Himachal Pradesh Civil Judge (Main) Examination, 2017

PAPER – I: CIVIL LAW-I

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Note:
Part A is compulsory. Answer three questions from Part B. Support your answers with
relevant statutory provisions and appropriate judicial pronouncements as may be
desirable. Answers to all the parts of a question may be written at one place in continuity.

Part A
1.
(a) What is a 'judgment' ? Mark the differences between 'judgement' and 'decree'.
6
(b) "Any particular judicial determination of a court may be either a 'decree' or an 'order'. To
find out whether it is a decree or an order is a matter of substance. Moreover, whether or
not an expression of the court qualifies to be a decree, the pleadings of the parties and the
proceedings leading up to the passing of the order will have to be duly taken into account."
Elaborate and discuss this statement in the light of the leading case law on the matter.
8
(c) "In order to determine whether a suit is of a civil nature or not, the relevant determining
factor is not the status of the parties to the suit but the subject matter of the suit." Applying
this criterion, give an illustrative account of the rights of civil nature and the suits of civil
nature.
10
(d) A is engaged in the business of transportation and B hired the services of A for transporting
goods from Delhi to Shimla for full truck loads. B was to make payment of the freight
charges on delivery of the goods at Shimla but B avoided the said payment at Shimla, and
the consignee at Shimla informed. A that the payment will be made by B at Delhi.
Accordingly A approached B for making payment of the said freight charges, but B avoided
the same. In this regard :
(i) suggest steps for taking legal action in the matter for the recovery of freight
amount.
6
(ii) draft a plaint and written statement based on same facts.
10
2.
(a) In an assertion that a particular document is a Will made by a person namely X. Shall for
substantiating that claim the status of the property of X and his family at the date of the
alleged Will be relevant facts or not? Justify your answer with reference to the relevant
provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
10
(b) A is accused of dishonest misappropriation of certain property which he had found. He
contends that at the time of appropriation of that property he believed in good faith that
the real owner of the property could not be found. Are, for the purpose of looking into this
contention, the following facts relevant for consideration?
(i) A public notice of the loss of property was given in the place where A was showing that he
did not believe in good faith that the real owner of the property could not be found.

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(ii) A knew, or had reason to believe, that the notice was given fraudulently by C, who had
heard of the loss of the property and wished to set up a false claim to it, showing the fact
that A's knowledge of the notice did not disprove his (A's) good faith.
Support your answer with reference to the provisions of Section 14 of the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872.
12
(c) Regarding a "deed", A affirms that it is genuine while B affirms that it is forged. Under
Section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, A may prove a statement by B that the deed is
genuine, and B may prove a statement by A that the deed is forged; but A cannot prove a
statement by himself that the deed is genuine, nor can B prove a statement by himself that
the deed is forged. Discuss in the light of the principle laid down in the given section.
12
(d) Give an account of the penal provisions under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 as applied in the
State of Himachal Pradesh.
6
Part B
3.
(a) Trace out the genesis and development of the doctrine of resjudicata. What is the present
state of judicial precedent that has evolved in India on the application of the doctrine of
resjudicata in its magnitude and application to suits and writs? Support your response with
an analytical view of the case law.
10
(b) A, B and C were three reversioners. A and B filed a suit for possession and half of the
property sold by a Hindu widow D. In the suit C was made a co-defendant with the buyer
E. The suit was decreed and it was held that the sale was not for any legal necessity. Later
C filed another suit against E to obtain possession of other half of properties on the ground
that the finding in the previous suit regarding legal necessity was not binding on C as C did
not contest the previous suit. Can the former suit operate as resjudicata on the later suit?
Support your answer with reasons.
10
(c) Attempt a lucid description of the provisions of Code of Civil Procedure Code dealing with
the determination of the appropriate forum having jurisdiction for filing a civil suit.
10
(d) A contract of partnership was entered into by Firm A having Head Office at Amritsar with
Firm B also having Head Office at Amritsar. Firm A was to purchase wool at X in Patiala
District and to send it to Amritsar to Firm B for sale. The accounts of the partnership firm
were kept at Amritsar. A suit for the dissolution of partnership was filed in a court at X.
Whether the court at X has jurisdiction to try the suit? Describe the position under relevant
provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure.
10

4.
(a) In State of Himachal Pradesh V. Lekh Raj, AIR 1999 SC 3916, the Supreme Court of India
held that if discrepancy in the evidence of an eye witness is trivial and does not amount to
any contradiction it does not render the prosecution evidence doubtful. Explain in the light
of judicial precedent.

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 10
(b) In Shamsher Singh V. State of Haryana, AIR 2002 SC 3480, the Supreme Court opined that
in case of proof for a murder it is not necessary that all witnesses at the time of occurrence
should be examined. A mere non-examination of one of the witnesses to speak on the
same point does not impair the prosecution when the eye-witnesses examined fully
support the prosecution case. Examine the opinion critically.
10
(c) In the case of Kalawati V. State of Himachal Pradesh, AIR 1953 SC 546 it was held by the
Supreme Court that Article 20(3) of the Constitution was no bar in using a retracted
confession against the accused. It does not contemplate the suppression of truth. Give an
accurate and concise appraisal of the position of law on the subject as it stands now.
10
(d) A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved that A said "B and I murdered C".
The court may consider the effect of this confession as against B. In another situation, A is
on his trial for murder of C. There is evidence to show that C was murdered by A and B,
and that B said "A and I murdered C". This statement may not be taken into consideration
by the court against A, as B is not being jointly tried. Discuss with reference to the principle
as set up by Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
10

5.
(a) Will a statement in the diary of a deceased solicitor, regularly kept by him in the course of
business, that, on a given day, the solicitor attended X at a place mentioned, in Shimla, for
the purpose of conferring with him upon specified business, be relevant to determine the
presence of X in Shimla on a given day ? Support your answer with relevant provisions of
law.
10

(b) Can the testimony of a raped woman to accepted without corroboration? Answer with
reference to judicial precedent.
10
(c) Give an appraisal of the position and powers of the authorities under the Indian Stamp Act,
1899, as applied in the State of Himachal Pradesh, regarding 'references' and 'revision' of
any matters/issues arising for determination under the Act..
10
(d) Give a systematic appraisal of the classification, composition and jurisdiction of
Subordinate Civil Courts under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976.
10
6.
(a) Plaintiff filed suit against W (widow of his brother) for declaration of title to suit property,
to put him in possession and for arrears of rent with further mesne profits. Suit was
decreed on 05.09.2003. Three days thereafter, the plaintiff sold the suit property to P. The
widow filed appeal. During the pendency of the appeal P was impleaded as respondent
under Order 22 Rule 10 CPC, since the property in suit had been assigned to him. The
plaintiff filed an application for dismissing the suit as not pressed as he had compromised
the dispute with W and wanted the compromise to be recorded. It is opposed by P
contending that he being transferee-pendente- lite was virtually interested in the decree

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 remaining intact. The plaintiff contended that under Order 23 Rule 1 CPC, he has right to
compromise suit with W against whom he had filed suit and he cannot be forced by any of
the parties to continue to prosecute the suit. Decide the plaintiff's application.
10
(b) In a land acquisition matter the Reference Court enhanced the land value from 3 lakh to
25 lakhs vide award dated 13.12.2000. The State filed appeal against the award without
noticing that the sole respondent in the award had died before filing the said appeal. On
23.05.2002, an application was filed quoting Order 1, Role 10 CPC for joining names of legal
representatives of the deceased respondent, alleging that government came to know
about the death of the sole respondent only when notice of appeal was returned unserved
stating that he is no more. The application is contested by the proposed legal
representatives on the ground that Order 22, Rule 4 CPC is the relevant provision to be
invoked and the application for the impleadment of the legal representatives should have
been filed within 90 days after the death of the sole respondent as per Article 120 of the
Limitation Act and one officer of the government knew about the factum of death and
therefore, the appeal abates. The government contends that Order 1, Role 10 CPC is
relevant and there is no specified period of limitation for making such an application and
if at all any such application is necessary, the same could be filed within 3 years under
Article 137 of the Limitation Act and in this case, the application was filed much ahead of
that time. Decide taking a due note of the contentions of the parties in the matter.
15
(c) A agreed to sell a plot of land to B for 45 lakhs. An advance of 15 lakhs was paid by B to A.
After another month. B paid further amount of 20 lakhs to A On such payment, A put B in
possession of the plot of land and the balance amount of 10 lakhs to be paid by B to A on
the completion of the paper work and registration of the sale deed. B failed to keep his
commitment, and A filed a suit for specific performance of contract which was decreed by
court allowing B two months more time to make the balance payment. But B failed to make
payment of 10 lakhs to A within the time allowed by the court. On the basis of these facts :
(i) Prepare an application for A to seek rescission of the decree and the contract.
5
(ii) Discuss the fate of the application of A under the applicable provisions of law.
10
7.
(a) Is school certificate accepted as a positive proof of the age for the purposes of the
determination of juvenile status of a child? Refer to latest judicial trends.
6
(b) Can a suit, though of civil nature, be barred from the cognizance of Civil Court on the
ground of Public Policy ?
6
(c) Can a court in India consider whether conclusions reached in a foreign judgement are
supported by the evidence or are othewise correct? Substantiate your answer.
8
(d) Do as required in the following:
(i) A files a suit against B for property E and court passes a decree for property F. When the
time to appeal had elapsed, the mistake is detected. Advice A.
(ii) X wants to recover his property which was sold in execution of a decree against Y. Advice
X.

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 6
(iii) A court allows a plaintiff to withdraw the suit filed by him with liberty to bring a fresh suit
on the same cause of action. The defendant challenges the validity of the order in the fresh
suit so instituted. Decide.
8
8.
(a) Explain the requisites of granting Temporary, Perpetual and Mandatory Injunction under
the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
10
(b) P was in possession of a shop for the last 20 years. Q forcibly dispossessed P of the shop.
After 60 days of dispossession P filed against Q a suit for recovery of the shop. Q defended
the suit denying forcible dispossession by him and also contended that the suit for
possession did not lie without proof of title. He further pleaded that a prior trespasser
cannot eject a later trespasser. P failed to produce his title deeds to the shop. Decide the
case applying the provisions of law and principles of formal adjudication.
10
(c) Explain the requirements for filing suits against government.
10
(d) What is mediation as an alternative mechanism for the resolution of disputes of civil
nature? Highlight the merits of mediation and its requirements for success.
10

Paper II : CIVIL LAW - II

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks 200
Note : - Question No. 1 and 8 are compulsory. Attempt three questions from the rest. In all
five questions are to be attempted. Write legibly quoting provisions of the law and
relevant Case law. Each part of the question must be answered in sequence in the
same continuation. Give reasons for your answer.
1.
(a) Sri Sri Namosadhu Naadan is a spiritual guru. Ghamandilal, owner of a chain of hotels
'Madisson Flu' in Shimla and other states of India, is his blind follower. Under Guruji's
advice, Ghamandilal transfers his chain of hotels in the name of Sri Sri Namosadhu Naadan
Trust' being managed by Guruji. Later, he alleges a foul play by Guruji and wants to avoid
the contract claiming that his consent was not free. Advise Dukhilal.
14
(b) When a contract is made by post, it is clear law throughout that the acceptance is complete
as soon as the letter is put into the post box, and where the contract is made. Discuss the
above statement in the light of the provisions of Contract Law.
13
(c) Priyanka executed a promissory note in favour of Deepika for Rs. 1,00,000 on 29th Nov.
2015. She was a minor at the time of the execution but made a false representation to
Deepika that she was a major and obtained money under the promissory note. Later
Priyanka refused to pay back. Deepika filed a suit of recovery of Rs. 1,00,000 under the said
note. Can Deepika recover the amount ? Decide with the help of relevant case law.
13
2.

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(a) When can a contract be said to be discharged by frustration? What are the grounds of
frustration?
14
(b) The Limitation Act is a procedural law. It bars a suit for the enforcement of a right but does
not extinguish the right itself. Comment on the statement.
13
(c) Write a detailed note on Adverse Possession.
13
3.
(a) Mr X is the owner of a building B and Mr Y owns the land adjacent to B. Mr Y digs a tank on
his land without causing any immediate apparent injury to the building but a portion of
the building B subsides. Mr X wants to sue Mr Y for compensation for the injury done to
the building. When does the period of limitation for his suit begin to run. Support your
answer with the help of relevant provisions of Limitation Act, 1963 and the relevant case
law.
14
(b) The Transfer of Property Act deals with transfer intervivos. However, an interest may be
created in favour of an unborn person. Discuss the relevant provision with the help of the
decided case laws.
13
(c) Once a mortgage always a mortgage. Comment on the statement with the help of relevant
provisions and precedents.
13

4. Differentiate between the following:

(i) Mitakshara and Dayabhaga schools of Hindu Law
14
(ii) Vested and Contingent interests
13
(iii) Fraud and Misrepresentation.
13
5.
(a) Discuss the legal provisions regarding restitution of conjugal rights and judicial separation
under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
14
(b) Discuss the changing concept of 'Cruelty' as a ground of matrimonial relief under the
Hindu Law. Support your answer with landmark cases.
13
(c) Section 13 of the Act casts a duty on the landlord to keep the building in good repairs and
on his failure to do so, the tenant gets a right to carry out such work and the charges and
costs incurred by him can be deducted from the rent. In view of HP Urban Rent Control
Act, analyse the statement critically.
13
6. Explain the following doctrines:
(i) ' Feeding the grant by Estoppel'
14
(ii) "Election'

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 13
(iii) Lis-pendens
13
7.
(a) Under what circumstances can delay be condoned in in the filing of appeals and
applications.
14
(b) Explain the doctrine of sufficient cause for condonation of delay.
13
(c) State of Himachal Pradesh (HP) filed a suit for recovery of land against Mr. Yogi after expiry
of the limitation period. Mr Yogi pleaded that the said suit was barred by limitation. Can
the state of HP take this plea that the Government of HP is exempted from limitation rules?
Decide.
13
8. Describe the provisions and procedure for the following as prescribed under HP Urban
Rent Control Act:

(a) Determination revision of fair rent

10
(b) Revision of fair rent
10
(c) Eviction of tenant
10
(d) Power to make rules
10

Paper III : CRIMINAL LAW

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Note:- Attempt Five questions in all. Question No. 1 and 2 under Part A are compulsory
questions. Attempt other three questions from Part B and Part C selecting at least one
question from each Part. Each question carries 40 marks.
Write legibly quoting provisions of law and the relevant case laws in support of your
answer. Each part of the question must be answered in sequence in the same
continuation. Give reasons in support of your answer.

Part A
(Compulsory Questions)
1.
(a) (i) 'A' takes up a stick, saying to Z, I will give you a beating. Whether the 'A's' gesture
explained by the words may amount to any offence? If yes, give reasons, case-law and legal
provisions in support of your answer.
5
(ii) 'A' causes bodily injury to 'Z' by poison and thereby Z dies in consequence thereof. 'A'
pleads against his trial that by resorting to proper remedies and skillful treatment the
death might have been prevented. Whether such plea in defence of 'A' may be accepted
by the court of law? Give reason in support your answer.
5

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(b) (i) 'A' is the paramour of 'Z's' wife. She gives a valuable property to 'A', which 'A' knows to
belong to her husband 'Z' and to be such property as she has not authority from 'Z' to
give. 'A' takes the property dishonestly. Whether 'A' has committed the offence of theft?
If so, support your answer with the help of relevant provisions of law.
5
(ii) 'A', intending himself to be likely permanently to disfigure Z's face, gives "Z" a blow which
does not permanently disfigure Z's face, but which causes 'Z' to suffer severe bodily pain
for the space of twenty days. Has 'A' committed any offence? Support your answer with
provisions of law.
5
(c) (i) 'A', knowing that he is likely to cause the death of a pregnant woman, does an act and
thereby causes bodily injury to the woman, but woman does not die. This bodily injury
caused to woman resulted into the death of an unborn quick child with which she is
pregnant. Is 'A' guilty of any offence defined under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 ? If so,
refer to legal provisions and decided case-law.
5
(ii) 'A', under the influence of madness, attempts to kill 'Z' and creates reasonable
apprehension of danger to the body of "Z" arises from such an attempt. Has 'Z' a right of
private defence against such an attempt of 'A' ? Support your answer with legal provisions.
5

(d) (i) 'A', with the intention of murdering 'Z', instigates 'B', a child under seven years of age, to
do an act which cases Z's' death. 'B', in consequence of the abetment, does the act in
absence of 'A' and thereby causes Z's death. What is, if any, criminal liability of 'A' and 'B'
? Refer to the provisions of law and decided case-law to substantiate answer.
5
(ii) 'A', with intention uses criminal force to a woman "Z' to disrobe her and causes so. What
is criminal liability of 'A', if any? Support your answer with the help of provisions of law.
5
2.
(a) (i) Explain the terms 'Summons-case' and 'Warrant-case' and distinguish between the two.
5
(ii) Describe the different courts of Judicial Magistrates at district level and explain the
procedure of their establishment, jurisdiction and powers.
5
(b) (i) What is procedure in making an arrest ? When may a Magistrate arrest the offender?
Explain.
5
(ii) When may search-warrant be issued ? What is procedure of search of place suspected to
contain stolen property and objectionable articles? Describe.
5
(c) (i) What is basic purpose of filing FIR ? Discuss in the light of recent changes made to this
regard.
5
(ii) What is procedure for investigation and how report is submitted on completion of
investigation? Briefly explain.
5

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(d) (i) What is 'Plea-Bargaining'? Explain power of the Court in Plea-Bargaining.
5
(ii) Discuss the reference and revision and distinguish between the two.
10
Part B
3.
(a) Discuss the various impacts arising out of dishonour of cheque for insufficiency of funds
in the account. Refer to the provisions of law and decided case-law.
10
(b) When does a company liable for committing an offence mentioned under Section 138,
Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 ? Explain in the light of decided case.
10
(c) Explain the procedure for taking cognizance by the Court in case of offences committed
under Section 138, the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 and discuss also the procedure of
the Court to try the case.
10
(d) "A 'Notice', in writing to the drawer of cheque, is mandatory for further legal action
committed under Section 138, NIA, 1881." Elaborate while referring to decided cases.
10
4.
(a) (i) Explain the meaning of the following terms described under the H.P. Excise Act, 2011:
(1) Excise duty
(2) Liquor.
5
(ii) Explain in brief the powers of Magistrate to issue warrant for search or arrest given under
Section 11, the H.P. Excise Act, 2011.
5
(b) (i) What are the restrictions subject to which the State Government may cancel or suspend
grant of licenses for manufacture or sale of liquor ?
5
(ii) When does a Holder surrender a license granted under the H.P. Excise Act, 2011 ?
5
(c) (i) Explain briefly the provisions of penalty given under Section 39, the H.P. Excise Act, 2011.
5
(ii) When does a Court take cognizance of any offence punishable under the H.P. Excise Act,
2011 ? Discuss in the light of Section 55 of the Act.
5
(d) (i) Explain the provisions relating to Appeal and Revision given under the H.P. Excise Act, 2011.
5
(ii) Write brief notes on the following:
(1) Confiscation of Article
(2) Confiscation of Vehicle.
5
Part C
5.
(a) Explain and illustrate the meaning of the following terms under the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972:

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 10
(i) Dealer
(ii) Livestock
(ii) National Board
(iv) Reserve Forest
(v) Trophy.
(b) Explain the constitution of State Board for wildlife and duties of the Board provided under
the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
10
(c) Discuss the circumstances in which hunting of wild animal may be permitted. Is there
provisions for special purposes to grant of permit? Explain.
10
(d) What are the powers of the Collector in respect of declaration of sanctuary by the State
Government? How does Government ensure protection of such sanctuaries?
10
6.
(a) Discuss the powers of the appropriate authorities for entry, search, arrest and detention
in case of offence committed against the Act. Is there any amendment brought by the
Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002? Explain.
10
(b) Write brief notes on the following:
(1) Compounding of offences
(2) Cognizance of offences.
10
(c) Discuss the procedure for forfeiture of property derived from illegal hunting and trade
provided in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
10
(d) Discuss the following:
10
(1) Protection of action taken in good faith
(2) Reward to person.

7.
(a) Explain and illustrate the following terms defined under the Indian Forest Act 1927
10
(i) Timber
(ii) Tree
(ii) Protected Forest
(iv) Forest-officer
(v) Forest-produce.

(b) What are the various duties of the Forest Settlement Officer given in the Indian Forest Act,
1927? Explain.
10
(c) Describe the prohibited acts declared not to be done by the Indian Forest Act, 1927.
10

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(d) Discuss the penalties for acts committed in contravention of notification under Section 30
or of rules under Section 32 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927.
10

8. (a)
(i) Explain role of 'mens-rea' in deciding criminal liability.
5
(ii) Discuss in brief 'strict liability' in crime.
5

(b)
(i) Explain intra-territorial and 'extra-territorial' operation of the Indian Penal Code.
5
(ii) How far 'accident' excuses criminal liability of an accused? Explain.
5
(c)
(i) When does culpable homicide not amount to murder ? Discuss in brief.
5
(ii) Distinguish between theft and extortion.
5

(d)
(i) Explain briefly the offence of 'Bigamy' and "Adultery'
5
(ii) Distinguish between 'common-intention' and "common-object”
5

Paper IV : ENGLISH
Time : 3Hours Maximum Marks 150
1. Write an essay on any one of the following topics: 100
(a) If I were the Defence Minister of India.
(b) 'It's the most righteons which of course not the something as most profitable.'
(c) 'You don't have to burn books to destroy a culture. Just get people to stop reading
them.

2. Translate the following into English:

50
वर्तमान समय में राष्ट्रवाद की कोई ननश्चिर् पररभाषा नहीं दी जा सकर्ी है। क्योंनक श्चभन्न-श्चभन्न काल खंडों में इसकी अलग-
अलग नकस्में रही हैं। राष्ट्रवाद की आधुननक अवधारणा मुख्य रूप से यूरोपीय दे शों में 19वीं और 20वीं शर्ाब्दी में अपने को
संगठिर् करने के प्रयासों में पररलश्चिर् हुई। जजसमें फ्ांस अग्रणी रहा और उसके राष्ट्रवाद में वैचाररक और भौगोललक र्त्वों की
प्रधानर्ा स्पष्ट होर्ी है, जजसका अनुसरण बाद के वषों में इटली और जमतनी ने अपने को एक भौगोललक राष्ट्रीय इकाई में
एकीकृर् करने के ललये नकया। 20वीं शर्ाब्दी में पूूँजीवादी अर्तव्यवस्र्ा के जन्म एवं प्रर्म और निर्ीय नवश्वयुद्ध के पररणाम
स्वरूप एलशया, अफ्ीका के दे शों में राष्ट्रवाद का जन्म हुआ। जजसकी उत्पलि पश्चिम और पूवत की संस्कृनर्यों के ममलने के
पररणाम स्वरूप हुई ।
इस प्रकार यह राष्ट्रवाद जजसका जन्म नवदे शी शलियों की गुलामी से मुलि पाने की जद्दोजहद के बीच हुआ, उसने उन गुलाम
दे शों में अपनी खोई हुई प्राचीन अस्स्मर्ा को पुनस्र्ातनपर् करने, स्वयं को जाग्रर् करने र्र्ा समाज में व्याप्र् बुराइयों को दूर

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 करने का अवसर प्रदान नकया। जजसका प्रनर्उिर भारर्ीय पुनजातगरण का सूत्रपार् होर्ा र्ा जैसा नक यूरोप में 1453 में हुआ
र्ा। अर्ः 19वीं शर्ाब्दी के मध्य और 20वीं शर्ाब्दी के प्रारम्भभक वषों में भारर् में एक के बाद एक, समाज सुधार और
बौजद्धक आन्दोलनों की शुरूआर् हुई, जजसे भारर्ीय पुनजातगरण कहा गया। जजसमें धार्मिक कमतकाण्डों से इर्र धार्मिक मूल्यों
एवं मानवीय सेवा भाव और मनुष्यर्ा को महिा प्रदान की गई। गरीब एवं दररद्र व्यलियों की सेवा, ऊूँच-नीच के र्ाने-बाने
र्र्ा भेद-भाव से मुि भारर्ीय समाज को बनाने का कायत प्रारभभ हुआ। यही राष्ट्र की सेवा और राष्ट्रीय दे शभलि का सच्चा
प्रर्ीक माना गया। इन्हीं नवचारों के समर्तक स्वामी नववेकानन्द र्े-"मैं उस व्यलि को महान मानर्ा हूँ जो ननधतनों के ललये रो
दे र्ा है, मैं उस प्रत्येक व्यलि को दे शद्रोही मानर्ा हूँ जजसने नवद्या और ज्ञान को जजनके व्यव पर प्राप्र् नकया और अब उनकी
र्ननक भी परवाह नहीं करर्ा है।"

Paper V : HINDI
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 100
1. ननभनललखखर् अंग्रेजी गद्यांश का हहिदी में अनुवाद कीजजए :
30
The language crisis can be resolved peacefully. Hindi may become the official language
and English translation should continue for some time until the people became familiar
with it or learn it. The Union and State Governments should have separate Ministries for
Hindi. The governments should allocate funds in the budget for the promotion of Hindi.
Hindi teachers from North India may be sent from time to time to the Southern States to
teach Hindi. The authors should be encouraged to write in Hindi, original books on
scientific subjects. A conference of all the Opposition leaders may be organized in order to
evolve an all-acceptable formula for the national language. Our main aim should be
national unity. The political parties must not rake up language issue for their selfish gains.
Our motto (slogan ) should be 'Nation first and every other thing later on'.

2. ननभनललखखर् में से नकसी एक नवषय पर सारगर्भिर् ननबंध ललखखए :

50
(क) भूमंडलीकरण और नहन्दी भाषा
(ख) भारर्ीय संसदीय प्रणाली की नवशेषर्ाएूँ
(ग) लशिा का उद्दे श्य ।

3. ननभनललखखर् प्रश्नों के उिर ननदे शानुसार दीजजये :

(क) नकन्हीं चार मुहावरों/कहावर्ों का अर्त ललखकर वाक्य में उनका प्रयोग कीजजए :
4
(1) अंधेर नगरी
(2) अलख जगाना
(3) लोहा बजाना
(4) दूर का ढोल सुहावन
(5) हार् कंगन को आरसी क्या
(ख) ननभनललखखर् में से नकन्हीं चार शब्दों के दो-दो पयातयवाची शब्द ललखखए:
4
(1) अनुपम
(2) पत्र्र
(3) सरस्वर्ी
(4) समूह

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 (5) मेघ ।
(ग) नकन्हीं चार शब्दों के नवपरीर्ार्तक शब्द ललखखए 4
4
(1) अनुराग
(2) आदर
(3) उदार
(4) गणर्ंत्र
(5) नया।

(घ) ननभनललखखर् वाक्यों में से नकन्हीं चार शब्दों के ललए एक-एक शब्द ललखखए:
4
(1) जानने की इच्छा
(2) नवश्व पयतटन करने वाला
(3) जजसमें पाप नहीं है
(4) लोक का
(5) आूँखों के सामने।

(ङ) नकन्हीं चार शब्दों को शुद्ध रूप में ललखखए:

4
(1) आलशवातद
(2) इनर्हालसक
(3) कृष्णा
(4) अनुग्रहीर्
(5) शर्ाखब्द

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