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KOSHTUBH SINGH PARIHAR | 2022—2027 | GMC Datia
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2017
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss the vascular Changes in Acute Inflammation.

b. Describe the Clinicopathological features of B thalassaemia.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Explain in short, the metastatic cascade.

b. What are the laboratory findings in a case of megaloblastic anaemia?
c. Describe the staining characteristics of Amyloid.
d. Define Embolism, Enumerates its types and complications.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Define chemotaxis.
b. Enumerate three infections which cause splenomegaly.
c. Enumerate three tests done in bleeding disorders.
d. Name three important tumour suppressor genes.
e. Name two blood components.
f. Name two main disorders of Haemoglobin.
g. Give two examples of Metaplasia.
h. Name any three oncogenic viruses.
i. Name three cytochemical stains used to type the Acute Leukaemia.
j. Which two essential phenomena distinguish reversible from irreversible injury.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2017
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. A 45 years male was admitted with profuse sweating dyspnoea and severe chest pain. On Examination BP was
low and pulse was thready.
1. What is the provisional diagnosis?
2. Which lab investigations will help in diagnosis?
3. What is etiopathogenesis of this condition?
4. What are the possible complications?

b. Describe the classification, etiopathogenesis and morphology of Bronchogenic Carcinoma?

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Renal lesions in diabetes mellitus.

b. Aschoff’s body.
c. Serological markers of hepatitis B.
d. Bronchiectasis

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. List two infected ulcers of the small intestine.

b. Enumerate four morphological types of emphysema.
c. What is Krukenberg tumour.
d. Mention two differences in Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome.
e. Enumerate risk factors for Atherosclerosis.
f. Give two causes of Cirrhosis
g. Enumerate stages of Lobar Pneumonia.
h. Write Histological features of Giant cell tumour.
i. What is Warthin’s tumour.
j. Name three infections associated with Splenomegaly.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (summer)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Write Etiopathogenesis of Neoplasia Discuss molecular basis of Neoplasia.

b. Describe cell injury. Discuss mechanism of cell injury.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Write on cellular event of Inflammation.

b. Classify Macrocytic Anaemia.
c. Discuss Etiopathogenesis of shock.
d. Write mechanism of macrophage activation

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Renal Oedema.
b. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
c. ESR.
d. TNF/L-I.
e. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
f. Stem cell
g. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.
h. MHC complex.
i. RB gene.
j. Amyloidosis
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (summer)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Describe etio-pathogenesis of colorectal carcinoma.

b. Laboratory diagnosis of Acute Myocardial Infarction.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Sequelae of Hepatitis B virus infection.

b. Diagnostic criteria of Diabetes Mellitus.
c. Differentiate between Primary and secondary pulmonary tuberculosis.
d. Differentiate between benign and malignant ulcer of the stomach.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Definition of Leucoplakia.
b. Enumerate complications of portal hypertension.
c. Spread of carcinoma breast.
d. Histopathological hallmark of Papillary carcinoma thyroid.
e. Major risk factors for atherosclerosis- enumerate.
f. Enumerate opportunistic infections in immuno-compromised host.
g. Enumerate types of Hodgkin's disease and their characteristic cell.
h. Spread of cervical carcinoma.
i. Enumerate causes of obstructive jaundice.
j. Enumerate bacteria causing pyogenic meningitis.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (winter)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Morphological and biochemical changes in apoptosis.

b. Causes and mechanism of fatty change liver.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Pathological calcification.
b. Cytokines in inflammation.
c. Differences between lepromatous (LL) and tuberculoid leprosy (TT).
d. Factors affecting wound healing.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Important causes of glycosuria.

b. Important causes of proteinuria.
c. Important causes of haematuria.
d. Important causes of ketonuria.
e. Types of giant cells.
f. Causes of hereditary haemolytic anaemia.
g. Important factors affecting thrombus formation
h. Important factors in wound healing
i. Carcinogenic agents
j. Genes involved in carcinogenesis
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (winter)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify and discuss etiopathogenesis of hepatitis.

b. Describe different types of cardiac vegetations.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. SABE.
b. Classify testicular tumours.
c. Carcinoid tumours.
d. Paraneoplastic syndrome

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Nephrotic syndrome.
b. ESR.
c. Atherosclerosis.
d. Rodent ulcer.
e. RPGN.
f. BPH.
g. Squamous pearl.
h. Malory hyaline bodies.
i. Bence Jones protein.
j. Endometrial hyperplasia.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (March)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Define Oedema, discuss pathophysiology in detail.

b. Describe Megaloblastic anaemia, discuss microscopic feature.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Thrombosis.
b. Vascular change in Inflammation.
c. Hereditary Spherocytosis.
d. Type I Hypersensitivity reaction.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. ESR.
b. Smudge cells
c. ALL
d. Role of Nitric Oxide in inflammation
e. Fat Necrosis
f. RB gene
g. HBsAg.
h. Cabot Ring
i. Infarct
j. C5a
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (march)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Define Nephrotic Syndrome. Discuss etiopathogenesis.

b. Discuss Etiopathogenesis of Pneumoconiosis.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Peptic Ulcer.
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Endometrial Hyperplasia.
d. Osteoclastoma.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Complication of atherosclerosis.
b. Biochemical marker of MI.
c. Types of Jaundice.
d. Minimal change disease.
e. Seminoma.
f. Follicular Neoplasm.
g. CSF finding in Viral meningitis.
h. Leiomyoma.
i. Duodenal Ulcer.
j. Insulin.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2020
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Describe the procs of wound healing by primary intention. what are the factors which influence wound healing?
b. Classify chemical carcinogens Discus the sequential steps in chemical carcinogenesis.
Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Hemochromatosis.
b. Mechanism of fatty change of liver.
c. Dystrophic calcification.
d. Turner's syndrome.
Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Teratoma.
b. Philadelphia chromosome.
c. Primary complex.
d. Megaloblast and normoblast.
e. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
f. Bombay blood group.
g. Frozen section
h. Coomb's test
i. Interferon
j. Neuroblastoma
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2020
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Define Inflammatory bowel disease Discus Ulcerative colitis under following heads Etiopathogenesis,
Morphology & clinical features.
b. Describe & classify Diabetes mellitus Discuss lab diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Describe Gastrointestinal Stromal tumours (GIS) under following headings - Pathogenesis & morphology.
b. Discuss bronchiectasis under following heads Definition, pathogenesis & morphology.
c. Classify nephrotic syndrome. Describe etiopathogenesis & lab findings.
d. Classify Tumours of Thyroid. Describe Papillary carcinoma Thyroid.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis.
b. Osteoporosis.
c. Meningioma.
d. Osteoclastoma.
e. Familial Polyposis syndrome.
f. Mallory body
g. Ewing's sarcoma
h. classification of Lung tumour.
i. Pneumoconiosis.
j. Amoebic liver abscess.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2021
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Define Chronic inflammation. Describe its etiopathogenesis in relation to Tuberculosis with special reference
to Granulomatous inflammation.
b. Define and classify Anaemia. Discuss in detail lab findings in a case of Iron deficiency
Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Classification of Hodgkin lymphoma.

b. Define Thrombosis. Discuss Pathophysiology and its clinical effects.
c. Discuss stem cells and its clinical significance.
d. Chronic myeloid leukaemia and its lab findings.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Types of Shock.
b. Turner syndrome.
c. Gaucher disease.
d. Enumerate Blood components used in Blood bank.
e. Functions of Platelets.
f. Define oedema.
g. Transudate vs Exudate.
h. Role of histamine in inflammation.
i. Define ischemia.
j. Paraneoplastic syndrome.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2021
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Describe morphological and laboratory findings of viral hepatitis.

b. Write on etiopathogenesis, clinical features and pathological changes in Rheumatic heart disease.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Tabulate differences between bronchopneumonia and & lobar pneumonia.

b. Differentiate between Nephritic & Nephrotic syndrome.
c. Differentiate between ulcerative colitis & Crohn disease.
d. Complications of diabetes.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Pleomorphic adenoma.
b. Microscopic features of fibroadenoma of breast.
c. Microscopic features of basal cell carcinoma.
d. Immature teratoma.
e. Microscopic features of papillary carcinoma of thyroid.
f. Giant cell tumour.
g. CSF changes in pyogenic meningitis.
h. What is leiomyosarcoma.
i. Complication of benign prostatic hyperplasia.
j. Name premalignant lesions of oral cavity.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2022 (main)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Define Thalassemia. enumerate its types. Describe beta thalassemia under following headings.
1) Pathogenesis.
2) Clinical features
3) Lab investigations
b. Define Thrombosis. Write pathogenesis, morphology and fate of thrombosis.
Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Haemophilia.

b. Pathophysiology of Chemical Mediators of inflammation.
c. Describe Gangrene, Enumerate its types and morphology with examples.
d. What is Metastasis? Enumerate the different pathway of metastasis.
e. Define Multiple myeloma. Write laboratory and other criteria of diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
f. Define shock describe the aetiopathogenesis of septic shock.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Bombay blood group.

b. Enumerate Peripheral blood finding in CML.
c. Human leukocyte antigen/Major histocompatibility complex.
d. Pathogenesis of Dystrophic calcification.
e. Enumerate four Opportunistic infections associated with AIDS.
f. Enumerate Types of necrosis with one example.
g. Enumerate Therapeutic uses of stem cells.
h. Enumerate Factors affecting wound healing and repair.
i. Enumerate Oncogenic viruses with examples.
j. Definitions of Hypertrophy and atrophy with examples.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2022 (main)
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Define Rheumatic fever. Discuss pathogenesis, morphological features, complications and laboratory
diagnosis of Rheumatic heart disease (RHD).
b. Define and classify Jaundice. Describe the role of laboratory in diagnosis of jaundice following infective
hepatitis.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Discuss morphology and clinical features of bronchiectasis.

b. Describe and classify Pneumonia. Discuss the morphology of Lobar pneumonia.
c. Difference between Crohn's disease and Ulcerative colitis
d. Etiopathogenesis and morphology of Atherosclerosis.
e. Enumerate Germ cell tumours of testes and discuss their morphological features.
f. Define Nephrotic Syndrome. Write its etio-pathogenesis.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Enumerate causes of Acute appendicitis.

b. Etiopathogenesis Celiac disease.
c. Enumerate Causes of splenomegaly.
d. Enumerate Risk factors of atherosclerosis.
e. Interpretation of Renal Function Tests.
f. Histopathological features of Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
g. Biochemical markers of Myocardial infarction.
h. Histopathological features of Papillary carcinoma of thyroid.
i. Enumerate 5 complications of Gallstone.
j. Enumerate merits and demerits of FNAC.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Caseous necrosis is hallmark of

(a) ischemia (b) fat necrosis (c) streptococcal infection (d) tuberculosis

2. Dystrophic calcification is seen in except

(a) caseous necrosis (b) fat necrosis (c) primary (d) atherosclerosis
hyperparathyroidism

3. The growth factor involved in angiogenesis is

(a) FGF (b) EGF (c) VEGF (d) PDGF

4. XO genotype is seen in
(a) turner’s syndrome (b) Klinefelter’s syndrome (c) Kartagener’s syndrome (d) down syndrome

5. Surface epithelial cells are

(a) labile cells (b) stable cells (c) ghost cells (d) permanent cells

6. During cell injury, intracellular compartment has

(a) increased calcium (b) increased sodium (c) decreased sodium (d) decreased calcium

7. In MI, the type of necrosis seen is

(a) caseous (b) gangrenous (c) liquefactive (d) coagulative

8. The process of engulfment of solid particle by cell is known as

(a) chemotaxis (b) pinocytosis (c) emigration (d) phagocytosis

9. The abundant collagenous stroma in neoplasia is referred to as

(a) parenchyma (b) desmoplasia (c) sarcoma (d) choristoma

10. On Congo red staining, Amyloid shows yellow green birefringence with
(a) polarized light (b) electron microscopy (c) X ray crystallography (d) fluorescent microscopy
microscopy
 11. Total iron binding capacity is increased in
(a) thalassemia (b) iron deficiency anemia (c) hemochromatosis (d) pernicious anemia

12. Following serological tests are routinely done on donor’s blood except
(a) VDRL test (b) HIV test (c) WIDAL test (d) HBsAg test

13. Person with Bombay blood group doesn’t have

(a) H antigen (b) D antigen (c) IgG (d) complement

14. The commonest cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia is

(a) thalassemia (b) megaloblastic anemia (c) iron deficiency anemia (d) sideroblastic anemia

15. Which of the following is an X linked disorder

(a) hereditary (b) G6PD deficiency (c) familial polyposis coli (d) adult polycystic kidney
spherocytosis

16. Which one of the following is not a malignant tumour

(a) melanoma (b) lymphoma (c) seminoma (d) papilloma

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Define Shock. Classify shock and discuss Septic shock under following headings
i. Pathogenesis
ii. Clinical features
b. What is Apoptosis? Describe pathogenesis in details with morphology.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Tumor suppressor genes

b. Free radicals
c. Differentiate between Transudate and Exudate.
d. Define chronic inflammation? Discuss granulomatous inflammation in context of Tuberculosis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Fat necrosis
b. Enumerate Autosomal dominant disorders
c. Enumerate causes of Megaloblastic anemia
d. Enumerate Transfusion transmitted infections
e. Different components of blood in blood banking
f. Routes of metastasis with examples
g. Define tumor markers
h. Enumerate causes of Neutrophilia
i. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor
j. Signs of inflammation
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Hepatitis associated with pregnancy complication

(a) hepatitis A (b) hepatitis C (c) hepatitis E (d) hepatitis B

2. Chronic hepatitis is caused by

(a) hepatis A (b) hepatitis B (c) hepatitis E (d) none

3. Grave’s disease
(a) hypothyroidism (b) hyperthyroidism (c) iodine deficiency (d) none

4. Psammoma body is seen in

(a) meningioma (b) follicular cancer thyroid (c) breast cancer (d) leiomyoma

5. M band is seen in
(a) MM (b) CML (c) AML (d) polycythemia vera

6. Diagnostic criteria of MM
(a) renal failure (b) bone lytic lesion (c) anemia (d) hypocalcemia

7. DIC is seen in
(a) M1 (b) M2 (c) M3 (d) M4

8. Origin of malignant melanoma

(a) ectoderm (b) endoderm (c) mesoderm (d) neuro-ectoderm

9. Type of renal cell carcinoma except

(a) clear cell carcinoma (b) chromophobe (c) papillary cell carcinoma (d) adenocarcinoma

10. CSF finding in bacterial meningitis

(a) glucose low (b) glucose high (c) protein low (d) none

11. BONUS

12. Paget disease is seen in

(a) breast (b) bone (c) both (d) none
 13. Pheochromocytoma origin
(a) adrenal gland medulla (b) pituitary (c) kidney (d) adrenal gland cortex

14. MALTOMA is seen in

(a) liver (b) lung (c) stomach (d) brain

15. In celiac disease

(a) mucosa atrophic (b) muscular hypertrophy (c) lymphocyte infiltration not seen (d) mucosal hypertrophy

16. Schiller Duval body is seen in

(a) seminoma (b) yolk sac tumor (c) choriocarcinoma (d) teratoma

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Inflammatory bowel disease with its complication.

b. Etiopathogenesis of RPGN. Draw diagram and also write course of disease.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Etiopathogenesis of Emphysema.
b. Etiopathogenesis of Lobar pneumonia.
c. Write FAB classification of leukemia. Write complication of AML M-3.
d. Etiopathogenesis of sickle cell anemia.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Write full form of MAL TOMA.

b. Draw diagram of tubercular granuloma.
c. Write difference between gastric & duodenal ulcer.
d. What is Pap smear & its use?
e. Types of Esophageal Atresia.
f. Morphological features of Hirsch sprung disease.
g. Full form of NASH.
h. Enumerate sites of Carcinoid tumor.
i. Enumerate complication of Pheochromocytoma.
j. Draw diagram of diabetic nephropathy (KW lesion)
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (new scheme) Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Systemic sign of acute inflammation EXCEPT

(a) leukocytosis (b) fever (c) rubor (d) loss of appetite

2. Serum transferrin
(a) anti-oxidant (b) iron storage form (c) both correct (d) both wrong

3. Fracture of bone causes

(a) air embolism (b) fat embolism (c) clot embolism (d) none

4. Example of type 3 hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT

(a) auto-immune hemolytic (b) serum sickness (c) poly-arteritis nodosa (d) SLE
reaction

5. Proto-oncogene
(a) P53 gene (b) RB gene (c) RAS gene (d) APC gene

6. Heart failure cells are seen in

(a) chronic venous (b) chronic venous (c) acute venous (d) acute venous
congestion of liver congestion of lung congestion of lung congestion of liver

7. FIGLU test is done for

(a) G6PD (b) folic acid deficiency (c) thalassemia (d) iron deficiency

8. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is seen in

(a) acute promyelocytic (b) acute lymphoblastic (c) auto-immune hemolytic (d) multiple myeloma
leukemia leukemia anemia

9. Abnormality of what is seen in hereditary spherocytosis

(a) alpha globin chain (b) beta globin chain (c) spectrin (d) phosphatidyl inositol

10. Reticulocytosis is seen in EXCEPT

(a) aplastic anemia (b) thalassemia (c) sickle cell anemia (d) hereditary
spherocytosis
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Chemical mediator of acute inflammation

b. Define apoptosis. Describe in detail about pathogenesis, types of apoptosis, morphological changes,
difference between apoptosis and necrosis

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Mechanism of P53 gene

b. Etiopathogenesis of tuberculosis
c. Type 1 hypersensitivity
d. Chemical carcinogenesis
e. Lab diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia
f. Multiple myeloma

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Types of pigments
b. Types of amyloidosis
c. Metastatic calcification
d. Types of necrosis with examples
e. Difference between benign and malignant tumors
f. Fate of thrombus
g. Special stains for amyloidosis
h. Peripheral smear findings in CML
i. Mention 4 crises seen in sickle cell anemia
j. Mention 4 blood components and one use of each
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. DIC is seen in
(a) M1 (b) M2 (c) M3 (d) M4

2. Part of chronic myeloproliferative disorder (CMPD), except

(a) CLL (b) polycythemia vera (c) CML (d) primary myelofibrosis

3. Not a hemoglobinopathy
(a) sickle cell anemia (b) alpha thalassemia (c) G6PD deficiency (d) beta thalassemia

4. C in “CRAB” in multiple myeloma indicate

(a) hypercalcemia (b) hypocalcemia (c) chronic renal failure (d) none

5. Common site of malignant melanoma

(a) eye (b) sole (c) palm (d) face

6. Origin of malignant melanoma

(a) ectoderm (b) endoderm (c) mesoderm (d) neuro-ectoderm

7. Type of renal cell carcinoma except

(a) clear cell carcinoma (b) chromophobe (c) papillary cell carcinoma (d) adenocarcinoma

8. CSF findings in bacterial meningitis

(a) glucose low (b) glucose high (c) protein low (d) none

9. True for small cell carcinoma except

(a) Azzopardi effect (b) hilar location (c) peripheral location (d) association with smoking

10. Most common salivary gland tumor

(a) mucoepidermoid carcinoma (b) adenocarcinoma (c) acinic cell carcinoma (d) squamous cell carcinoma
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Define COPD & Describe its types write etiopathogenesis of asthma.

b. Write etiopathogenesis and complication of Liver cirrhosis.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Write about Portal hypertension and its complications.

b. Write etiopathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease
c. Write etiopathogenesis of RPGN.
d. Write Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis -B
e. Types of endocarditis.
f. Etiopathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD)

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. What is MAL TOMA.

b. Write classification of Hodgkin's lymphoma.
c. Morphological features of Papillary cell carcinoma thyroid.
d. Enumerate types of thyroiditis.
e. Morphological features of Seminoma.
f. Enumerate changes in diabetic nephropathy.
g. Enumerate complication of Atheromatous plaque.
h. Enumerate complication of diabetes Mellitus.
i. Clinical findings of Pheochromocytoma.
j. Morphological features of Bullous disease of skin.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Following serological tests are routinely done on donor’s blood except

(a) VDRL (b) HIV (c) WIDAL (d) HBsAg

2. Dystrophic calcification is seen in except

(a) caseous necrosis (b) fat necrosis (c) primary (d) atherosclerosis
hyperparathyroidism

3. The growth factor involved in angiogenesis is

(a) FGF (b) EGF (c) VEGF (d) PDGF

4. On Congo red staining, amyloid shows yellow green birefringence with

(a) polarized light (b) electron microscopy (c) X-ray crystallography (d) Fluorescent microscopy
microscopy

5. CD-99 is for
(a) Ewing’s sarcoma (b) SLL (c) dermatofibrosarcoma (d) malignant fibroma
histiocytoma

6. Physiological hyperplasia and hypertrophy are seen simultaneously in

(a) uterus in pregnancy (b) skeletal muscle in (c) breast during lactation (d) thyroid gland during
athletes preganacy

7. The inheritance of neurofibromatosis is

(a) AD (b) AR (c) X linked recessive (d) X linked dominant

8. Platelet adhesion to collagen is via

(a) Factor VIII (b) Factor IX (c) vWF (d) fibronectin

9. Rh incompatibility is
(a) Type I hypersensitivity (b) Type II hypersensitivity (c) Type III hypersensitivity (d) Type IV hypersensitivity

10. Paternal 15th chromosome deletion is seen in

(a) Angelman syndrome (b) Prader-willi syndrome (c) Down syndrome (d) Turner syndrome

11. BRCA-1 gene is located on

(a) chromosome 13 (b) chromosome 11 (c) chromosome 17 (d) chromosome 22

12. Fibrin is degraded by

(a) plasminogen (b) thromboplastin (c) plasmin (d) elastase

13. Mantle cell lymphoma shows

(a) CD 5+, CD 25- (b) CD 5+, CD10+ (c) CD 5+, CD 23+ (d) CD 5+, CD 23-

14. Special stain for myeloblast is

(a) sudan black (b) PAS (c) myeloperoxidase (d) LAP

15. Person with Bombay blood group doesn’t have

(a) H antigen (b) D antigen (c) IgG (d) complement C3

16. Which of the following is not a malignant tumour

(a) melanoma (b) lymphoma (c) seminoma (d) papilloma

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Define Shock. Classify shock and discuss Septic shock under following headings
i. Pathogenesis
ii. Clinical features
b. Define anaemia with its classification. Describe the peripheral blood smear and bone marrow findings and list
of the laboratory investigation in iron deficiency anaemia.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Write short note in laboratory diagnosis of AIDS.

b. Enumerate Cell derived mediators of inflammation with their role.
c. Discuss in detail tumour suppressor genes
d. Define chronic inflammation? Discuss granulomatous inflammation in context of Tuberculosis

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Virchow's Triad
b. Fresh frozen plasma
c. Enumerate two Antibodies Found in SLE.
d. Karyotyping
e. Enumerate causes of Megaloblastic anaemia
f. Routes of metastasis with examples
g. Define tumour markers
h. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor
i. Fat necrosis
j. Enumerate Transfusion transmitted infections
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II(old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Small foci of calcification are frequently seen on x ray of the following glioma
(a) ependymoma (b) fat oligodendroglioma (c) astrocytoma (d) choroid plexus
papilloma

2. The most common histologic type of carcinoma of the oral cavity is

(a) adenocarcinoma (b) clear cell carcinoma (c) squamous cell (d) small cell
carcinoma undifferentiated
carcinoma

3. Higher incidence of lymphoma is seen in which of the following

(a) Grave’s disease (b) Hashimoto thyroiditis (c) nodular goiter (d) riedel’s thyroiditis

4. All are true about molluscum contagiosum except

(a) It is a self-limiting (b) It is caused by pox (c) molluscum bodies are (d) intracytoplasmic
contagious lesion. virus composed of keratin. inclusion bodies

5. Call exner bodies are seen in

(a) granulosa cell tumour (b) yolk sac tumour (c) thecoma (d) Sertoli-Leydig cell
tumour

6. An electrophoresis machine is used to

(a) separate DNA (b) separate blood (c) separate bone (d) separate muscle fibers
components components

7. A 19-year-old female presents with urticaria that developed after she took aspirin for a headache. She has
a history of chronic rhinitis. and physical examination reveals the presence of nasal polyps. This patient is
at an increased risk of developing which one of the following pulmonary diseases following the ingestion of
aspirin?
(a) Asthma (b) chronic bronchitis (c) emphysema (d) interstitial fibrosis

8. Histologic sections from a rapidly enlarged cervical lymph node in a 35-year-old female reveal a diffuse,
monotonous proliferation of small, noncleaved lymphocytes, which are forming a ""starry sky" appearance
because numerous tingible-body macrophages are present. A touch prep reveals that many of these cells
have cytoplasmic vacuoles, which would most likely react with
(a) myeloperoxidase (b) oil red O (c) Periodic acid Schiff (d) nonspecific esterase

9. Where are glomus tumours most commonly found

(a) head and neck (b) axilla and upper arms (c) fingers and toes (d) groin and upper thigh
 10. Source of pulmonary surfactant is
(a) alveolar macrophages (b) type I pneumocytes (c) type II pneumocytes (d) capillary endothelium

11. An 11-year-old boy presents with an enlarging, painful lesion that involves the medullary cavity of his left
femur. X-rays reveal an i1Tegular. destructive lesion that produces an "onionskin' periosteal reaction. The
lesion is resected surgically, and histologic sections reveal sheets of uniform, small, round and blue cells.
What is the correct diagnosis?
(a) chondroblastoma (b) Ewings sarcoma (c) fibrosarcoma (d) osteogenic sarcoma

12. The clinical effects of excess serum cortisol are referred to as

(a) addison’s disease (b) barter syndrome (c) conn syndrome (d) cushing syndrome

13. The combination of severe acute flank pain and microscopic hematuria is suggestive of
(a) cholelithiasis (b) urolithiasis (c) kidney tumour (d) urinary bladder tumour

14. HER2/neu over expression in breast cancer:

(a) is a good prognostic (b) patient responds to (c) responds to tamoxifen (d) is a serum marker for
marker radiation therapy carcinoma of breast

15. All true about CSF except

(a) normal cell count is 0- (b) meningioma cells are (c) CSF is ultrafiltrate of (d) leukemia cells maybe
4/ml frequently found in CSF plasma identified in CSF

16. Normal urine sample on microscopy shows all except

(a) epithelial cells (b) crystals (c) pus cells (d) RBCs

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Discuss the etiology, pathology, types, complications of the vegetations of heart

b. Write risk factors, pathogenesis, morphologic features and complications of peptic ulcer disease

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Differentiate between chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

b. Pathogenesis and complications of diabetes mellitus.
c. Crohn's disease
d. Discuss evolution of morphological features in a case of alcoholic liver disease

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Tumour marker used to monitor hydatidiform Mole.

b. Enumerate causes of Male infertility.
c. Risk factors in causation of gall bladder stones.
d. Enumerate 2 benign & 2 malignant salivary gland tumors.
e. What is Reid's Index.
f. Name components of tetralogy of Fallot.
g. Asbestosis
h. Aplastic anemia
i. Hepatitis C viral infection
j. What’s pap smear.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Bradykinin causes
(a) Vasoconstriction (b) Pain at the site of (c) bronchodilation (d) decreased vascular
inflammation permeability

2. Hemodialysis associated amyloid pattern

(a) AA (b) AL (c) beta-2-microglobulin (d) ATTR

3. Which is a marker for carcinoma

(a) cytokeratin (b) vimentin (c) calretinin (d) CD 45

4. Type of necrosis in pancreatitis

(a) fibrinoid (b) coagulative (c) fat (d) caseous

5. Which is an autosomal dominant disorder

(a) albinism (b) sickle cell anemia (c) thalassemia (d) hereditary
spherocytosis

6. MYC gene is
(a) protein kinase inhibitor (b) growth factor inhibitor (c) GTPase (d) transcription activator

7. Cryoprecipitate is source of all except

(a) Factor VIII (b) vWF (c) factor IX (d) Fibrinogen

8. Systemic sign of acute inflammation, except

(a) leukocytosis (b) fever (c) rubor (d) loss of appetite

9. Proto oncogene
(a) P53 (b) Rb (c) RAS (d) APC

10. DIC is seen in

(a) acute promyelocytic (b) acute lymphoblastic (c) autoimmune hemolytic (d) none
leukemia leukemia anemia
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Define inflammation. Describe the vascular and cellular changes in acute inflammation.
b. Define and classify leukemia and lab diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia with bone marrow findings and
special stains.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Difference between transudate and exudate.

b. Describe biochemical and molecular mechanisms of cell injury.
c. Define and enumerate hemolytic anemia.
d. A patient is suffering from dengue hemorrhagic fever, which blood component will you administer and why.
Also enumerate different types of blood components.
e. Write in detail mechanism of P53 gene.
f. Diagnostic criteria of essential thrombocytosis. Peripheral smear and bone marrow findings.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Lines of Zahn
b. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
c. FNAC
d. Down syndrome
e. Name four important disease associated with obesity
f. Hemophilia B
g. Write types of pigments
h. Mention special stains for amyloidosis
i. Mention crises seen in sickle cell anemia
j. Peripheral smear findings in chronic myeloid leukemia
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pathology
Paper- II (new scheme)
Time: 3:00 Hours Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. All of the following are features of complicated atheromatous plaque except:

(a) calcification (b) ulceration (c) thrombosis (d) gelatinous lesions

2. Development of Kernicterus is seen in Following Hereditary hyperbilirubinemia.

(a) gilbert syndrome (b) criggler-najjar syndrome (c) dubin johnson syndrome (d) rotor syndrome
type 1

3. Following are serum markers of RPGN except:

(a) serum C3 levels (b) anti GBM antibody (c) ANCA (d) AECA

4. Chocolate cyst of the ovary is

(a) hemorrhagic corpus (b) ruptured luteal cyst (c) endometriotic cyst (d) ruptured follicular cyst
luteum

5. Astrocytoma in children is commonly

(a) fibrillary (b) pilocytic (c) anaplastic (d) glioblastoma

6. Which of the following red cell abnormalities is most indicative of hemolysis?

(a) target cells (b) acanthocytes (c) schistocytes (d) basophilic stippling

7. Deletion of all four normal a-globin genes will most likely produce
(a) hydrops fetalis (b) alpha thalassemia minor (c) hemoglobin H disease (d) beta thalassemia minor

8. An abnormality that inhibits the normal functioning of the ATPase containing dynein arms of cilia is most likely to
produce
(a) asthma (b) bronchiectasis (c) emphysema (d) steatosis

9. Deletion of both Rb (retinoblastoma) genes in the same developing cell is most characteristically associated with the
development of
(a) subluxed lens (b) yellow sclera (c) no iris (d) white pupil

10. Treatment with steroids would most likely produce a beneficial response in a young child with
(a) acute cystitis (b) acute pyelonephritis (c) focal segmental (d) minimal change disease
glomerulonephritis
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Define COPD & Describe its types write etiopathogenesis of asthma.

b. Define cirrhosis. Describe in detail its etiopathogenesis, morphological & etiological classification and
complications.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Differentiate between autosomal dominant (adult) polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) and autosomal
recessive (infantile) polycystic kidney disease. (ARPKD)
b. A 75-year-old man admitted to hospital with complaints of high-grade fever, chills, breathlessness and
productive cough for 3 days. Chest X ray shows right lower lobe consolidation.
1. What is your differential diagnosis
2. How will you investigate this case
3. What would be the complications
c. Differences between ulcerative colitis and crohn’s disease
d. Define and classify pneumoconiosis. Discuss etiopathogenesis, gross and microscopic findings in coal
workers pneumoconiosis.
e. Classify different types of meningitis
f. Write pathogenesis of complications of diabetes mellitus

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Aschoff nodules/Bodies.
b. Ameloblastoma
c. Cryptorchidism.
d. Enumerate I) pes of thyroid tumours.
e. Cardiac troponins.
f. Berry aneurysm
g. Pap smear.
h. Site of Ewing sarcoma.
i. What is hydatid cyst?
j. Immunology of diabetes mellitus
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. CD-95 is a marker of
(a) death receptor (b) MHC complex (c) T helper cells (d) NK cells

2. Major fibril protein in primary amyloidosis

(a) AA (b) AL (c) transthyretin (d) procalcitonin

3. Which is a feature of reversible cell injury

(a) nuclear fragmentation (b) loss of membrane integrity (c) increased lysosomal enzyme (d) cellular swelling
release

4. Osmotic fragility is increased in

(a) Sickle cell anemia (b) thalassemia (c) hereditary spherocytosis (d) chronic lead poisoning

5. The strain used for demonstration of reticulocyte is

(a) wright stain (b) brilliant cresyl blue (c) alcian blue (d) giemsa stain

6. What is the primary effect of ROS on cellular components

(a) decreased lipid peroxidation (b) increased protein synthesis (c) oxidative damage to DNA (d) enhance membrane stability

7. HLA-B27 is associated with

(a) ankylosing spondylitis (b) rheumatoid arthritis (c) chronic active hepatitis (d) diabetes

8. What is not associated with DIC

(a) thrombocytopenia (b) increased PT (c) hyperfibrinogenemia (d) increased FDP

9. Cloud swelling is due to

(a) accumulation of water (b) fat accumulation intracellularly (c) lysosome degeneration (d) glycogen accumulation
intracellularly intracellularly

10. What is the hallmark of acute inflammation

(a) fibrosis (b) neutrophilic infiltration (c) angiogenesis (d) collagen deposition
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. 58-year-old female met with a road accident, she had multiple fractures which were operated upon and reduced and
fixed. On 5th post operative day, she developed gram negative septicemia. A day later she went into shock.
i. What type of shock would you classify this as?
ii. Discuss in detail, pathogenesis of this shock
iii. Classify shock
iv. Discuss management and complications of shock

b. A 2-year-old male child admitted to hospital with complaints of fever, weakness and bleeding. His CBC shows [Hb =
7.5gm%, TLC = 150000/mm3, DLC: Neutrophil = 2% Lymphocyte = 3% Blast cells = 95% Platelets = 4200/mm3] blasts show
high N:C ratio, large round nuclei with scanty basophilic cytoplasm containing rod shaped granules
i. What is your probable diagnosis?
ii. Classify the condition
iii. Draw labeled diagram of peripheral smear and bone marrow findings
iv. Discuss prognosis of condition

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Discuss pathogenesis & draw labelled diagram (Peripheral smear) of megaloblastic anaemia
b. Why P53 gene is known as Guardian of Genome?
c. What are different morphological patterns of tissue necrosis?
d. Name the different types of Antibodies which is present in patient of Systemic lupus erythematosus
e. Discuss role of Complement system in inflammation.
f. What is empathy, what is the role of empathy in patient care?

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate different stains used in amyloidosis

b. Draw labelled diagram of blood peripheral smear of iron deficiency anemia
c. What are the components of Virchow’s triad
d. Fat necrosis
e. Name different types of cellular adaptation
f. Draw a well labelled diagram of tubercular granuloma
g. Usefulness of tumour markers
h. M proteins
i. Rachitic rosary
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Medullary carcinoma in Thyroid is associated with increase in

(a) Calcitonin (b) Thyroglobulin (c) T3 (d) T4

2. Most common germ cell tumor of ovary is

(a) Dysgerminoma (b) Benign teratoma (c) Immature (d) Endodermal
teratoma sinus tumor

3. Most common soft tissue sarcoma is

(a) Fibrosarcoma (b) (c) Liposarcoma (d) Malignant
Rhabdomyosarcoma fibrous
histiocytoma

4. Bronchogenic Carcinoma has increased incidence in the following Pneumoconiosis

(a) Coal Worker (b) Silicosis (c) Asbestosis (d) Berylliosis
Pneumoconiosis

5. Macronodular cirrhosis is considered once nodule diameter is greater than -

(a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 4 mm

6. The most frequent form of primary glomerular disease in children is:

(a) Minimal (b) Acute (c) (d) Membranous
change disease glomerulonephritis Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
glomerulonephritis

7. Dystrophic calcification is seen in

(a) Rheumatic heart (b) Renal (c) Atheroma (d) Milk Alkali
disease Osteodystrophy Syndrome

8. Neuroendocrine lesion of lung is

(a) Carcinoid tumor (b) Alveolar (c) Hamartoma (d) Asthma
carcinoma

9. Tamm-Horsfall protein is produced by

(a) Ureter (b) Collecting duct (c) Loop of Henle (d) Distal tubule

10. Microdeletion lead to instability of DNA, causing the cell to undergo degeneration is seen as marker in which
cancer?
(a) Colon Cancer (b) Breast cancer (c) Small cell lung (d) Melanoma
cancer
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 12 Years old girl was brought with complaints of fever and joint pains of 5 days duration. She had pain and
swelling of left knee and also had a history of sore throat 3 weeks ago. On examination patient have
tachycardia and apical pansystolic murmur. (2+7+7+5)
I. What is your probable diagnosis?
II. Describe the etiopathogenesis of above condition.
III. Write about the cardiac lesion and lab findings seen in this case?
IV. List the complications of this Disease.

b. A 50 years old male presents to General Surgery Outpatient with complaints of gross painless hematuria and
pain in right flank. There is also history of loss of 10 kg weight in the last 6 months. On physical examination, a
right-sided flank mass is palpable on bi-manual examination.
I. What is the probable diagnosis?
II. Discuss the clinical correlation with pathogenesis of the features.
III. How will you investigate and confirm the diagnosis?

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. CIN
b. List the causes of nephrotic syndrome with its pathophysiology.
c. Write down about pathogenesis underlying Diabetes with its complication?
d. Describe the gross and microscopic findings in patient with lobar pneumonia with likely complication.
e. Describe the contrasting features of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease.
f. How do you investigate a case of Myocardial Infarction?

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Asbestos bodies.
b. Seminoma.
c. Carcinoid syndrome.
d. Goodpasture syndrome.
e. Enumerate four gross and microscopic findings of bronchiectasis.
f. Write four differences between typhoid ulcer and tubercular ulcer of intestine.
g. Write four differences between unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.
h. Enumerate four liver function tests.
i. Enumerate four gross and microscopic findings of leiomyoma of uterus.
j. Enumerate four CSF findings of tubercular meningitis.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Caseation necrosis occurs in

(a) Infective hepatitis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Amoebiasis (d) Glomerulonephritis

2. Eosinophilia occurs in
(a) Viral infections (b) Fungal infections (c) Acute pyogenic (d) Parasitic infections
infections

3. Healing by first intention requires

(a) Clean wounds (b) Minimal loss of tissue (c) No foreign bodies (d) All of the above

4. All of the following are mediators of inflammation except-

(a) Tumor necrosis factor- (b) Interleukin-1 (c) Myeloperoxidase (d) Prostaglandin
alpha

5. Vasoactive amine involved in inflammation is -

(a) Histamine (b) Rennin (c) Angiotensin (d) Endothelin

6. Zeihl Neelsen stain detects-

(a) Gram negative bacilli (b) Gram positive bacilli (c) Acid fast bacilli (d) Gram positive cocci

7. Factor VIII deficiency causes-

(a) Hemophilia A (b) Hemophilia B (c) Hemophilia c (d) Hemophilia D

8. Iron absorption is increased by -

(a) Phytates (b) Tannates (c) Plant food (d) Ascorbic acid

9. True about apoptosis are all except-

(a) Inflammation is present (b) Chromosomal (c) Clumping of chromatin (d) Cell shrinkage
breakage

10. Morphologic changes in necrosis include

(a) Damage of cell (b) Pyknosis (c) Karyorrhexis (d) All of the above
membrane
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 20-year-old girl complains of weakness, easy fatigability and breathlessness of 6 months duration. She also
complains of heavy menstrual bleeding every month. On examination, she is pale and has spoon shaped
brittle nails and cheilosis.

I. What is provisional diagnosis?

II. Discuss its etiopathogenesis.
III. Describe the peripheral and bone marrow findings.
IV. Describe laboratory investigation.

b. A 55year old male patient presents with progressive fatigue, weight loss and edema in legs. Laboratory tests
reveal elevated levels of protein in urine, Congo red was used to diagnose it in abdominal fat aspirates.
Deposits in spleen show sago spleen and lardaceous spleen. On physical examination, he has hepatomegaly
and macroglossia.

I. Identify the clinical condition

II. What are its types and classification?
III. What is its pathogenesis
IV. Systemic features on different organs

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Define inflammation. Describe the vascular changes in acute inflammation.

b. Define necrosis. Describe its types with suitable examples
c. Define and describe the pathogenesis of AIDS.
d. Difference between metastatic and dystrophic calcification
e. Define hypersensitivity reaction and its different types, with 1 example each
f. Define shock with pathogenesis of septic shock.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Virchow's triad
b. Paraneoplastic syndrome
c. Embolism
d. Pancytopenia
e. Enumerate giant cell
f. Difference between intravascular and extravascular hemolysis
g. Enumerate factors that influences tissue repair
h. Enumerate 4 microscopic findings of granuloma
i. Write differences between myeloblasts and lymphoblasts
j. Causes of chronic granulomatous inflammation
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination August-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which virus is not transmitted parenterally -

(a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis C (c) Hepatitis G (d) Hepatitis E

2. In which condition are Aschoff bodies seen -

(a) Rheumatoid arthritis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Rheumatic heart (d) Sarcoidosis
disease

3. Which of the following is the most common primary site for bone metastasis -
(a) Prostate (b) Breast (c) Lung (d) Kidney

4. Most Common type of Renal stone is -

(a) Calcium Oxalate (b) Uric acid (c) Phosphate (d) Cystine

5. In which of the following conditions is Reed-Sternberg cells seen -

(a) Non-Hodgkin (b) Hodgkin lymphoma (c) Chronic lymphocytic (d) Multiple myeloma
lymphoma leukemia

6. The most common primary sites for the origin of Paget's disease is -
(a) Nipple (b) Anal canal (c) Liver (d) Penis

7. Diabetes Insipidus is -
(a) Excess ADH (b) Excess cortisol (c) Decrease Cortisol (d) Decreased ACTH

8. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by -

(a) Inflammation of the (b) Chronic inflammation (c) Autoimmune disorder (d) Malabsorption
small intestine of the colon affecting the esophagus syndrome

9. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that affects the -

(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Peripheral nerves (d) Muscles

10. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children is -

(a) RPGN (b) PSGN (c) Minimal change disease (d) Focal GN
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 68-year-old man complains of cramping abdominal pain, recent change in bowel habits and significant
weight loss. Hematological investigations show microcytic hypochromic anemia. Colonoscopy reveals a
circumferential growth in the sigmoid colon.

I. What is the diagnosis in this case? (5marks)

II. Discuss briefly the etiopathogenesis of this condition. (5marks)
III. Describe the morphology of this condition. (5marks)
IV. Premalignant condition associated with this disease. (5marks)

b. A middle-aged known smoker presented with persistent cough with expectoration and evening raise in
temperature in the last two weeks. Chest x ray identified consolidation in the lower portion of the upper lobe
of right lung. Hilar lymphadenopathy was noted. Sputum examination detected acid fast bacilli.

I. What is the most probable diagnosis? (5marks)

II. Discuss briefly the etiopathogenesis of this condition. (5marks)
III. Describe the gross and microscopic findings. (5marks)
IV. Describe two complications. (5marks)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. What are the common causes of anemia, and how are they classified based on their morphology and
etiology?
b. Discuss the diagnostic pathologic criteria of rheumatic heart disease.
c. How does pneumonia lead to consolidation?
d. Discuss the renal changes in diabetes mellitus.
e. Mention four important differences between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis.
f. Enumerate the CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Wilms Tumor.
b. What is peptic ulcer.
c. Describe bronchitis.
d. Carcinoid tumor.
e. Paraneoplastic Syndrome.
f. Write the gene involved in retinoblastoma.
g. Enlist histopathological features of Papillary of Carcinoma thyroid.
h. Mention four causes of Congenital Hyperbilirubinemia.
i. Polyps of intestine.
j. Basal cell carcinoma.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. The anticoagulant of choice for performing coagulation studies is:

(a) EDTA (b) Heparin (c) Trisodium citrate (d) Double oxalate

2. All of the following findings are seen in DIC except:

(a) Prolonged PT and APTT (b) Thrombocytopenia (c) Raised plasma (d) Presence of fibrin
fibrinogen levels degradation products

3. Malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell origin is known as:

(a) Sarcoma (b) Papilloma (c) Carcinoma (d) Adenoma

4. Good Prognosis of ALL:

(a) Hyperdiploidy (b) Hypodiploidy (c) T-cell line (d) Philadelphia
Chromosome

5. Pigments involved in free radical injury:

(a) Lipofuscin (b) Melanin (c) Bilirubin (d) Hematin

6. In Hemodialysis associated amyloidosis, the biochemical type of amyloid is:

(a) AL type (b) AA type (c) A-Beta 2M (d) ATTR

7. What is the chromosomal translocation in AML M3:

(a) T(18,21) (b) T(15,17) (c) T(8,21) (d) T(9,11)

8. UV-radiation:
(a) Prevent formation of (b) Stimulate formation of (c) Purine dimers (d) None
pyrimidine dimers pyrimidine dimers

9. Mallory bodies contain:

(a) Vimentin (b) Cytokeratins (c) Keratins (d) Collagens

10. Lead poisoning causes the following except:

(a) Uroporphyrinuria (b) Sideroblastic Anemia (c) Basophilic Stippling (d) Macrocytic Anemia
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 62-year-old woman presented with Anaemia, mild jaundice, Glossitis, Peripheral Neuropathy, anorexia and
weight loss. Her laboratory findings are: Hb 8gm/dl, TRBC count 2.4 million/cumm, MCV120fl, MCH54pg,
MCHC25g/dl.

I. What is the most likely diagnosis?

II. What are the possible causes?
III. Write morphological findings in peripheral smear and bone marrow.
IV. What other investigations required in this case?

b. A 55-year-old male patient presents with progressive fatigue, weight loss and edema in legs. Laboratory tests
reveal elevated levels of protein in urine, Congo red was used to diagnose it in abdominal fat aspirates.
Deposits in spleen show sago spleen and lardaceous spleen. On physical examination he has hepatomegaly
and macroglossia.

I. Identify the clinical condition

II. What are its types and classification?
III. What is its pathogenesis
IV. Systemic features on different organs

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Paraneoplastic syndrome
b. Diagnostic criteria of Multiple myeloma.
c. Hemophilia
d. Role of compliments in inflammation.
e. Define hypersensitivity reaction. Write in detail about Type-I hypersensitivity reactions.
f. Blood Transfusion reactions.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Draw a labelled diagram of peripheral blood smear in iron deficiency anemia.

b. Leukemoid Reaction.
c. Vitamin C.
d. Tumor Markers.
e. Enumerate childhood round cell tumor.
f. Turner’s syndrome.
g. Bence-jones proteins.
h. Virchow's triad
i. Embolism
j. Difference between intravascular and extravascular hemolysis.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which virus is not transmitted parenterally?

(a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis C (c) Hepatitis G (d) Hepatitis E

2. In which condition are Aschoff bodies seen?

(a) Rheumatoid arthritis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Rheumatic heart (d) Sarcoidosis
disease

3. The most common primary site for the origin of Paget's disease is:
(a) Nipple (b) Anal canal (c) Liver (d) Penis

4. Which of the following is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?

(a) Hypertension (b) Coronary artery (c) Aortic stenosis (d) Pulmonary embolism
thrombosis

5. In which of the following conditions are Reed-Sternberg cells seen?

(a) Non-Hodgkin (b) Hodgkin lymphoma (c) Chronic lymphocytic (d) Multiple myeloma
lymphoma leukemia

6. Hypothyroidism is associated with all of the following except:

(a) Cretinism (b) Autism (c) Cold intolerance (d) Weight gain

7. Not a germ cell tumor:

(a) Seminoma (b) Yolk sac tumor (c) PNET (d) Dysgerminoma

8. Tamm-Horsfall protein is produced by:

(a) Distal tubules (b) Ureter (c) Loop of Henle (d) Collecting duct

9. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that affects the:

(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Peripheral nerves (d) Muscles

10. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children is:

(a) RPGN (b) PSGN (c) Minimal change disease (d) Focal GN
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 52-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is hard,
irregular, and fixed to the underlying tissue. There are palpable axillary lymph nodes. A mammogram shows a
mass with micro calcifications. A biopsy is performed.

I. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most likely histological diagnosis? (05
Mark)
II. What are the key prognostic factors for breast carcinoma? (05 Mark)
III. Describe the significance of immune histochemical staining in the diagnosis and prognosis of breast
carcinoma. (05 Mark)
IV. What are the histological features of Paget's disease of the breast? (05 Mark)

b. A middle-aged known smoker presented with persistent cough with expectoration and evening raise in
temperature in the past two weeks. Chest x ray identified consolidation in the lower portion of the upper lobe
of right lung. Hilar lymphadenopathy was noted. Sputum examination detected acid fast bacilli.

I. What is the most probable diagnosis? (5marks)

II. Discuss the pathogenesis. (5marks)
III. Describe the gross and microscopic findings (5 marks)
IV. Mention two complications (5marks)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. What are the common causes of anemia, and how are they classified based on their morphology and
etiology?
b. Discuss the diagnostic pathologic criteria of rheumatic heart disease
c. Enumerate the CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis
d. Describe in detail about melanoma?
e. How does hypertension lead to left ventricular hypertrophy?
f. Enlist the Classification of ovarian tumors

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Describe various types of giant cells?

b. Paraneoplastic Syndrome
c. Enlist histopathological features of Papillary of Carcinoma thyroid
d. Explain the characteristic renal histopathological finding in diabetic nephropathy and its clinical significance.
e. Mention four causes of Congenital Hyperbilirubinemia
f. Write the gene involved in retinoblastoma?
g. Enumerate HPV associated malignancies
h. Write all the parameters of complete blood count report (CBC)?
i. Write the battery of test for viral hepatitis?
j. Wilms Tumor
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2017
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss the Morphology, cultural characters and pathogenicity of Mycobacterium leprae. Add
a note on laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.

b. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of typhoid fever.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Alpha haemolytic streptococci

b. Pathogenicity of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Lymphogranuloma venereum
d. Autoclave

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Give two examples of transport media

b. Define sterilization
c. What is the role of bacterial pili
d. Name two capsulated bacteria
e. Enumerate the positive biochemical reactions of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
f. Enumerate complications of gonorrhoea.
g. What is the use of formaldehyde in sterilization
h. numerate the bacteria causing urinary tract infection.
i. Enumerate the bacteria causing meningitis.
j. Give two examples of Zoonotic bacterial diseases.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2017
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate four blood sucking arthropods which transmit parasitic infections. Briefly write
about laboratory diagnosis of Kala azar.

b. Define hypersensitivity. Enumerate various types of hypersensitivity reactions. Write in brief

about systemic type of Type l hypersensitivity reactions.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Strategies of HIV testing.

b. Hepatitis D virus
c. Laboratory diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningitis
d. Rhinosporidiosis

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Define Arboviruses. Give two examples.

b. Give two microscopic differences between Microsporum and Epidermophyton.
c. Define viviparous parasite and give one example.
d. Give two examples of humoral immunodeficiencies.
e. Tabulate two differences between T and B cells
f. What do you understand by cytopathic effects.
g. Define dimorphic fungi. Give one example.
h. Draw a well labelled diagram of trophozoite of Giardia lamblia
i. Name two methods of detecting viral growth in tissue cell lines.
j. Enumerate three important complications of Plasmodium falciparum infection
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Summer)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss the morphology, cultural characteristics and pathogenicity of Vibrio cholerae. Add a
note on laboratory diagnosis of cholera.

b. Discuss the morphology, transmission and pathogenicity of clostridium tetani. Add a note on
prevention of tetanus.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Pathogenicity of Chlamydia trachomatis

b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Nongonococcal urethritis
d. Diarrhoeagenic E.coli

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Enumerate complications of diphtheria

b. Enumerate the disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus
c. Enumerate a haemolytic streptococci and diseases caused by them
d. Enumerate important biochemical characters of Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Classify atypical mycobacteria
f. Tyndallisation
g. Make a well labelled diagram to show structure of bacterial cell
h. Enumerate causative agents of non-venereal syphilis
i. Enumerate 3 important transport media with their uses.
j. Important differences between exotoxins and endotoxins.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Summer)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Complication of P. falciparum infection.

b. Agglutination reactions.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Laboratory diagnosis of Kala Azar.

b. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV/AIDS.
c. Mycetoma.
d. Bacteriophage.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Complications of roundworm infection.

b. Characteristics of HSV-2.
c. Resistance of polio virus.
d. Antigenic stuff and drift.
e. Pathogenesis of hepatitis E virus.
f. Natural killer cell.
g. Secondary immune response.
h. 2 tests for detection of cell mediated immunity (CMI).
i. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
j. Prions.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Winter)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate the methods of gene transfer and discuss the mechanisms of drug resistance in
bacteria.

b. Classify Rickettsiaceae. Write in detail about pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of typhus fever.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Type IV hypersensitivity.
b. Hot air oven.
c. Lepromin test.
d. Monoclonal antibodies.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Satellitism.
b. Name four bacterial zoonotic infections.
c. Oxidase test.
d. Koch's postulates.
e. Name Three live bacterial vaccines.
f. Diagram of Immunoglobulin.
g. Name Three Heterophile Antigen-Antibody reaction.
h. Name the HACEK group of bacteria.
i. What is Bile solubility test? Describe its principle.
j. Name four bacteria causing food poisoning.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Winter)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Write in brief the morphology, life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Echinococcus
granulosus.

b. Define and classify immunity. Write in brief the various mechanisms of innate
immunity.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

c. Laboratory monitoring of HIV infection.

d. Mono clonal antibodies.
e. Candida albicans.
f. Laboratory diagnosis of intestinal amoebiasis.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. What do understand by Street Virus?

b. What is the scientific basis of polio eradication by Pulse Polio Immunization Programme?
c. Tabulate two differences between Rhizopus and mucor.
d. Draw neat and well labelled diagram of Mature cyst of Giardia lamblia.
e. Name one virus each wherein you find the following inclusion bodies -
I. Guarnieri Bodies.
II. Cowdry type -B
f. Give two differences between antigenic shift and drift.
g. Name two applications of HLA typing.
h. Name the infective stage or Plasmodium vivax and Schistosoma haematobium.
i. Name two parasites which complete their life cycle using two intermediate hosts
j. What is a Tzanck smear. Give its utility
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (Summer)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss the morphology, cultural characteristics & pathogenicity of Vibrio cholerae. Add a
note on laboratory diagnosis of cholera.

b. Discuss the morphology, cultural characters & pathogenicity of Clostridium tetani.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. What are the properties of ideal disinfectants? Write five common disinfectants with their
mode of action.
b. Enumerate diseases caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of these
diseases.
c. Pathogenicity of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Newer diagnostic techniques for diagnosis of tuberculosis.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Define healthcare associated infections.

b. Enumerate anaerobic culture methods.
c. Enumerate examples of oxidase positive bacteria
d. Classify environmental (atypical) Mycobacteria.
e. Enumerate diseases caused by Viridians group of Streptococci.
f. Name the experimental animals used to propagate Mycobacterium leprae.
g. Name the virulence factors of Proteus mirabilis
h. Enumerate eye infections of Chlamydia trachomatis.
i. Name the diseases produced by Haemophilus influenzae.
j. Enumerate milk borne bacterial diseases.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (March)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss the morphology ,transmission & pathogenicity of Human immunodeficiency virus.

Comment on immunopathology of AIDS.

b. Discus the morphology, life cycle & pathogenicity of Toxoplasma gondi. Add a note on
Toxoplasmosis.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

c. Discus heterophile agglutination reaction with suitable examples.

d. Rabies prophylaxis.
e. Pathogenesis of malignant tertian malaria.
f. Laboratory diagnosis of infections caused by dermatophytes.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Enumerate geohelminths.
b. Classify Herpesviruses.
c. Name vector of JBEV.
d. Enumerate oncogenic viruses.
e. Make a well labelled diagram to show structure of influenza virus.
f. Make a well labelled diagram to show structure of Microfilaria.
g. Name the causative organisms of small pox, chicken pox & swine flu.
h. Enumerate diseases caused by Cryptosporidium parvum.
i. Enumerate complications of HBV infections.
j. Make a well labelled diagram to show structure of Hydatid cyst.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (Winter)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss the Morphology & Pathogenicity of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Add a note on

Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis

b. Discuss the Morphology. Culture characteristics & laboratory diagnosis of Salmonella typhi.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Enumerate various methods of gene transfer. Discuss any one of them in detail
b. Write down the toxins & enzymes of Staphylococcus aureus.
c. Describe in brief the VDRL TEST
d. Segregation of biomedical waste.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Name any two natural water bacteria.

b. Name any two modes of transmission of Nosocomial pathogens.
c. Enumerate any four causative bacteria of Meningitis.
d. Enumerate the methods of demonstration of Capsule.
e. Enumerate the nonsporting anaerobic gram negative bacilli
f. Name the causative bacteria of food poisoning
g. Name any two virulence factors of Pneumococcus
h. Give examples of zoonotic disease.
i. pigments produced by pseudomonas species.
j. two chemicals used in Cold sterilization.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (September)
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify different Hepatitis viruses Write Laboratory diagnosis & Prophylaxis

of infections caused by Hepatitis B virus.

b. Describe the morphology. Life cycle & Laboratory diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

c. Write in short about Laboratory diagnosis of Amoebic infection.

d. Classify Candida species Write a note on Candidiasis
e. Short note on Prophylaxis against poliomyelitis.
f. Principle & Application of ELISA in clinical microbiology.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Make a well labelled diagram to show structure of Giardia Lamblia.

b. Enumerate complication of Falciparum malaria.
c. What factors help in eradication of small pox.
d. What is inclusion bodies? Give any 2 examples.
e. Enumerate the disease caused by Cytomegalovirus.
f. Enumerate the virus which produce eye infections.
g. Name 4 intestinal Nematodes.
h. What is the deference between aerial k vegetative hyphae.
i. Draw a well labelled diagram of lg G Immunoglobulin.
j. Name the causative organism of Chicago disease & Farmer's Lung diseases.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2020
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify Mycobacteria. Describe in brief about laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.

Add a note on recent advances in laboratory diagnosis.

b. Name two organisms causing sore throat and discuss in detail about the laboratory diagnosis
of diphtheria.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity.

b. Laboratory diagnosis of Salmonella Typhi.
c. Anaerobic culture methods.
d. Bacterial Flagella.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Enumerate two zoonotic bacterial diseases.

b. What is Satellitism? Name the organism producing it.
c. Enumerate two capsulated bacteria.
d. What is Target haemolysis? Mention the organism producing it.
e. Mention the temperature and holding period during Inspissation.
f. Enumerate two tests used for determining efficacy of disinfectants.
g. Mention two contributions of Robert Koch
h. Enumerate two organisms causing urinary tract infection.
i. Enumerate two organisms causing atypical pneumoniae
j. Mention two standard tests for syphilis.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2020
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate tie opportunistic infections in AlDS. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis of

HIV infections.

b. Classify tissue nematodes Describe in brief pathogenesis ad laboratory diagnosis of

Bancroftian filariasis.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Monoclonal antibodies.
b. Novel Corona virus.
c. Laboratory diagnoses of Dermatophytosis.
d. Cryptospodiosis.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. What is Cassoni’s test? Mention the infections in which it is carried out.

b. Define inclusion bodies. Give its one example.
c. Name four determinants of Antigenicity.
d. Enumerate two dimorphic fungi and the diseases produced by them.
e. Enumerate two organisms causing Mycetoma.
f. Enumerate two parasite causing CNS infection.
g. Define super antigen? Give one example of it.
h. Mention two infections caused by Epstein - Barr Virus.
i. Name four Arboviral infections prevalent in India.
j. Give two examples of Agglutination tests.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2021
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify various methods of Sterilization with suitable examples.

b. Describe the morphology, pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of diphtheria.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera

b. Laboratory diagnosis of Syphilis.
c. Bacterial Flagella
d. Koch's postulates.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. What is Nosocomial infection?

b. Pili
c. Define Mutation
d. Catalase test
e. Define Disinfectant
f. Pneumococcal vaccine
g. Rat bite fever
h. BCG vaccines
i. Transposon
j. anthrecoid bacilli.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2021
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify herpesviruses. Discuss pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Varicella zoster virus.

b. Classify somatic nematodes. Describe the life cycle, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of
Wuchereria bancrofti.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Complications of plasmodium falciparum.

b. Pneumocystis jiroveci.
c. Hepatitis E virus.
d. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Give two examples of live attenuated vaccines used for viral diseases.
b. Define herd immunity.
c. Enumerate important biological functions mediated by the complement.
d. Heterophile agglutination reactions.
e. Null cells.
f. Draw well labelled diagram of Influenza viruses.
g. Germ tube test.
h. Draw a well labelled diagram of trophozoite of trichomonas vaginalis.
i. Enumerate important pathogenic viviparous helminths
j. Draw a well labelled diagram of life cycle of ascaris lumbricoides.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2022
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate different types of nucleic acid amplification techniques used in diagnostic

microbiology. Discuss principle and applications of PCR.

b. A 22 years old girl was admitted to hospital with history of fever with pattern of step ladder,
headache and abdominal discomfort for last 55 days. On examination, she was having fever
102°F, tongue was coated and her pulse rate was 96/mt. she also had mild splenomegaly. With
this history answer the following questions.
I. What is your clinical diagnosis?
II. Which organisms are responsible for this type of infection?
III. Describe the pathogenesis of this condition.
IV. Describe sample collection and laboratory diagnosis in detail

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell wall

b. Type-Il hypersensitivity.
c. MRSA.
d. Pathogenesis of acute rheumatic fever.
e. Laboratory diagnosis of H. pylori infection.
f. Confidentiality pertaining to patient identity on laboratory results.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Germ tube test

b. Enumerate hemoparasites.
c. Why blood should be withdrawn before administration of antibiotics for culture?
d. Transformation.
e. Why Gas gangrene is usually associated with cases of severe crush injury?
f. Tyndallisation.
g. Complications of Falciparum malaria.
h. Why Biological false positive reaction occurs in VDRL test?
i. Enumerate virulence factors of Escherichia coli.
j. Draw a well labelled diagram of life cycle of Entamoeba coli.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2022
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify Human herpes viruses. Describe the pathogenesis, clinical features, lab diagnosis,
treatment and prophylaxis of Varicella-Zoster virus infection.

b. A 25-year-old male admitted with H/O crush injury to right leg 3 days back. Wound was
heavily contaminated with soil due to road traffic accident. On examination, local muscles were
crushed, local oedema was present and tenderness and crepitus at the site of injury. With this
history, answer the following questions.
I. What is the probable diagnosis of this condition and the pathogenesis of this condition?
II. Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. National tuberculosis elimination program.

b. Laboratory diagnosis of UTI
c. Slow viral diseases
d. Cutaneous larva migrans.
e. Laboratory diagnosis of congenital syphilis
f. Clinical spectrum, pathogenesis and Lab diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningitis.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Name the modes of HIV transmission.

b. Name four fungi responsible of ocular infections.
c. Name two malignancies which can be prevented by vaccination.
d. Name two parasites which infect genito-urinary tract.
e. Why Cerebrospinal fluid should not be refrigerated before processing the sample for culture?
f. Constituents of Hospital Infection control committee (HICC) in brief.
g. Infections caused by Free living amoebae.
h. Enumerate Tissue nematodes.
i. Enumerate skin and soft tissue infections caused by S.aureus .
j. Biomedical waste disposal categories .
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Which Microscope is based on the principle that differences in the refractive indices of bacterial cells and the
surrounding medium make them clearly visible:
(a) Dark Ground (b) Phase contrast (c) Electron microscope (d) Confocal microscope
microscope microscope

2. During which of the following phase bacteria are most susceptible to antibiotics:
(a) Lag Phase (b) Log Phase (c) Stationary Phase (d) Phase of decline

3. Which of the following statement does not apply to ethyl alcohol:

(a) it is used mainly as skin (b) it acts by denaturing (c) it is used in (d) it is sporicidal
antiseptic bacterial proteins concentrations of 60-90%
in water

4. Acute phase proteins are non specific proteins produced during an infection. Which of those mentioned below is
not an acute phase reactants:
(a) CRP (b) Heat shock protein (c) Alpha-1 acid (d) Bence-Jones proteins
glycoprotein

5. Which of the following is a pro inflammatory marker:

(a) IL-4 (b) IL-9 (c) IL-11 (d) IL-17

6. Diphtheria toxin has affinity for the following tissue:

(a) Cardiac muscle (b) Adrenals (c) Nerve endings (d) All of the above

7. Which of the following characteristics can differentiate B. cereus from B. anthracis:

(a) Non-Capsulated (b) Motile (c) Non susceptible to (d) All of the above
gamma phage

8. Multidrug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is due to M. tuberculosis strain resistant to:

(a) Rifampicin only (b) Isoniazid and (c) Isoniazid only (d) None of the above
Rifampicin

9. Anton test is associated with:

(a) L. monocytogenes (b) Proteus vulgaris (c) E. cloacae (d) Hafnia alvei

10. MacConkey's medium with sorbitol instead of lactose is used for detection of E. coli strains:
(a) O55 (b) O15 (c) O8 (d) O157

11. Which one of the following bacteria is included in HACEK group bacteria:
(a) E. coli (b) Enterobacter (c) Eikenella corrodens (d) Edwardsiella
 12. Which of the following bacteria can cause rat bite fever:
(a) Streptobacillus (b) L. monocytogenes (c) Chromobacterium (d) Flavobacterium
moniliformis violaceum meningosepticum

13. Generation time for most of the pathogenic bacteria is:

(a) 20 sec (b) 20 min (c) 20 hours (d) 20 days

14. Transport medium for Vibrio cholerae is:

(a) Selenite -F (b) Amies (c) V-R medium (d) Stuart's

15. Malta fever is also called as:

(a) Undulating fever (b) Relapsing fever (c) Rat bite fever (d) Cat scratch fever

16. Which of the following is an example of type I hypersensitivity?

(a) Lepromin test (b) Casoni test (c) Tuberculin test (d) Arthus reaction

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Discuss in details the structure and functions of bacterial cell wall. Discuss difference in cell wall of gram
positive & gram-negative bacteria.
b. Classify Rickettsia. Write in detail about pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of typhus fever.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene.

b. Heterophile agglutination reactions.
c. Drug resistant tuberculosis.
d. Monoclonal antibodies.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Mention four toxins of Streptococcus pyogenes.

b. Name four zoonotic diseases caused by bacteria.
c. Satellitism.
d. Enumerate the primary mediators of anaphylaxis.
e. Significant bacteriuria.
f. Why Biological false positive reaction occurs in VDRL test.
g. Which sugar fermentation test is used for differentiation of Gonococci from Meningococci?
h. Name the most common causative agent of scrofula.
i. Enumerate Sterilization controls used for Autoclave.
j. What is the working principle of Light microscope?
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. VDRL test is an example of:

(a) ring test (b) slide flocculation test (c) tube test (d) none of the above

2. Which of the following is RNA virus:

(a) Papilloma virus (b) Influenza virus (c) Hepatitis B virus (d) Epstein-Barr virus

3. Which of the following diseases is tick borne:

(a) Yellow fever (b) Dengue (c) Kyasanur forest disease (d) Japanese encephalitis

4. Cryptococcus neoformans is:

(a) dimorphic (b) mold (c) yeast-like (d) yeast

5. The infective form of the malarial parasites to man is:

(a) Merozoite (b) Sporozoite (c) Trophozoite (d) Gametocyte

6. Erythema and induration are characteristic features of hypersensitivity:

(a) Type I (b) Type II (c) Type III (d) Type IV

7. Which cells are infected by HIV most often:

(a) CD4+ lymphocytes (b) CD8+ lymphocytes (c) Null cells (d) B cells

8. Common name of Trichuris trichiura is:

(a) Pinworm (b) Roundworm (c) Hookworm (d) Whipworm

9. The definitive host of T. saginata is:

(a) Man (b) Cow (c) Dog (d) None of the above

10. Which of the following hepatitis virus is non-enveloped:

(a) HAV (b) HBV (c) HCV (d) HDV

11. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome can be caused by:

(a) Herpes Zoster virus (b) Herpes simplex virus (c) Cytomegalovirus (d) EBV

12. The infective form of E. histolytica is:

(a) Uninucleate cyst (b) Binucleate cyst (c) Quadrinucleate cyst (d) None of the above

13. Which of the following mosquitoes transmits chikungunya virus:

(a) Anopheles (b) Aedes (c) Culex (d) None of the above
 14. The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxvirus is:
(a) Icosahedral (b) Helical (c) Complex (d) None of the above

15. Which of the following fungi is not a mould:

(a) A. fumigatus (b) Rhizopus (c) C. neoformans (d) Absidia

16. Which of the following fungi are pigmented fungi:

(a) Fonsecaea (b) Cladosporium (c) Phialophora (d) All of the above

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. What is agglutination reaction? Write a note on types and applications of agglutination reaction.

b. Enumerate the arboviral diseases prevalent in India. Discuss the pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of dengue
fever.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Dermatophytes
b. Opportunistic fungal infections associated with HIV
c. Rhinosporidiosis.
d. Extra intestinal amoebiasis

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name two important complications of Falciparum malaria

b. What is TORCH?
c. Name the confirmatory laboratory test for SARS CoV-2.
d. What is superantigen?
e. Why cycloheximide is added in Sabouraud dextrose agar?
f. Why non enveloped viruses are generally resistant to ether?
g. Name two oncogenic viruses
h. Name two stains used in Mycology.
i. Why microfilaria is not demonstrable in peripheral blood examination in case of occult filariasis?
j. Why Demonstration of fungi in nails is difficult and is possible only after using 10% Potassium hydroxide?
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Bacterial capsules can be demonstrated by:

(a) Albert's stain (b) Indian ink (c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain (d) All of these

2. Lecithinase production on egg yolk agar is a characteristic feature of:

(a) Clostridium botulinum (b) Clostridium tetani (c) Clostridium perfringens (d) Clostridium difficile

3. The following substances can be added to produce an anaerobic environment EXCEPT:

(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Glutathione (c) Glycerol (d) Cysteine

4. Who is a paradoxical carrier:

(a) A carrier who acquires (b) An individual who is a (c) A carrier who acquires (d) An individual who is a
the pathogen from a carrier for less than six a pathogen from another carrier for more than six
patient months carrier months

5. Infection resulting from any investigative or treatment procedure is known as:

(a) Secondary infection (b) Latent infection (c) Iatrogenic infection (d) Cross-infection

6. A nine-year-old girl presented with fever and sore throat. Group A streptococci were cultured from her throat.
Three weeks later, she developed pain and tender swelling of both knees and ankles; a palpable effusion of the
right knee was drained, which yielded straw-colored fluid. Culture of the aspirate was negative. Subsequently, the
girl began experiencing shortness of breath. Which of the following is a minor Jones diagnostic criterion used by the
pediatrician to diagnose acute rheumatic fever:
(a) Carditis (b) Chorea (c) Subcutaneous nodules (d) Raised ASO titre

7. Phage mediated transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another bacterium is known as:
(a) Transmission (b) Transformation (c) Transduction (d) Conjugation

8. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:

(a) Staphylococcus (b) Micrococci (c) Gonococci (d) Pneumococci

9. Which of the following acts as an anaphylatoxin:

(a) C4b (b) C3a (c) C2a (d) C3b

10. Traveller's diarrhoea is caused by:

(a) EnteroPathogenic E.coli (b) EnteroToxigenic E.coli (c) EnteroHemorrhagic (d) EnteroInvasive E.coli
E.coli
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Enumerate Ag & Ab reactions. Define Agglutination reaction and describe types of agglutination tests with
their application.
b. Enumerate Microorganisms causing hepatitis. Discuss in detail morphology, pathogenesis and laboratory
diagnosis of Hepatitis B virus infection.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Describe the etiopathogenesis of infective endocarditis.

b. Laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection.
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Bacterial Flagella
e. Type-IV hypersensitivity
f. Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric Fever

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate Anaerobic culture methods

b. Toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus
c. Enumerate transfusion transmitted Infections.
d. Enumerate blood parasites.
e. Draw a labelled diagram of IgM Immunoglobulin.
f. Glassware is widely used in the Clinical Microbiology and allied laboratories in the hospital as glass is inert and
does not react or inhibit any reactions. How is glassware sterilised for repeated use in the hospital? What
quality checks are performed to ensure the success of the procedure
g. CAMP test
h. Write 4 differences between N.meningitidis and N.gonorrhoeae.
i. Enumerate difference between classical and El tor Vibrio.
j. Enumerate agents having potential for use in bioterrorism
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Weil's disease is caused by

(a) Brucella (b) Leptospira (c) Borrelia (d) Treponema

2. Which of the following virus is a known cause of Cervical cancer

(a) Epstein Bar Virus (b) Norwalk virus (c) Herpes simplex Virus (d) Human Papilloma virus

3. Kyasanur Forest Disease is transmitted by

(a) Mite (b) Louse (c) Tick (d) Mosquito

4. Organism that does not affect nail

(a) Trichophyton (b) Epidermophyton (c) Microsporum (d) Candida

5. Tuberculoid leprosy cases

(a) Have good CMI (b) Have positive lepromin (c) Involved tissue have (d) All of the above
test TH-1 profile

6. Causative organism of whooping cough

(a) Bordetella pertussis (b) Bordetella (c) Bordetella bronchi (d) None of these
parapertussis septica

7. All of the following fungi can be cultivated except -

(a) Aspergillus (b) Penicillum (c) Rhinosporidium (d) Candida

8. Adenoviral infection is associated with

(a) Pharyngitis (b) Pneumonia (c) Abdominal pain (d) All of the above

9. How many moments have been recommended by WHO for hand hygiene
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

10. The gold standard test for diagnosis of Covid 19 is -

(a) Real time RT-PCR (b) Antibody (c) Antigen demonstration (d) Metabolite
demonstration demonstration
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 28 year old female presented with fever, dysuria (burning micturition) and increased frequency of
micturition for the past 2 days. Culture of the urine specimens revealed lactose fermenting colonies on
MacConkey agar.
a. What is your clinical diagnosis and probable etiological agents?
b. What are the risk factors associated and pathogenesis of this disease?
c. Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail.

b. Four to five days following road traffic accident a person developed trismus followed by muscle pain and
stiffness, back pain and difficulty in swallowing. He was not immunized for tetanus. Based on this history-
a. What is the probable diagnosis of this clinical condition?
b. Describe in detail the pathogenesis and clinical manifestations of disease.
c. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of this condition.
d. Discuss prophylactic measures of this infection.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Enumerate agents of Superficial mycoses. Discuss Dermatophytes and their laboratory diagnosis.
b. Morphology and pathogenesis of Rabies virus.
c. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
d. Define Healthcare Associated Infections (HAI) and enumerate the types. Discuss the methods for preventionof
CLABSI.
e. Enumerate the sexually transmitted diseases. Describe the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of
Trichomonas vaginalis.
f. Enumerate the fungal agents causing infection of CNS. Describe the cryptococcosis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Casoni's test
b. Cutaneous larva migrans.
c. Make a well labelled diagram of life cycle of Tenia solium.
d. Make a well labelled diagram to show structure of Herpes simplex virus.
e. Enumerate 4 etiological viral agents of upper respiratory infections.
f. Enumerate serological tests for Syphilis
g. Enumerate etiological agents of pyogenic meningitis
h. Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus
i. Draw a well labeled diagram of HIV
j. Non specific urethritis
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Which of the following is absent in Gram negative bacteria?

(a) Peptidoglycan (b) LPS (c) Teichoic acid (d) Porin channels

2. Bacteria are uniformly stained in which of the following phase of growth curve?
(a) Lag phase (b) Log phase (c) Stationary phase (d) Declining phase

3. Food poisoning associated with contaminated fried rice:

(a) Staphylococcus (b) Bacillus cereus (c) Clostridium perfringens (d) Vibrio cholerae

4. How many bacteria must be present in clean-catch, mid-stream urine sample to be considered indicative of
infection?
(a) > 10^2 CFU/ml (b) > 10^3 CFU/ml (c) > 10^4 CFU/ml (d) > 10 CFU/ml

5. Alfa-hemolysis on blood agar is produced by:

(a) Strep pyogenes (b) Staph aureus (c) Strep pneumoniae (d) Strep agalactiae

6. An organism grows on nutrient agar shows green colonies, likely organism is:
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Streptococcus (c) Pseudomonas (d) E. coli

7. Which of the following statement is correct about lepromatous leprosy?

(a) Multibacillary (b) CMI is normal (c) Langethans cells found (d) Positive lepromin test

8. Gram stain morphology of Bacillus anthracis is:

(a) Tennis racket (b) Drumstick (c) Spectacle glass (d) Bamboo stick

9. Mode of transmission of Scrub typhus is by:

(a) Bite of chiggers (b) Rubbing of tick (c) Bite of lice (d) Bite of flea

10. Which culture medium is preferred for processing urine sample?

(a) TCBS (b) XLD (c) CLED (d) DCA

11. The most effective way of preventing tetanus is:

(a) Hyperbolic oxygen (b) Tetanus toxoid (c) Antibiotics (d) Surgery

12. All of the following antimicrobial agent acts on cell membrane, EXCEPT:
(a) Gramicidin (b) Daptomycin (c) Polymyxin (d) Vancomycin

13. How much bacillary load in sputum is required for an effective transmission of M. tuberculosis?
(a) 10 bacilli/ml (b) 100 bacilli/ml (c) 1000 bacilli/ml (d) 10000 bacilli/ml
 14. Scarlet fever is caused by:
(a) S. pyogenes (b) C. diphtheriae (c) Str group C and G (d) S. viridans

15. All the above can be given for treatment of MRSA EXCEPT:
(a) Meropenem (b) Vancomycin (c) Cotrimoxazole (d) Linezolid

16. Highest useful magnification available in light microscope is:

(a) 100X (b) 400X (c) 1000X (d) 2000X

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Discuss the morphology, cultural characteristics and pathogenicity of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Add a note
on laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
b. Enumerate the methods of transfer of genetic materials in bacteria. Explain the mechanism of any one.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Autoclave.
b. Beta hemolytic streptococci.
c. Antigenic structure of Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name four motile bacteria.

b. Name two high level disinfectants.
c. Draw a labelled diagram of cell wall of a gram-negative bacteria.
d. Define sterilization and disinfection.
e. Write any two modes of transmission of infections.
f. Pasteurization.
g. List four organisms causing urinary tract infection.
h. Significant bacteriuria.
i. Name two transport media used for Vibrio cholera.
j. Satellitism.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a complication following which viral infection?

(a) Mumps (b) Measles (c) Rubella (d) Influenza

2. Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is correct?

(a) Amantadine protects (b) There are three (c) They do not survive on (d) They are the most
against infection. antigenic types. environmental surfaces. frequent causative agent
of the common cold.

3. Which of the following poxviruses infects only humans?

(a) Monkeypox (b) Cowpox (c) Tanapox (d) Molluscum
contagiosum

4. What is the primary route of transmission of human coronaviruses?

(a) Blood (b) Respiratory (c) Perinatal mother-to- (d) Fecal-oral
infant

5. Which one of the following is not a common member of the normal human flora or microbiota?
(a) Candida tropicalis (b) Candida glabrata (c) Malassezia globosa (d) Cryptococcus
neoformans

6. Which of the following virus does not use the CXCR4 molecule as a receptor?
(a) SIV (b) Poliovirus (c) HIV-2 (d) HIV-1

7. Which of the following virus is spread by arthropods?

(a) HIV (b) Influenza virus (c) Arbovirus (d) Rhinovirus

8. Which of the following phase determines the specificity of the virus?

(a) Uncoating (b) Release (c) Attachment (d) Penetration

9. Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of:

(a) Metachromatic (b) Pseudohyphae (c) Septate hyphae (d) Budding cells
granules

10. In malaria, the form of plasmodia transmitted from mosquito to human is the:
(a) Sporozoite (b) Gametocyte (c) Merozoite (d) Hypnozoite

11. Pigs or dogs are the sources of human infection by each of the following parasites except:
(a) Echinococcus (b) Taenia solium (c) Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Trichinella spiralis
granulosus
 12. Which of the following diseases is tick-borne?
(a) Yellow fever (b) Dengue (c) Kyasanur forest disease (d) Japanese encephalitis

13. Cryptococcus neoformans is:

(a) Dimorphic (b) Mold (c) Yeast-like (d) Yeast

14. Common name of Trichuris trichiura is:

(a) Pinworm (b) Roundworm (c) Hookworm (d) Whipworm

15. Which of the following hepatitis virus is non-enveloped?

(a) HAV (b) HBV (c) HCV (d) HDV

16. The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxvirus is:

(a) Icosahedral (b) Helical (c) Complex (d) None of the above

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of rabies. Add a note on pre- and post-exposure
prophylaxis for rabies prevention.
b. Classify nematodes. Describe the life cycle, pathogenesis, and laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Dermatophytes.
b. Opportunistic fungal infections associated with HIV.
c. Biomedical waste management.
d. Laboratory diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica infection.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name two important complications of falciparum malaria.

b. What is TORCH?
c. Name two oncogenic viruses.
d. Draw the diagram of Embryonated egg.
e. What are inclusion bodies? Give any 2 examples.
f. Germ tube test.
g. Give two examples of live attenuated vaccines used for viral diseases.
h. Enumerate four dimorphic fungi.
i. Draw a well-labelled diagram of HIV.
j. Draw a well-labelled diagram of hydatid cyst.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. What is the basis of Paul Bunnel test for EBV?

(a) Heterophile (b) Cell mediated (c) immune complex (d) None

2. Which of the following microfilaria comes to peripheral blood in daytime?

(a) Brugia malayi (b) Wuchereria bancrofti (c) Loa loa (d) Brugia timori

3. Gram positive a-hemolytic cocci with catalase negative and optochin resistant causing endocarditis
(a) Str pneumoniae (b) Str agalactiae (c) Staph epidermidis (d) Str sanguis

4. All of the following intestinal nematodes are oviparous, EXCEPT:

(a) Roundworm (b) Strongyloides (c) Hookworm (d) Enterobious

5. Diagnosis of typhoid fever on 5th day is best done by:

(a) Blood culture (b) Urine culture (c) Stool culture (d) Widal test

6. In emergency patient relative donated blood. It was tested in lab before transfusion. Which of the following
disease will be tested EXCEPT
(a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis A (c) HIV | & 2 (d) Hepatitis C

7. Example of antibody-dependent cellular dysfunction or ADCD:

(a) Graves'disease (b) Hemolytic anemia (c) Pemphigus vulgaris (d) Transfusion reaction

8. Disc diffusion method is also known as:

(a) String test (b) Darkfield (c) VDRL (d) Kirby Bauer

9. Jumping gene is
(a) Plasmid (b) Epitope (c) Transposon (d) Cosmid

10. Bacterial capsule is best demonstrated by:

(a) Albert staining (b) Methylene blue (c) Negative staining (d) Silver Impregnation
staining
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 30-year-old man brought to hospital with history of sever watery diarrhoea for one day. He gave history of
recent visit to Prayagraj for Kumbh mela. On examination, he was afebrile with s/o severe dehydration, no
abdominal tenderness. Hanging drop preparation of stool shows darting motile bacteria. With this history,
answer the following questions. (2+6+6+6=20)
1. What is your clinical diagnosis and probable causative agent?
2. Describe the epidemiology of this condition.
3. Discuss the pathogenesis of this condition.
4. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this condition.

b. Define Sterilization, Disinfection, Asepsis and Decontamination. What are the methods of sterilization? Write
a detail note on physical methods of sterilization.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Differentiate gram-positive and gram-negative bacterial cell with the help of suitable diagram.
b. Write a note on Autoimmunity.
c. Lab diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever.
d. Opportunistic infections in HIV patients.
e. Viral markers of Hepatitis B infection.
f. Explain briefly about "Respect to patient's clinical sample".

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enlist bile-stained eggs.
b. Enumerates any Four types of vaccines with example.
c. Complement fixation test.
d. PPE and its uses.
e. Anaerobic culture methods.
f. Enumerates any Four blood stream infections.
g. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
h. Urea breath test.
i. CAMP Test.
j. Koch's postulates.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. The following are the specific tests for diagnosis of syphilis except.

(a) Treponema Pallidum (b) Fluorescent (c) Rapid Plasma Reagin (d) T. Pallidum
Immobilization test (TPI) Treponemal Antibody Test (RPR) Hemagglutination Test
Absorption Test (FTA-ABS) (TPHA)

2. Which of the following statements regarding interferon-gamma release assays is correct?

(a) They are useful for (b) They are performed (c) They are used as (d) They detect antigens
evaluating using molecular probes alternatives to the present in all
immunocompromise d that detect organism DNA. tuberculin skin test to Mycobacterium species.
patients for active evaluate for latent
tuberculosis. tuberculosis.

3. Vector for leishmaniasis:

(a) Sandfly (b) Reduviid bugs (c) Tsetse fly (d) Anopheles mosquito

4. Which bacteria is called as Pfeiffer's bacillus?

(a) Corynebacterium (b) Haemophillus (c) Bacillus anthracis (d) Pseudomonas
diptheriae influenzae aeruginosa

5. All of the following are true about rhinovirus, except:

(a) More than 100 (b) Acid-labile (c) Incubation period is 10- (d) Transmitted by
antigenic types have been 14 days respiratory route
identified

6. Laboratory infections can be acquired when working with viruses unless good laboratory safety practices are
followed. Which of the following is not a good biosafety practice?
(a) Use of biosafety hoods (b) Use of laboratory coats (c) Avoidance of pipetting (d) Flushing experimental
and gloves by mouth waste down laboratory
sink

7. The most effective way of preventing tetanus:

(a) Hyperbaric oxygen (b) Antibiotics (c) Tetanus toxoid (d) Surgical debridement
and toilet

8. Which of following is correct about prions?

(a) Destroyed by (b) Long incubation period (c) Immunogenic (d) Nucleic acid present
autoclaving at 121°C
 9. All of the following statements regarding Mycoplasmas are correct except:
(a) They are susceptible to (b) They lack a cell wall. (c) They have an affinity (d) They can be cultivated
ß-lactam agents. for mammalian cell in cell-free media.
membranes.

10. All of the following parasites can cause encephalitis except.

(a) Acanthamocha (b) Entamoeba histolytica (c) Toxoplasma gondii (d) Naegleria

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. 65-year-old female diabetic patient admitted to the hospital with complaints of swelling in the arm with pus
discharge. On physical examination, the local area was found to be red, warm and tender. The swelling has a
feel of fluid filled when pressed. Pus was aspirated and was sent to microbiology. On microscopic
examination, Gram positive cocci in clusters seen. Based on this history:
1. What is the most probable etiological agent? Enumerate the bacterial agents causing this condition.
2. Discuss morphology & cultural characteristics of above organism.
3. List the virulence factors of this organism.
4. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis.

b. Enumerate neurotropic viruses. Discuss the morphology, transmission & pathogenecity of Polio virus.
Comment on immunoprophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

b. Laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.
c. Nocardiosis.
d. Mucocutaneous Candidiasis
e. Nonspecific urethritis
f. Nosocomial diarrhoea

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Elek's gel precipitation test

b. Enumerate Virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis.
c. Draw a well labeled diagram of Influenza virus.
d. Enumerate etiological agents of acute encephalitis syndrome (AES)
e. Give reason why urine samples for culture should be processed as soon as possible after collection.
f. Enumerate culture media used for laboratory diagnosis of bacteremia.
g. Draw a well labeled diagram of Trophozoite of Trichomonas vaginalis
h. Enumerate the organisms with oncogenic potential.
i. Enumerate infections caused by Herpes Simplex Virus.
j. Enumerate agents of Superficial mycoses
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. India ink staining is used to demonstrate: -

(a) Cell wall (b) Bacterial capsule (c) Bacterial flagella (d) Bacterial spore

2. Active immunity is not acquired by: -

(a) Infection (b) Vaccination (c) Transplacental (d) Sub-clinical infection
Immunoglobulin Transfer

3. Which of the following confirms the isolate of V. cholera as Ogawa serotype: -

(a) If agglutinated with (b) If agglutinated with (c) If agglutinated with (d) If agglutinated with
Ogawa antiserum Inaba antiserum Hikojima antiserum both Ogawa and Inaba
antiserum

4. Culture media for transport of stool sample in suspected case of Shigellosis: -

(a) Deoxycholate medium (b) Blood agar (c) Nutrient broth (d) Buffered glycerol saline

5. HIV RNA detection (by RT-PCR) reduces the window period to,
(a) 1-14 days (b) 3 weeks (c) 4 weeks (d) 8 weeks

6. In revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever, the major manifestations include all except:
(a) Subcutaneous nodules (b) Pan carditis (c) Arthritis (migrating (d) Increased ASO
polyarthritis) antibodies

7. Maltese cross form is seen in:-

(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Babesiosis (c) Brucellosis (d) Bartonellosis

8. All the following pathogenic bacteria fulfill Koch’s postulates, except: -

(a) Treponema pallidum (b) Yersinia pestis (c) Bacillus anthracis (d) Helicobacter pylori

9. Which of the following is associated with cholangiocarcinoma: -

(a) Ascaris (b) Ancylostoma (c) Enterobius (d) Strongyloides

10. Which of the following is associated with cholangiocarcinoma: -

(a) Clonorchis sinensis (b) Fasciola hepatica (c) Fasciolopsis buski (d) Toxocara canis
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 14-year-old boy presented with a history of fever with headache, malaise, and abdominal discomfort for the last
8 days. Fever was of the remittent type, with a gradual rise in a step-ladder fashion. On examination, he was
febrile & temperature of 101 °C, along with relative bradycardia, a coated tongue, & soft, palpable spleen.
(3+5+8+4)
I. What will be the most common probable diagnosis & etiological agent?
II. Describe the pathogenesis of this condition in detail.
III. Make a plan for sample collection & laboratory diagnosis of this disease.
IV. Add a note on prophylactic measures for this disease.

b. Define antimicrobial resistance & its types. Discuss in detail the mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance in
bacteria. Add a note on the various methods used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing. (5+7+8)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Write about the pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Shigellosis.

b. Explain blood culture method for detection of Infective Endocarditis.
c. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of HIV with a special mention of strategies for diagnosis during the window
period.
d. Describe life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus. Discuss pathogenesis & laboratory diagnosis of Echinococcosis.
e. Discuss pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Histoplasmosis.
f. Describe and discuss the role of beneficence & autonomy as guiding principles in patient care. List a few scenarios
in which conflict between beneficence & autonomy may arise.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate 4 differences between exotoxins & endotoxins.

b. Name 4 live attenuated vaccine.
c. Enumerate any 4 examples of Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
d. Passive agglutination test.
e. Bacterial growth curve.
b. Enumerate HACEK group of microorganisms.
c. Name 4 trematodes.
d. Name 4 cardinal principle of Bioethics.
e. Draw life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica.
f. Enlist complications of Plasmodium falciparum infection.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Human acquire cysticercus cellulosae infections by all except:

(a) Ingestion of (b) Autoinfection (c) Reverse peristalsis. (d) Ingestion of
contaminated vegetables contaminated pig’s meat

2. Which of the following parasites is transmitted by cat?

(a) Balantidium coli (b) Toxoplasma gondii (c) Echinococcus (d) Toxocara canis
granulosus

3. Serotyping and serosubtyping of meningococci are based on:

(a) Outer membrane (b) Endotoxin (c) Capsular (d) Transferrin binding
proteins polysaccharide proteins

4. Which of the following parasites is transmitted by dog?

(a) Echinococcus (b) Hymenolepis nana (c) Taenia solium. (d) Diphyllobothrium
latum.

5. Which of the following site is most commonly affected by C. diphtheriae:

(a) Skin (b) Conjunctiva (c) Faucial (d) Kidney

6. Botryomycosis is a mycetoma-like disease caused by:

(a) Nocardia (b) Actinomyces (c) Staphylococcus (d) Streptococcus

7. Pathognomonic cells in bacterial vaginosis are called:

(a) Smudge cells (b) Atypical cells (c) Decoy cells (d) Clue cells

8. A laboratory receives a specimen from an animal which died of Anthrax. What is the recommended level of
Biosafety (BSL) to be used for handling this specimen?
(a) BSL-1 (b) BSL-2 (c) BSL-3 (d) BSL-4

9. Reactive arthritis syndrome consists of all except:

(a) Conjunctivitis (b) Urethritis (c) Polyarthritis (d) Myocarditis

10. Co-cultivation method is used for:

(a) HBV (b) HCV (c) HSV (d) HIV
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. An 8-year-old child was admitted to the hospital with chief complaints of high-grade fever, headache,
vomiting, altered mental status and neck rigidity. CSF was sent for Biochemical analysis, direct microscopy and
Culture & sensitivity testing.

I What is the probable clinical diagnosis

II What are the etiological agents, pathogenesis and clinical manifestations of this disease?
III Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail
IV What are the treatment modalities according to the etiological agents

b. A 25-year-old male was admitted in the hospital four days after Road Traffic Accident (RTA); on examination,
crush injury right foot with soiled gauze contaminated with soil was observed. There was edema, crushed
muscles and pain at the site. On palpation crepitus was felt.

I What is the clinical condition?

II Mention the etiological agent responsible for this condition?
III Describe the pathogenesis and clinical manifestations of this condition?
IV Describe in detail the laboratory diagnosis and treatment of this disease?

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP)

b. What is congenital infection? List the various organism causing congenital infection? Write in detail about
congenital syphilis.
c. List the cutaneous parasitic infection. Write briefly on cutaneous lava migrans.
d. A child aged 6 years with high grade fever, toxic pain in the throat, inability to swallow was brought to the
casualty. On examination a white patch was found on the tonsillar fossa which started bleeding when
touched. No history of immunization available. What is the clinical diagnosis? Write in detail laboratory
diagnosis of this condition.
e. Discuss in detail about MRSA (Methicillin - Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)
f. Write the clinical feature and lab diagnosis of Plague.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Explain Weil-Felix Test and its application.

b. Differences between Actinomyces and Nocardia
c. RNA viruses causing viral exanthems
d. Name two prion diseases along with their hosts
e. Pneumococcal vaccine.
f. Categories of Biomedical waste and types of containers used for their disposal.
g. Spill management.
h. Name diseases transmitted by tick
i. What is TORCH infection?
j. Enlist the organism causing nongonococcal urethritis
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination August-2024
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Bacterial capsule can be best demonstrated by -

(a) Gram staining (b) Acid-fast staining (c) Negative staining (d) Albert staining

2. Which is NOT DNA virus -

(a) Parvovirus (b) Papovavirus (c) Poxvirus (d) Rhabdovirus

3. All are true about autoimmune disease EXCEPT -

(a) T cells recognize self- (b) Hashimoto thyroiditis is (c) Higher incidence (d) Polyclonal B cell
antigen an example among males activation

4. Which of the following bacteria can cause rat bite fever -

(a) Streptococcus (b) L. monocytogenes (c) Chromobacterium (d) Flavobacterium
moniliformis violaceum monosepticum

5. Toxic Shock Syndrome is caused by -

(a) Staphylococcus (b) Pneumococcus (c) Streptococcus (d) Gonococcus

6. Geobacillus stearothermophilus is used as indicator for efficacy of -

(a) Hot air oven (b) Autoclave (c) Filtration (d) Ultraviolet rays

7. Which is not present in gram negative bacteria -

(a) Peptidoglycan (b) Teichoic acid (c) LPS (d) Porin Channels

8. Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross placenta efficiently -

(a) IgG (b) IgA (c) IgM (d) IgE

9. Chinese restaurant syndrome after eating fried rice and vanilla sauce is due to -
(a) Clostridium perfringens (b) Bacillus cereus (c) Staphylococcus (d) Clostridium botulinum
epidermidis

10. After blood transfusion, blood bag will be discarded in which color code dustbin -
(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) Black
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 30-year-old man brought to hospital with history of sever watery diarrhea for one day. He gave history of
recent visit to Prayagraj for Kumbh mela. On examination, he was afebrile with s/o severe dehydration, no
abdominal tenderness. Hanging drop preparation of stool shows darting motile bacteria. With this history,
answer the following questions. (2+6+6+6=20)

I. What is your clinical diagnosis and probable causative agent?

II. Describe the epidemiology of this condition.
III. Discuss the pathogenesis of this condition.
IV. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this condition.

b. Enumerate Ag and Ab reactions. Define agglutination reactions and describe types of agglutination tests with
their clinical applications.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Enumerate viruses causing hepatitis and tabulate the characteristics of hepatitis viruses.
b. Explain giving an example, the importance of choosing a right sample, in making a correct Diagnosis.
c. Draw a well labelled diagram of life cycle of Plasmodium vivax.
d. Enumerate physical methods of sterilization and describe autoclave in detail.
e. Write lab diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever.
f. Differentiate gram-positive and gram-negative bacterial cell wall with the help of suitable diagram.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Post Kala Azar Dermal Leishmaniasis.

b. Biomedical waste management.
c. Enumerate any four live vaccines.
d. Write the use and sterilization of Loeffler's serum slope.
e. Enlist the cause of pyomyositis.
f. Write the five moment of hand hygiene.
g. Draw life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica.
h. Enlist bile-stained eggs.
i. Complement fixation test.
j. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination August-2024
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Most common mode of transmission of HIV after sexual transmission:

(a) Blood and blood (b) Occupational (c) Breastfeeding (d) Perinatal
products

2. Which of the following is a yeast

(a) Candida (b) Mucor (c) Rhizopus (d) Cryptococcus

3. Tuberculoid Leprosy cases

(a) Have good CMI (b) Have Positive Lepromin (c) Involved tissue have (d) All of the above
test TH-1Profile

4. The gold standard test for diagnosis of Covid19 is-

(a) Real time RT-PCR (b) Antibody (c) Antigen demonstration (d) None of the above
demonstration

5. Tsetse fly transmits

(a) Trypanosoma brucei (b) Trypanosoma Cruzi (c) Kala- azar (d) Oriental sore

6. Which of the following bacteria can cause acute bacterial meningitis?

(a) Neisseria meningitidis (b) Streptococcus (c) Hemophilus influenzae (d) All of the above
pneumoniae

7. Drumstick appearance of spores is a characteristic feature of

(a) Clostridium perfringens (b) Clostridium novyi (c) Clostridium tetani (d) Clostridium difficile

8. Causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum is?

(a) Chlamydia trachomatis (b) Chlamydia trachomatis (c) Chlamydia trachomatis (d) Chlamydia pneumoniae
serotype A to C serotype D to K L1 to L3

9. Whooping cough can be caused by

(a) Bordetella pertussis (b) Bordetella (c) Bordetella (d) All of the above
parapertussis bronchiseptica

10. All of the following are Zoonotic diseases except

(a) KFD (b) Plague (c) Brucellosis (d) Anthrax
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 25-year-old man presented with productive cough for 2 months with blood-tinged sputum. He has a history
of loss of appetite and of low-grade fever. He gave a history of smoking and no other significant medical
history. Chest X-ray revealed cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe.

I. What is the provisional diagnosis and etiological agent?

II. Describe the pathogenesis and clinical features.
III. Write in detail about its laboratory diagnosis.
IV. Write briefly on treatment and prevention of the above disease.

b. A 21-year-old male, throughout the body had developed characteristic well demarcated annular or ring-
shaped pruritic scaly skin lesion with central clearing and raised edges. Culture of the skin scarping done on
sabouraud's dextrose agar reveals velvety colonies with red pigment on the reverse. Microscopy of the
culture isolate reveals plenty of tear drop-shaped microconidia and few, long, pencil-shaped macroconidia.

I. What is the clinical diagnosis and what is the most likely etiological agent?
II. Describe the various clinical manifestations produced by organism.
III. Add a note on the laboratory diagnosis of this condition.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Dengue virus.
b. Cysticercosis
c. Zygomycosis.
d. NACO strategies of HIV laboratory diagnosis.
e. Enlist agents causing Burn wound infection. Write about approach to lab diagnosis of Burn wound infection.
f. Describe Rapid growers in NTM

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Recrudescence malaria.
b. Name 4 treponemal tests for diagnosis of syphilis.
c. Enumerate the name of emerging and reemerging viruses.
d. Mention four cutaneous parasitic infections.
e. Virulence factors of S.pyogenes (any 4).
f. Significant bacteriuria.
g. Draw a labeled diagram of Rabies virus.
h. Agents causing atypical pneumonia
i. Enumerate two lesions caused by staphylococcus epidermis.
j. Mention 2 viral inclusion bodies with their causative organism
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Culture medium with low redox potential is required for the growth of:
(a) Clostridium tetani (b) Escherichia coli (c) Pseudomonas (d) None of the above
aeruginosa

2. The most important specimen for isolation of Salmonella Typhi in first week of enteric fever is
(a) Blood (b) Faeces (c) Urine (d) Pus

3. Patch test is done for which type of reaction?

(a) Schwartzman reaction (b) Atopy (c) Arthus reaction (d) Contact dermatitis

4. Which of the following are responsible for hyperacute rejection?

(a) Preformed antibodies (b) In-situ antibody (c) Lymphokines (d) All of the these
formation

5. Fasciola hepatica infects

(a) Liver (b) Bile duct (c) Both liver and bile duct (d) Small intestine

6. Eschar is a pathognomonic feature of -

(a) Typhus fever (b) Scrub typhus (c) Q fever (d) Spotted fever

7. The route of administration of measles vaccine is

(a) Intramuscular (b) Intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) Oral

8. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are -

(a) Present on surface of (b) Transmembrane (c) Molecules that bind to (d) Nucleotide-binding
phagocytes to bind to receptors present on the surface of microbes oligomerization domain
mannose rich glycans surface of macrophages like receptors to recognize
and dendritic cells intracellular bacterial cell
products

9. Passive immunization of hepatitis B infection is good for -

(a) Controlling adverse (b) Prevention of carrier (c) Controlling the spread (d) Prevention of infection
reactions state of disease

10. The following substances can be added to produce an anaerobic environment except -
(a) Glutathione (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Cysteine (d) Glycerol
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 6-year-old boy came to the pediatric OPD for school health check-up. On examination he had pallor.
Peripheral blood examination revealed microcytic, hypochromic anaemia. Stool microscopy showed round to
oval non-bile-stained egg with segmented ovum (four blastomeres).

I. Identify the etiological agent responsible for this condition?

II. Enlist the microorganisms causing iron deficiency anaemia.
III. Describe the life cycle.
IV. Describe the pathogenesis.
V. Mention the diagnostic modalities available for this clinical condition.

b. A 12 years old male child was admitted in the pediatric ward with a history of remittent fever which increased
gradually over 10 days. He was admitted with complaints of loss of appetite, pain in abdomen and general
weakness. On examination he was found to have a temperature of 102°F with pallor and coated tongue,
relative bradycardia, mild splenomegaly and abdominal tenderness. His hemogram showed low TLC count,
leukopenia with relative lymphocytosis. His blood culture was positive and non-lactose fermenting colonies
were isolated from MacConkey agar. On further identification, it was found to be oxidase negative, catalase
positive, negative for indole, citrate and urease and H₂S gas was produced with K/A reaction on TSI agar.

I. What is your probable diagnosis and etiological agent responsible for this condition?
II. Describe the pathogenesis.
III. Mention the diagnostic modalities available for this condition including the sample collection methods.
IV. Add a note on the treatment and vaccine available for this clinical condition.
V. Add a note on drug resistance for this clinical condition.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Steam sterilization
b. What is full disclosure? Mention the exceptional conditions where full disclosure is not made.
c. Classical complement pathway
d. Mention the methods to demonstrate and functions of bacterial capsule.
e. Describe transferable drug resistance.
f. Chikungunya

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate Diarrheagenic E.coli

b. Draw well labelled diagram of IgA
c. Enlist two parasitic causes of — splenomegaly and cholangitis.
d. NACO Strategic algorithm IIa and IIb for HIV.
e. Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections.
f. Enumerate two advantages of live vaccine.
g. Mention four differences between MHC class I and MHC class II.
h. Mention four difference between endotoxin and exotoxin.
i. Staging of vaccine vial monitor.
j. Name the four rules of autonomy
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Microbiological waste should be segregated in which colour bags

(a) Yellow (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Black

2. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a complication following which viral infection?

(a) Mumps (b) Measle (c) Rubella (d) Influenza

3. Characteristic feature of anaerobic bacterial infections are all except:

(a) Foul smelling discharge (b) Blue green colour pus (c) Failed to grow in (d) Gas in tissue
aerobic media

4. Which is the best indicator organism of fecal contamination of water?

(a) Vibrio cholerae (b) Shigella (c) Fecal Streptococci (d) Fecal E. coli

5. Definitive host in paragonimiasis is.

(a) Snail (b) Fish (c) Man (d) Mosquito

6. Mechanism of action of tetanospasmin is

(a) Inhibition of cGMP (b) Inhibition of cAMP (c) Inactivation of Ach (d) Inhibition of GABA
receptors release

7. Which is not vaccine derived polio virus?

(a) cVDPV (b) mVDPV (c) iVDPV (d) aVDPV

8. Mode of transmission of Chlamydial conjunctivitis is:

(a) Contamination of (b) Flies (c) Direct contact with (d) Any of the above
clothes discharge

9. All of the following Oncogenic RNA viruses except

(a) Hepatitis B virus (b) Hepatitis C virus (c) HIV (d) Varicella zoster virus

10. Organisms that does not affect nail:

(a) Trichophyton (b) Epidermophyton (c) Microsporum (d) Candida albicans
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 23-year-old male having a history of sexual exposure with a commercial sex worker, is presented in OPD
with single painless hard indurated genital ulcer & painless hard non suppurative lymph node.

I. What is most probable clinical diagnosis & etiological agent. (1+1)

II. Discuss the pathogenesis of disease. (4)
III. Enlist other causative agents of sexually transmitted infections. (4)
IV. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of above-mentioned disease. (10)

b. A 40-year-old male visited his local doctor complaining of difficulty in swallowing liquids, loss of appetite and
restlessness. He had a history of dog bite one month back.

I. What is the most probable etiological diagnosis? (2)

II. Draw a labeled diagram of the morphology of the causative agent of this condition. (3)
III. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis. (10)
IV. Prophylaxis against this disease. (5)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Define healthcare associated infections (HAIs) & list major types of HAIs. Discuss measures to prevent them.
b. Discuss suppurative infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and its laboratory diagnosis.
c. Laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria infection.
d. Cryptococcal meningitis.
e. Prion disease.
f. Aspergillosis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Why indwelling catheter is risk of UTI?

b. Human metapneumovirus.
c. Congenital infections.
d. What is TORCH.
e. Enumerate etiological agents of pyogenic meningitis.
f. Enumerate etiological agents of Superficial mycoses.
g. Draw labelled diagram of LD bodies.
h. Lepromin test.
i. Sequential steps to be followed after needle stick injury.
j. Spaulding's classification.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2017
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify ẞ blockers. Describe therapeutic uses and adverse effects of ẞ blockers.

b. Classify the drugs used in treatment of congestive heart failure. Discuss the drug used in CHF
to improve survival.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Pharmacogenetics.
b. Therapeutic Index.
c. Management of digitalis overdosage.
d. Therapeutic uses of Neostigmine.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.

b. Torsade de pointes.
c. Motion sickness .
d. Open angle glaucoma
e. NSAID induced peptic ulcer.
f. Nocturnal asthma.
g. Chemotherapy induced late emesis .
h. Hypertension during pregnancy .
i. Dissecting aortic aneurysm.
j. Prophylaxis of migraine .
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2017
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Describe important features of artemisinin,

b. Describe the uses and adverse effects of gentamicin

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Give justifications of co-administration of anti-microbial drugs, give suitable examples.

b. Enumerate the drugs useful in osteoporosis. How are these drugs being likely to bring benefit?
c. Compare phenytoin sodium and valproic acid as anti-epileptic drugs.
d. Uses of Opioid.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. In case of phenytoin sodium why do we see a change in elimination kinetics from first order to
zero order? Point out its clinical significance.
b. Mention two uses of prostaglandins/ prostaglandin- analogues.
c. Name two drugs (Having different mechanisms) useful in treatment of acute gouty arthritis.
d. Name two drugs useful in treatment of endometriosis.
e. Mention two uses of ivermectin.
f. Mention two selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), used as anti-depressants.
g. Why do we use, Lugol's iodine (aqueous iodine solution) before surgery of thyroid gland?
h. Name of two drugs useful in mania.
i. Name two azoles useful in fungal infection; one locally used on skin and another one used
systemically
j. Among anti-retroviral drugs, name one drug each, from Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase
inhibitor (NRTI) and Non- Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI).
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Summer)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify alpha blockers, describe their uses and adverse effects.

b. Name three drugs from different groups used for emergency treatment of heart failure;
describe basis of use and limitation of each drug.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. How organophosphorus compound poisoning is treated?

b. Explain briefly treatment of glaucoma
c. What is the pharmacological basis of use of ranitidine, omeprazole and misoprostol in
treatment of peptic ulcer.
d. Describe drugs used in acute attack of bronchial asthma

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Define with example competitive antagonism.

b. Enumerate antimuscarinic mydriatics.
c. Name contraindications of beta blockers.
d. Give four examples of rational drug combinations.
e. What is pharmacokinetic peculiarity of atracurium.
f. Explain phenomenon of tachyphylaxis.
g. Why ezetimibe is used in dyslipidaemia.
h. Explain why iron is not useful in case of chronic renal failure.
i. Differentiate heparin and warfarin.
j. Define expectorant giving example.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Summer)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify Antipsychotic drugs and write their important adverse effects and drug-drug
interactions.
b. Classify Oral hypoglycaemic drugs. Describe in brief about Metformin.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Enumerate DMRDS, write the selective name of NSAIDS used in t/t of arthritis
b. Enumerate atypical antipsychotic drugs and describe their advantages over typical
antipsychotics
c. Describe in brief about the drugs used in pre-anaesthetic medication.
d. Enumerate the drugs used for psoriasis. Write in short about Calcipotriol.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Write the name of two drugs for Malignant hypertension.

b. Write the name of two drug used as emergency contraceptives.
c. Write the name of two recently approved drugs for MDR Tuberculosis.
d. Write the name of two rapid acting insulin preparations.
e. Write the name of two Beta-2 agonist used as uterine relaxants.
f. Write the name of two "AMIDE" local anaesthetics.
g. Write the name of two vitamins which causes toxicity in over dose.
h. Write the name of two vaccines for Enteric fever (Typhoid).
i. Write the name of two drugs for Ut of Hepatitis -B infections.
j. Write the name of two cardiotoxic anticancer drugs.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Winter)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of bronchial asthma. Write pharmacological basis of
use of salmeterol in bronchial asthma.

b. Enumerate high ceiling diuretics. Write their therapeutic use and adverse effects.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Pharmacological basis of use of valsartan in congestive heart failure.

b. Treatment of acute congestive glaucoma.
c. Proton pump inhibitors.
d. Pharmacological basis of use of propranolol in supraventricular tachycardia.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Drugs that follow zero order kinetics

b. Orthostatic hypotension
c. Topical nasal decongestants
d. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
e. Torsade de pointes
f. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
g. Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
h. Inhibitors of fibrinolysis
i. Variant angina
j. Motion sickness
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2018 (Winter)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Enumerate therapeutic uses and adverse

effects of aspirin.
b. Classify Cephalosporin. Enumerate their therapeutic uses and adverse effects.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria

b. Adverse effect of glucocorticoids
c. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
d. Combination oral contraceptives

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Absence seizures
b. Opioid antagonists
c. Z compounds
d. Weight neural antipsychotics
e. Induction of labour
f. Short acting insulin preparations
g. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
h. Anaerobic infections
i. Acute gastroenteritis
j. Gonorrhoea
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (March)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Discuss drugs for treatment of various types of Shock?

b. Discuss Prokinetic agents, their Indications and ADR's?

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. What is Zn ORS & Super ORS?

b. Rationale behind use of Low dose aspirin, as an antiplatelet therapy?
c. Name a Broad spectrum Antiarrhythmic, its Indications
d. Compare and contrast between, therapy for Asthma vs. COPD?

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Enumerate ACEi's which are not prodrug.

b. Folic acid is a Prodrug, Yes/No.
c. Non cardiovascular Indications for Prostaglandins.
d. Uses of B-blockers with additional a-blockade activity.
e. Indications for use of Skeletal Muscle relaxants.
f. Enumerate Drug for treatment of Acute congestive Glaucoma.
g. ADR's seen with a-blockers.
h. Name some steroid sparing Immunosuppressants.
i. Enumerate Antitussive agents.
j. Indication for locally acting antacids, in present era.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (March)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Rationale for use of multi-drug regimens, for treatment of microbial Infections.

b. Drugs for treatment of Hyperthyroidism. Classify them on the basis of Onset & mechanism of
action.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. What are the reasons behind Drug Automatism seen with Barbiturates?
b. Classify various forms of Insulin. Suggest a combination for treatment of TIDM.
c. Treatment of Ampicillin Induced Diarrhoea?
d. Why are SSRI's preferred drugs for treatment of Depression?

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Enumerate Non contraceptive benefits of oral contraceptive pill .

b. DOTS regimen for patients who have defaulted on Cat Regimen.
c. Adverse effects of Quinine, when used as Antimalaria
d. Contraindications for use of Metformin, as Oral hypoglycaemic agent.
e. Drugs for treatment of Scabies.
f. Enumerate drugs for treatment of Mania,
g. Drugs for preventing vertical transmission of HIV, from mother to foetus.
h. Adverse effects of Phenytoin.
i. Contraindications of use of Glucocorticoids.
j. Drugs for treatment of Drug Induced Parkinsonism.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (September)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify antihypertensive drugs Discuss commonly used antihypertensive drugs.

b. Classify anti parkinsonian drugs. Discuss treatment of drug induced parkinsonism

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Enumerate loop diuretics and their indications.

b. Classify adverse drug reactions with suitable examples.
c. Classify anticoagulants. Why does warfarin display a late onset of action?
d. Treatment of acute myocardial infarction.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Write drugs for acute attack of mania.

b. Drugs for treatment of insomnia
c. Drugs for productive cough
d. First order kinetics
e. Examples of Competitive antagonism
f. Drugs for treatment of Digitalis induced toxicity.
g. Suitable routes of drug administration in a comatose individual.
h. Drugs for acute attack of migraine.
i. Local acting antacids
j. Local anaesthetic agents.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2019 (September)
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify Antidiabetic drugs Discuss treatment of diabetic keto acidosis.

b. Classify antimicrobials acting on bacterial cell wall Enumerate indications for vancomycin.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Mention adverse effects & contraindications of glucocorticoids.

b. Discuss oral contraceptive pills.
c. Advantages and Disadvantages of radioactive 1" therapy.
d. Treatment regimens under DOTS therapy.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Drugs used in ACT therapy for Malaria.

b. Mention new drugs approved for treatment of tuberculosis.
c. Steroids for dermatological use
d. Examples of drugs for PPH.
e. Examples of drugs for BPH
f. Drugs for Amebiasis.
g. Drugs for Osteoporosis
h. Indication for Metronidazole.
i. Anthelminthic used in national deworming programme.
j. Anti-microbials effective against herpes zoster.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2020
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Briefly describe mechanism of drug actions with suitable examples.

b. Classify anti-anginal drugs. Describe in brief mechanism of action & therapeutic uses of
Metoprolol.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Mention therapeutic uses, adverse effects & contraindications of spironolactone.

b. Enlist oral & parenteral iron preparations. Mention their uses & side effects.
c. Describe mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of ACE inhibitors.
d. Briefly describe therapeutic uses and adverse effects of first generation ant-histamines.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Define physiological antagonism

b. Enlist any two muscle relaxants & mention their two indications.
c. What are anti-motility drugs? Give one example.
d. Briefly explain first order kinetics.
e. Mention two antiemetic drugs.
f. Define anti-tussives. Give one example.
g. Enlist any two topical (ocular) anticholinergic drugs.
h. Briefly explain mechanism of action of warfarin.
i. Mention two contraindications of nitrates.
j. Define ionotropics. Give one example.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2020
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate Opioid analgesics. Briefly describe their mechanism of action, uses and side effects.
b. Classify oral anti-diabetic drugs. Briefly describe mechanism of action, adverse effects &
contraindications of metformin.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Enlist four non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Mention their uses & contraindications.
b. Classify cephalosporins. Mention uses and adverse effects of ceftriaxone.
c. What is pre-anaesthetic medication? Mention various drugs used for it, giving reasons, for
the administration.
d. Briefly explain mechanism of antimicrobial resistance with suitable examples.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

e. Define local anaesthetics & mention their two indications.

f. What are insulin sensitizers? Give one example
g. What are tocolytics? Give one example
h. Mention two anti-retroviral drugs.
i. Mention two combined OCPs (oral contraceptives)
j. What is live vaccine? Give one example.
k. What are keratolytics? Give one example.
l. Mention one prostaglandin analogue. Write its one indication.
m. Enlist drugs used in treatment of thyroid storm.
n. Enlist any two monoclonal antibodies.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2021
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Enumerate and Describe mechanism of action, adverse effects & uses of ACE Inhibitors.
b. Enumerate and Describe mechanism of action, adverse effects & uses of Second
Generation Antihistamines

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Orphan drugs
b. Therapeutic drug monitoring of Porphyria
c. Teratogenicity
d. Proton pump inhibitors

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Name drug of choice of anaphylactic shock.

b. Name drug of choice of acute attack of Migraine treatment.
c. Name a Beta blocker of choice of Glaucoma treatment.
d. Name drug of choice of Warfarin toxicity.
e. Name a centrally acting muscle relaxant drug.
f. Name drug of choice of Iron poisoning treatment
g. Name drug of choice of Organophosphorus poisoning treatment.
h. Name Diuretic of choice of pulmonary oedema.
i. Name a Contact, Irritant purgative
j. Name a drug given by sublingual route.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2021
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :50

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. Classify Oral Hypoglycaemic drugs. Explain the mechanism of action, uses and side effects of
Sulfonylureas.
b. Classify Antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse
effects of Phenytoin sodium. Mention newer antiepileptic drugs.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Morphine.

b. Write short note on DMARD.
c. Write short note on Albendazole.
d. Three differences between Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Explain briefly the pharmacological basis for combining Carbidopa with Levodopa.
b. What is Raloxifene and mention one use.
c. Mention the rationale of combining Trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole.
d. Mention two Protease inhibitors.
e. Mention the names of drugs used in treatment of Hook worm infestation.
f. Mention the names of Fat-soluble vitamins.
g. Define Tocolytics with examples.
h. Why Mesna is given simultaneously with Cyclophosphamide.
i. What is Goserelin and mention one use.
j. Mention two Demelanizing agents.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2022
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a. 30-year-old female patient comes to OPD with complaints of headache, dizziness and
palpitations. On examination the pulse rate was found to be 110min and BP-160/100 mmHg. The
patient was diagnosed to have essential hypertension.
a. Classify antihypertensive drugs.
b. Role of B-blockers in the treatment of hypertension.
c. Role of Diuretics in the treatment of hypertension.
d. Role of ACE inhibitors in the treatment of hypertension
e. Which drugs are used for treatment of hypertensive crisis?
f. Which antihypertensive drugs are safe during pregnancy?

b. Classify B- adrenergic receptor blockers. Describe pharmacological actions, therapeutic uses

and adverse effects of ß- adrenergic receptor blockers.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Prokinetic Drugs.
b. HMG COA reductase inhibitors.
c. Mechanism of action & therapeutic uses of proton pump inhibitors.
d. Drug therapy of myocardial infarction.
e. Clinical significance of plasma half-life.
f. Describe the role of physician in health care system.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Justify use of epinephrine in anaphylactic shock.

b. Why low dose dopamine is used in acute renal failure?
c. Differences between d-tubocurarine & succinylcholine.
d. Why antihistamines are not used for treatment of bronchial asthma?
e. Why low dose aspirin is used as antiplatelet agent?
f. Explain the pharmacological basis of using lactulose in hepatic coma.
g. Describe mechanism of action of warfarin as anticoagulant agent.
h. Explain why amiodarone is called broad spectrum antiarrhythmic agent?
i. Mention important advantages & disadvantages of prodrug.
j. Justify use of frusemide in acute left ventricular failure.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination 2022
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) Do not write anything on the blank portion of question paper, if written anything such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means

Q1. Long Answer questions 2 X 10 = 20

a.
(i) Classify anti-malarial drugs.
(ii) Mechanism of action and Pharmacological actions of chloroquine.
(iii) Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine.

b. Classify Insulin and Oral Hypoglycaemic Drugs. Write in brief about DPP-4 inhibitors.

Q2. Short Answer Questions 4 X 5= 20

a. Discuss the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and unwanted effect of phenytoin.
b. A 60-year-old lady is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis and has been prescribed prednisolone.
Answer the following:
i. What is the mechanism of action of glucocorticoids?
ii. Name two glucocorticoids which have no mineralocorticoid activity.
iii. Enumerate the adverse effects that you expect in this patient.
c. Classify macrolide antibiotics. Describe briefly its mechanism of action and mention four uses.
d. Classify H, anti-histamines. Enumerates their therapeutics use.
e. Classify Anti-Psychotic Drugs. Write in brief about adverse drug reactions of Anti-Psychotic
Drugs.
f. Classify Penicillins. Describe their therapeutic uses and adverse effects.

Q3. Very Short Answer Questions 1 X 10= 10

a. Explain why - Ethyl alcohol is used in methyl alcohol poisoning.

b. Explain why– Bromocriptine is effective even after Levodopa fails in Parkinsonism.
c. Describe the pharmacological basis of using Lignocaine as local anaesthetics.
d. Mention two drugs for prevention of AIDS in the new born.
e. Multidrug therapy of paucibacillary leprosy. .
f. Enumerate four chelating agents.
g. Enumerate four viral vaccines.
h. Drug therapy of Migraine.
i. Describe the pharmacological basis of using Lithium in Mania.
j. Explain why -Levodopa is not given with Vitamin B6.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Pharmacognosy deals with:

(a) Distribution of drugs (b) Prescribing of drugs (c) Manufacturing of drugs (d) Identifying the drugs

2. Following factors affect distribution of drugs EXCEPT:

(a) Pka of the drug (b) Plasma protein binding (c) Binding to tissues (d) Bioavailability

3. Which of the following drug has intracellular site of action?

(a) Atenolol (b) Diuretics (c) Steroids (d) Digoxin

4. Hemolysis in G-6-PD deficiency is precipitated by all EXCEPT:

(a) Phenytoin (b) Dapsone (c) Quinine (d) Penicillin

5. Elimination of following drugs is dose dependent EXCEPT:

(a) Salicylate (b) Theophyline (c) Phenytoin (d) Chlorpromazine

6. Aspirin is used for secondary prevention of IHD because:

(a) It inhibits TXA2 (b) Inhibit prostacycline (c) Inhibit release of EDF (d) Inhibit synthesis of
synthesis endotheline

7. In switching over treatment of heparin to oral anticoagulant:

(a) Heparin should be (b) Heparin should be (c) Heparin should be (d) Both heparin & oral
stopped abruptly tapered slowly for 2-3 days tapered for over a month anticoagulant should be
given half

8. All are side effects of amiodarone EXCEPT:

(a) Pulmonary fibrosis (b) Corneal deposits (c) Osteoporosis (d) Thyroid dysfunction

9. Drugs which may precipitate classical angina is:

(a) Beta blockers (b) Nitrates (c) Alfa blockers (d) Calcium channel
blocker

10. The loading dose of the drug is governed by its:

(a) Renal clearance (b) Plasma half life (c) Volume of distribution (d) Elimination rate
constant

11. Drug of choice in acute iron toxicity is:

(a) BAL (b) Desferroxamine (c) EDTA (d) Penicillamine

12. Long term use of metoclopramide may cause all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Galactorrhoea (b) Gynaecomastia (c) Constipation (d) Parkinsonism
 13. Which purgative causes hypokalemia?
(a) Bisacodyl (b) Osmotic purgative (c) Liquid paraffin (d) Castor oil

14. Indications of parenteral iron are all EXCEPT:

(a) Malabsorbtion (b) Inability to tolerate oral (c) Mild blood loss (d) Extensive bowel
absorbtion resection

15. Parenteral administration:

(a) Cannot be used with (b) Generally results in a (c) Usually produces a (d) Is too slow for
unconsciousness patients less accurate dosage than more rapid response than emergency use
oral administration oral administration

16. Essential drugs are:

(a) Life saving drugs (b) Drugs that meet the (c) Drugs that are used in (d) Drugs that are listed in
priority health care needs medical emergencies the pharmacopoeia of a
of the population country

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Enumerate four commonly prescribed Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs). Write four uses of
ACEIs and explain underlying pharmacological mechanism of therapeutic benefits for each of those uses.
Enumerate four adverse effects of ACEIs. (1+3+1)

b. Classify drugs used in Peptic Ulcer Disease. Write mechanism of action, uses & adverse effects of Proton Pump
Inhibitors (PPIs). Mention 1(one) drug regimen for the treatment of Helicobacter Pylori infection. (2+2+1)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Write mechanism of action, uses, adverse effects & contraindications of Osmotic diuretics.
b. Mention four antitussive drugs.
c. Mention four drugs used in migraine prophylaxis.
d. Tachyphylaxis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Mention four factors that can alter apparent volume of distribution of a drug?
b. Explain pharmacological basis of combination of adrenaline and lignocaine in most of the local anesthetic
combinations available in the market.
c. Explain pharmacological basis of combination of Hydrochlorothiazide and Triamterene.
d. Enumerate two drugs each for acute & long-term treatment of Migraine.
e. Enumerate two drugs belonging to two different groups used in the treatment of hypertensive emergency.
f. Explain pharmacological basis of combination of Calcium and Magnesium salts in most of antacid
preparations.
g. Enumerate four adverse effects of Anticholinergic drugs
h. Enumerate four uses of Beta Blockers
i. Write two examples of competitive antagonists
j. Enumerate two drugs used in the treatment of productive cough.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Concentration of adrenaline along with local anesthetics is:

(a) 1:1000 (b) 1:10000 (c) 1:100000 (d) 1:200000

2. Short acting benzodiazepine is:

(a) Flurazepam (b) Nitrazepam (c) Midazolam (d) Flunitrazepam

3. Phenytoin has all the adverse effects except:

(a) Hirsutism (b) Gum hypertrophy (c) Hypersensitivity (d) Gonadal atrophy

4. Haloperidol is used in all of the following diseases except:

(a) Schizophrenia (b) Huntingtons disease (c) Parkinsonism (d) Gilles de la tourette's
syndrome

5. Atypical antipsychotics are all except:

(a) Clozapine (b) Zotepine (c) Risperidone (d) Thioridazine

6. Following are the 2nd generation antihistaminics except:

(a) Terfenadine (b) Clemastine (c) Astemizole (d) Loratadine

7. Antimicrobials safe in pregnancy are all except:

(a) Cotrimoxazole (b) Cephalosporins (c) Penicillins (d) Azithromycin

8. All the statements regarding penicillin G are true except:

(a) Good oral efficacy (b) Susceptibility to (c) Narrow spectrum of (d) Hypersensitivity
penicillinase activity

9. Chloramphenicol inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with attachment of aminoacyl t-RNA at
ribosome:
(a) 30s (b) 50s (c) 60s (d) 70s

10. Dantrolene Sodium is a drug of choice for:

(a) Neuroblastoma (b) Malignant (c) Carcinoid Syndrome (d) Carcinoma breast
Hyperthermia

11. All are false regarding pharmacological class of Letrozole except:

(a) SSRI (b) Aromatase inhibitor (c) SERM (d) SNR

12. Patient is administered i.v. quinine following which he developed restlessness and sweating the most likely
cause is:
(a) Hypoglycemia (b) Cinchonism (c) Arrhythmias (d) Sweating
 13. Drugs of choice for neurocysticercosis is:
(a) Praziquantel (b) Albendazole (c) Levamisole (d) Piperazine

14. All of the following can be used for prophylaxis of migraine except:
(a) Sumatriptan (b) Valproate (c) Propranolol (d) Topiramate

15. Which among the following is not an antipsychotic:

(a) Risperidone (b) Haloperidol (c) Fluoxetine (d) Clozapine

16. Which of the following compounds act as a benzodiazepine antagonist:

(a) Flumazenil (b) Fomepizole (c) Furazolidone (d) Flupenthixol

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Classify oral hypoglycemic agents with suitable examples.

b. Compare and contrast between typical and atypical antipsychotic agents

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Write a short note on Selective COX-2 inhibitors.

b. Enumerate the therapeutic uses of various synthetic prostaglandin analogues.
c. Write a short note on DMARDs.
d. Short course chemotherapy under DOTS

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Write two suitable drugs for absence seizure.

b. Write two suitable tocolytics.
c. Write two suitable drugs for opioid deaddiction.
d. Explain why lignocaine is used along with adrenaline during regional anaesthesia?
e. Write two suitable drugs for Malaria chemoprophylaxis.
f. Write two Xanthine oxidase inhibitors.
g. Write two suitable drugs for pseudomembranous enterocolitis.
h. Write two vaccines given by intradermal route.
i. Explain why pyridoxine should be avoided in patient on Levodopa Therapy
j. Write two i.v. general anaesthetic agents.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. All of the following reactions are catalyzed by microsomal enzymes EXCEPT-

(a) Glucuronidation (b) Acetylation (c) Oxidation (d) Glutathione
conjugation

2. A patient Raj Kishore was given pilocarpine. All of the following can be the features seen in him EXCEPT-
(a) Sweating (b) Salivation (c) Miosis (d) Cycloplegia

3. Antagonism between acetylcholine and atropine

(a) Competitive (b) Physiological (c) Non Competitive (d) Irreversible antagonism
antagonism antagonism antagonism

4. Which drug should not be given in pregnancy?

(a) Labetalol (b) ACE inhibitors (c) Hydralazine (d) Methyl dopa

5. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of heparin

(a) Bleeding (b) Thrombocytopenia (c) Hypokalemia (d) Osteoporosis

6. In the middle of a clinical trial, one participant decides to withdraw from the trial. But, the investigator
pressurizes the participant to continue in the study till it completes. Which of the following ethical principles does
the investigator violate
(a) Justice (b) Autonomy (c) Beneficence (d) Non-Maleficence

7. The treatment of orthostatic angina is

(a) Nitroglycerine & (b) Nitroglycerine & (c) Amlodipine & Atenolol (d) Fludrocortisone & High
Atenolol Diltiazem sodium diet

8. Drug of choice for Congenital long QTc syndrome is

(a) MgSo4 (b) Digitalis (c) Propranolol (d) Ibutilide

9. Which of the following act by inhibiting cGMP degradation

(a) Nitrates (b) ANP (c) Sildenafil (d) BNP

10. Drug of choice for cancer chemotherapy induced early vomiting is

(a) Domperidon (b) Aprepitant (c) Ondansetron (d) Hyoscine
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Classify beta blockers and discuss therapeutic uses and adverse effects of propranolol.

b. Classify drugs used in bronchial asthma and discuss therapeutic uses and adverse effects of salbutamol.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. First order kinetics.

b. Pharmacotherapy of open angle glaucoma.
c. Iron preparations and iron therapy
d. Enumerate loop diuretics, their mechanism of action, indications and adverse effect.
e. Compare and contrast between Competitive and non competitive antagonism.
f. Classify antiplatelet agents with examples. Write their indications and adverse effects

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate four uses of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

b. Enumerate four drugs for prophylaxis of migraine
c. Enumerate four mucolytic expectorants
d. Enumerate Four uses of Proton pump inhibiting drugs
e. Topical nasal decongestants
f. Enumerate advantages of low molecular weight heparin
g. Pharmacological management of organophosphorus poisoning
h. Define pharmacogenetics with suitable examples.
i. Explain the pharmacological basis of using pyridostigmine in myasthenia gravis.
j. Explain the pharmacological basis of using adrenaline in the management of anaphylactic shock.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Most potent among opioids is

(a) Morphine (b) Fentanyl (c) Pentazocine (d) Pethidine

2. Benzathine Penicillin is the drug of choice for

(a) Streptococci (b) Gonorrhoea (c) Salmonella (d) Syphilis

3. Which antibiotic is effective against pseudomembranous colitis

(a) Penicillin (b) Vencomycin (c) Metronidazole (d) Albendazole

4. The term Dissociative anesthesia refers to

(a) Ketamine (b) Propofol (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Thiopentol

5. Lugols iodine containes

(a) 5% Iodine and 10% KI (b) 10% Iodine and 20% KI (c) 10% Iodine and 15% KI (d) 5% Iodine and 15% KI

6. Drug of choice for treatment of Mucormycosis is

(a) Fluconazole (b) Amphotericin B (c) 5 - Flucytosin (d) Voriconazole

7. Which of the following is Partial agonist at opioid receptor

(a) Morphine (b) Endorphin (c) Naloxone (d) Buprenorphine

8. Which NSAID has headache as the paradoxical side effects

(a) Etoricoxib (b) Paracetamol (c) Diclofenac (d) Indomethacin

9. Which are NOT Insulin Injection sites

(a) Lateral Thighs (b) Backs of the arms (c) Buttocks (d) In and around
umbilicus

10. Which of the following drug is preferred parenterally (s/c) in obesity treatment
(a) Liraglutide (b) Naltrexone (c) Lorcaserin (d) Orlistat
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Classify NSAIDs and enumerate five therapeutic uses, adverse effects and contraindications of Aspirin.

b. Classify anti tubercular drugs and write treatment protocol for drug sensitive and drug resistance tuberculosis.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Classify cephalosporins and write the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of ceftriaxone.
b. Why sodium valproate is called as broad spectrum antiepileptic drug.
c. Write treatment and prophylaxis of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria.
d. Enumerate therapeutic uses adverse effects of corticosteroids.
e. Why benzodiazepines are preferred over barbiturates as sedative hypnotics.
f. Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM).

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate extrapyramidal side effects of typical neuroleptics.

b. What is on off phenomena and which drugs are combined to overcome this effects.
c. Enumerate four drugs for chronic gout.
d. Why local anaesthetics is combined with adrenaline.
e. Enumerate non epileptic uses of carbamazepine.
f. Enumerate drugs for opioid deaddiction.
g. Name two centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants.
h. Name two uterine relaxants.
i. Name drugs which inhibit conversion of T₄ to T₃
j. Write differences between ester and amide type local anaesthetics
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- I (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Which of the following is a PHARMACODYNAMIC process?

(a) Biochemical alteration of (b) Drug metabolites are (c) Movement of drug from (d) The drug causes receptor
the drug by liver enzymes removed in the urine the gut into general stimulation and response
circulation

2. Which out of the following is the mechanism by which this adrenoceptor agonist produced bronchodilation?
(a) Increased cyclic AMP (b) Decreased cyclic GMP (c) Decreased IP3 (d) Calcium influx

3. Topical administration to the eye of which of the following agents is likely to induce mydriasis and cycloplegia?
(a) Beta blocker (b) Alpha blocker (c) Alpha agonist (d) Muscarinic blocker

4. A patient on neostigmine therapy for Myasthenia gravis complains of progressive fatigue and diplopia who was otherwise
well controlled previously. Infusion of low dose edrophonium elicits a significant improvement in her muscle strength. Which of
the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
(a) Increase neostigmine (b) Administer pralidoxime (c) Stop neostigmine (d) Add low dose propranolol
dosage temporarily

5. Which of the following is the drug of choice for essential hypertension with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
(a) Propranolol (b) Prazosin (c) Neostigmine (d) Dopamine

6. Which of the following is most likely to occur with the use of this beta blocker?
(a) Bronchodilation, (b) Bronchoconstriction, (c) Urination, diarrhea, and (d) Migraine headaches,
hypotension, and hyperglycemia, and mydriasis hypertension, and tocolysis
hyperglycemia hyperlipidemia (uterine relaxation)

7. Which of the following antihistamines would be the MOST appropriate treatment for a 32-year-old airline pilot who has a
long history of seasonal allergic rhinitis and complains of postnasal drainage, coughing, and throat irritation?
(a) Diphenhydramine (b) Fexofenadine (c) Promethazine (d) Chlorpheniramine

8. A diuretic which acts in the thick ascending loop of the nephron would cause:
(a) Hyporeninemia, (b) Hypercalcemia, (c) Hyperglycemia, (d) Hypokalemia,
hyperkalemia, and hyperlipidemia, hypokalemia, hypokalemia, and metabolic hypomagnesemia, and
hypermagnesemia and hyperuricemia acidosis preferential vasodilation in
renal vasculature

9. A 49-year-old female with post-surgical deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is given a bolus of heparin, and a heparin drip is also
started. Twenty-five minutes later, she starts bleeding profusely from the intravenous site. The heparin is stopped, but the
bleeding continues. The attending physician decides to give a counteragent to the adverse effect of heparin. What drug was
given?
(a) Factor XII (b) Aspirin (c) Protamine sulfate (d) Vitamin K

10. A class of anti-anginal medications with multiple mechanisms of action that include: decreased preload, decreased oxygen
demand, decreased afterload (at high doses), and increased myocardial oxygen delivery by dilating large epicardial arteries.
(a) Beta blocker (b) Calcium channel blocker (c) Nitrate (d) Anti-platelet drug
 11. In a 32-year-old woman with a long history of bronchial asthma, the use of mometasone aerosol for treatment is likely to
produce which of the following?
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Essential hypertension (c) Truncal obesity (d) Voice hoarseness

12. A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is administered an antiemetic agent that is an antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor.
Which drug was used in this case?
(a) Buspirone (b) Cyproheptadine (c) Ondansetron (d) Sumatriptan

13. A 54-year-old man is being treated for peptic ulcer disease and subsequently develops gynecomastia. Which of the
following drugs is he most likely taking?
(a) Cimetidine (b) Misoprostol (c) Omeprazole (d) Ranitidine

14. A new drug has been developed with the following characteristics: when 100 mg of the drug is injected, 95 mg remains
after 2 hours, 90 mg remains after 4 hours, and 85 mg remains after 6 hours. This drug shows elimination properties similar to
which of the following drugs in high doses?
(a) Aspirin (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Propranolol

15. Neostigmine will effectively antagonize skeletal muscle relaxation produced by:
(a) Pancuronium (b) Succinylcholine (c) Diazepam (d) Baclofen

16. A 42-year-old male with an acute MI is given streptokinase. What is the mechanism of action of streptokinase?
(a) Inhibition of platelet (b) Antagonism of ADP (c) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (d) Activation of plasminogen
thromboxane production receptor antagonist to plasmin

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Enumerate 4 commonly prescribed Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEIs). Write 4 uses of ACEIs
and explain the underlying pharmacological mechanism of therapeutic benefits for each of those uses.
Enumerate 4 adverse effects of ACEIs.
b. Classify drugs used in Peptic Ulcer Disease. Write the mechanism of action, uses, and adverse effects of
Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs). Mention one drug regimen for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Enumerate Low Molecular Weight Heparins (LMWHs). Write advantages of LMWHs in comparison to
Unfractionated Heparin.
b. Compare and contrast between Zero-order and First-order kinetics of drug elimination.
c. Write the mechanism of action, uses, adverse effects, and contraindications of Osmotic diuretics.
d. Enumerate uses of adrenaline and discuss the management of anaphylactic shock.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Mention 4 factors that can alter the apparent volume of distribution of a drug.
b. Explain the pharmacological basis of the combination of adrenaline and lignocaine in most local anesthetic
combinations available in the market.
c. Explain the pharmacological basis of the combination of Hydrochlorothiazide and Triamterene.
d. Enumerate 2 drugs each for acute and long-term treatment of Migraine.
e. Enumerate 2 drugs belonging to two different groups used in the treatment of hypertensive emergency.
f. Explain the pharmacological basis of the combination of Calcium and Magnesium salts in most antacid
preparations.
g. Write 2 examples of competitive antagonists.
h. Enumerate 2 drugs used in the treatment of productive cough.
i. Name one important drug interaction of sildenafil citrate.
j. Name a drug for Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours Paper- II (old scheme) Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16 16 x 1/2 = 8

1. Fourth Generation cephalosporin is

(a) Cefepime (b) Cefprozil (c) Cefixime (d) Cefadroxil

2. Antagonist of Benzodiazepine is
(a) Naltrexone (b) Flumazenil (c) Naloxone (d) N-Acetyl-cysteine

3. Which of the following drug can decrease the size of prostate

(a) Prazosin (b) Sildenafil (c) Finasteride (d) Testosterone

4. Cryptococcal Meningitis is treated with

(a) Griseofulvin (b) Amphotericin B (c) Posaconazole (d) Caspofungin

5. Dissociative anesthesia is seen on administration of:

(a) Ether (b) Halothane (c) Enflurane (d) Ketamine

6. Which of the following drug is a SERM useful for treatment of osteoporosis?

(a) Raloxifene (b) Bisphosphonate (c) Letrozole (d) Calcitonin

7. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of Mania is:

(a) Clozapine (b) Haloperidol (c) Lithium (d) Diazepam

8. Total dose of chloroquine (250 mg Tablet) in Vivax malaria is:

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10

9. Tramadol is
(a) Anti-flatulent (b) Anti-reflux drug (c) Beta-Blocker (d) Opioid analgesic

10. Drug used as aversion therapy in Alcohol dependence is:

(a) Disulfiram (b) Diazepam (c) Propranolol (d) Methadone

11. Which neurotransmitter system is primarily targeted by tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

(a) Dopamine (b) Serotonin (c) GABA (d) Norepinephrine

12. Which of the following analgesic drugs is a selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor?

(a) Ibuprofen (b) Acetaminophen (c) Celecoxib (d) Morphine

 13. Which of the following medications used in the treatment of gout works by increasing renal excretion of uric
acid?
(a) Colchicine (b) Allopurinol (c) Febuxostat (d) Probenecid

14. Which of the following medications is a glucocorticoid receptor antagonist used for the treatment of Cushing's
syndrome?
(a) Insulin lispro (b) Metoprolol (c) Mifepristone (d) Pioglitazone

15. Which of the following drugs is a nitroimidazole that is commonly used for the treatment of trichomoniasis and
giardiasis?
(a) Chloroquine (b) Metronidazole (c) Atovaquone (d) Mefloquine

16. Which storage temperatures is recommended for maintaining the stability and potency of most vaccines?
(a) -20℃ (-4ºF) (b) 2-8ºC (36-46ºF) (c) 15-25ºC (59-77ºF) (d) 37ºC (98.6ºF)

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 5 = 10

a. Classify Antiepileptic drugs based on their Mechanism of Action. Write Uses and Adverse Effects of Phenytoin.

b. Classify first- and second-line drugs for tuberculosis. Describe and discuss all anti-tuberculosis drug regimens
recommended by RNTCP (2016).

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 4 x 3 = 12

a. Write the advantages of Atypical Antipsychotics over Typical Antipsychotics.

b. Explain the pharmacological actions and therapeutic actions of aspirin at its different doses.
c. Explain the differences in the mechanisms of action between combined oral contraceptives (COCs) and
progestin-only contraceptives (POCs) in detail, including their effects on ovulation, cervical mucus, and
endometrium.
d. Enumerate contraindications of corticosteroids. Discuss the adverse effects associated with long-term
glucocorticoid therapy and strategies to minimize these effects.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

a. Name Two Antipseudomonal Penicillins.

b. Name Two drugs of different classes used in Open Angle Glaucoma.
c. Write Two Contraindications of Morphine.
d. Enumerate drugs used in treatment of Thyroid Storm.
e. Name two drugs used as Local Anaesthetics.
f. Enumerate pre-anaesthetic medications with their role.
g. Explain the mechanisms of bacterial resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics.
h. Enumerate the adverse effects and contraindications of lignocaine and adrenaline combination.
i. Enumerate shared toxicity of aminoglycoside antimicrobials.
j. Enumerate the advantages of combining levodopa and carbidopa.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. A 26-year-old woman from Banjli village, Ratlam presents to the OPD of General Medicine with progressive fatigability and
diplopia. She is currently receiving neostigmine for treatment and claims good compliance. Physical examination reveals
bilateral ptosis. Infusion of low-dose edrophonium elicits a significant improvement in her muscle strength. Which of the
following is the best next step in managing this patient?
(a) Increase neostigmine (b) Add atropine (c) Administer pralidoxime (d) Stop neostigmine
dosage temporarily

2. A pack of girl scouts from Madhyapradesh reports to the emergency department after consuming numerous "wild
mushrooms" during a nature walk and camping trip in the outskirts of Shillong, Meghalaya. In order to be sure that they suffer
from excessive cholinergic stimulation from the Inocybe spp. and can be appropriately treated with Atropine, your physical
examination should include the following signs:
(a) Mydriasis and increased (b) Miosis, flushing, dry skin (c) Dry skin, tachycardia, (d) Excessive sweating,
heart rate and increased heart rate mental confusion miosis, difficulty breathing,
and bradycardia

3. Mr. Santosh Jha is a 66-year-old male who presents to your clinic with a several-month history of straining during urination,
hesitancy, and intermittent urinary flow. Rectal examination revealed a markedly enlarged prostate. Upon reviewing Mr. Jha's
medical record, you also note that his blood pressure was high (160-170/95-100mmHg) during his last several check-ups. He is
not taking any medications. Which of the following drugs would address both of this patient's current problems?
(a) Propranolol (b) Prazosin (c) Dopamine (d) Phenylephrine

4. A 38-year-old man has his blood pressure measured on 3 different occasions in the clinic, yielding values of 145/95, 160/105,
and 150/100. A careful history reveals that he has had a couple of acute gouty attacks in the last 2 years & he is currently
taking allopurinol. The decision is made to treat with a suitable blood pressure-lowering drug. Which of the following drugs
should the physician cautiously AVOID because of his concomitant hyperuricemia?
(a) Captopril (b) Propranolol (c) Nifedipine (d) Hydrochlorthiazide

5. A diuretic which acts in the thick ascending loop of nephron would cause:
(a) Hyporenininemia, (b) Hypercalcemia, (c) Hyperglycemia, (d) Hypokalemia,
Hypermagnesemia, and hypermagnesemia, and hyperlipidemia, hypokalemia hypomagnesemia &
Metabolic acidosis hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia preferential vasodilation in
renal vasculature

6. A 50-year-old Caucasian male is brought to the emergency unit with severe dizziness and confusion. He states that he had an
episode of chest pain and took several tablets of nitroglycerin. His current medications include a daily aspirin for heart attack
prevention, an occasional aspirin for headaches, and occasionally Sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. His blood pressure is
60/30mmHg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following cellular changes is the most likely responsible for the
patient's symptoms?
(a) Receptor downregulation (b) Gs protein (c) Cyclic GMP accumulation (d) Tyrosine kinase activity
phosphorylation

7. A class of antianginal medications with multiple mechanisms of action that include: decreased preload, decreased oxygen
demand, decreased afterload (at high doses), and increased myocardial oxygen delivery by dilating large epicardial arteries.
(a) Beta blocker (b) Dihydropyridine calcium (c) Nondihydropyridine (d) Nitrate
channel blocker calcium channel blocker
 8. A 43-year-old, insulin-dependent diabetic patient is diagnosed with hypertension and begins therapy with an
antihypertensive agent. Three days later, he measures his blood glucose at home and finds that it is 53 mg/dL. He recalibrates
his glucose testing apparatus and repeats the test, only to find that the first reading was accurate. He is concerned that his
hypoglycemia did not produce the normal premonitory signs and symptoms. Which of the following medications was MOST
LIKELY prescribed to treat his hypertension?
(a) Prazocin (b) Propranolol (c) Hydrochlorthiazide (d) Captopril

9. A 5-year-old male child with no previous medical history is brought to the Emergency Unit by his mother because he
accidentally ingested a large dose of rat poison (which has Vitamin K epoxide Reductase Inhibitor as an active ingredient). He is
conscious but appears quite agitated. On physical exam, he is found to have a blood pressure of 110/70 and a heart rate of 90.
Labs are significant for an elevated PT but a normal aPTT. The patient should be immediately treated with:
(a) Protamine (b) Flumazenil (c) Fresh frozen plasma (d) Atropine

10. A 58-year-old alcoholic with chronic obstructive lung disease secondary to cigarette smoking is presently receiving
theophylline as a bronchodilator for his lung disease. Serum levels of theophylline are persistently lower than expected for the
prescribed dose. The patient's wife is responsible for administering the medicine each day and states that she has not missed
any doses. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these laboratory findings?
(a) Cirrhosis of the liver (b) Decreased absorption (c) Enhanced liver (d) Noncompliance
metabolism

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. Classify drugs used for treatment of peptic ulcer and discuss therapeutic uses and adverse effects of proton
pump inhibitors.
b. Classify antihypertensive drugs and discuss adverse effects and advantages of using ACE Inhibitors as
antihypertensive drugs.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Discuss management of Organophosphate poisoning.

b. Discuss Drug-drug Interaction at various Pharmacokinetic & Pharmacodynamic levels.
c. Discuss pharmacotherapy for Status Asthmaticus.
d. Write a short note on the treatment of angle closure glaucoma.
e. Write a short note on drugs for prophylaxis of migraine.
f. Write a short note on the treatment of stable angina.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Name two parenteral iron preparations.

b. Name two anti-secretary anti-motility drugs for the treatment of diarrhea.
c. Name two common side effects of Amlodipine.
d. Name two potassium-sparing diuretics.
e. Name two antihypertensive drugs commonly used to treat eclampsia.
f. Justify why Dextromethorphan is preferred over codeine as an antitussive.
g. Explain why Folic acid alone should not be given in patients with megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12
deficiency.
h. Explain why LMW (Low molecular weight heparin) Heparin is preferred to UFH (Unfractionated Heparin) for
treatment and maintenance of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
i. Explain clinically important side effects of statins drug therapy with preventive measures for the same.
j. Enumerate clinical indications of Anticholinergic drugs.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which of the following has the highest potential to cause metabolic syndrome?
(a) Clozapine (b) Ziprasidone (c) Haloperidol (d) Aripiprazole

2. Which of the following drugs is effective in both Grand Mal and Petit Mal Epilepsy?
(a) Phenobarbitone (b) Phenytoin (c) Carbamazepine (d) Sodium Valproate

3. Drug which is NOT used in a patient of severe complicated Falciparum malaria:

(a) Chloroquine (b) Quinine (c) Artesunate (d) Artemether

4. Which insulin analogue can be administered intravenously?

(a) Insulin Glargine (b) Insulin Lispro (c) Insulin Degludec (d) Insulin Detemir

5. Antipyretic Analgesic devoid of significant Anti-inflammatory effect is:

(a) Paracetamol (b) Ketoprofen (c) Piroxicam (d) Aspirin

6. Drug of choice for neutropenia due to cancer chemotherapy is:

(a) IL-11 (b) Erythropoietin (c) Filgrastim (d) Vitamin-B12

7. ADR caused by bisphosphonates:

(a) Hepatotoxicity (b) Esophageal Ulcers (c) Tachycardia (d) Osteoporosis

8. Which local anesthetic agent is associated with a higher risk of methemoglobinemia?

(a) Bupivacaine (b) Prilocaine (c) Lidocaine (d) Procaine

9. Which class of antibiotics exhibits concentration-dependent killing and is characterized by a post-antibiotic

effect?
(a) Aminoglycosides (b) Fluoroquinolones (c) Tetracyclines (d) Macrolides

10. Which drug is a somatostatin analog used for the treatment of acromegaly and neuroendocrine tumors?
(a) Levothyroxine (b) Desmopressin (c) Octreotide (d) Insulin lispro
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 19-year-old man is brought to the OPD by his mother. He has been kicked out of the hostel for his "bizarre"
behavior. He has accused several fellow students and professors of spying on him for the CIA. He stopped
attending his classes and spends all of his time watching TV because the announcers are sending him secret
messages on how to save the world. He has stopped bathing and will only change his clothes once a week. His
physical examination and blood tests are normal. A drug screen is negative. You diagnose him with acute
psychosis secondary to schizophrenia, admit him to the psychiatric unit of the hospital, and start him on
haloperidol. (6+6+8=20)
1. What is the pharmacological basis of the use of Haloperidol in this condition?
2. What are the advantages of Atypical Antipsychotics over the Typical Antipsychotics?
3. Explain the important ADRs caused by Typical Antipsychotic drugs along with the treatment of those
ADRs.

b. A 58-year-old male weighing 55 kg presented with complaints of cough with expectoration, fever, and night
sweats since the last 4 weeks. He started experiencing shortness of breath since the last 4 days. X-ray chest
revealed a patchy area of consolidation. Sputum smear was positive for Acid Fast Bacilli. There is no previous
history of similar symptoms or treatment taken for Tuberculosis. He was prescribed treatment for
Tuberculosis based on NTEP guidelines. (4+10+6=20)
1. What is the Treatment Regime for Drug Susceptible Tuberculosis as per current NTEP Guidelines?
2. What is the basis of the use of these drugs in this regime? Enumerate the important ADRs of these drugs.
3. What do you mean by Drug Resistant Tuberculosis? Enumerate second-line Anti-TB Drugs.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Explain why abrupt cessation of Glucocorticoids after prolonged therapy is not advised? Enumerate the long-
term ADRs of Corticosteroids.
b. Why are SSRIs preferred in patients of Depression over other drugs?
c. Rationale for using Low-dose Aspirin as an Antiplatelet drug.
d. Describe the management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis.
e. Write regimes used for Emergency Contraception explaining their mechanism of action.
f. Enumerate drugs used and explain their mechanism for action in the prophylaxis of migraine.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Why Levodopa is not used in drug-induced parkinsonism?

b. Why Morphine is contraindicated in Head injury patients?
c. Why Oxytocin and not Ergometrine is used in Induction of Labour?
d. Write two drugs effective in the treatment of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcal infections.
e. Drugs used in Acute attack of Migraine.
f. Why Adrenaline is combined with Lidocaine?
g. Write the Preferred first-line ART regimen based on the National Programme.
h. Drugs used in Chronic Gout.
i. Write the Absolute Contraindications of Hormonal Oral Combined Contraceptive pills.
j. Obstetric Indications of Prostaglandins.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. For which of the following drugs a warning is written "To be sold by retail on the prescription of a Registered
Medical Practitioner only"?
(a) Schedule H (b) Schedule X (c) Schedule Y (d) Schedule J

2. Essential medicines are those medicines:

(a) That are needed to (b) That are needed to (c) That satisfy the priority (d) That are introduced
treat emergency treat serious diseases health care needs of the recently into the market
conditions population

3. Which of the following agent is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer?

(a) PGE1 agonist (b) PGE2 agonist (c) PGD2 agonist (d) PGF2a agonist

4. The success of oral rehydration therapy of diarrhea, depends upon which of the following process in the
intestinal mucosa?
(a) Na+ absorption by Na+ (b) Glucose coupled Na+ (c) Bicarbonate coupled (d) Passive sodium
absorption Na+ absorption diffusion secondary to
nutrient absorption

5. The most important action of beta-blockers in glaucoma is which of the following:

(a) Membrane stabilizing (b) Retinal neuron (c) Decrease production of (d) Pupillary constriction
effect protecting effect aqueous humor

6. A 24-years-old farm worker is rushed to emergency department after an accidental exposure to parathion.
Which of the following drugs can be given to increase the activity of his acetyl cholinesterase?
(a) Atropine (b) Dimercaprol (c) Physostigmine (d) Pralidoxime

7. Drug used in treatment of torsade de pointes:

(a) Quinidine (b) Amiodarone (c) Isoprenaline (d) Verapamil

8. In a patient with hypertriglyceridemia and low HDL, which of the following drug will be best without risk of
myocardial side effect?
(a) Fibric acid derivatives (b) Nicotinic acid (c) Atorvastatin (d) Clofibrate

9. A patient of bronchial asthma was prescribed 2 puffs from a metered dose inhaler of budesonide. Which of the
following should NOT be done?
(a) Shake the inhaler well (b) Clean the inhaler after (c) Wait for 1 minute in (d) Rinse mouth after
before use every use between puffs every use
 10. A 30 years old pregnant woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which has been managed successfully
with NSAIDs. However, she has recently visited her general practitioner complaining of burning epigastric pain
worsened by food intake. Which of the following ulcer Medications is most likely contraindicated in this patient?
(a) Famotidine (b) Omeprazole (c) Misoprostol (d) Ranitidine

Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 35-year-old woman was taking combined oral contraceptive pills. She was diagnosed as a case of Pulmonary
tuberculosis and put on isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol combination therapy daily for 2
months followed by isoniazid and rifampicin thrice weekly for 4 months. In the 3rd month of treatment, she
failed to have withdrawal bleeding during the gap period of contraceptive cycle. Later her urinary pregnancy
test was found positive.

I What is the reason for contraceptive failure?

II Explain Phase I biotransformation reaction with suitable examples.
III Explain Microsomal Enzyme Induction.
IV Explain microsomal enzyme inhibition with suitable examples.

b. A 70 years old male presented with complaints of weak stream of urine, sense of incomplete voiding and
increased urinary frequency. On physical examination and ultrasound, he was diagnosed as having benign
prostatic hyperplasia.

I Enumerate 05 drugs used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

II What is the rationale of using these drugs in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
III Write down the mechanism of action and common side effects of these drugs.
IV What is the role of finasteride in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Enumerate Proton pump inhibitors with their therapeutic uses. Mention first line Anti H. pylori regimen.
b. Treatment of status asthmaticus.
c. Enumerate parenteral iron preparations. Mention in which condition iron therapy be administered by
injection route.
d. Classify Anti-Hypertensive Drugs. Enumerate drug used in hypertension during pregnancy.
e. Classify loop diuretics. Enumerate therapeutic uses and adverse effects of loop diuretics.
f. Classify various dosage forms of drug. Write in brief about Tablets.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate 04 therapeutic uses of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants.

b. Post marketing surveillance study.
c. Enumerate 02 differences between first and zero order kinetics.
d. Explain, why low dose of aspirin is used for myocardial infarction?
e. Name two anti-secretory anti motility drug for treatment of diarrhea.
f. Explain pharmacological basis of combination of Calcium and Magnesium salts in most of antacid
preparations.
g. Enumerate 2 drugs used in the treatment of productive cough.
h. Role of nitrates in cyanide poisoning.
i. Enumerate 04 therapeutic uses of Fibrinolytics.
j. Mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which of the following drug is approved by FDA for generalized HSDD (Hypoactive sexual disorder in
premenopausal women):
(a) Flibanserin (b) Mifepristone (c) Finasteride (d) Clomiphene

2. All of the following drugs are used for treating alcohol use disorder (AUD), EXCEPT:
(a) Disulfiram (b) Naltrexone (c) Fomepizole (d) Acamprostate

3. Which of the following is the most common paradoxical side effect of Indomethacin:
(a) Hypersensitivity (b) Peptic ulcer (c) Frontal headache (d) Nephropathy

4. Which of the following drug used for Acute Toxoplasmosis during early pregnancy:
(a) Spiramycin (b) Clindamycin (c) Sulfadiazine (d) Pyrimethamine

5. Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of Neurocysticercosis:

(a) Mebendazole (b) Metronidazole (c) Albendazole (d) Tinidazole

6. Which of following antiviral is used for the treatment of corona virus:

(a) Cidofovir (b) Ganciclovir (c) Amantadine (d) Remdesivir

7. All of the following drugs inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, EXCEPT:
(a) Methimazole (b) Propylthiouracil (c) Propranolol (d) Dexamethasone

8. All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of osteoporosis, EXCEPT:
(a) Bisphosphonate (b) Raloxifine (c) Tamoxifen (d) Calcitonin

9. Which of the following Cephalosporins has allergic cross reactivity with Aztreonam:
(a) Ceftazidime (b) Ceftaroline (c) Ceftriaxone (d) Cefotaxime

10. Which of the following drug is effective in both grand mal and petit mal epilepsy:
(a) Phenobarbitone (b) Sodium valproate (c) Phenytoin (d) Carbamazepine
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 30-year-old mother comes to OPD. On history taking, she had 4 months baby and lactating. She wanted to
space out her next child and consulting you for taking contraceptive pills.

I Which type of hormonal contraceptive would you suggest?

II Enumerate Adverse effect and Contraindication of oral contraceptive pills.
III Write regimens used as Emergency contraceptives.
IV Write basis used of clomiphene in infertility.

b. A 47-year-old man attends neurology clinic with complaints of resting tremors of right hand and arm. He
moves slowly and has diminished range of facial expressions. His speech is slow and monotonous. He is
diagnosed to be suffering from early stage of Parkinson’s disease. He was prescribed levodopa/Carbidopa
250mg/25mg four times daily.

I Explain the rationale of combining levodopa with carbidopa and what are the advantages of combination.
II Classify Antiparkinsonian drugs.
III What are advantages of dopamine receptor agonists over levodopa/carbidopa combination.
IV Enumerate drugs causing Parkinsonism and write treatment of drug-induced Parkinsonism.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Enumerate 3rd generation Cephalosporins & write their therapeutic uses and adverse effects.
b. Enumerate Atypical antipsychotics. Write their advantages over typical antipsychotics.
c. Enumerate nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID). Write basis of use of Paracetamol as antipyretic.
d. Write notes on SGLT-2 inhibitors.
e. Enumerate SSRIs & write rationale for use of Fluoxetine in depression.
f. Enumerate drugs for MDR & XDR tuberculosis. Write basis of combination therapy in tuberculosis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Explain oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine for induction of labour.

b. Abrupt withdrawal of glucocorticoids after prolonged therapy is not advised, why?
c. Enumerate 04 drugs used in prophylaxis of migraine.
d. Write drug used in anaerobic infection.
e. Write drug used is Staphylococcal infection.
f. Explain Lugol’s iodine is used prior to thyroid surgery.
g. Write drugs for chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria.
h. Write notes on fluoroquinolones.
i. Write basis of use of valproate in epilepsy.
j. Why morphine is contraindicated in patients having head injury.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination August-2024
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which of the following is a prodrug?

(a) Ampicillin (b) Captopril (c) Levodopa (d) Phenytoin

2. Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor?

(a) Ketoconazole (b) Rifampicin (c) Tolbutamide (d) Phenobarbitone

3. Partial agonist possess:

(a) Maximum intrinsic (b) High intrinsic activity (c) Low intrinsic activity (d) Low intrinsic activity
activity and low affinity and no affinity and high affinity and low affinity

4. This anti-platelet drug is a prodrug and blocks P2Y12 receptor.

(a) Aspirin (b) Tirofiban (c) Clopidogrel (d) Abciximab

5. Approved drug for obesity is:

(a) Topiramate (b) Orlistat (c) Metformin (d) Sibutramine

6. Which of the following anti-histaminic has very less cholinergic side effects?
(a) Promethazine (b) Chlorpheniramine (c) Triprolidine (d) Loratadine

7. Anticholinergic used pre-anesthetically to reduce secretions is:

(a) Glycopyrrolate (b) Homatropine (c) Ipratropium (d) Dicyclomine

8. Mechanism of action of Zileuton is:

(a) Inhibit production of (b) Inhibit lipoxygenase (c) Inhibit cyclooxygenase (d) Inhibit activity of mast
IgE cells

9. Antihypertensive which can be used in patients with gout and diabetes mellitus is:
(a) Thiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Propranolol (d) Diazoxide

10. Side effect of corneal microdeposits is seen most commonly with which of the following drugs?
(a) Esmolol (b) Amiodarone (c) Adenosine (d) Bretylium
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 42-year-old man complains of recurrent epigastric pain, anorexia, and nausea. Clinical history revealed that
pain episodes started 2 years earlier and became frequent for the last two months. The patient had taken
antacid as medication to relieve pain. He smokes a pack of cigarettes and 10 cups of coffee daily. Barium meal
examination was suggestive of gastric ulcers, which was confirmed by endoscopy. On serological examination,
the patient has H. pylori infection.

I. What will be the treatment of this patient?

II. Write drugs used for peptic ulcer?
III. Describe the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitor?
IV. Write therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Proton pump inhibitors?

b. A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency room with substernal chest pain radiating towards the left
shoulder.

I. What should be its immediate and prophylactic management?

II. Write the difference between classical and vasospastic angina?
III. Write the mechanism of action of nitrate and their role in angina pectoris?
IV. What are the adverse drug effects and therapeutic uses of Nitrates?

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Write pharmacotherapy of open-angle glaucoma?

b. Write therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
c. Discuss in short potassium-sparing diuretics?
d. Classify beta-blockers? Write the role of beta-blockers in Hypertension?
e. Enumerate atropine substitutes. Write therapeutic uses and ADRs of atropine substitutes used in the eye.
f. Write the difference between competitive and non-competitive receptor antagonism?

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Write the rationale for using beta-2 agonists in bronchial asthma?

b. Define Pharmacovigilance. Which is the national Reporting Centre in India?
c. Classify antiemetic drugs?
d. Explain why edrophonium is the preferred drug for differentiation between cholinergic and myasthenic crisis?
e. Write the treatment of severe migraine?
f. Write antihypertensive drugs which are safe in pregnancy?
g. Write the treatment of acute iron poisoning?
h. Write complications of thiazide diuretics?
i. Explain why adrenaline is added to local anesthetics?
j. Explain why heparin is preferred as an anticoagulant in pregnancy than warfarin sodium?
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination August-2024
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Action of flumazenil on benzodiazepine receptor is:

(a) Agonist (b) Partial agonist (c) Inverse agonist (d) Antagonist

2. Which of the following drug should not be given along with levodopa:
(a) Carbidopa (b) MAO inhibitors (c) Vitamin B complex (d) Benserazide

3. Which of the following statement about phenytoin is true?

(a) It follows zero order (b) It is not teratogenic (c) It is excreted (d) It does not induce
kinetics unchanged in urine microsomal enzymes

4. Erythromycin is given in intestinal hypomotility because:

(a) It increases bacterial (b) It decreases bacterial (c) It binds to adenylyl (d) It binds to motilin
count count cyclase receptors

5. Which of the following drug does not induce extrapyramidal side effects?
(a) Metoclopramide (b) Domperidone (c) Haloperidol (d) Chlorpromazine

6. Uricosuric drug among these is:

(a) Probenecid (b) Colchicine (c) Allopurinol (d) All of these

7. Drug causing Fanconi's syndrome is:

(a) Tetracycline (b) Ciprofloxacin (c) Gentamicin (d) Clarithromycin

8. Which is the common side effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics:

(a) Nausea (b) Abdominal pain (c) Nephrotoxicity (d) Hepatotoxicity

9. Which of the following is the most common paradoxical side effect of Indomethacin:
(a) Hypersensitivity (b) Peptic Ulcer (c) Frontal headache (d) Nephropathy

10. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated in epilepsy?

(a) Xenon (b) Enflurane (c) Halothane (d) Ether
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 45-year male diagnosed as a case of schizophrenia based on disturbed thinking process, inappropriate
talking and behavior, restlessness, bursts of temper, anxiety, poor self-care, disturbed sleep, delusional
beliefs, and occasional auditory hallucinations. (5+5+5+5)

I. Classify the drugs used for the treatment of above condition and enumerate the longer acting injectables
(LAI) for the same.
II. Write down the mechanism of action and uses of Haloperidol.
III. Adverse drug reactions of Haloperidol and its management.
IV. Compare between Haloperidol and Olanzapine.

b. A 45-year male office executive with sedentary lifestyle was diagnosed to have developed type 2 diabetes
mellitus. His fasting and post-meal blood glucose was 150 mg/dl and 240 mg/dl respectively, HbA1C was 7.8%,
BP was 150/92 mm Hg. He was advised suitable diet, exercise, and other lifestyle modifications. (5+5+5+5)

I. Classify Oral Antidiabetic agents and Enumerate the Insulin analogues.

II. Mechanism of action of Sulfonylureas.
III. Mechanism of action and Advantages of Metformin.
IV. Management of Diabetic coma.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Differentiate between Benzodiazepine and Barbiturate.

b. Discus the therapeutic uses of Corticosteroids.
c. Write a short note on Pre-anesthetic medications.
d. Mechanism and Adverse effects of Sulphonamides antibiotics.
e. Discuss the adverse effects of first line Antitubercular drugs.
f. Management of severe complicated falciparum malaria.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate drugs used for treatment of MRSA (Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)
b. Write in brief about mechanism of Colchicine in Gout.
c. Name any four atypical antidepressants.
d. Explain, Why Ethyl alcohol is used in methyl alcohol poisoning.
e. Explain why, Aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral fever.
f. Enlist the important adverse effects of Amphotericin-B.
g. Name any four biological agents used in Rheumatoid Arthritis.
h. Explain, why Cilastatin is combined with imipenem.
i. Mention disadvantage of using selective COX-2 inhibitor.
j. Write two Second generation antihistamines and their two uses.
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which of the following is determined by half-life of a drug?

(a) Steady state plasma (b) Plasma protein binding (c) Bioequivalence (d) Bioavailability
concentration

2. The study of variation in drug response as per biological rhythm and timing is known as
(a) Reverse pharmacology (b) Pharmacovigilance (c) Chrono pharmacology (d) Pharmacometrics

3. All except one are centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants

(a) Baclofen (b) Tizanidine (c) Benzodiazepine (d) Dantrolene

4. Prostaglandin useful for the prevention of duodenal ulcer is:

(a) Dinoprost (b) Misoprostol (c) Alprostadil (d) Carboprost

5. All are contraindications to beta-blockers except

(a) Severe bradycardia (b) Heart block (c) Dissecting aneurysm of (d) Peripheral vascular
aorta disease

6. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of heparin?

(a) Bleeding (b) Thrombocytopenia (c) Hypokalemia (d) Osteoporosis

7. In all of the following phases of clinical trial ethical clearance is required except
(a) Phase I (b) Phase II (c) Phase III (d) Phase IV

8. Mechanism of action of Amiloride is inhibition of

(a) Na+ k+2Cl- cotransport (b) Aldosterone receptor (c) Na+ Cl- symport (d) Renal epithelial Na+
channel

9. Antithrombotic includes all except

(a) Urokinase (b) Abciximab (c) Dipyridamole (d) Aspirin

10. Which drug is useful in hepatic encephalopathy

(a) Magnesium sulphate (b) lactulose (c) bisacodyl (d) alvimopan
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 60-year-old male is a retiree and was admitted to the hospital. He is 100kg at a height of 180cm so his
calculated body mass index (BMI) was 30.9 indicating that he was overweight. When admitted, known case of
heart failure for 3 years ago and he had also diagnosed with hypertension for 5 years. Patient was complained
of shortness of breath for 2 weeks and was worsening on the day of admission. Besides, he also experienced
orthopnea, fatigue, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea and leg swelling up to his thigh. He was admitted to the
hospital for to the same problem last year. He smokes 2-3 cigarettes a day also drinks occasionally.

I. What are the various pharmacological agents used in chronic Heart failure?
II. What are the adverse effects associated with Digitalis and factors that may increase its toxicity?
III. How do you treat acute heart failure?
IV. Explain vasodilators used in congestive heart failure.

b. A 36-year-old male came to the ophthalmic emergency department with Complaints of severe headache,
right eye pain and redness, blurred vision and colored halos for 1-2 days. On a tonometric examination the
patient was having intraocular pressure of 52mm of Hg, the diagnosis of angle closure Glaucoma was made.

I. Classify the drugs used for the management of glaucoma.

II. Enumerate the mechanism of action and adverse effects seen with Prostaglandins used for treatment of
glaucoma
III. Elaborate the role of beta blockers in treatment of glaucoma
IV. Management of acute angle closure glaucoma.

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Write adverse effects and contraindications of Heparin therapy.

b. Management of Organophosphorus poisoning.
c. Compare and Contrast Selective and non-selective beta blockers.
d. High ceiling diuretics and its clinical indications.
e. State the importance of Health care as a right.
f. Differentiate between competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibition

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. State the Names of any two nasal decongestants.

b. Define Prodrug. State two examples of the same
c. Write two drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis.
d. State the reason of combining Thiazide Diuretics along With Spironolactone.
e. Write two drugs used for chemotherapy induced vomiting
f. Why coadministration of sildenafil and nitrates should be avoided?
g. Why mixtures of aluminum and magnesium salts usually co-formulated as antacids?
h. Four examples of drugs having narrow therapeutic window.
i. Why lignocaine is combined with adrenaline during anesthetic procedures?
j. Why sudden withdrawal of beta blocker is not done in a hypertensive patient?
 Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Pharmacology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which of the following drugs does not cause hypoglycemia?

(a) Acarbose (b) Insulin (c) Glimepiride (d) Nateglinide

2. Which drug is not included in Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatoid Drugs (DMARDs)?

(a) Chloroquine (b) Vincristine (c) Penicillamine (d) Leflunomide

3. The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that occurs after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is
called:
(a) Time-dependent killing (b) Post-Antibiotic effect (c) Concentration- (d) Sequential Block
dependent killing

4. All of the following can be used to treat alcohol dependence except:

(a) Naltrexone (b) Acamprosate (c) Flumazenil (d) Disulfiram

5. Red man syndrome is caused by which drug?

(a) Linezolid (b) Clindamycin (c) Vancomycin (d) Teicoplanin

6. Therapeutic indication of Donepezil:

(a) Parkinsonism (b) Alzheimer's Disease (c) Multiple sclerosis (d) Myasthenia Gravis

7. Antihistamine used in motion sickness is:

(a) Cetirizine (b) Meclizine (c) Diphenhydramine (d) Fexofenadine

8. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:

(a) Centrally acting (b) Levodopa (c) Selegiline (d) Entacapone
Anticholinergics

9. In a patient on Isoniazid, which vitamin deficiency is more likely to be seen?

(a) Vitamin B9 (b) Vitamin B12 (c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B3

10. Neuroleptics cause hyperprolactinemia by blocking the effect of the following on pituitary lactotropes:
(a) Dopamine (b) Glycine (c) Acetylcholine (d) Serotonin
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A male aged 40 years, brought to hospital by his relatives for having jerking of limbs and convulsions with
frothing from mouth. It was told that attack last for about 2 minutes. Such attack also occurred in the past.

I. Classify anti-epileptic drugs.

II. Write down mechanism of action of Sodium Valproate.
III. Write down five non epileptic uses of anti-epileptic drugs.
IV. Write treatment of status epilepticus

b. A 36 years old male was diagnosed as having severe complicated falciparum malaria.

I. Write down the management of the above condition.

II. Discuss in brief about therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine.
III. Write a note on Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT).
IV. What is the rationale of using primaquine in treatment of malaria?

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Write a note on SGLT-2 inhibitors.

b. Enumerate SSRIs Write basis of use of fluoxetine in depression.
c. Why carbidopa is given with levodopa in parkinsonism
d. Write Antipseudomonal cephalosporins and their uses.
e. Write a short note on beta lactamase inhibitors.
f. Write the advantages of atypical antipsychotics over typical antipsychotics.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Write D2 Receptor partial agonists.

b. Write down important differences between propylthiouracil and carbimazole.
c. Write down rationale of using Samidorphan with Olanzapine in Schizophrenia.
d. Enumerate Adverse effects of aminoglycosides.
e. Explain Why sudden withdrawal of glucocorticoids after prolong therapy is Contraindicated.
f. Explain why antitubercular drugs are given in combination.
g. Write the mechanism of action of paracetamol as antipyretic.
h. Write note on Postcoital pills.
i. Enumerate antiamoebic drugs. Write therapeutic uses of metronidazole.
j. Two antiretroviral drugs use to prevent mother to child transmissions.