Environmental Science and Engineering (ES)

General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 Courage : Bravery :: Yearning : __________

Select the most appropriate option to complete the analogy.

(A) Longing

(B) Yelling

(C) Yawning

(D) Glaring

Q.2 We __________ tennis in the lawn when it suddenly started to rain.

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

(A) have been playing

(B) had been playing

(C) would have been playing

(D) could be playing

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Q.3 A 4 × 4 digital image has pixel intensities (𝑈) as shown in the figure. The number of
pixels with 𝑈 ≤ 4 is:

(A) 3

(B) 8

(C) 11

(D) 9

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Q.4 In the given figure, the numbers associated with the rectangle, triangle, and ellipse
are 1, 2, and 3, respectively. Which one among the given options is the most
appropriate combination of P, Q, and R ?

4
Q
1 P

(A) P = 6; Q = 5; R = 3

(B) P = 5; Q = 6; R = 3

(C) P = 3; Q = 6; R = 6

(D) P = 5; Q = 3; R = 6

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Q.5 A rectangle has a length L and a width W, where L > W. If the width, W, is increased
by 10%, which one of the following statements is correct for all values of L and W?

(A) Perimeter increases by 10%.

(B) Length of the diagonals increases by 10%.

(C) Area increases by 10%.

(D) The rectangle becomes a square.

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Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 Column-I has statements made by Shanthala; and, Column-II has responses given
by Kanishk.

Column-I Column-II

P. This house is in a mess. 1. Alright, I won’t bring it up during

our conversations.

Q. I am not happy with the marks 2. Well, you can easily look it up.
given to me.

R. Politics is a subject I avoid talking 3. No problem, let me clear it up for

about. you.

S. I don’t know what this word 4. Don’t worry, I will take it up with
means. your teacher.

Identify the option that has the correct match between Column-I and Column-II.

(A) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 1; S – 4

(B) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 2

(C) P – 4; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 3

(D) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 4; S – 3

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Q.7 Weight of a person can be expressed as a function of their age. The function usually
varies from person to person. Suppose this function is identical for two brothers,
and it monotonically increases till the age of 50 years and then it monotonically
decreases. Let 𝑎1 and 𝑎2 (in years) denote the ages of the brothers and 𝑎1 < 𝑎2 .

Which one of the following statements is correct about their age on the day when
they attain the same weight?

(A) 𝑎1 < 𝑎2 < 50

(B) 𝑎1 < 50 < 𝑎2

(C) 50 < 𝑎1 < 𝑎2

(D) Either 𝑎1 = 50 or 𝑎2 = 50

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Q.8 A regular dodecagon (12-sided regular polygon) is inscribed in a circle of radius r

cm as shown in the figure. The side of the dodecagon is d cm. All the triangles
(numbered 1 to 12) in the figure are used to form squares of side r cm and each
numbered triangle is used only once to form a square.

The number of squares that can be formed and the number of triangles required to
form each square, respectively, are:

Note: The figure shown is representative.

(A) 3; 4

(B) 4; 3

(C) 3; 3

(D) 3; 2

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Q.9 2
𝑥2 𝑥 2𝑥
If a real variable 𝑥 satisfies 3 = 27 × 9 , then the value of 𝑥 2 is:
(2 )

(A) 2−1

(B) 20

(C) 23

(D) 215

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Q.10 The number of patients per shift (𝑋) consulting Dr. Gita in her past 100 shifts is
shown in the figure. If the amount she earns is ₹ 1000(𝑋 − 0.2), what is the average
amount (in ₹) she has earned per shift in the past 100 shifts?

Note: The figure shown is representative.

50
40
40
Number of shifts

30
30
20
20
10
10

0
5 6 7 8
Number of patients per shift (X)

(A) 6,100

(B) 6,300

(C) 6,000

(D) 6,500

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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 Assuming 𝑠 > |𝑎|; Laplace transform of 𝑓(𝑥) = cosh 𝑎𝑥 is

(A) 𝑠
𝑠2 +𝑎2

(B) 𝑎
𝑠2 +𝑎2

(C) 𝑠
𝑠2 −𝑎2

(D) 𝑎
𝑠2 −𝑎2

Q.12 𝑑2𝑦
For the ordinary differential equation + 4𝑦 = 0, the general solution is
𝑑𝑥 2

(A) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑐2 sin 2𝑥

(B) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 cosh 2𝑥 + 𝑐2 sinh 2𝑥

(C) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 𝑒 2𝑥 + 𝑐2 𝑒 −2𝑥

(D) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 𝑒 2𝑥 cos 2𝑥 + 𝑐2 𝑒 −2𝑥 sin 2𝑥

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Q.13 Consider the following two series

∞
1
P: ∑
𝑛=1 𝑛
∞
1
Q: ∑ 2
𝑛=1 𝑛

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) P is convergent series; Q is divergent series

(B) P is divergent series; Q is convergent series

(C) Both P and Q are convergent series

(D) Both P and Q are divergent series

Q.14 Choose the redox reaction from the following

(A) H2CO3  H+ + HCO3-

(B) Hg2+ + 2 OH-  Hg(OH)2

(C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2  6 CO2 + 6 H2O

(D) CaCO3 (s)  Ca2+ + CO32-

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Q.15 Which one of the following is performed by autotrophic bacteria?

(A) Aerobic biodegradation of organic matter

(B) Anaerobic biodegradation of organic matter

(C) Aerobic nitrification

(D) Anaerobic de-nitrification

For flood routing, consider the following statements

Q.16
P : Hydrologic routing method uses continuity equation and momentum equation

Q : Hydraulic routing method uses continuity equation and energy equation

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE

(B) P is TRUE; Q is FALSE

(C) P is FALSE; Q is TRUE

(D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE

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Q.17 For a gradually varied flow, consider the following statements

P : 𝑦𝑛 > 𝑦𝑐 > 𝑦 in M3 surface profile

Q : 𝑦𝑛 < 𝑦𝑐 < 𝑦 in S1 surface profile

where, yn is normal depth, yc is critical depth, and y is flow depth.

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE

(B) P is TRUE; Q is FALSE

(C) P is FALSE; Q is TRUE

(D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE

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Q.18 Match the following and choose the correct option from the following

Type of reactor Diagram

1.Plug flow reactor x.

2.Continuously stirred tank y.

reactor

z.
3.Batch reactor

indicates stirrer for mixing (not to scale)

(A) 1-x, 2-y, 3-z

(B) 1-z, 2-y, 3-x

(C) 1-y, 2-z, 3-x

(D) 1-x, 2-z, 3-y

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Q.19 Multiple effect evaporator is commonly used, in the zero liquid discharge (ZLD)
scheme, for __________

(A) oxidation of organic pollutants

(B) precipitation of heavy metals

(C) concentrating reverse osmosis (RO) reject salts

(D) performing selective ion exchange

Q.20 Consider the following statements

P : According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (Central Pollution

Control Board, Govt. of India, notification 2009), annual time weighted average
PM10 standard is more than PM2.5 standard.

Q : According to the National Air Quality Index released by Govt. of India in 2015,
sub index value of PM10 can be less than that of PM2.5.

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) P is TRUE; Q is FALSE

(B) P is FALSE; Q is TRUE

(C) P is TRUE; Q is TRUE

(D) P is FALSE; Q is FALSE

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Q.21 Which option gives the components that are most likely to be present in the
segregated combustible fraction (SCF) separated from raw mixed municipal solid
waste (MSW)?

(A) plastics, paper, rubber, metals

(B) plastics, paper, leather, glass

(C) plastics, leather, textiles, rubber

(D) plastics, rubber, textiles, food waste

Q.22 Correctly match the sustainable development goal (SDG) with its theme

SDG Theme

i. SDG 6 p. Good Health and Well-being

ii. SDG 11 q. Responsible Consumption and Production

iii. SDG 3 r. Sustainable Cities and Communities

iv. SDG 12 s. Clean Water and Sanitation

(A) i -q ii-r iii-p iv-s

(B) i-s ii-r iii-p iv-q

(C) i-s ii-r iii-q iv-p

(D) i-p ii-q iii-r iv-s

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Q.23 Choose the correct option regarding the Basel Convention

(A) Almost all the nations of the world assembled for the first time in the history to
discuss and find out the solution for a common environmental problem.

(B) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines to reduce CO2 and CH4
emissions to control the global warming.

(C) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines to control the release of acidic
gases that can cause acid rains in another country.

(D) It was for formulating the strategies and guidelines for the trans-boundary
movement of hazardous wastes.

Q.24 Consider the following statements

(i) Environmental pollutant concentration is generally modeled using

lognormal distribution.
(ii) Environmental pollutant concentration is generally modeled using
Poisson distribution.
(iii) The weekly rate of exceedance of environmental pollutant concentration
with regards to a given standard is generally modeled using lognormal
distribution.
(iv) The weekly rate of exceedance of environmental pollutant concentration
with regards to a given standard is generally modeled using Poisson
distribution.

Choose the correct option(s) from the following

(A) (i) and (iv) are correct

(B) (i) is correct and (iii) is incorrect

(C) (ii) and (iv) are correct

(D) (ii) and (iv) are incorrect

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Q.25 Choose the correct statement(s) from the following regarding the structure/
reproduction of microorganisms

(A) Prokaryotes do not have nucleus but Eukaryotes have nucleus.

(B) Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes have nucleus.

(C) No binary fission happens in Eukaryotes, however, Prokaryotes rely on binary

fission for reproduction.

(D) Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes rely on binary fission for reproduction.

Consider the following statements related to nitrification process:

Q.26

(i) Electron acceptor type vary depending on whether nitrosomonas or

nitrobacter is involved.
(ii) Predominant carbon source is organic matter.
(iii) Predominant carbon source is inorganic carbon.
(iv) Electron donor during conversion of ammonium ions to nitrite ions is
ammonium ions.

Choose the correct option(s) from the following

(A) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(B) (i) and (ii) are correct

(C) (i) is incorrect and (iii) is correct

(D) (ii) is correct and (iii) is incorrect

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Q.27 Stubble burning results in release of particulate matter, volatile organic compounds,
oxides of nitrogen and sulfur, to name a few. A researcher is planning to use a
conventional Gaussian dispersion model to estimate the contribution of stubble
burning in a nearby state to air pollution in New Delhi.

Choose the option(s) which could explain the possible limitations in this approach

(A) assumption of steady state conditions e.g. constant wind speed, wind direction, and
emission, etc. in conventional Gaussian dispersion models

(B) non-accounting of wet and dry deposition in conventional Gaussian dispersion

models

(C) non-handling of chemical transformation of pollutants in conventional Gaussian

dispersion models

(D) requirement of more computational resources by conventional Gaussian dispersion

models compared to chemical transport models

Q.28 Choose the correct option(s) from the following in the plastic waste management

(A) Plastic wastes may be burnt to generate fuel oil and fuel gas.

(B) Plastic wastes along with bitumen may be used for road/pavement construction.

(C) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) and high density polyethylene (HDPE) are the
most common plastics for recycling.

(D) Plastics made of branched monomers can be easily recycled.

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Q.29 Choose the option(s) giving the correct process flow-sheet for producing refuse
derived fuel (RDF) from the segregated waste collected in the dry waste containers
(blue coloured containers of the municipal solid waste (MSW) collection scheme).

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.30 Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding the symbiotic
relationships

(A) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and bacteria. They can survive in
extreme conditions of air pollution.

(B) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and bacteria. The fungi can absorb
water and minerals from atmosphere, and bacteria can generate foods.

(C) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and algae. They can survive in extreme
conditions, but are very sensitive to air pollution.

(D) Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi and algae. The fungi can absorb water
and minerals from atmosphere, and algae can generate food through photosynthesis.

Q.31 Methane hydrates have special crystal structure of water, where methane gas
molecules are trapped. Choose the correct option(s) from the following

(A) Methane hydrates exist in abundance near the ocean bed, where the pressure is high
enough for their existence.

(B) Methane hydrates exist in abundance in the polar regions, where the temperature is
low enough for their existence.

(C) Methane hydrates can be a huge source of energy, but can accelerate global
warming considerably if the entrapped methane is released to the atmosphere.

(D) Methane hydrates can be a huge source of energy, but difficult to exploit
commercially.

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Q.32 Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding urban environment

(A) Urban heat island can exacerbate urban flooding by intensifying rainfall intensity.

(B) Urban canyons increase ventilation by trapping heat and thus enhancing urban heat
island effect.

(C) Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) is always used to estimate the
economic impact of mitigation strategies for urban heat island effect.

(D) In general, land surfaces in urban areas emit more long wave radiation compared to
those in rural areas, and thus contribute to higher night time temperature.

Q.33 Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding cumulative toxicity

(A) Bioaccumulation is the process by which a living organism keeps on accumulating

pollutants in its body due to continuous exposure, whereas, bio-magnification is the
process by which higher order organisms accumulate more pollutants than the lower
order organisms in a food chain.

(B) Biomagnification is the process by which a living organism keeps on accumulating

pollutants in its body due to continuous exposure, whereas, bioaccumulation is the
process by which higher order organisms accumulate more pollutants than the lower
order organisms in a food chain.

(C) Bioaccumulation and biomagnification are possible with heavy metals, but not with
pesticides and pharmaceutical compounds.

(D) Bioaccumulation and biomagnification are possible with heavy metals, pesticides
and pharmaceutical compounds.

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Q.34 ln(1+𝑥)
lim ( ) is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).
𝑥→0 2 sin 𝑥

Q.35 An unconfined aquifer of areal extent 20 km × 20 km has hydraulic conductivity of

4 m/day, porosity of 0.32, and storage coefficient (specific yield) of 0.18. If the
initial saturated thickness of the aquifer is 30 m, and 4×108 m3 of water is extracted
from the aquifer, then the decline in the saturated thickness is ______________ m.
(rounded off to two decimal places)

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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks each

A researcher added certain amount of HgCl2 to water at pH 10. He calculated the
Q.36 expected concentration of mercury in the water. He asked his student to measure
the concentration. His student used an instrument that can measure only the free
metal, Hg2+. The student observed that the concentration measured by him was
significantly less than the concentration calculated by the researcher. How can he
explain the paradox to the researcher?

Explanation 1: Significant fraction of the mercury would have changed phase from
aqueous to gaseous phase, thus leaving less mercury in the water

Explanation 2: Fraction of the mercury added to water would have formed aqueous
complexes

Explanation 3: Fraction of the mercury added to water could have precipitated

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) only Explanation 1 is correct

(B) Explanations 1 and 2 are correct

(C) Explanations 1 and 3 are correct

(D) Explanations 2 and 3 are correct

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Q.37 Correctly label the speciation diagram below:

(A) I= PO43-, II= HPO42-, III= H2PO4-, IV= H3PO4

(B) I= H3PO4, II= HPO42-, III= H2PO4-, IV=PO43-

(C) I=H3PO4, II=H2PO4-, III=HPO42-, IV=PO43-

(D) I= PO43-, II= H2PO4-, III= H3PO4, IV=HPO42-

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Q.38 Consider the following statements on microbial metabolism

(i) Utilization of carbon for cell synthesis is termed as anabolism.

(ii) During catabolism, adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is converted into
adenosine diphosphate (ADP).

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) (i) and (ii) are incorrect

(C) (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect

(D) (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct

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Q.39 Consider the following figure of an activated sludge process (ASP), depicting the
flow (Q), substrate (S), and microorganism concentration (X) at various points in
the system, where subscripts “0”, “r”, “w”, “e”, and “i” indicate influent, recycle
line, wastage, effluent, and flow from aeration tank to settling tank, respectively.
Note that influent to the ASP has microbes too. V is volume of aeration tank.

Choose the correct option for net rate of formation of microorganisms in the system
at steady state, from the following

(A) (Q−Qw )Xe +Qw Xr −QX0

V

(B) (Q−Qw )Xe +Qw Xr

V

(C) (Q−Qw )Xe +Qw Xr

VX

(D) (Q+Qr )Xi +Qw Xr

VX

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Q.40 Consider the following statements

(i) Sound pressure changes with distance from the source

(ii) Sound power is a property of the source
(iii) Sound intensity is sound power per unit volume

Choose the correct option from the following

(A) (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct

(B) only (i) and (ii) are correct

(C) only (i) and (iii) are correct

(D) only (ii) and (iii) are correct

Q.41 At a pressure of 1 atmosphere and temperature of 25 C, 365 µg m-3 of a pollutant

corresponds to mixing ratio of 139 parts per billion (ppb). The atomic weights: C -
12, H – 1, O – 16, N – 14 and S – 32. Which one of the following options most
closely represents the pollutant

(A) SO2

(B) NO2

(C) O3

(D) CO

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Q.42 Which option gives the best control strategies for Dioxins and Furans in the flue gas
emitted from waste incineration facilities?

(A) Avoid burning polystyrene (PS) and polyethylene (PE); ensure the furnace
temperature above 1000 °C; and use a bag filter for cleaning the flue gas.

(B) Avoid burning polyvinyl chloride (PVC); quickly cool down the flue gas through
the temperature range 400 - 250 °C; and use an activated carbon treatment for the
flue gas.

(C) Avoid burning food wastes; ensure the furnace temperature above 900 ± 50 °C; and
use an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) for cleaning the flue gas.

(D) Avoid burning metal bearing waste; ensure the flue gas temperature above 1000 °C;
and use a venturi scrubber for cleaning the flue gas.

Q.43 Choose the correct option(s) from the following regarding the solubility in water

(A) Water is a polar molecule because of the asymmetric distribution of charge between
the oxygen and hydrogen atoms of the water molecule.

(B) In a water molecule, the electrons shared between oxygen and hydrogen are
attracted more towards the hydrogen atom.

(C) Non-polar compounds are highly soluble in water because of their strong interaction
with water molecules.

(D) Aromaticity and charge of molecules influence their solubility in water.

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Q.44 If microbial growth occurs under substrate unlimited conditions, according to

Monod’s kinetics, choose the correct option(s) from the following

(A) Microbial growth follows zero order with respect to substrate concentration.

(B) Microbial growth follows first order with respect to substrate concentration.

(C) Specific growth rate is half of maximum specific growth rate.

(D) Specific growth rate is almost equal to maximum specific growth rate.

Q.45 Choose the correct option(s) for removing solids from water.

(A) chlorination

(B) coagulation-flocculation-sedimentation followed by slow sand filtration

(C) chlorination followed by aeration

(D) slow sand filtration

According to the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016, choose the correct
Q.46 option(s) from the following

Bio-medical waste generated should be taken to a common bio-medical waste

(A) management facility except for rural areas where common facility is not available.

Bio-medical waste generated should not be taken out of the hospital premise as it
(B) may contain dangerous pathogenic organisms.

The red bag containing the human anatomical wastes like amputated body parts,
(C) cotton and bandages contaminated with body fluids, etc. should be treated using
autoclave or hydroclave to kill the pathogenic organisms.

(D) Increasing operational temperature of an autoclave from 121 C (pressure 15 psi) to

149 C (pressure 52 psi), the residence time requirement for treating bio-medical
waste will be reduced by 15 minutes.

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A residential family is considering two cities for relocation. The data related to
pollutant exposure and associated health cost per year are given in the following
figure.

Q.47

The pollutant exposure is characterized in high, mild and low exposure categories
with respective probability values. The difference in expected value of health cost
of City1 with respect to that of City 2 is _____________ lakhs/year. (rounded off
to two decimal places).

Q.48 The following is a system of linear equations

𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 34

2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 102

𝑥 + 𝑦 − 3𝑧 = 17

The value of (𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) is _________. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Q.49 ∞ sin 4𝑥
The value of ∫
0
𝑑𝑥 is _________. (rounded off to two decimal places)
𝜋𝑥

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Q.50 A tank has inflow, outflow and stirring mechanism. Initially, the tank holds 500 L
of a brine solution of concentration 200 g/L. At t = 0, an inflow of another brine
solution of concentration 100 g/L starts entering the tank at the rate of 15 L/minute.
At the same time the outflow of thoroughly stirred mixture also takes place at the
same rate so that the volume of brine in the tank remains constant. The brine
concentration C (g/L) in the tank at any time t (minute) can be expressed by the
following differential equation

𝑑𝐶
+ 0.03 𝐶 = 3
𝑑𝑡
The brine concentration in the tank at t = 1.5 hour is _________ g/L. (rounded
off to two decimal places)

Q. 51 Aerobic biomass has yield coefficient value of 0.4 for glucose (molecular weight =
180 g/mole) substrate. Bacteria is represented as C5H7O2N (molecular weight = 113
g/mole). Assume that no endogenous metabolism occurs. The percentage of carbon
going into CO2 from 1 mole/L glucose is _____________. (rounded off to two
decimal places)

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Q.52 The following figure (not to scale) depicts a rainfall hyetograph for a storm over a
catchment

If the storm produced a direct runoff of 12.5 mm, then the –index of the storm for
the catchment is ________________ mm/hour. (rounded off to two decimal places)

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Q.53 The following table and figure (not to scale) show characteristics of a catchment

Sub- Area Runoff Time of

catch- (ha) coefficient concentration
ment

P 750 0.5 1 hour

Q 1000 0.6 2 hour

R 1500 0.6 3 hour

S 2000 0.7 4 hour

The hyetograph resulting from a storm that occurred uniformly over the catchment,
is as follows

Assuming a constant base flow of 40 m3/s, the peak of the runoff hydrograph
produced by storm for the catchment at the outlet O is ________________ m3/s.
(rounded off to two decimal places)

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Q.54 A homogeneous isotropic confined aquifer of uniform thickness 30 m has hydraulic

conductivity of 5 m/day and porosity of 0.3. There are two observation wells X and
Y along a radial line from a fully penetrating pumping well at 100 m and 200 m
distance, respectively. The well is pumped at a uniform rate to produce steady
drawdown of 5 m at X and 3 m at Y. If a non-reactive pollutant enters at the
observation well Y, then the time taken by the pollutant (under advection) to reach
the observation well X is ____________ days. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Q.55 A pipe line O P Q R branches into three pipes X, Y, and Z between points P and Q
as shown in figure (not to scale)

Diameter (d) and length (l) of each pipe are as presented in figure and all pipes are
of same material having friction factor (f) of 0.02. Assume acceleration due to
gravity (g) as 10.0 m/s2. If the head difference between P and Q is 10 m, then the
head loss between Q and R is ____________ m. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Q.56 A circular sewer pipe, having Manning’s coefficient (n) of 0.01, is laid at a bed
slope of 1:100. If it is flowing 80% full for a discharge of 2 m3/s, then its diameter
is ____________ m. (rounded off to three decimal places)

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Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee
 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES)

Q.57 You conducted a batch experiment in the lab for 10 minutes to degrade a toxic
compound, which follows first order kinetics. The compound degrades from
2 × 10−3 M to 2 × 10−4 M. The information from the lab experiment will be used to
design a plug flow reactor in field conditions.

Given field conditions:

• Flow rate of contaminated water to be treated: 1 m3/hour

• Concentration of toxic compound in contaminated water: 5 × 10−1 M
• Target concentration of toxic compound in treated water: 1 × 10−4 M
• Temperature is same in lab and field conditions.

The required volume of the plug flow reactor is ________ m3. (rounded off to two
decimal places)

Q.58 A common effluent treatment plant with a capacity of 2 million litres per day (MLD)
employs reverse osmosis (RO) for water reuse. The RO unit removes 95% of the
total dissolved solids (TDS) and the water recovery rate is 70%. If the TDS
concentration in the RO feed is 8000 parts per million (ppm), the TDS in the RO
reject is _______ g/L. (rounded off to one decimal place)

Q.59 A boiler burns coal at a rate of 1 kg/s. If the coal has 3% sulfur content, assuming
that there is no sulfur in ash, SO2 emitted is _____ kg/day. (rounded off to nearest
integer)

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Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee
 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES)

Q.60 A particle dispersoid has 1510 spherical particles of uniform density. An air purifier
is proposed to be used to remove these particles. The diameter specific number of
particles in the dispersoid, along with the number removal efficiency of the
proposed purifier is shown in the following table:

Diameter of the Number of particles Number removal

particle (µm) efficiency (%)

1 1000 99

10 500 75

100 10 10

The overall mass removal efficiency of the proposed purifier is ______ %.

(rounded off to one decimal place)

Q.61 An incandescent light bulb operated for two hours per day uses 12.2 kWh of energy
per month. Burning of one kg of coal generates 2 kWh of electrical energy and
releases 7 g of PM10. The reduction in PM10 emitted per month, if this incandescent
bulb is replaced with a light emitting diode (LED) bulb which consumes 1/6th of
energy, is ______ g. (rounded off to one decimal place)

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Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee
 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES)

Q.62 A street sweeping machine starts from point P and ends at S, as shown in the
network of streets below. It sweeps all the streets at least once.

Length of the streets, in km, are shown on the network. The minimum distance
travelled by the sweeping machine for completing the job of sweeping all the streets
is _____ km. (rounded off to nearest integer)

Q.63 A solid waste of composition C60H135O50N5 is to be composted aerobically in a

closed vessel mechanical composting facility. Given: all ammonia generated
escapes the facility; air contains 23% of Oxygen by weight; 100% excess air
requirement for the closed vessel composting facility. The atomic weights: C – 12,
H – 1, O – 16, N – 14. The actual air required for composting is_______ kg per
kg waste. (rounded off to one decimal place)

Q.64 An industry releases three greenhouse gases (GHGs), CO2 (5 kg/day), CH4 (0.5
kg/day), and N2O (0.1 kg/day). The industry flares the CH4 before it is released to
the atmosphere. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) are as follows: CO2 = 1,
CH4 = 21, N2O = 310. The annual GWP of GHGs released from the industry is
______ kg CO2 equivalent. (rounded off to the nearest integer)

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Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee
 Environmental Science and Engineering (ES)

Q.65 Water from a hand pump located near a landfill has 1 mg/L arsenic (oral
carcinogenic potency factor = 1.75 (kg-day)/mg). A person who lives nearby drinks
2 L/day water from this hand pump for 10 years. Assume body weight of 70 kg and
70 years as average life duration. Chances of this person getting excess risk of
cancer is __________________ ×10−3. (rounded off to three decimal places)

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Organizing Institute: IIT Roorkee