4/18/25, 8:27 PM Ultrasonic Testing Level 3 Questions Answers with explanation – cwindtexams

Getting Started

Ultrasonic Testing Level 3

Questions Answers with
explanation

1. What is the main function of a calibration

block in ultrasonic testing?
a) To amplify the signal strength
b) To provide standard reflectors for setting sensitivity and range
c) To minimize sound wave scattering
d) To replace the need for a coupling medium

Answer: b) To provide standard reflectors for setting sensitivity and range

Explanation: Calibration blocks contain known reflectors (e.g., side-drilled holes) to adjust the UT system for
accurate distance and sensitivity measurements.

2. The near-field distance of a round UT

transducer is influenced by:
a) The density of the test material
b) The transducer’s size, frequency, and the material’s sound velocity
c) The thickness of the couplant layer
d) The angle of the sound beam

Answer: b) The transducer’s size, frequency, and the material’s sound velocity
Explanation: The near-field length is determined by the formula N = D²f / (4v), where D is the transducer
diameter, f is frequency, and v is velocity.

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3. Where is the focal point of a focused

ultrasonic transducer typically located?
a) In the far-field region
b) At the transducer’s surface
c) Within the near-field zone
d) Past the test material’s thickness

Answer: c) Within the near-field zone

Explanation: A focused transducer concentrates the beam at a specific point, usually in the near field, to improve
resolution at that depth.

4. The bending of ultrasonic waves at a

boundary due to a velocity change is known as:
a) Diffraction
b) Refraction
c) Dispersion
d) Absorption

Answer: b) Refraction
Explanation: Refraction occurs when sound waves cross a boundary between materials with different velocities,
governed by Snell’s law.

5. Per SNT-TC-1A, what is a primary duty of a UT

Level III professional?
a) Conducting all on-site inspections
b) Creating and validating inspection procedures
c) Managing equipment maintenance logs
d) Performing routine gain adjustments

Answer: b) Creating and validating inspection procedures

Explanation: A Level III is tasked with developing, reviewing, and approving procedures to ensure compliance
with applicable standards.

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6. Increasing the frequency of a UT transducer

typically results in:
a) Greater penetration depth
b) Enhanced resolution with less penetration
c) No change in resolution or depth
d) Wider beam spread

Answer: b) Enhanced resolution with less penetration

Explanation: Higher frequencies produce shorter wavelengths for better resolution but increase attenuation,
reducing penetration.

7. In angle-beam weld testing, mode conversion

occurs when:
a) The beam reflects off the opposite surface
b) A shear wave partially transforms into a longitudinal wave at a boundary
c) The beam scatters within the material
d) The couplant is unevenly applied

Answer: b) A shear wave partially transforms into a longitudinal wave at a boundary

Explanation: Mode conversion happens when an angled shear wave hits an interface, generating a longitudinal
wave component.

8. How can the signal-to-noise ratio be

improved in ultrasonic testing?
a) Lowering the receiver gain
b) Using a lower-frequency transducer
c) Adjusting the receiver bandwidth and applying filters
d) Increasing the pulse repetition frequency

Answer: c) Adjusting the receiver bandwidth and applying filters

Explanation: Optimizing bandwidth and filtering reduces background noise while preserving the defect signal.

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9. What is the purpose of a Distance Amplitude

Correction (DAC) curve in UT?
a) To correct for material attenuation and beam divergence
b) To filter out non-relevant indications
c) To set the transducer’s angle
d) To stabilize the pulser output

Answer: a) To correct for material attenuation and beam divergence

Explanation: A DAC curve adjusts gain to ensure consistent sensitivity for reflectors at varying depths.

10. In phased array ultrasonic testing, what

controls the direction of the sound beam?
a) The size of the transducer array
b) Time delays applied to individual elements
c) The test material’s acoustic properties
d) The type of couplant used

Answer: b) Time delays applied to individual elements

Explanation: Beam steering in phased array systems is achieved by varying the timing of element activation.

11. A major challenge when inspecting coarse-

grained materials is:
a) Weak initial pulse signals
b) Strong backwall reflections
c) Increased scattering and sound loss
d) Absence of shear wave generation

Answer: c) Increased scattering and sound loss

Explanation: Coarse grains cause scattering, which increases attenuation and obscures defect signals.

12. The critical angle for a shear wave in steel

(velocity ~3,200 m/s) at a water (velocity ~1,480
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m/s) interface is approximately:

a) 27.5°
b) 35.0°
c) 45.0°
d) 55.0°

Answer: a) 27.5°
Explanation: Using Snell’s law (sin θc = v1/v2), θc = arcsin(1,480/3,200) ≈ 27.5°.

13. What is a key benefit of the Time of Flight

Diffraction (TOFD) technique?
a) High sensitivity to near-surface flaws
b) Precise defect sizing regardless of orientation
c) No need for a coupling medium
d) Faster scans for thick sections

Answer: b) Precise defect sizing regardless of orientation

Explanation: TOFD uses diffracted waves to accurately size defects, independent of their alignment.

14. A UT calibration block should:

a) Be made from a different material than the test object
b) Have acoustic properties similar to the test material
c) Avoid any machined surfaces
d) Be larger than the test object

Answer: b) Have acoustic properties similar to the test material

Explanation: Matching acoustic properties ensures the calibration reflects the test material’s behavior.

15. The 6 dB drop technique is primarily used to:

a) Measure the depth of a flaw
b) Estimate the size of a planar defect
c) Determine the material’s sound velocity
d) Fine-tune the system gain

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Answer: b) Estimate the size of a planar defect

Explanation: The 6 dB drop method involves scanning to map a defect’s boundaries based on signal amplitude
reduction.

16. When performing immersion testing, the

water path distance affects:
a) The transducer’s frequency
b) The time-of-flight to the test surface
c) The material’s attenuation
d) The beam’s angle in the material

Answer: b) The time-of-flight to the test surface

Explanation: The water path adds to the total time-of-flight, requiring adjustment in calibration.

17. In a UT procedure, the minimum number of

calibration reflectors is determined by:
a) The transducer’s diameter
b) The required depth range and accuracy
c) The couplant viscosity
d) The test material’s thickness only

Answer: b) The required depth range and accuracy

Explanation: Reflectors are chosen to cover the inspection depth range and ensure precise calibration.

18. A high damping setting on a transducer is

used to:
a) Increase the pulse energy
b) Shorten the pulse duration for better resolution
c) Reduce the beam’s focus
d) Enhance penetration in thick materials

Answer: b) Shorten the pulse duration for better resolution

Explanation: High damping reduces ringing, producing a shorter pulse for improved near-surface resolution.

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19. What factor most affects the beam spread of

a UT transducer?
a) The material’s density
b) The transducer’s frequency and diameter
c) The pulser voltage
d) The test surface curvature

Answer: b) The transducer’s frequency and diameter

Explanation: Beam spread is governed by the wavelength (frequency) and transducer size, with higher
frequencies reducing divergence.

20. In a pitch-catch UT setup, the primary

advantage is:
a) Reduced need for calibration
b) Improved detection of planar defects perpendicular to the beam
c) Elimination of backwall echoes
d) Increased penetration depth

Answer: b) Improved detection of planar defects perpendicular to the beam

Explanation: Pitch-catch uses separate transmitter and receiver, enhancing sensitivity to defects aligned with the
beam path.

21. The primary source of attenuation in

ultrasonic testing is:
a) Beam reflection
b) Scattering, absorption, and beam spread
c) Couplant mismatch
d) Transducer wear

Answer: b) Scattering, absorption, and beam spread

Explanation: Attenuation results from energy loss due to scattering, absorption in the material, and beam
divergence.

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22. When qualifying a UT procedure, what is

essential?
a) Using the smallest available transducer
b) Demonstrating the ability to detect specified flaws
c) Testing only the thinnest material section
d) Avoiding reference blocks

Answer: b) Demonstrating the ability to detect specified flaws

Explanation: Qualification requires proving the procedure can reliably detect and size defects per the standard.

23. In phased array UT, a sectorial scan refers to:

a) A fixed-angle scan at maximum gain
b) A sweep of the beam through a range of angles
c) A linear scan along the transducer axis
d) A scan with reduced pulse repetition

Answer: b) A sweep of the beam through a range of angles

Explanation: Sectorial scans sweep the beam across an angular range to cover a broader inspection area.

24. The purpose of a couplant in UT is to:

a) Amplify the ultrasonic signal
b) Reduce transducer wear
c) Facilitate sound transfer between transducer and material
d) Cool the test surface

Answer: c) Facilitate sound transfer between transducer and material

Explanation: Couplant minimizes air gaps, allowing efficient sound transmission into the test material.

25. When inspecting a curved surface, what

adjustment may be needed?
a) Increase the transducer frequency
b) Use a contoured wedge or shoe
c) Decrease the pulser voltage
d) Eliminate the DAC curve
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Answer: b) Use a contoured wedge or shoe

Explanation: A contoured wedge ensures proper contact and sound coupling on curved surfaces.

26. In UT, a dead zone is caused by:

a) Low-frequency transducers
b) The initial pulse and transducer ringing
c) Excessive couplant thickness
d) High material attenuation

Answer: b) The initial pulse and transducer ringing

Explanation: The dead zone is the region near the surface where defect detection is obscured by the initial pulse.

27. What is a limitation of using a dual-element

transducer?
a) Inability to detect near-surface flaws
b) Reduced sensitivity to deep flaws
c) Increased beam spread
d) Requirement for immersion testing

Answer: b) Reduced sensitivity to deep flaws

Explanation: Dual-element transducers are optimized for near-surface detection but lose sensitivity at greater
depths.

28. The acceptance criteria for a UT inspection

are typically based on:
a) The transducer’s frequency
b) The applicable code or standard
c) The operator’s experience
d) The couplant type

Answer: b) The applicable code or standard

Explanation: Acceptance criteria are defined by standards (e.g., ASME, API) specific to the application.

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29. When setting up a TOFD inspection, the probe

separation is critical because it:
a) Determines the transducer frequency
b) Affects the coverage and depth resolution
c) Eliminates the need for a DAC curve
d) Reduces the water path distance

Answer: b) Affects the coverage and depth resolution

Explanation: Proper probe separation ensures optimal detection of diffracted signals across the inspection
volume.

30. In a UT report, what must be documented?

a) Only the transducer serial number
b) Inspection parameters, results, and calibration details
c) The operator’s training records
d) The test material’s chemical composition

Answer: b) Inspection parameters, results, and calibration details

Explanation: A complete report includes all relevant data, such as equipment settings, findings, and calibration
records, per standard requirements.

1. What is the primary role of a standardization

block in ultrasonic testing?
a) To enhance signal clarity
b) To establish reference points for calibration of range and sensitivity
c) To reduce material attenuation
d) To eliminate surface reflections

Answer: b) To establish reference points for calibration of range and sensitivity

Explanation: Standardization blocks provide known reflectors to set up the UT system for accurate depth and
amplitude measurements.

2. The length of the near field for a flat

transducer is determined by:
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a) The material’s grain structure

b) The transducer’s diameter, frequency, and the material’s acoustic velocity
c) The type of couplant applied
d) The test piece’s surface finish

Answer: b) The transducer’s diameter, frequency, and the material’s acoustic velocity
Explanation: The near-field length is calculated using N = D²f / (4v), where D is diameter, f is frequency, and v is
velocity.

3. In a focused beam UT setup, the focal zone is

generally located:
a) Beyond the near field
b) At the transducer’s contact surface
c) Inside the near-field region
d) At the material’s back wall

Answer: c) Inside the near-field region

Explanation: Focused transducers concentrate energy at a point within the near field to optimize resolution at a
specific depth.

4. The change in direction of sound waves due to

a velocity difference at a boundary is called:
a) Scattering
b) Refraction
c) Diffraction
d) Absorption

Answer: b) Refraction
Explanation: Refraction occurs when sound waves cross media with different velocities, following Snell’s law.

5. According to ASNT SNT-TC-1A, a UT Level III is

primarily responsible for:
a) Conducting all inspections personally
b) Designing and approving inspection techniques
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c) Maintaining daily calibration logs

d) Selecting couplant types

Answer: b) Designing and approving inspection techniques

Explanation: A Level III develops, validates, and authorizes procedures to meet technical and regulatory
requirements.

6. What happens when the frequency of a UT

transducer is increased?
a) Penetration depth increases
b) Resolution improves, but penetration decreases
c) Beam angle widens
d) No effect on inspection quality

Answer: b) Resolution improves, but penetration decreases

Explanation: Higher frequencies reduce wavelength for better resolution but increase attenuation, limiting
penetration.

7. During angle-beam testing of welds, mode

conversion is observed when:
a) The beam reflects from a defect
b) A shear wave transforms partially into a longitudinal wave at an interface
c) The couplant layer is too thin
d) The beam scatters in the weld zone

Answer: b) A shear wave transforms partially into a longitudinal wave at an interface

Explanation: Mode conversion occurs at boundaries, creating a longitudinal wave from an incident shear wave.

8. To enhance the signal-to-noise ratio in UT,

one should:
a) Increase the pulse repetition rate
b) Optimize receiver filtering and bandwidth settings
c) Lower the transducer frequency
d) Reduce the gain control

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Answer: b) Optimize receiver filtering and bandwidth settings

Explanation: Proper filtering minimizes noise while retaining defect signals, improving clarity.

9. The purpose of a Time Gain Compensation

(TGC) curve is to:
a) Adjust the transducer’s beam angle
b) Correct for signal loss due to distance and attenuation
c) Eliminate non-relevant echoes
d) Standardize the pulser output

Answer: b) Correct for signal loss due to distance and attenuation

Explanation: TGC adjusts gain to maintain consistent amplitude for reflectors at different depths.

10. In phased array UT, beam focusing is

achieved by:
a) Increasing the transducer size
b) Applying specific time delays to array elements
c) Changing the test material’s velocity
d) Using a thicker couplant layer

Answer: b) Applying specific time delays to array elements

Explanation: Time delays control the constructive interference of waves, focusing the beam at a desired point.

11. Inspecting materials with large grains often

results in:
a) Overly strong backwall signals
b) High scattering and reduced signal quality
c) Improved defect resolution
d) No effect on inspection

Answer: b) High scattering and reduced signal quality

Explanation: Large grains scatter sound waves, increasing attenuation and complicating defect detection.

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12. The critical angle for a shear wave in steel

(velocity ~3,250 m/s) at a plastic wedge
(velocity ~2,700 m/s) interface is closest to:
a) 56.2°
b) 48.7°
c) 39.5°
d) 65.0°

Answer: a) 56.2°
Explanation: Using Snell’s law, sin θc = v1/v2 = 2,700/3,250, so θc ≈ arcsin(0.83) ≈ 56.2°.

13. A significant advantage of Time of Flight

Diffraction (TOFD) is:
a) High sensitivity to surface-breaking cracks
b) Accurate defect height measurement regardless of orientation
c) No requirement for calibration blocks
d) Faster inspection of small parts

Answer: b) Accurate defect height measurement regardless of orientation

Explanation: TOFD uses diffraction signals to size defects precisely, independent of their angle.

14. For UT calibration, the reference block must:

a) Differ in composition from the test material
b) Have acoustic properties matching the test material
c) Be free of any reflectors
d) Be thicker than the test piece

Answer: b) Have acoustic properties matching the test material

Explanation: Similar acoustic properties ensure calibration reflects the test material’s sound behavior.

15. The 20 dB drop method in UT is typically used

to:
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a) Calculate material velocity

b) Size large planar defects
c) Adjust the time base
d) Set the initial gain

Answer: b) Size large planar defects

Explanation: The 20 dB drop method maps defect boundaries by noting significant amplitude reductions during
scanning.

16. In immersion UT, the water path primarily

affects:
a) The transducer’s beam width
b) The travel time to the test material’s surface
c) The material’s grain size
d) The defect’s orientation

Answer: b) The travel time to the test material’s surface

Explanation: The water path adds to the time-of-flight, requiring calibration adjustments.

17. The number of reflectors in a UT calibration

block depends on:
a) The transducer’s frequency range
b) The inspection depth and precision requirements
c) The couplant’s acoustic impedance
d) The test piece’s surface condition

Answer: b) The inspection depth and precision requirements

Explanation: Reflectors are selected to span the inspection range and ensure accurate setup.

18. A low-damping transducer is best suited for:

a) High-resolution near-surface testing
b) Deep penetration in thick materials
c) Reducing beam spread
d) Eliminating mode conversion

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Answer: b) Deep penetration in thick materials

Explanation: Low damping produces a longer pulse, increasing energy for better penetration.

19. The divergence of a UT beam is most

influenced by:
a) The material’s thickness
b) The transducer’s frequency and size
c) The receiver gain setting
d) The surface preparation

Answer: b) The transducer’s frequency and size

Explanation: Beam spread depends on wavelength (frequency) and transducer dimensions, with higher
frequencies reducing divergence.

20. In a tandem UT setup, the main benefit is:

a) Simplified calibration
b) Enhanced detection of vertical planar flaws
c) Reduced inspection time
d) Elimination of surface waves

Answer: b) Enhanced detection of vertical planar flaws

Explanation: Tandem setups use separate transmitter and receiver to target defects perpendicular to the beam.

21. The primary cause of signal loss in UT is:

a) Transducer misalignment
b) Absorption, scattering, and beam divergence
c) Improper gain settings
d) Couplant evaporation

Answer: b) Absorption, scattering, and beam divergence

Explanation: These factors reduce signal strength through energy dissipation and spreading.

22. To qualify a UT procedure, it is critical to:

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a) Use a single transducer size

b) Verify detection of specified defects
c) Limit testing to thin sections
d) Avoid reference standards

Answer: b) Verify detection of specified defects

Explanation: Qualification demonstrates the procedure’s ability to meet detection and sizing requirements.

23. In phased array UT, a linear scan involves:

a) Sweeping the beam across multiple angles
b) Moving the beam along the array’s axis at a fixed angle
c) Increasing the pulse rate
d) Reducing the focal depth

Answer: b) Moving the beam along the array’s axis at a fixed angle
Explanation: Linear scans translate the beam along the transducer array for consistent angle coverage.

24. The couplant’s role in UT is to:

a) Increase signal amplitude
b) Protect the transducer surface
c) Enable efficient sound transmission into the material
d) Stabilize the test temperature

Answer: c) Enable efficient sound transmission into the material

Explanation: Couplant reduces air gaps, ensuring sound waves enter the test material effectively.

25. Inspecting a cylindrical component may

require:
a) A higher-frequency transducer
b) A specially shaped wedge for proper contact
c) A reduced gain setting
d) No calibration block

Answer: b) A specially shaped wedge for proper contact

Explanation: A contoured wedge ensures good coupling on curved surfaces.

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26. The near-surface dead zone in UT results

from:
a) High material attenuation
b) The initial pulse and transducer ringing
c) Low-frequency settings
d) Thin couplant layers

Answer: b) The initial pulse and transducer ringing

Explanation: The dead zone obscures near-surface defects due to the initial pulse’s interference.

27. A disadvantage of a single-element

transducer compared to phased array is:
a) Limited penetration depth
b) Inability to steer or focus the beam dynamically
c) Increased setup time
d) Reduced signal amplitude

Answer: b) Inability to steer or focus the beam dynamically

Explanation: Single-element transducers have fixed beam properties, unlike phased arrays.

28. UT acceptance criteria are generally defined

by:
a) The operator’s judgment
b) The governing code or specification
c) The transducer’s specifications
d) The test material’s properties

Answer: b) The governing code or specification

Explanation: Standards like ASME or AWS provide specific criteria for evaluating indications.

29. In TOFD setup, the probe center spacing

(PCS) is critical because it:
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a) Sets the transducer frequency

b) Influences defect coverage and resolution
c) Determines the couplant thickness
d) Eliminates backwall signals

Answer: b) Influences defect coverage and resolution

Explanation: PCS affects the region inspected and the clarity of diffracted signals.

30. A UT inspection report must include:

a) Only the defect locations
b) Equipment settings, findings, and calibration details
c) The transducer’s manufacturing date
d) The test material’s weight

Answer: b) Equipment settings, findings, and calibration details

Explanation: Comprehensive reporting ensures traceability and compliance with standards.

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