BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU – PHẦN 3

CHUYÊN ĐỀ 2: BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LUYỆN THI THPT QG

Mục tiêu:
- Vận dụng được những kiến thức từ vựng đã học được trong suốt lớp 10 đến 12 để dịch được câu hỏi, các
đáp án và hiểu được nội dung cơ bản của bài đọc.
- Biết tìm từ khóa trong câu hỏi, các đáp án và trong bài đọc để tìm ra câu trả lời; vận dụng kỹ năng đọc lướt
và đọc lấy thông tin chi tiết.
Exercise 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two
decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known
species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The
high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the
significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will
negatively affect one after another of Earth‟s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine
ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the
result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of
activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly
reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth‟s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of
the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less
dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only
0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance
that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the
physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the
rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological
devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred
on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and
time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new
environments.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth‟s ecosystems
Question 2: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to
A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential
Question 3: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that
A. the cause of the dinosaurs‟ extinction is unknown
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species‟ extinction

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 C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
D. Earth‟s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs‟extinction
Question 4: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to
A. shocking B. unknown C. illuminating D. predicted
Question 5: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world‟s
A. habitat destruction in wetlands B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
C. damage to marine ecosystems D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 6: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
Exercise 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in
North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina‟s school until the age of fifteen,
where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a
year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father‟s, Porter moved to La Salle County in
Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster‟s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant
companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short
stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his
pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter
married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year, and
later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined,
and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New
Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his
wife‟s continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and
sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man;
he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later,
reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in
jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300 stories and
gained fame as America‟s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months of poor
health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry‟s stories have been translated
all over the world.
Question 7: According to the passage, Porter‟s Father was _____.
A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
B. a medical doctor
C. a licensed pharmacist
D. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
Question 8: Why did the author write the passage?
A. to outline the career of a famous American
B. because of his fame as America‟s favorite short story writer
C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer

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 D. to outline the influences on O. Henry‟s writing
Question 9: The word “imprisonment” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ____________.
A. captivity B. escape C. insult D. punishment
Question 10: What is the passage primarily about?
A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter. B. The way to adopt a nickname.
C. O.Henry‟s influence on American literature. D. The adventures of O.Henry.
Question 11: The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter‟s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.
Question 12: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”
C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
D. Both of Porter‟s wives died before he died
Question 13: The word “pseudonym” in the passage refers to _____.
A. William Sydney Porter B. O. Henry C. Athol Estes D. the Aunt Lina
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction began
in 1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got its name because most
people were barred from entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and
the imperial family were permitted only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any section at will.
The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All
buildings within the walls follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south to honor the sun.
The designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors
with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This architectural
concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For example, the importance of a building was determined not
only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof‟s
ridges.
In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace to its
World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an imperial invitation to
walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art.
One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal
entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on either side of the
entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this majestic structure, you
understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to imperial proclamations.
As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 meters
wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five parallel white marble
bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in turn, leads to the heart of the
Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally
different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontaneous
Question 14: According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to?

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 A. The Meridian gate
B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony
C. The Imperial Gardens
D. The center of Beijing arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place
of relaxation for the emperor.
Question 15: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in paragraph 3?
A. high quality found nowhere else B. at an angle from the main line
C. careless of small details in design D. partially designed in a foreign country
Question 16: From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is
A. not very impressive B. surrounded by three tall walls
C. decorated with statuettes D. painted gold and green
Question 17: Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3?
A. Architecture B. World Heritage List C. Palace D. UNESCO
Question 18: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous”?
A. Without thinking B. Unique C. Without planning D. Strange
Question 19: From the passage, it can be inferred that
A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries
B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern.
C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless.
D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values.
Question 20: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”?
A. Poetry written for the emperor. B. Music composed for public ceremonies.
C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight. D. Official public announcements.
Question 21: Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden City
at any time?
A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 5 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 3
Exercise 4. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and
patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into
platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once
every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves
taking the blood from a donor‟s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a
plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting.
When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the
recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as
long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being
infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure
that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative reactions to transfusions
are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may
suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although
they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood,
overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma

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or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood.
All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis.
When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful
elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood
sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To
unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human
health
Question 22: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT
A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood
C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility
Question 23: What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?
A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed
Question 24: According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
A. Every four months B. Every three month C. Every two months D. Every month
Question 25: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to
infants and newborns?
A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults.
C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.
Question 26: The word "it" refers to
A. surgical procedures B. accident victims
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
Question 27: What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?
A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted
Question 28: What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Motoring blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented.
C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.
Exercise 5. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein.
His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity.
Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical
application of Einstein's work.
In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he
published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian
movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation
for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of
energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of
waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are
relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the
universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein
presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein
published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the
space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.

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 Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He
opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in
Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United
States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to
President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany
developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.
Question 29: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. math
Question 30: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of
Einstein's discoveries?
A. Radio B. Television C. Automobiles D. Computer
Question 31: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except
A. nationalism
B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine
C. atomic bomb research in the United States.
D. the defeat of the Nazis.
Question 32: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?
A. Switzerland B. the United States C. Germany D. Israel
Question 33: The word “exalting” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. criticism B. elimination C. suppor D. elevation
Question 34: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels
A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.
C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
Question 35: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called
A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. gamma rays D. quanta
Exercise 6. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
BASKETBALL
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James
A. Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now
Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the
wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor
activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the
baseball and football seasons had ended.
First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon
found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.
In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the
school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The early
rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball violation. Every time a goal was
made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.

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 Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the
United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which
was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897 season.
When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly
spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but the
name basketball has remained.
Question 36: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. The Olympic Games in St Louis in 1904 B. The development of basketball
C. The YMCA athletic program D. Dr. James Naismith
Question 37: When was the first demonstration game of basketball held during the Olympics?
Question 38: The phrase "balked at" in the first paragraph could best be replaced by
A. resisted B. enjoyed C. excelled at D. was exhausted by
Question 39: The word "them" in the second paragraph refers to
A. indoors B. seasons C. games D. areas
Question 40: The word "retrieve" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. reclaim B. get back C. get along D. reform
Question 41: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He did not like soccer or rugby.
B. He was tired of baseball and football.
C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
D. He could not convince his students to play indoors.
Question 42: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball EXCEPT
A. three points were scored for every basket.
B. running with the ball was not a foul.
C. nine players were on a team.
D. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score.
Exercise 7. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
FIRST TIME IN THE AIR
When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not
like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “ „I also didn‟t like the fact that I wouldn‟t be in
control,” says John. “I‟m a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to
so. It drives everybody crazy.”
However John couldn‟t avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren
in Canada. “I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn‟t let my son, his wife and their three
children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom‟s business
isn‟t doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it‟s a nine-hour flight!” he says.
To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was told
that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know as much
as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel better. The Boeing 747
is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the
USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the
wings and the 747‟s wings are so big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel

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16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn‟t that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very
interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to
Canada, I still couldn‟t believe that something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was even
more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of people!”
The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than
I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy the
food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep
for a while! Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my
son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when
I couldn‟t even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I love
most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!” Question 43: Why did John Mills
fly in an aeroplane?
A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it.
C. He wanted to see his family D. He had to travel on business.
Question 44: Why did John read about aeroplane?
A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby.
C. It made him feel safer. D. He had found a book on them.
Question 45: What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time?
A. He felt much safer. B. He liked the shape of it.
C. He couldn‟t believe how big it was. D. He thought the wings were very small.
Question 46: How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?
A. excited B. happy C. sad
Question 47: What surprised John most about the flight?
A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep
C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good
Question 48: How did John feel about his fears in the end?
A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.
B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.
C. He hoped his grandchildren weren‟t afraid of flying.
D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.\

BÀI TẬP ĐỌC HIỂU - PHẦN 3

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LUYỆN THI THPTQG
Mục tiêu:
- Biết vận dụng những kỹ năng đọc cơ bản như scanning (đọc lướt) và skimming (đọc chi tiết) để nắm nội
dung chính và tìm thông tin cụ thể.
- Làm quen với các dạng câu hỏi thông dụng: Tìm ý chính của bài đọc, câu hỏi LOẠI TRỪ, câu hỏi NGỤ Ý,
hay câu hỏi về một chi tiết nào đó.
Exercise 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

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Humans are destroying the earth‟s tropical rain forests. About 80,000 square kilometers are being destroyed
every year. About a quarter of the (1)_____ comes from people cutting trees for fuel. Another quarter is to
make grassland for their cattle. The (2)______ trees are cut down to sell the wood to start farms.
The population in cities all over the world is growing, and more and more wood is needed to build huge new
buildings. For example, 5,000 trees from Sarawak rain forest in Malaysia were used to build just one tall
building. (3)_______ people continue cutting down that many trees in Sarawak rain forest, all the trees could
be gone in eight years.
The world needs more food, and it (4)______ like a good idea to clear the rain forests and use the land for
agriculture. Many people think that the land under these huge, thick forests must be in rich nutrients, but it
isn't. This is another surprising thing about rain forests. Most of the land in tropical rain forest is
very(5)________.
Question 1: A. destruction B. destroying C. destroy D. destructive
Question 2: A. staying B. remaining C. standing D. dwelling
Question 3: A. Unless B. If C. While D. Although
Question 4: A. seems B. looks C. tastes D. sounds
Question 5: A. short B. poor C. unfortunate D. ill
Exercise 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the numbered space from 6 to 10 in the
following passage.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps foster
independence and imparts the ability to (6)_______ with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to work their way through different systems. It (7)_______ brings people into touch
with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to
others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, but they do have many skills that can help
others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for the
benefit of their fellow human beings, and (8)_______ themselves. From all this, the gain to any community
no matter how many volunteers are involved is immeasurable.
Employers will generally look favorably on people who have shown an ability to work as part of a team. It
demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, (9)_______ would be desirable qualities in
any employee. So to satisfy employers‟ demands for experience when applying (10)_______ work,
volunteering can act as a means of gaining experience that might otherwise elude would-be workers and can
ultimately lead to paid employment and the desired field.
Question 6: A. deal B. face C. solve D. fight
Question 7: A. although B. therefore C. however D. moreover
Question 8: A. necessarily B. ultimately C. intimately D. exclusively
Question 9: A. who B. whose C. which D. that
Question 10: A. to B. in C. for D. on
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 11 to 15.
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources. We
(11)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away .A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (12)____ of packaging and this constitutes
about seven percent by weight, of our domestic (13) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of
it is ,though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy -

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rich – they have a higher calorific (14) ____ than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (15)____ by
plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.
Question 11: A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove
Question 12: A. form B. way C. type D. kind
Question 13: A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements
Question 14: A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand
Question 15: A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored
Exercise 4. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 16 to 20.
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (16)______ . Many species of animals
are threatened, and could easily become (17)_______ if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some
cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots,
are caught (18)______ and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the
place where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are
fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops,
but these chemicals pollute the environment and (19)______ wildlife. The most successful animals on earth -
human beings - will soon be the only ones (20)______, unless we can solve this problem.
Question 16: A. threat B. problem C. danger D. vanishing
Question 17: A. disappeared B. vanished C. extinct D. empty
Question 18: A. for life B. alive C. lively D. for living
Question 19: A. spoil B. wound C. wrong D. harm
Question 20: A. left B. over C. staying D. survive
Exercise 5. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the
questions from 21 to 25.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book (21)_______ etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social situations from
birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the proper (22)______ for
behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people who work or travel abroad to understand the rules of
etiquette in other cultures as well. Cultural differences can be found in such simple processes as giving or
receiving a gift. In Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively (23)______ ceremony.
(24)______, in some Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. When a gift
is offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. In Chinese culture, both the
giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times before he or
she finally accepts it. In addition, to show respect for the receiver, it is (25)_________ in several Asian
cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
Question 21: A. on B. with C. by D. upon
Question 22: A. tendency B. convention C. rules D. laws
Question 23: A. specially B. differently C. few D. little
Question 24: A. Morever B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. However
Question 25: A. extraordinary B. efficient C. unusual D. common
Exercise 6. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
Founded after World War II by 51 "peace-loving states" combined to oppose future aggression, the United
Nations now counts 192 member nations, (26) _________ its newest members, Nauru, Kiribati, and Tonga
in 1999, Tuvalu and Yugoslavia in 2000, Switzerland and East Timor in 2002, and Montenegro in 2006.

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United Nations Day has been (27) _________ on October 24 since 1948 and celebrates the objectives and
accomplishments of the organization, which was established on October 24, 1945.
The UN (28) _________ in peacekeeping and humanitarian missions across the globe. Though some say
its (29) _________ has declined in recent decades, the United Nations still plays a tremendous role in world
politics. In 2001 the United Nations and Kofi Annan, then Secretary-General of the UN, won the Nobel
Peace Prize "for their work for a better organized and more peaceful world."
Since 1948 there have been 63 UN peacekeeping operations that are currently under way. Thus far, close to
130 nations have contributed personnel (30) _________various times; 119 are currently providing
peacekeepers. As of August 31, 2008, there were 16 peacekeeping operations underway with a total of
88,230 personnel. The small island nation of Fiji has taken part in virtually every UN peacekeeping
operation, as has Canada.
Question 26: A. including B. limiting C. especially D. possibly
Question 27: A. examined B. watched C. monitored D. celebrated
Question 28: A. puts off B. looks down C. takes part D. makes use
Question 29: A. consequence B. meaninglessness C. awareness D. influence
Question 30: A. on B. at C. by D. in
Exercise 7. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
On April 3, 1972, a man came out of the Hilton hotel in Manhattan and started walking down the street. He
stopped, (31)______ his hand with a strange object in it, put it to his ear and started to talk into it. This was
the beginning of mobile phone (32)_______, more than 30 years ago. That man was Motorola's project
manager, Martin Cooper, who was (33)______ his 34th birthday that day. The strange object was the first
mobile phone, which was nicknamed “the shoe” because of its unusual (34) ______.Mr. Cooper had gone to
New York to introduce the new phone. The first call he made was to his rival, Joe Engel at AT&T's research
centre. Engel was responsible for the development of the radiophones for cars. "I called him and said that I
was talking on a real mobile phone (35)_____ I was holding in my hand," said Cooper. "I don't remember
what he said in reply, but I'm sure he wasn't happy." The quality of the call was very good, because although
New York had only one base station at that time, it was being used by only one user - Martin Cooper.
Question 31: A. pulled B. raised C. lifted D. rose
Question 32: A. past B. times C. history D. story
Question 33: A. making B. driving C. expecting D. celebrating
Question 34: A. kind B. shape C. type D. symbol
Question 35: A. that B. when C. as D. how
Exercise 8. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the blanks from 36 to 40.
American folk music originated with (36) ________ people at a time when the rural population was isolated
and music was not (37) ______ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (38) _____ by oral
traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American
folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have
significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth
century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (39)
______ soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great
popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer –
composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban‟ folk music. Many
of these songs deal (40) _____ important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.

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 Question 36: A. ordinary B. popular C. common D. typical
Question 37: A. even B. still C. until D. yet
Question 38: A. transferred B. transformed C. transmitted D. Transited
Question 39: A. which B. this C. who D. That
Question 40: A. in B. by C. with D. At
Exercise 9. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45.

SOCIAL NETWORK
A 16-year-old girl from Essex has been sacked after describing her job as boring on the social networking
website, Facebook. The teenager, who had been working (41)_____ an administrative assistant at a
marketing company for just three weeks, didn‟t feel very enthusiastic about the duties she was asked to do.
(42)_____ of moaning to her friends she decided to express her thoughts on her Facebook page to a
colleague, who (43) _____ the boss‟s attention to it. He immediately fired her on the (44)_____ that her
public display of dissatisfaction made it impossible for her to continue working for the company. She later
told newspapers she had been treated totally unfairly, especially as she hadn‟t even mentioned the
company‟s name. She claimed she‟s been perfectly happy with her job and that her light-hearted comments
shouldn‟t (45)_____ taken seriously. A spokesperson from a workers‟ union said the incident demonstrated
two things: firstly, that people need to protect their privacy online and secondly, that employers should be
less sensitive to criticism.
Question 41: A. For B. as C. like D. At
Question 42: A. Due B. Regardless C. Instead D. In spite
Question 43: A. Got B. caught C. paid D. Drew
Question 44: A. Terms B. condition C. grounds D. Basis
Question 45: A. to be B. have been C. be D. Have
Exercise 10. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the blanks from 46 to 50.
University researchers have taken samples from a preserved dodo specimen in an (46) _____ to uncover the
extinct bird‟s family tree. They worked with the British Natural History Museum to collect and study
genetic material from large number of specimens: a preserved dodo, the extinct solitaire bird, and 35 kind of
living pigeons and doves. Their analysis (47) _____ the doo and the solitaire to be close relatives with the
Nicobar pigeon, their nearest living relative. The dodo lived on Mauritius in the Indian Ocean. It was a
flightless bird, bigger than a turkey. By 1681, all dodos had been (48) _____ by hungry sailors. The solitaire,
which looked a bit like a dodo, had gone the same way by 1800. By extracting short pieces of the dodo‟s
DNA and (49) _____ these with the DNA of living birds, the scientists were able to deduce when the dodo
evolved away from its relatives into a separate entity. The scientists can now (50) _____ assume that the
dodo developed its distinctive appearance and features as a result of its geographical isolation. They are now
convinced that it separated from the solitaire about 25 million years ago, long before Mauritius became an
island.
Question 46: A. Attempt B. intention C. order D. assistance
Question 47: A. Advises B. involves C. shows D. recommends
Question 48: A. Disappeared B. vanished C. killed D. extinct
Question 49: A. Studying B. comparing C. researching D. Combining
Question 50: A. Surely B. hardly C. highly D. Safely

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