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SFG 2025 Level 2 Test 12 QP - 221162 Eng

This document is a test booklet for the SFG 2025 Level 2 examination, containing instructions and a series of multiple-choice questions across various subjects. Candidates are required to fill in personal details and mark their answers on a separate answer sheet, with penalties for incorrect responses. The test consists of 50 questions, each carrying equal marks, and covers topics related to general studies and current affairs.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
37 views9 pages

SFG 2025 Level 2 Test 12 QP - 221162 Eng

This document is a test booklet for the SFG 2025 Level 2 examination, containing instructions and a series of multiple-choice questions across various subjects. Candidates are required to fill in personal details and mark their answers on a separate answer sheet, with penalties for incorrect responses. The test consists of 50 questions, each carrying equal marks, and covers topics related to general studies and current affairs.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Page 1

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T12 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221162

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and
Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and
Name:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box Email Id:
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
Mobile No:
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

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Page 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.1) With reference to India’s projects on 1. The dependency of tribal groups on the Pre-
connectivity, consider the following statements: agricultural level of technology is one of the
1. East-West Corridor under Golden criteria for identifying PVTGs.
Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh 2. Odisha has the highest number of recognized
and Surat. PVTGs.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in 3. The Parliament recognizes the tribal group as
Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via PVTG based on the recommendations of the
Myanmar. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
3. Bangladesh- China- India- Myanmar Which of the statements given above is/are
Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in correct?
Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements are correct? b) 1 only
a) Only one c) 2 and 3 only
b) Only two d) 1, 2 and 3
c) All three
d) None Q.5) In the context of finance, the term ‘green
taxonomy’ sometimes appears in news in
Q.2) Consider the following statements relation to:
regarding Bauxite: a) the establishment of a mechanism that
1. India is the largest producer of Bauxite in the prevents the import of goods having a high
world after Australia. carbon footprint.
2. Gallium, a rare metal, is extracted from b) a framework for defining investments that
bauxite during the Bayer process. are environmentally sustainable and friendly.
Which of the statements given above is/are c) taxation of goods whose productions result
correct? in greenhouse gas emissions.
a) 1 only d) establishment of a carbon trading market in
b) 2 only which carbon credits can be sold and bought.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.6) Kolihan, Surda, and Malanjkhand are well
known mining sites for which of the following?
Q.3) Consider the following pairs: a) Gold mining
Tribes in States/Regions to which they b) Copper mining
News primarily belong to: c) Coal mining
1. Gaddi Chhattisgarh d) Zinc mining
2. Mankidia Himachal Pradesh
3. Jarawa Andaman and Nicobar Islands Q.7) Consider the following pairs:
4. Reang Tripura Mineral Largest Producer in the
How many of the pairs given above are correctly World
matched? 1. Uranium Kazakhstan
a) Only one 2. Coal India
b) Only two 3. Crude Oil Saudi Arabia
c) Only three 4. Cobalt Democratic Republic of
d) All four Congo
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
Q.4) Consider the following statements about matched?
the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups a) Only one
(PVTGs) in India: b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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Page 3

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.8) The gravity model of migration explains 2. Mundra Port Largest privately owned
that migration between two urban centers port in India.
would be: 3. Visakhapatnam Largest container port in
a) proportional to the product of their India.
population and the distance between them. How many of the above pairs are correctly
b) proportional to the square of the distance matched?
between them and inversely proportional to a) Only one pair
the product of their population. b) Only two pairs
c) proportional to the product of their c) All three pairs
population and inversely proportional to the d) None of the pairs
square of the distance between them.
d) proportional to the product of their Q.12) In the context of human geography, the
population and the square of the distance term Urban Sprawl best refers to the:
between them. a) rapid growth of slums in a city within a short
period of time.
Q.9) Which of the following best defines the b) unplanned expansion of cities into
Gross Reproduction Rate? surrounding areas.
a) The average number of total children a c) rapid growth in the number of industries in a
woman is expected to give birth to during city.
her entire reproductive span conforming to d) development of high-rise buildings in urban
the age-specific fertility rates for a given year centers.
if there is no mortality.
b) The average number of female children a Q.13) Consider the following statements:
woman is expected to give birth to during 1. Tamil Nadu has the largest lignite reserves
her entire reproductive span conforming to among the Indian states.
the age-specific fertility rates for a given year 2. Gevra coal mine, the largest coal mine in
if there is no mortality. India, is located in the state of Chattisgarh.
c) The average number of male children a 3. Among the Indian states, Madhya Pradesh
woman is expected to give birth to during has the largest coal reserve.
her entire reproductive span conforming to Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the age-specific fertility rates for a given year a) 1 only
if there is no mortality. b) 1 and 2 only
d) The average number of live births per 1,000 c) 1, 2 and 3
married women during her reproductive d) 2 only
years.
Q.14) To ensure the country’s energy security,
Q.10) Recently, the Supreme Court recognized the Indian government set up Strategic
the right against the adverse effects of climate Petroleum Reserves at various locations. In this
change as a distinct fundamental right under context, consider the following places:
which of the following Articles of the 1. Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
Constitution? 2. Mangaluru, Karnataka
a) Article 15 and Article 19 3. Kochi, Kerala
b) Article 14 and Article 21 In how many of the above places the Strategic
c) Article 19 and Article 21 Petroleum Reserves are located?
d) Article 14 and Article 15 a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.11) Consider the following pairs: c) All three
Port Well Known as d) None
1. Kamarajar Port First major port in India
registered as a company.

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Page 4

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.15) Which one of the following best describes Q.18) Consider the following countries:
the term "Secured Overnight Financing Rate 1. India
(SOFR)", sometimes seen in news? 2. China
a) The benchmark interest rate for raising 3. Bangladesh
dollar-denominated loans by banks from 4. Sri Lanka
international market. What is the correct arrangement of the above
b) The rate at which short term funds are countries in descending order of their median
exchanged between banks in the domestic age?
money market. a) 2, 4, 3, 1
c) The minimum lending rate below which a b) 2, 4, 1, 3
financial institution is not permitted to lend. c) 1, 2, 4, 3
d) The rate charged on merchants by banks for d) 1, 3, 4, 2
processing debit or credit card transactions.
Q.19) Sometimes seen in news, the Daudhan
Q.16) With reference to groundwater usage in Dam and Lower Orr Dam are associated with
India, consider the following statements: linking of which of the following rivers?
1. India accounts for nearly 25% of the total a) Par - Tapi - Narmada
groundwater extraction in the world. b) Godavari and Krishna
2. In India, the agriculture sector is the largest c) Ken and Betwa
consumer of groundwater resources, d) Mahanadi and Godavari
accounting for more than 85% of the total
annual groundwater extraction. Q.20) Which of the following research stations
3. According to the Dynamic Ground Water (both commissioned and decommissioned) have
Resource Assessment Report-2024, the total been established by India in Antarctica?
annual groundwater extraction in India has 1. Dakshin Gangotri
almost doubled in 2024 compared to 2017. 2. Maitri
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Himadri
correct? 4. Bharti
a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 2 only below:
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 3 and 4 only
Q.17) With reference to Scheduled Tribes (STs) in d) 1, 2 and 4
India, consider the following statements:
As per census 2011, Q.21) In which of the following regions of India
1. Madhya Pradesh has the highest tribal are shale gas resources found?
population among the Indian states. 1. Cambay Basin
2. Mundas are the most populous tribe in India. 2. Cauvery Basin
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
a) 1 only below:
b) 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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Page 5

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.22) Consider the following pairs: 1. It should have net profits in the last two
Financial Years.
Tribes Primarily Associated Country
2. Its shares must be listed on a recognized
stock exchange.
1. Bushmen Namibia
3. It must have a minimum audited net worth of
2. Masai Tanzania Rs 1,000 crore at the end of the previous
quarter.
3. Samburu Kenya Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
4. Maori New Zealand a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
c) 1 only
matched?
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.26) Which one of the following is an
c) Only three
exhaustible but renewable natural resource?
d) All four
a) Solar energy
b) Water in usable condition
Q.23) With reference to Iron Ore in India, c) Soil
consider the following statements: d) Landscape in its natural condition
1. Hematite constitutes more than half of iron
ore found in India.
Q.27) Consider the following statements
2. Odisha is the largest producer of iron ore in
regarding Phospho-gypsum:
India.
1. It is a byproduct of fertilizer production.
3. In the last five years, more than 75% of
2. It consist of radioactive elements such as
India's total iron ore exports have been
uranium and thorium.
directed to China.
3. Its usage has recently been banned in road
Which of the statements given above are
construction by the Government of India.
correct?
Which of the statements given above are
a) 1 and 3 only
correct?
b) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.24) Consider the following statements:
1. It is the primary mineral used in the
Q.28) Consider the following pairs:
production of stainless steel.
2. South Africa is the largest producer of this Ore Primary Mineral extracted
mineral.
3. In India, more than 90% of its resources are 1. Galena Lead
located in Odisha and the bulk of it is
confined to Sukinda valley. 2. Chalcopyrite Zinc
Identify the mineral based on the information
provided above? 3. Cinnabar Mercury
a) Wolfram
b) Chromite How many of the pairs given above are correctly
c) Zinc Concentrate matched?
d) Pyrolusite a) Only one
b) Only two
Q.25) Which of the following criteria must be c) All three
fulfilled by a ‘Small Finance Bank’ for its d) None
conversion into a Universal Bank?

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Page 6

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.29) Consider the following: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are


1. Magnesite correct and Statement-II does not explain
2. Kyanite Statement-I.
3. Sillimanite c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
How many of the above minerals are metallic incorrect.
minerals? d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
a) Only one correct.
b) Only two
c) All three Q.33) Consider the following pairs:
d) None Terms Description
1. Stunting Low weight with respect to
Q.30) Higgs Boson, one of the fundamental the height of a child
particles of universe can be charaterized as: 2. Wasting Low height with respect to
a) like a photon, it does not possess any mass. the age of a child
b) it has an electric charge equal to that of 3. Infant Number of infant deaths in a
electrons. Mortality year per
c) it is the only fundamental particle to have a Rate 1,000 live births during the
spin of zero. year.
d) it is the most abundant particle in the How many of the pairs given above are correctly
universe. matched?
a) Only one
Q.31) Consider the following statements: b) Only two
1. Natural gas occurs in abundance in the c) All three
Gondwana beds. d) None
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. Q.34) Consider the following kinds of industries:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Beverage Industry
correct? 2. Bakery Industry
a) 1 and 2 3. Sugar Industry
b) 2 only 4. Cement Industry
c) 2 and 3 How many of the above industries can be
d) None classified as weight-losing industries?
a) Only one
Q.32) Consider the following statements: b) Only two
Statement-I: In India, only Central Public Sector c) Only three
Enterprises can mine Beryllium and Titanium d) All four
bearing minerals.
Statement-II: As per the Mines and Minerals Q.35) Consider the following statements:
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, only 1. Aflatoxin is a type of toxin produced by fungi.
Central Public Sector Enterprises can mine 2. Aflatoxin is carcinogenic in nature.
minerals identified as atomic minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which one of the following is correct in respect correct?
of the above statements? a) 1 only
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) 2 only
correct and Statement-II explains c) Both 1 and 2
Statement-I. d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Page 7

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.36) Water is a crucial resource for industrial How many of the above states have significant
operations, and its consumption varies reserves of Monazite mineral?
significantly across different sectors. In this a) Only two
context, which of the following industries is the b) Only three
highest consumer of water in India? c) Only four
a) Textiles d) All five
b) Pulp and Paper
c) Steel Q.40) Consider the following pairs regarding the
d) Thermal power plant type of biofuels and the raw material used for
their production:
Q.37) Consider the following pairs: Generation of Primary Raw
Biofuels Material
Mineral ore State with Largest
1. First-generation Edible materials like
Reserves
Biofuels wheat and sugarcane
1. Copper ore Rajasthan 2. Second-generation Non-edible materials
Biofuels such as rice husk
2. Lead ore Gujarat 3. Third-generation Genetically
Biofuels engineered crops
3. Tungsten ore Karnataka 4. Fourth-generation Animal waste like
Biofuels cow dung
4. Silver ore Andhra Pradesh
Which of the above given pairs are correctly
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
matched? a) 1 and 2
a) Only one b) 3 and 4
b) Only two c) 1 and 4
c) Only three d) 2 and 3
d) All four
Q.41) Which one of the following is the busiest
Q.38) Consider the following: sea route and links two industrially developed
1. Bihar regions of the world?
2. Meghalaya a) Mediterranean - Indian Ocean sea route
3. Rajasthan b) The Northern Atlantic sea route
4. Madhya Pradesh c) Cape of Good Hope sea route
How many of the above states have Total d) The North Pacific sea route
Fertility Rate (TFR) above the replacement level
(TFR of 2.1)? Q.42) Consider the following minerals:
a) Only one 1. Felspar
b) Only two 2. Mica
c) Only three 3. Dolomite
d) All four 4. Gypsum
How many of the above minerals are classified
Q.39) Consider the following: as Minor Minerals in India?
1. Kerala a) Only one
2. Odisha b) Only two
3. Assam c) Only three
4. Tamil Nadu d) All four
5. Andhra Pradesh

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Page 8

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.43) Which of the following information can be b) 1 and 2 only


inferred from the population pyramid of a c) 1 and 4 only
country? d) 1, 2 and 4
1. Composition of the country’s population in
various age groups. Q.46) There are eight members in a family with
2. Sex composition of the country’s population. two generations. The number of females is less
3. Literacy levels of the country’s population. than the number of males. K is the son-in-law of
Select the correct answer using the code given P. Z is the father of U and G. T does not have any
below. children, and T’s nephew G is husband of S. M is
a) 1 and 2 only the brother-in-law of K. Z does not have a
b) 2 and 3 only sibling and is the father-in-law of S.
c) 1 and 3 only How is P related to T?
d) 1,2 and 3 a) P is father T
b) P is son of T
Q.44) Consider the following information: c) P and T are siblings
d) P is daughter of T
Multipurpose State/Union River
project Territory
Q.47) The three-digit numbers, “abc” and “cba”,
have only three factors, then what is the value of
1. Rihand Dam Jammu and Jhelum
a × b × c? (Consider a, b and c as distinct digits).
Kashmir
a) 144
2. Tehri dam Uttarakhand Bhagirathi b) 18
and Bhilganga c) 54
d) 32
3. Nagarjuna Telangana Krishna
Sagar dam Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following three passages and answer
4. Hirakud Odisha Mahanadi the items that follow the passages. Your
dam
answers to these items should be based on the
In how many of the above rows is the given passages only.
information correctly matched?
a) Only one Passage I
b) Only two The importance of free and fair journalism for
c) Only three democracy cannot be overestimated. News
d) All four media is thus rightly called the Fourth Estate of
democracy. Emerging technologies like Artificial
Q.45) The World Economic Forum uses four Intelligence (AI), meanwhile, is disrupting this
major dimensions for calculating the Global idea, creating new opportunities as well as new
Gender Gap Index. In this context, consider the challenges in journalism. Machines have already
following dimensions: started compiling and editing reports. The day
1. Educational attainment might not be far when they will be able to carry
2. Political empowerment out most of the work of journalists. What they
3. Protection against violence lack, however, is empathy, which will be the one
4. Health and survival ingredient that can help journalists beat AI.
Which of the above dimensions are used by the Journalism based on human values is not going
World Economic Forum for calculating the to be extinct ever.
Global Gender Gap Index?
a) 2, 3 and 4

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Page 9

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 12 |

Q.48) Based on the above passage, the following else on Earth outside of the Arctic and Antarctic.
assumptions have been made: Warming and melting of these glaciers are
1. The advancement of Artificial Intelligence in altering hydrological systems. This can
journalism may create ethical challenges that contribute to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods
require human intervention. (GLOF), destructive floods, and landslides,
2. Empathy and human values are essential for threatening human settlements, agriculture,
responsible and impactful journalism. infrastructure, and energy systems.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a) 1 only Q.50) Which one of the following statements
b) 2 only best reflects the central idea of the passage?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) The Hindu Kush Himalaya region, often
d) Neither 1 nor 2 called the "Third Pole," stores immense
amounts of ice and snow, making it crucial
Passage II for global water security.
Somewhere down the line, we have become a b) Climate change is accelerating glacier melt in
part of the hustle culture of the society. We the Hindu Kush Himalaya, disrupting
believe that when we are not going a mile a hydrology and increasing risks of floods,
minute, we are actually behind someone, landslides, and infrastructure damage.
somehow. Ever tried sending an email, attending c) Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) are
a Zoom call, and eating lunch all at once? That's becoming more frequent in the Hindu Kush
not efficiency. It’s just rush. We need to slow Himalaya due to climate change, posing
down. Slowing down does not mean being severe threats to human settlements.
inefficient. It means doing things at the right d) The rapid melting of glaciers in the Hindu
pace. Our mind deserves a break in order to Kush Himalaya threatens agriculture and
improve focus and actually boost creativity. The hydropower, impacting livelihoods and
best ideas may not always come from staring at energy security in the region.
spreadsheets but by taking a small pause.

Q.49) Based on the above passage, the following


assumptions have been made:
1. Taking breaks and slowing down can
enhance creativity at work.
2. The hustle culture promotes the belief that
productivity is solely determined by the
number of tasks completed.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage III
Glaciers across the globe are rapidly thinning,
with those in the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH)
region experiencing the most dramatic losses
due to climate change. Often referred to as the
“Third Pole” or the “Water Tower of Asia,” this
region stores more ice and snow than anywhere

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