1.

In the preparation of sodium fusion extract, the purpose of fusing organic compound
with a piece of sodium metal is to
(1) Convert the organic compound into vapour state.
(2) Convert the elements of the compound from covalent form to ionic form.
(3) Convert the elements of the compound from ionic form to covalent form.
(4) Decrease the melting point of the compound.

Ans: (2)

2. The sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid while testing for
halogen. By doing so, it
(1) Helps in precipitation of AgCl
(2) Increases the solubility of AgCl
(3) Increases the concentration of NO3− ion.
(4) Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

Ans: (4)
Boiled with conc HNO3 to decompose cyanide (or) sulphide of sodium formed during
Lassaigne’s test.

3. Which of the following is not an aromatic compound?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans: (1)
It doesn’t contains (4n + 2)π electrons.

4. The IUPAC name of the given organic compound is

HC  C − CH = CH − CH = CH 2
(1) Hexa – 1 – yn – 3, 5-diene (2) Hexa – 5 – yn-1, 3-diene
(3) Hexa-1, 3-dien-5-yne (4) Hexa -3, 5-dien-1-yne
Ans: (3)
6 5 4 3 2 1
H C  C − C H = C H − C H = CH 2
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5. Among the following, identify the compound that is not an isomer of hexane
(1) CH − CH − CH − CH − CH
3 2 | 2 3
CH
3
(2) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3

(3)

CH
3
|
(3) CH − CH − CH − CH − CH
3 2 2 3

Ans: (3)

Because hexane molecular formula C6H14. But for compound (3) molecular formula is
C6H12.
CH3
Cl
CH3

6. The organic compound can be classified as _______

(1) Allylic halide (2) Benzyl halide (3) Aryl halide (4) Alkyl halide
Ans: (2)
CH3
Cl
CH3

Here halogen atom is attached to sp3 hybridised C-atom which is next to Benzene
ring. Hence it is called Benzyl halide.

7. Chlorobenzene reacts with bromine gas in presence of Anhyd AlBr3 to yield p-

Bromochlorobenzene. This reaction is classified as __________
(1) Elimination reaction
(2) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(3) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(4) Addition reaction
 C4

Ans: (3)
Electrophilic substitution reaction.

8. The organometallic compound (CH3)3 CMgBr on reaction with D2O produces

_______
(1) (CH3)3COD (2) (CD3)3CD (3) (CD3)3COD (4) (CH3)3CD

Ans: (4)
CH3 CH3
| D2O
|
CH 3 − C − MgBr ⎯⎯⎯ → CH 3 − C − D
| |
CH3 CH3

9. The major product formed when 1-Bromo-3-Chlorocyclobutane reacts with metallic

sodium in dry ether is
Cl

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Br
Ans: (3)
Br
Na

dry ether
Cl

Intramolecular Wurtz reaction.

10. Ethyl alcohol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 413 K. The major product
formed is
(1) C2H5 – O – C2H5 (2) CH3 – O – C3H7
(3) CH2 = CH2 (4) CH3COOC2H5

Ans: (1)

Conc.H SO
2 C2 H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯2 4 → C H − O-C H
2 5 2 5
413
diethylether
 C4

11. Phenol can be distinguished from propanol by using the reagent

(1) Bromine water (2) Iron metal (3) Iodine in alcohol (4) Sodium metal

Ans: (1)
Bromine water
OH OH

Br Br
H2O
+ Br2

Br

C2 H5OH + Br2 ⎯⎯⎯

→X
H2O

Phenol and ethanol both reacts with Fe and Na metal. Iodine in alcohol i.e, Iodoform
test. Both phenol and Ethylalcohol do not show positive test with Iodine in alcohol.

12. Match the following with their pKa values

Acid pKa
(I) Phenol (a) 16
(II) p-Nitrophenol (b) 0.78
(III) Ethyl alcohol (c) 10
(IV) Picric acid (d) 7.1
(1) I – c, II – d, III – a, IV – b (2) I – a, II – d, III – c, IV – b
(3) I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d (4) I – b, II – a, III – d, IV – c

Ans: (1)

CH
3
|
13. CH − C − OCH + HI → A + B , A and B respectively are
3 | 3
CH
3
CH
3
|
(1) A = CH − I , B = CH − C − OH
3 3 |
CH
3
CH
3
|
(2) A = CH OH , B = CH − C − I
3 3 |
CH
3
 C4

CH
3
|
(3) A = CH − I , B = CH − C − I
3 3 |
CH
3
CH
3
|
(4) A = CH OH , B = CH − C − OH
3 3 |
CH
3

Ans: (2)
CH3 CH3
| |
CH3 − C − O − CH3 + HI ⎯⎯
→ CH3 − OH + CH3 − C − I
| |
CH3 CH3
(A) (B)
14. Oxidation of Toluene with chromyl chloride followed by hydrolysis gives
Benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as _________
(1) Etard Reaction (2) Kolbe reaction
(3) Stephen reaction (4) Cannizzaro reaction

Ans: (1)
CHO

CH3
CrO2 Cl2 / CS2

H3O

Toluene Benzaldehyde
15. Statement – I: reduction of ester by BIBAL-H followed by hydrolysis gives aldehyde.
Statement-II: Oxidation of benzyl alcohol with aqueous KMnO4 leads to the
formation of Benzaldehyde.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and II are true.
Ans: (2)
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16. Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order of reactivity towards
Nucleophilic addition reaction.
CH3COCH3 , CH3COC2 H5 , CH3CHO
(1) CH3CHO  CH3COCH3  CH3COC2 H5
(2) CH3COCH3  CH3CHO  CH3COC2 H5
(3) CH3COC2 H5  CH3COCH3  CH3CHO
(4) CH3CHO  CH3COC2 H5  CH3COCH3

Ans: (1)

H3C H3C H3C

C O > C O C O
>
H H3C CH 2
H3C

17. Which of the following has most acidic Hydrogen?

(1) Propanoic acid (2) Dichloroacetic acid
(3) Trichloroacetic acid (4) Chloroacetic acid

Ans: (3)

Cl O
| ||
Cl − C− C − OH ⎯⎯
→ As the number of halogen atom increases, acidic character
|
Cl
increases.
18. Which of the following reagents are suitable to differentiable to differentiate Aniline
and N- methylaniline chemically?
(1) Acetic anhydride
(2) Br2 water
(3) Conc, Hydrochloric acid and anhydrous zinc chloride
(4) Chloroform and Alcoholic potassium hydroxide

Ans: (4)
 C4

.. ..
NH 2 HN CH3

and

Aniline N-Methylaniline

Aniline only on reaction with chloroform and alc.KOH, gives carbylamine reaction.

19. Which of the following reaction/s does not yield an amine?

I. R − H + NH3 ⎯⎯ 
→ II. R − C  N ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯H 2 / Ni
Na( Hg ) / C2 H5OH
→
( alc )
O
+
||
III. R − C  N + H 2O ⎯⎯→
H
IV. R − C − NH 2 + 4 | H | ⎯⎯⎯⎯
i ) LiAIH 4
ii ) H O +
→
3

(1) Both I and III (2) Only II

(3) Only III (4) Both II and IV

Ans: (3)

Only III

I. R − X + NH 3( Alc ) ⎯⎯

→ R − NH 2 + HX
H 2 / Ni
II. R −C  N R − CH 2 − NH 2
Na ( Hg ) / C2 H 5OH
+
III. R − C  N + H 2O ⎯⎯→
H
R − COOH
O
||
R − C − NH + 4  H  ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R − CH − NH
LAH
IV.
2 H O+ 2 2
3
20. Match the compounds given in List -I with the items given in List -II
List -I List -II
(I) Benzene sulphonyl chloride (a) Zwitterion
(II) Sulphanilic acid (b) Hinsberg reagent
(III) Alkyl Diazonium salts (c) Dyes
(IV) Aryl Diazonium salts (d) Conversion to alcohols
(1) I-c, II- b, III-a, IV- d (2) I-a, II- c, III-b, IV- d
(3) I-c, II- a, III-d, IV- b (4) I-b, II- a, III-d, IV- c

Ans: (4)
 C4

21. The number of orbitals associated with ‘N’ shell of an atom is

(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans: (1)

For N – shell principal quantum number, n = 4

Number of orbitals = n 2 = 42 = 16

22. According to the Heisenberg’s Uncertainly principle, the value of v, x for an object
whose mass is 10−6 kg is ( h = 6.626 10−34 Js )
(1) 3.0 10−24 m −2 s −1 (2) 4.0 10−26 m −2 s −1
(3) 3.5 10−25 m −2 s −1 (4) 5.2 10−29 m −2 s −1

Ans: (4)

h 6.626  10−34 6.626  10−34

v.x = = = = 5.2  10−29 m −2 s −1
4 m 4  3.14  10−6 12.56  10−6

23. Given below are two statements.

Statement -I: Adiabatic work done is positive when work is done on the system and
internal energy of the system increases
Statement II: No work is done during free expansion of an ideal gas
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statement – I and statement -II are false
(2) Statement – I is true but statement -II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true

Ans: (4)

24. Which one of the following reaction has H = U ?

(1) CaCO3 ( s ) ⎯⎯

→ CaO( s) + CO2 ( g )
15
(2) ( C6 H 6 ( l ) + O2 ( g ) ⎯⎯
→ 6CO2 ( g ) + 3H 2O (l )
2
(3) 2HI ( g ) H2 ( g ) + I2 ( g )
(4) N2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) 2NH3 ( g )
 C4

Ans: (3)

2HI( g ) H 2( g ) + I 2( g )

Where ng = 0

25. Identify the incorrect statements among the following .

(a) All enthalpies of fusion are positive.
(b) The magnitude of enthalpy change does not depend on the strength of the
intermolecular interactions in the substance undergoing phase transformations.
(c) When a chemical reaction is reversed, the value of ΔrH 0 is reversed in sign.
(d) The change in enthalpy is dependent of path between initial state (reactants) and
final state (products)
(e) For most of the ionic compounds, sol H 0 is negative.
(1) a, b and d (2) b, d and e (3) a, d and e (4) a and c only
Ans: (2)
(b) magnitude of enthalpy change depends on the strength of the inter molecular
interactions in the substance undergoing phase transformations.
(d) change in enthalpy does not depend on path between initial and final state because
it is a state function
(e) For most of the ionic compounds sol H 0 is positive
26. Which of the following statements is / are true about equilibrium?
(a) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.
(b) All the measurable properties of the system remain constant at equilibrium
(c) Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium
constant for the reaction in the forward direction.
(1) Only b (2) only c (3) a, b and c (4) only a
Ans: (3)

27. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, in the reaction

CO ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) CH 4 ( g ) + H 2O ( g ) , the formation of methane is favoured by
(a) Increasing the concentration of CO
(b) Increasing the concentration of H 2 O
(c) Decreasing the concentration of CH4
(d) Decreasing the concentration of H 2
(1) a and c (2) b and d (3) a and d (4) a and b
Ans: (1)
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Forward reaction is favoured by increasing the concentration of reactants or by

decreasing the concentration of products

28. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for the reaction A+B C+D is 100. If the
initial concentrations of all the four species were 1M each, then equilibrium
concentration of D ( in mol L-1 ) will be
(1) 0.182 (2) 1.818 (3) 1.182 (4)0.818
Ans: (2)
At equilibrium
A + B C + D
t =0 1 1 1 1
Eqm 1 − x 1− x 1+ x 1+ x

Kc =
 C  D  (1 + x )
=
2

= 100
 A B  (1 − x )2
x = 0.818

[D] at equilibrium = 1 + x = 1.818 mol/L

29. Among the following 0.1 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the lowest
boiling point elevation, assuming complete ionization of the compounds in solution?
(1) Aluminium chloride (2) Aluminium sulphate
(3) Potassium sulphate (4) Sodium chloride

Ans: (4)

Tb  i  m & Kb are constant 

Lowest value of Tb is for sodium chloride (i = 2)

30. Variation of solubility with temperature T for a gas in liquid is shown by the following
graphs. The correct representation is
Solubility
Solubility
Solubility

Solubility

(1) (2) (3) (4)

T T T T

Ans: (3)
1
Solubility 
Temperature
 C4

31. 180g of glucose, C6 H12O6 , is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a vessel. The temperature

at which water boils at 1.013 bar is_______(given , K b for water is 0.52 kg mol−1 .
Boiling point for pure water is 373.15 K)
(1) 373.67 K (2) 373.15 K (3) 373.0 K (4) 373.202 K
Ans: (1)
Given w2 = 180 g M2 = 180

w1 = 1kg = 1000g

Tb = ?

Tb o = 373.15
Kb  w2  1000
 Tb =
M 2  w1

0.52  180  1000

 Tb =
180  1000

 Tb = 0.52

 Tb = Tb − Tb o

0.52 = Tb − 373.15

Tb = 0.52 + 373.15

= 373.67K

32. If N2 gas is bubbled through at 293 K, how many moles of N 2 gas would dissolve in
1 litre of water? Assume that N 2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar.
[Given K H for N 2 at 293 K is 76.48 K bar]
(1) 0.716 10−3 (2) 7.16 10−5 (3) 7.16 10−4 (4) 7.16 10−3
Ans: (1 & 3)
p = kH x

0.987 bar
x= p =
kH 76.48  103
 C4

0.987 n N2
=
76.48 103 55.55

0.987  55.55
n N2 =
76.48  103 = 7.16 10 −4

33. The correct statement/s about Galvanic cell is / are

(a) Current flows from cathode to anode
(b) Anode is positive terminal
(c) If Ecell < 0 , then it is spontaneous reaction
(d) Cathode is positive terminal
(1) a and b only (2) a, b and c (3) a and d only (4) b only
Ans: (3)
a and d only
34. the electronic conductance depends on
(1) Nature of electrolyte added (2) The number of valence electrons per atom
(3) Concentration of the electrolyte (4) Size of the ions
Ans: (2)
Electronic conductance means metallic conductance.

35. For a given half cell, Al3+ +3e- → Al on increasing the concentration of aluminium
ion, the electrode potential will
(1) Decrease (2) No change (3) First increase then decrease (4) Increase
Ans: (4)
0.59 1
Ecell = Ecell
0
− log
n  Al 3+ 

36. Match the following and select the correct option for the quality of electricity, in
Cmol−1 , required to deposit various meals at cathode.
List – I List – II
(a) Ag +
i. 386000 Cmol−1
(b) Mg 2+ ii. 289500 Cmol−1
(c) AI3+ iii. 96500 Cmol−1
(d) Ti 4+ iv. 193000 Cmol−1
 C4

(1) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii (2) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
Ans: (2)

Ag + → 1F = 1 96500
Mg 2+ → 2 F → 2  96500 = 193000
Al 3+ → 3F → 3  96500 = 289500
Ti 4+ → 4 F → 4  96500 = 386000

37. Catalysts are used to increase the rate of a chemical reaction, Because it
(1) Increase the activation energy of the reaction
(2) Decreases the activation energy of the reaction
(3) Brings about improper orientation of reactant molecules
(4) Increases the potential energy barrier
Ans: (2)
Decreases the activation energy of reaction.
38. Half – life of a first order reaction is 20 seconds and initial concentration of reactant is
0.2M. The concentration of reactant left after 80 seconds is
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.05 M (3) 0.0125 M (4) 0.2 M
Ans: (3)
t1/ 2 = 20 s

Total half lives = 80/20 = 4

 A0 0.2
Reactant left after ‘n’ half lives = n
= = 0.0125 M
2 24

39. In the given graph, Ea for the reverse reaction will be

 C4

(1) 125 KJ (2) 215 KJ (3) 90 KJ (4) 305 KJ

Ans: (1)
E = 215 − 90 = 125kJ
a
backward

40. For the reaction 2N 2 O5(g) ⎯⎯

→ 4NO2(g) + O2(g) initial concentration of N2O5 is 2.0
mol L−1 and after 300 min, it is reduced to 1.4 mol L−1 . The rate of production of NO 2
(in mol L−1 min −1 ) is
(1) 2.510−4 (2) 4 10−4 (3) 2.5 10−3 (4) 4 10−3

Ans: (4)
1 1
 N 2O5  =  NO2 
2 4
4
 NO2  =  N 2O5 
2
4 ( 2 − 1.4 ) 0.6  2
= = = 0.004 = 4  10−3
2 300 300

41. Which of the following methods of expressing concentration are unitless?

(1) Mole fraction and Mass percent (W/W)
(2) Molality and Mole fraction
(3) Mass percent (W/W) and Molality
(4) Molality and Molarity
Ans: (1)
42. Select the INCORRECT statement/s from the following:
(a) 22 books have infinite significant figures.
(b) In the answer of calculation 2.5 1.25 has four significant figures.
(c) Zero’s preceding to first non – zero digit are significant.
(d) In the answer of calculation 12.11 + 18.0 + 1.012 has three significant figures
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only
Ans: (2)
43. Given below are the atomic masses of the elements:
Element: Li Na C1 K Ca Br Sr I Ba
Atomic Mass 7 23 35.5 39 40 80. 88 127 137
( g mol−1 ):
 C4

Which of the following doesn’t form triad?

(1) Ba, Sr, Ca (2) C1, Br, I (3) C1, K, Ca (4) Li, Na, K
Ans: (3)
Cl, K, Ca – doesn’t follow Dobereiner’s law of triads.

44. The change in hybridisation (if any) of the ‘A1’ atom in the following reaction is
A1C13 + C1− → AlCl−4
(1) No change in the hybridisation state (2) sp 2 to sp3
(3) sp3 to sp3 d (4) sp3 to sp 2

Ans: (2)
AlCl3
no. of valence e−s + no. of monovalent atoms
Hybridisation =
2
3+3
= =3
2
Steric factor = 3 ⸫ Hybridisation ⟶ sp2
AlCl −4
3 + 4 + 1 (anionic charge)
Hybridisation = = =4
2
Steric factor = 4 ⸫ Hybridisation ⟶ sp3
⸫ Right answer is (4) sp2 to sp3

45. Match List – I with List -II and select the correct option:
List – I (Molecule / ion) List – II (Bond order)
(a) NO (i) 1.5
(b) CO (ii) 2.0
(c) O2−
(iii) 2.5
(d) O2 (iv) 3.0
(1) a- iii, b – iv, c- i, d – ii (2) a- i, b – iv, c- iii, d – ii
(3) a- ii, b – iii, c- iv, d – I (4) a- iv, b – iii, c- ii, d – i
Ans: (1)
1
Bond order = [N b − Na ]
2
Nb ⟶ No. of Bonding e-
Na ⟶ No. of antibonding e-
 C4

⸫ NO ⟶ 2.5
CO ⟶ 3
O −2 ⟶ 1.5
O2 ⟶ 2
Right option (3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii.

46. The electronic configuration of X and Y are given below:

X: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
Y: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
Which of the following is the correct molecular formula and type of bond formed
between X and Y?
(1) X3Y, ionic bond (2) X2Y3, coordinate bond
(3) XY3, covalent bond (4) X2Y, covalent bond
Ans: (3)
X: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 ⟶ Phosphorus
Y: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 ⟶ Chlorine
⸫ Phosphorus two types of halides forms i.e., PX3 and PX5
⸫ Right option (3) PCl3 and nature of the bond is covalent
Right answer (3) XY3, covalent bond.

47. Match List – I with List – II

List-I (Types of redox reactions) List-II (Examples)
(a) Combination reaction −
(i) Cl2(g) + 2Br(aq) ⎯⎯ −
→ 2Cl(aq) + Br2(l)
(b) Decomposition reaction (ii) 2H 2O 2(aq) ⎯⎯
→ 2H 2O (l) + O 2(g)
(c) Displacement reaction 
(iii) CH 4(g) + 2O 2(g) ⎯⎯ → CO 2(g) + 2H 2 O(l)
(d) Disproportionation reaction 
(iv) 2H 2O (l) ⎯⎯ → 2H 2 + O 2(g)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – iii (2) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii (4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
Ans: (3)

48. In the following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is
(1) Sc3+, Zn2+ (2) V2+, Ti3+ (3) Zn2+, Mn2+ (4) Ti4+, Cu2+
Ans: (1)
Sc3+ ⟶ [Ar] 3d0
 C4

Zn2+⟶ [Ar] 3d10

In both the metal ions unpaired d electrons are absent. So no d-d transition.
⸫ Both Sc3+, Zn2+ are colorless.

49. In the reaction between hydrogen sulphide and acidified permanganate solution,
(1) H2S is reduced to S, MnO−4 is oxidised to Mn2+
(2) H2S is oxidised to SO2, MnO−4 is reduced to MnO2
(3) H2S is reduced to SO2, MnO−4 is oxidised to Mn2+
(4) H2S is oxidised to S, MnO−4 is reduced to Mn2+
Ans: (4)

⸫ H 2S is oxidised to s and MnO−4 is reduced to Mn +2

50. A member of the Lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state
to
(1) Samarium (2) Europium (3) Erbium (4) Cerium
Ans: (4)

58 Ce:( Xe ) 4f 1 5d1 6s2 Ce +4 has an electronic configuration similar to noble gas.

Ce+4 :( Xe ) Highly stable in +4.

51. In which of the following pairs, both the elements do not have (n – 1)d10 ns2
configuration?
(1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Cd (3) Cd, Hg (4) Ag, Cu
Ans: (4)

Zn, Cd and Hg which are called pseudo transition elements have electronic
configuration (n - 1) d10 ns2
 C4

52. A ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligates with the
central metal atom/ion in the complex is called ______
(1) Chelate ligand (2) Unidentate ligand
(3) Polydentate ligand (4) Ambidentate ligand
Ans: (4)
Ambidentate ligand can bond to a central atom through two different donor atoms but
only one at a time.

53. Which of the following statements are true about [NiCl4]2−?

(a) The complex has tetrahedral geometry.
(b) Co-ordination number of Ni is 2 and oxidation state is +4.
(c) The complex is sp3 hybridised.
(d) It is a high spin complex.
(e) The complex is paramagnetic.
(1) a, c, d and e (2) a, b, d and e (3) b, c, d and e (4) a, b, c and d
Ans: (1)
Ni → 3d 8 4s 2
Ni +2 → 3d 8 4s 0
[NiCl4]2−
Central metal ion : Ni2+
Electronic configuration of Ni2+: [Ar] 3d8

Orbitals of Ni2+ ion

3d 4s 4p

sp3 hybridised Orbitals of

Ni2+ ion 3d sp3 hybrid

[NiCl4]2

high spin complex 3d four pairs of electrons

from four Cl

 Nicl4−2 
x + ( −1)( 4 ) = 2
x − 4 = −2
x = +2
Hybridization → sp3 hybridization
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Geometry → tetrahedral
Co-ordination number → 4, oxidation state + 2
Paramagnetic 2 unpaired es are present. It is a high spin complex.

54. Which formula and its name combination is incorrect?

(1) K3[Cr(C2O4)3], Potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
(2) [CoCl2(en)2]Cl, Dichloridobis (ethane – 1, 2 – diamine) cobalt (III) chloride
(3) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl, Pentaamine carbonylcobalt (III) chloride
(4) [pt(NH3)2Cl(NO)2] Diamine chloridonitrito – N – platinum (II)
Ans: (3)
Co ( NH 3 )5 ( CO3 )  Cl

Pentaamine carbonate cobalt (III) chloride,

55. In the complex ion [Fe(C2O4)3]3−, the Co-ordination number of Fe is

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
Ans: (3)
3−
 Fe ( C2O4 )3 
C2O42−
(oxalate)
O
−
C O
−
C O

O
Oxalate ion is a bidentate ligand, this means that each oxalate ion can form two
coordinate bonds with the central metal ion.
Coordination no = Number of ligands x donation sites per ligand
3×2=6

56. Match List – I with List – II for the following reaction pattern
Glucose ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Reagent
→ Product ⎯⎯ → Structural prediction.
List – I (Reagent) List – II (Structural prediction)
(a) Acetic anhydride (i) Glucose has an aldehyde group
(b) Bromine water (ii) Glucose has a straight chain of six carbon atoms
(c) Hydroiodic acid (iii) Glucose has five hydroxyl groups
(4) Hydrogen cyanide (iv) Glucose has a carbonyl group
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i (2) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv (4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
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Ans: (2)

57. The correct sequence of α – amino acid, hormone, vitamin, carbohydrates respectively
is
(1) Thiamine, Thyroxine, Vitamin A, Glucose
(2) Glutamine, Insulin, Aspartic acid, Fructose
(3) Arginine, Testosterone, Glutamic acid, Maltose
(4) Aspartic acid, Insulin, Ascorbic acid, rhamnose
Ans: (4)
 - amino acid, hormone, vitamin carbohydrate
   
Aspartic acid Insulin Ascorbic acid rhamnose
(vitamin c)

58. Which examples of carbohydrates exhibit α – link (α – glycosidic link) in their

structure?
(1) Maltose and Lactose (2) Amylose and Amylopectin
(3) Cellulose and Glycogen (4) Glucose and Fructose
Ans: (2)
In Amylase and amylopectin (both are components of starch)  − 1, 4 glycosidic bonds
are observed.

59. In the titration of potassium permanganate (KMnO4) against Ferrous ammonium

sulphate (FAS) solution, dilute sulphuric acid but not nitric acid is used to maintain
acidic medium, because
(1) It is different to identify the end point
(2) Nitric acid doesn’t act as an indicator
(3) Nitric acid itself is an oxidising agent
(4) Nitric acid is a weak acid than sulphuric acid
Ans: (3)
Nitric acid itself is an oxidising agent and it interferes with redox reaction.

60. The group reagent NH4Cl(s) and aqueous NH3 will precipitate which of the following
ion?
(1) NH +4 (2) Al3+ (3) Ba2+ (4) Ca2+
Ans: (2)
AI 3+

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