carbon-carbon cleavage to PV

Assuming gases as ideal, n =
RT
form mixture of carboxylic acids having less PV P V P V
= 1 1+ 2 2
RT RT RT
number of carbon atoms than parent ketone
P1V1 + P2 V2 1 × 250 + 2 × 500
(Jones Reagent)
=Ptotal =
1 2 3 CrO3,H2SO4
Vtotal 1000 ml
R–CH 2–C–CH 2–R High temp.
R–COOH + R–CH2 –COOH
O (By cleavage of C1 –C 2 bond) = 1.25 bar
97.
Cleavage of C2–C3 bond also gives same product.

93.
7 2
63 Eu = [Xe]4f 6s

2+
Eu is a strong reducing agent changing to

common +3 state.
1 1 2
58 Ce = [Xe] 4f 5d 6s

Ce(IV) is a strong oxidant.

4+ 3+
E° of Ce /Ce = 1.74 V

The E or of Ce suggests that it can oxidise water.

E 

102 NEET(UG) – 2022(OVERSEAS)
98. Cl → Weak field ligand (no pairing occurs)
–
100. We know, Arrhenius equation

H2O → Weak field ligand (no pairing occurs) Ea
nK = nA –
RT
CN → Strong field ligand (no pairing occurs)
–

Mn = [Ar]3d 4s
5 2 y = C + mx

3+
Mn = [Ar] 3d
4
no. of unpaired e = 4
– Ea
So, slope = – = –1×104 K
R
7 2
Co = [Ar]3d 4s
4
So, Ea = 10 R
2+ 7 –
Co = [Ar] 3d no. of unpaired e = 3
4
= 10 × 8.3
6 2
Fe = [Ar]3d 4s
4 –1
= 8.3 × 10 J mol
3+ 5
Fe = [Ar] 3d

On pairing
–
no. of unpaired e = 1

So, spin magnetic moment answer :

3− 2+ 3−
MnCl6  > Co(H2O)6  >  Fe(CN)6 

99. In case of semiconductor, the gap between

valence band and conduction band is small.

Therefore option (4) is incorrect as here it is

mentioned conduction band and valence bond

overlaps which happens in conductors actually.

 E