07/03/2025 Code-A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 AIATS 9 MARCH REVISION TEST-2 Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Electromagnetic Waves
Electromagnetic Spectrum
Sources of Electromagnetic Waves
Important characteristic and Nature of Electromagnetic Waves
Electromagnetic induction
Motional Electromotive Force
Faradays Law of Induction
Inductance: mutual inductance
Self Inductances of Coil
Lenzs Law and Conservation of Energy
Alternating Current
Power in AC Circuits : The Power Factor
Moving Charges and Magnetism
The Moving Coil Galvanometer
Magnetic Field on the Axis of a Circular Current Loop
Biot- Savart's law
Magnetism and Matter
Bar Magnet
Magnetisation and magnetic Intensity
Magnetic properties of Materials
CHEMISTRY:
Coordination Compounds
Bonding in Metal Carbonyls
Introduction
Classification of Ligands
Bonding in Coordination Compounds
Werners Theory of Coordination Compounds
Definitions of Some Important Terms Pertaining to Coordination Compounds
Amines
Diazonium Salts
Preparation of Amines
Chemical Reactions
The d and f-Block Elements
Introduction
The Inner Transition Elements
The Lanthanoids
Some Important Compounds of Transition Elements
General Properties of the Transition Elements (d-Block)
BOTANY:
Microbes in Human Welfare
Microbes in household products
Microbes as Biofertilisers
Microbes in Sewage Treatment
Microbes in Production of Biogas
Biocontrol agents
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Regulation of Gene Expression
Translation
Genetic Code
Transcription
DNA Fingerprinting
Introduction
The Search For Genetic Material
Replication
The DNA
ZOOLOGY:
Human Health and Disease
Common Diseases in Humans
Drugs and Alcohol Abuse
Introduction
AIDS
Immunity
 Cancer
Evolution
Biological Evolution
Hardy-Weinberg Principle
Introduction
What is Adaptive Radiation?
Mechanism of Evolution
A Brief Account of Evolution
Origin of Life
Speciation and Isolation - Allopatric and sympatric
What are the Evidences for Evolution?

PHYSICS

1. If change in magnetic flux linked with a loop of wire with 6. The mutual inductance of two coil of radii a and b ( a <<
resistance 4 Ω is 24 Wb, then charge that would have b), if the planes of coils are perpendicular to each other is
flown inside the wire is
(A) 6 C
(B) 4 C
(C) 9 C
(D) 5 C

2. Electromagnetic wave cannot be produced by 2

(A) μ0 π a

(A) Stationary charge 2b

(B) Uniformly moving charge (B) μ0 π b

2

2a

(C) Accelerating charge

2

(C) μ0 π a

(D) Both (1) and (2) b

3. Range of a galvanometer becomes ‘V’ when 40 Ω (D) Zero

resistance is connected in series. Its range get double
7. The work done in rotating a bar magnet of magnetic
when 800 Ω resistance is connected in series. The
moment M from its stable equilibrium position to a
resistance of the galvanometer will be
position θ = 90° in uniform magnetic field B
(A) 700 Ω
(A) MB
(B) 720 Ω
(B) – MB
(C) 540 Ω
(C) 2 MB
(D) 580 Ω
(D) – 2 MB
4. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a
8. The given rod AB is rotated with an angular speed of 20
large square loop of side L (L >> l). If the loops are co- rpm in a uniform transverse magnetic field of magnitude
planar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance 10 T, about its centre O. The emf induced between points
of the system is directly proportional to A and B is
2

(A) L

(B) I

(C) l

(D) L

5. A hollow conducting pipe of radius 5 cm is carrying a (A) 40 π

V
steady current of 4 A. Magnetic field due to this hollow 3

conductor is zero at a perpendicular distance x from the

axis of the conductor. Then x may be (B) 160 π
V
3

(A) 10 cm
(C) 80 π

(B) 15 cm 3
V

(C) 7 cm (D) Zero

(D) 2 cm
9. The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies with time (t) as 14. Two short magnets of equal dipole moment M are
ϕ(t) = ( t − 6t + 3) Wb . The induced current is zero at
2 fastened perpendicularly at their centres. The magnitude
(time is in second) of magnetic field at a distance d from the centre of the
bisector of the right angle is
(A) t = 6 s
(B) t = 3 s
(C) t = 1 s
(D) t = 2 s

10. Two coaxial metallic circular loops exist in a gravity free

space as shown in the figure. If the current in loop A is
increasing at a constant rate, then the unit vector along
which a force must be applied on the loop B to keep it
stationary, is

μ0 M
(A) 3
4πd

μ0 √2M
(B) 3
4πd

μ0 2M
(C) 4πd
3

(A) −î

μ0 2√2M

(B) ˆ
(D) 3
i 4πd

(C) ĵ 15. Two coils of wires A and B are mutually at right angles to
each other as shown in the figure. If current in coil A is
(D) ˆ
−j changed, then in coil B

11. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual
inductance of the pair of coil depends upon
(A) The current in the two coil
(B) The rate at which the current are changing in two coil
(C) Relative position and orientation of the coil
(D) The material of wires of the coil

12. For an isotropic medium B, μ, H and M are related as

(where B, μ0, H have their usual meaning in the context
of magnetic material and M is intensity of magnetization)
(A) B − M = μ0 H (A) No current will be induced
(B) M = μ0 (2H + B) (B) Current will be induced in clockwise direction

(C) H = μ0 (B + 2M )
(C) Current will be induced in anticlockwise direction
Current will be induced depending on increasing or
(D) B = μ0 (H + M ) (D)
decreasing current
13. Consider the following statements: 16. An AC supply has rms voltage 30 V which is fed to a pure
Statement I: The induced magnetic dipole moment in a
resistance of 10 Ω. The average power dissipated in this
diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the is
magnetising field.
Statement II: Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic (A) 99 watt
material is independent of temperature.
Choose the correct option. (B) 45 watt

(A) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (C) 180 watt

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (D) 90 watt

(C) Both Statements are correct. 17. A current varying at the rate of 4 A/s in a coil generates an
emf of 10 mV in a nearby coil. The mutual inductance of
(D) Both Statements are incorrect. the two coils is
(A) 2 mH
(B) 4 mH
(C) 2.5 mH
(D) 3.5 mH
18. A bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment 4 A m2 has 24. The magnitude of magnetic induction and magnetising
poles separated by 0.2 m. The magnitude of pole strength field intensity in a sample of magnetic material are B and
of bar magnet is H respectively. The magnetic susceptibility of the material
is ( μ is permeability of free space)
0

(A) 10 A m
(A) B
−1
(B) 40 A m H

(C) 20 A m (B) μ0 H
+1
B

(D) 30 A m B
(C) μ0 H

19. According to Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction,

magnitude of induced emf in a coil is proportional to (D)
B
−1
μ0 H

(A) Rate of change of area of the coil

25. Electric field in electromagnetic wave is written as
(B) Rate of change of resistance of the coil E = E sin(ωt + Kx) . The equation representing the
0

(C) Rate of change of electric flux linked with the coil magnetic field is
(D) Rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil E0
(A) B =
c
sin(ωt + Kx)

20. Figure shows a cross-section of a long thin ribbon of

width b that is carrying a uniformly distributed total current (B) B = E0 c sin(ωt + Kx)

i into the page. Direction of magnetic field B at a point P in

the plane of the ribbon at a distance a from its edge is (C) B =
E0

c
cos(ωt + Kx)

along
(D) B = E0 c cos(ωt + Kx)

26. The magnitude of induced current in coil shown in figure

is (Magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop
and uniform) ?

(A) ˆ
−j

(B) ĵ

(C) ˆ
i

(D) −î

21. A galvanometer of resistance 999 Ω gives full scale (A) Zero

deflection for 1 mA. Resistance of the shunt required to
convert it into an ammeter of range (0 to 1 A) is (B) BωR2

(A) 1 Ω (C) 2BωR2

(B) 999 Ω 2

(D) BωR

2
(C) 99.9 Ω
27. A thin flexible wire loop carrying current I is placed in a
(D) 9.99 Ω
uniform magnetic field B pointing out of the plane of the
22. Assertion (A) : Two long parallel conductors carrying coil as shown in figure. The loop will tend to
currents in the same direction experience a force of
attraction.
Reason (R) : The magnetic fields produced in the space
between the conductors are in the same direction.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (A) Move towards right
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (B) Move towards left
23. Figure shows a part of a closed circuit. The rate of change (C) Contract
of current is
(D) Expand

28. Which is not an electromagnetic wave, in the following?

(A) x-rays
(A) 1.1 A/s
(B) Radiowaves
(B) 2.2 A/s
(C) β-rays
(C) 4.2 A/s
(D) -rays
(D) 1.5 A/s
29. Relative permittivity and permeability of material are εr 35. Wattless elements are
and μr respectively. Which of the following values of these (A) Pure inductor
quantities are allowed for a dimagnetic material?
(B) Pure capacitor
(A) εr = 0.5, μr = 1.5
(C) Pure resistor
(B) εr = 1.5, μr = 0.99 (D) Both (1) and (2)
(C) εr = 0.5, μr = 0.99 36. Current i is flowing in a circular wire of radius R. The
magnetic field at the centre is
(D) εr = 1.5, μr = 1.5

30. In an inductor of self inductance L = 3 mH, current

changes with time according to the relation I = 2t2e–t.
Time when induced emf will be zero, is
(A) 2 s

(B) 1

2
s
(A) B =
μ0 i
⊗
(C) 6 s 2R

(D) 3 s (B) B =
μ0 i
⊗
4R

31. Two long parallel straight wires A and B, separated by a

(C) Zero
distance of 6 cm, carries currents i and 2i respectively in
the same direction. The distance from wire B at which the (D)
2μ i
0
B = ⊗
net field will be zero, is R

(A) 1 cm 37. A series LCR circuit consists of 6 ohm resistance and 8

ohm reactance. The power factor of the circuit is
(B) 2 cm
(C) 4 cm (A) 4

(D) 5 cm (B) 3

32. Consider the following four statements

(C)
3

(i) Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that of 4

ultraviolet rays
(D)
2

(ii) The wavelength of infrared rays is lesser than that of 3

ultraviolet rays
(iii) Wavelength of microwaves is lesser than that of
infrared rays
(iv) Gamma rays has shortest wavelength in the
electromagnetic spectrum
Choose the correct option
(A) (i) and (iv) are correct
(B) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) and (ii) are correct

33. Curie’s temperature is the temperature

Above which ferromagnetic substance becomes a
(A)
paramagnetic substance
Below which paramagnetic substance becomes
(B)
diamagnetic substance
Below which diamagnetic substance becomes
(C)
superconductor
Above which a superconductor becomes
(D)
semiconductor

34. A coil having area 4 m2 is placed in a magnetic field

which changes from 3 Wb/m2 to 8 Wb/m2 in an interval of

4 s. The magnitude of average emf induced in the coil will
be
(A) 5 V
(B) 10 V
(C) 3 V
(D) 6 V
38. The current (I) in the inductor is varying with time 41. In the AC circuit, the current is expressed as I =
according to the plot as shown in figure. Which one of the 100sin(200 π t). In this circuit, the current rises from zero
following is best variation of voltage with time in to half the peak value in time (where t is in s and I is in A)
inductor?
(A)
1
s
400

(B) 1

1200
s

(C) 1

800
s

(D) 1

1600
s

42. A : A magnetic field can accelerate a charge particle.

R : A current carrying wire cannot generate an electric
field outside it.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(A)
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
43. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north-pole
or the south-pole of a bar magnet, it is
(A) Repelled by both the poles
(B) Repelled by the North-pole and attracted by the
(B)
South-pole
Attracted by the North-pole and repelled by the
(C)
South-pole
(D) Attracted by both the poles.
44. A bar magnet has dimensions of 25 cm, 10 cm and 5 cm.
If length of magnet is 25 cm and its pole strength is 200 ×
(C)
10–3 Am, then intensity of magnetisation of magnet is
(A) 40 A/m
(B) 6.25 A/m
(C) 62.5 A/m
(D) 80 A/m
45. A magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 1 J/T is aligned in
(D) the direction of magnetic field of 0.1 T. The work done to
rotate the dipole through 90° is
(A) 0.1 J
(B) 0.2 J
(C) 1 J
39. A coil of resistance 100 Ω is placed in a magnetic field,
flux (Wb) linked with the coil varies with time t (s) as ϕ= (D) 2 J
100 t2 + 5, the current in the coil at t = 2s will be
(A) 2 A
(B) 4 A
(C) 1 A
(D) 5 A
40. The magnitude of the magnetic field at equitorial point
due to bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 Am2 of length
1 cm at a distance of 50 cm from its midpoint.

(A) 3.2 × 10–7 T

(B) 10–7 T

(C) 1.6 × 10–7 T

(D) 6.4 × 10–7 T

 CHEMISTRY

46. Number of bond(s) between Mn atoms in [Mn2(CO)10] 51. Out of the following ligands, choose the one which can
is/are split d-orbitals maximally

(A) 1 (A) NH3

(B) Zero (B) H2O
(C) 3 (C) I–
(D) 4
(D) CO
47. Which of the following element has the highest enthalpy
of atomisation? 52. In the given set of reactions

(A) Mn
(B) Ti
(C) V
(D) Cr

48. Which among the following is not a radioacitve element?

(A) Ce
D is
(B) Rn
(A) CH3NH2
(C) Th
(B) CH3CH2NH2
(D) Pm
(C) CH3CH2NHCH3
49. Identify the coloured compound (B) in the following
reaction sequence (D) (CH3)2NH
Anisole
⟨◯ − NH2 NaNO2 → AOH
−
→ B
53. Which of the following acid exhibits optical isomerism?
∘
HCl(0− 5 C)
(A) Lactic acid
(B) Malonic acid
(A)
(C) Succinic acid
(D) Maleic acid

(B) 54. The product of oxidation of −2

S2 O with −
MnO in neutral
3 4

medium is
(A) SO4
2−

(C) (B) SO
2−

(C) MnO2

(D) Both (1) & (3)

55. Which of the following has strongest ‘C – O’ bond?
(D) (A) [Mn(CO)6]+

(B) [Ni(CO)4]

50. Most basic compound among the following is (C) [Co(CO)4]–

(A) La(OH)3
(D) [Fe(CO)4]2–
(B) Eu(OH)3

(C) Er(OH)3

(D) Lu(OH)3
56. In the reaction 61. The total number of ions produced from the complex
K4[Fe(CN)6] in solution is

(A) 3
(B) 4
A is (C) 5
(D) 6

(A) 62. Aniline when treated with acetyl chloride in presence of

alkali produces
(A) Acetophenone
(B) Acetanilide
(B) (C) Benzoyl chloride
(D) Anilinium hydrochloride

63. In Fe(CO)5 complex ,what is shape of the molecule and

which of following d-orbital involved in hybridization?
(C)
(A) Trigonal bipyramidal, d 2
x −y
2

(B) Trigonal bipyramidal, dxy

(C) Trigonal bipyramidal, dz2

(D)
(D) Tetrahedral, dx2 − y 2

64. A magnetic moment of 4.90 BM will be shown by one

57. Consider the following statements among the following
(i) Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral in
(A) [Cu ( NH3 ) ]
2+

shape. 4

(ii) Manganate ion is paramagnetic in nature (B) TiCl4

(iii) Permanganate ion oxidises iodide to iodate in
alkaline medium (C) [CoF6]3–
The correct statements are
(A) (i) and (ii) only (D) [Ni (CN) ]
4
2−

(B) (i) and (iii) only 65. The compound which will react fastest with alkaline
(C) (ii) and (iii) only solution of phenol is

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

58. Which is not a bidentate ligand?

(A) Cyanido (A)

(B) Ethylene diamine

(C) Glycinato
(D) Oxalato
59. Which complex will show magnetic moment value of 3.87 (B)
BM?

(A) [Mn(CN)6]3–

(B) [Cr(H2O)6]3+

(C) [CoF6]3– (C)

(D) [Co(C2O4)3]3–

60. Total number of geometrical isomers possible for MABXL

type square planar complex is
(A) 2
(B) 3 (D)

(C) 4
(D) 5
66. The correct statement regarding manganate and 70. For [Fe (CN) ] , [Fe (H O) ] and
−4
2
3+
[Fe F6 ]
−4
select the
6 6
permanganate ion is correct statements.
Permanganate ion has tetrahedral geometry while a. All have identical geometry.
(A) b. All are paramagnetic.
manganate ion has square planar geometry
Solutions of manganate and permanganate ions give c. [Fe (CN) ] 6
is diamagnetic but
−4
[Fe ( H2 O) ]
6
+3
and
(B)
green and purple colour respectively [Fe F6 ] are paramagnetic.
−4

(C) Oxidation state of manganese in both the ions is +7 d. All are diamagnetic.

Manganate ions contain 2 ‘d π – d π ’ bonds while (A) Only a

(D)
permanganate ions contain 3 ‘d π – d π ’ bonds (B) Only b
67. Which compound does not react with Hinsberg’s (C) Only a & c
reagent?
(D) Only a & d

(A) 71. Which element does not liberate H2(g) on reaction with
dilute acids?
(A) Ti
(B) (B) Mn
(C) Zn

(C) (D) Cu
72. Gabriel Phthalimide reaction cannot produce
(D) (A) CH3CH2NH2

68. The homoleptic complex is (B) C6H5NH2

(A) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (C)

(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(C) [Cr(en2)Cl2]+ (D)

(D) [Fe(NH3)4Cl2]+ 73. Consider the following reaction sequence

69. The strongest base among the following is

(A)
Major product C is

(A)

(B)
(B)

(C)
(C)

(D)

(D)
74. Which among the following compounds cannot be 77. Given below are the electronic configuration of four
prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis? metals.
A. [Xe]4f 5d 6s 7 1 2

B. [Xe]4f
3
6s
2

(A) C. [Xe]4f
12
6s
2

D. [Xe]4f 6s 14 2

The metal having highest value of third ionisation

enthalpy is
(B) (A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(C) (D) D

78. For which transition metal the standard potential

(E
o

M
2+
/M
) value is positive?

(D) (A) Ti

75. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (B) Mn

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (C) Ni
Assertion A: There is a regular increase in ionisation
enthalpy along each series of the transition elements (D) Cu
from left to right in the periodic table.
Reason R: In transition elements, metallic radii increases 79. Which of the following has longest ‘C – O’ bond length?
from left to right in the periodic table. (A) [Fe(CO)5]
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below: (B) Ni(CO)4
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (C) [Co(CO)4]–

(B)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (D) [Fe(CO)4]2-
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 80. Consider the following statements
(I) Zr4+ and Hf4+ have almost same ionic radii
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (II) Lanthanoids liberate H2 when treated with dilute
76. acids.
(III) The ionic radii of trivalent lanthanoids steadily
increases with increase in atomic number.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(A) I, II
Identify X. (B) I, III
(C) Only II
(D) All of these
(A)
81. Potassium dichromate reacts with potassium iodide in
acidic medium. What is oxidation state of product formed
from reductant?

(B) (A) +1
(B) Zero
(C) +3
(C)
(D) +5

(D)
82. Consider the following sequence of reactions, 85.

Sn + HCl NaNO 2 + dil.HCl H2 O B is

−−−−→ A −−−−−−−−−→ B −−→ C
(Boil)
(0 − 5°C)

Conversion of B to C is (A)
(A) Free radical substitution
(B) Electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction
(C) Nucleophilic acyl substitution reaction
(D) Nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction (B)
83. In which of the following species C—O bond length is
longest?

(A) [V(CO)6]–

(B) [Cr(CO)6]
(C)
(C) [Fe(CO)4]2–

(D) [Mn(CO)6]+

84.

(D)

86. In the given set of reactions

(A)

D is
(B)
(A) CH3NH2

(B) CH3CH2NH2

(C) CH3CH2NHCH3

(D) (CH3)2NH
(C)
87. The shape of [Cu(NH ) ]2+ is square planar, Cu2+ in this
34
complex is

(A) sp3 hybridised

(D)
(B) dsp2 hybridised

(C) sp3d hybridised

(D) sp3d2 hybridised

88. Among the following which can behave as an oxidising

agent?
(A) Ni(CO)4

(B) Cr(CO)6

(C) V(CO)6

(D) Fe(CO)5
89. A : Aniline does not undergo Friedel - Crafts reaction.
R : Aniline form salt with AlCl3 and positively charge
nitrogen of aniline acts as strong deactivating group.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
90. Which of the following is a π -acid ligand?
(A) NH3

(B) F–

(C) H2O
(D) CO
 BOTANY

91. The number of autosomes in man is 97. A : In a typical nucleus, the region of chromatin that is
loosely packed and stains light is called Heterochromatin.
(A) 22 pairs
R : These loosely packed regions are transcriptionally
(B) 11 pairs inactive chromatin.

(C) 43 pairs Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) 23 pairs
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
92. Arrange the following sequences in DNA fingerprinting (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
I. Breaking of DNA molecule with restriction
endonuclease. (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
II. Autoradiography. (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
III. Fragments separation by gel electrophoresis.
IV. Extraction of DNA from blood sample. 98. (i) A is the predominant genetic material.
V. Single stranded DNA are transferred onto a nylon (ii) B performs the dynamic functions of
membrane. messenger and adapter.
(A) IV → III → II → I → V (A) A - DNA B - RNA
(B) IV → I → III → V → II (B) A -RNA B - Protein
(C) I → II → III → IV → V (C) A - DNA B - Protein
(D) V → IV → III→ II → I (D) A - Protein B - Lipid
93. Identify the incorrect statement. 99. The DNA extraction was done from an E. coli culture, 60
(A) Biogas predominantly contains methane min after its transfer from 15N to 14N medium. What will
be the fraction of hybrid DNA in the total extracted DNA?
Methanogens play important role in the nutrition of
(B)
cattles (A)
1

Trichoderma species are free living fungi that are

(C) (B) 1

common in root ecosystems 8

Methanogens are commonly found in aeration tanks (C)

1

(D) 2
during sewage treatment
(D) 1

94. The terminator in transcription unit is located towards 16

(A) 3′ end downstream of the coding strand 100.Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. It
reflects which of the given feature of genetic code?
(B) 5′ end downstream of the coding strand
(A) Commaless punctuation
(C) 5′ end upstream of the coding strand
(B) Degeneracy of code
(D) 3′ end upstream of the coding strand
(C) Non-overlapping
95. If the sequence of non-coding strand is 3' CTGACAG 5',
then the sequence of sense strand is (D) Universality of codes

(A) 5' GACUCUC 3' 101.Select correct match.

(B) 3' CUGUCAG 5' Column I Column II
(1) rRNA Catalytic role
(C) 5' GUCTGUC 3'
(2) mRNA Soluble or adapter
(D) 5' GACTGTC 3'
(3) tRNA Carries genetic information
96. Which of the following is not true about primary treatment
(4) DNA Soluble RNA
of water?
(A) Sequential filtration (A) (1)

(B) Sedimentation (B) (2)

(C) Anaerobic digestion (C) (3)

(D) Grit removal (D) (4)

102.Biogas is a mixture of gases which predominantly
contains
(A) CO2

(B) CH4

(C) H2S

(D) H2
103.Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by 110.In an organism’s DNA molecule, if the percentage of
an enzyme thymine is 30%, then select the correct option for
percentage of adenine, guanine and cytosine present in
(A) Helicase
it.
(B) Topoisomerase Adenine Guanine Cytosine
(C) Primase (1) 30% 20% 20%
(2) 20% 30% 20%
(D) Ligase
(3) 20% 30% 20%
104.3D structure of tRNA is (4) 25% 25% 20%
(A) Clover-leaf like
(A) (1)
(B) Inverted L-shaped
(B) (2)
(C) J shaped
(C) (3)
(D) V shaped
(D) (4)
105.Which of the following is not a part of transcription unit in
111. Select the option for the words that fill the blanks (i) and
DNA?
(ii) correctly w.r.t. lac operon.
(A) Promoter (a) __(i)__ gene interacts with a protein molecule which
prevents the transcription of structural genes.
(B) Terminator
(b) __(ii)__ gene codes for repressor protein.
(C) Repressor (A) (i) – Promoter, (ii) – Regulator
(D) Structural gene (B) (i) – Regulator, (ii) – Operator
106.The experimental proof for semi-conservative mode of (C) (i) – Inducer, (ii) – Operator
DNA replication was first shown in a bacterium, by
(D) (i) – Operator, (ii) – Regulator
(A) Meselson and Stahl
112.Consider the given table.
(B) Hershey and Chase
Types of Their commercial
Their examples
(C) Jacob and Monod microbes products
(D) Alec Jeffreys A
(i) Bacterium B Curd
107.The experimental proof that DNA replication is (ii) Bacterium Trichoderma Swiss cheese
semiconservative was given by Matthew Meselson and (iii) C polysporum Cyclosporin A
Franklin Stahl in which they grew E.coli in a medium (iv) Fungus Monascus D
containing 15NH4Cl as the nitrogen source for many purpureus
generations. The heavy DNA or heavy isotope of nitrogen Identify (A – D) in the given table and select the correct
could be distinguished from normal DNA by option.
centrifugation in cesium chloride density gradient. They A B C D
transferred the cells into a medium containing normal Penicillium
14NH Cl and took samples at various time intervals for (1) Saccharomyces Bacterium Pectinase
4 camemberti
four generations of E.coli. If time taken by E.coli to Penicillium
(2) Streptococcus Protozoan Amylase
replicate its genome is 20 minutes, then the ratio of roqueforti
heavy, hybrid and light DNA strands at the end of third Propionibacterium
generation respectively would be (3) Lactobacillus Fungus Statin
shermanii
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) Penicillium Leuconostoc Fungus Streptokinas
(B) 0 : 1 : 7 (A) (1)
(C) 0 : 1 : 1 (B) (2)
(D) 0 : 1 : 3 (C) (3)
108.Functioning of statins are based on (D) (4)
(A) Allosteric inhibition 113.Which statement about translation is correct?
(B) Endproduct inhibition (A) Translation occurs within the nucleus of eukaryotes
(C) Non-competitive inhibition Ribosomes recognize and bind to codons in DNA to
(B)
(D) Competitive inhibition synthesize proteins
(C) In bacteria, translation occurs in cytoplasm
109.Rhizobium is
There are different ribosomes to recognize each
(A) Free living nitrogen fixer (D)
unique codon
(B) Found in paddy fields
(C) Found in root nodules of legumes
(D) Parasite on roots of non legumes
114.A : More than 5 per cent of human genome codes for 121.During termination of translation, the release factor binds
proteins. to the
R : Chromosome Y has most number of genes in
humans. (A) Stop codon
(B) Smaller subunit of ribosome
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion (C) Larger subunit of ribosome
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (D) Active site of peptidyl transferase enzyme
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
122.Which of the following enzymes are required during
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false process of DNA replication?
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (i) DNA helicase
(ii) Topoisomerase
115.A hypothetical sequence of a transcription unit is (iii) Primase
represented below (iv) Aminoacyl transferase
3' C G G A T A T C C A A T-5' Template strand (v) DNA gyrase
5' G C C T A T A G G T T A-3' Coding strand
If we switch the position of promoter with terminator in the (A) (i) & (ii) only
above given transcription unit and transcription occurs (B) (ii), (iii) & (iv) only
then the sequence of RNA transcribed will be
(C) (iii) & (iv) only
(A) 5'-C G G A U A U C C A A U-3'
(D) All except (iv)
(B) 5'-G C C U A U A G G U U A-3'
123.Griffith performed transformation experiments by
(C) 5'-A U U G G A U A U C C G-3' selecting the two strains of
(D) 5'-U A A C C U A U A G G C-3' (A) Escherichia coli
116.Translation occurs in (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(A) Nucleus (C) Rhizobium leguminosarum
(B) Cytoplasm (D) Salmonella typhi
(C) Nucleolus 124.Observe the given diagram which shows a few steps of
(D) Lysosome the process of eukaryotic transcription and select the
correct option for X, Y and Z.
117.In an operon model in bacteria, which of the given gene
in lac-operon is a constitutive gene?
(A) Regulator gene
(B) z-gene
(C) y-gene
(D) Structural gene

118.Select the mis-matched option.

(A) Bt-cotton : Resistant to insect pest
(B) Nucleopolyhedrovirus : Kill non-target insects
X Y Z
(C) Oscillatoria : Can fix atmospheric nitrogen
(1) mGppp-cap PolyA tail RNA polymerase
(D) Lady bird : Useful to get rid of aphids
(2) PolyA tail Exon DNA polymerase
119.The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material
(3) PolyA tail mG
came from the experiments of ppp-cap RNA polymerase
(4) mGppp-cap PolyA tail DNA polymerase
(A) Oswald Avery et.al
(B) Franklin and Stahl (A) (1)
(C) Hershey and Chase (B) (2)
(D) Frederick Griffith (C) (3)

120.Which gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon? (D) (4)

(A) i 125.The main sources of biofertilisers are

a. Bacteria
(B) y b. Fungi
(C) a c. Cyanobacteria

(D) More than one option is correct (A) a and c only

(B) b and c only
(C) a and b only
(D) All a, b and c
126.In DNA fingerprinting, detection of hybridised DNA 132.Genetic code is degenerate, which means
fragments is possible by
(A) One codon codes for only one amino acid
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) Codon is read on mRNA in a contiguous fashion
(B) Blotting
(C) Three codons do not code for any amino acid
(C) Autoradiography
Some amino acids are coded by more than one
(D)
(D) Centrifugation codon
127.AUG codon has dual functions which are 133.In ‘post-transcriptional’ processing, primary transcript is
modified in 3 steps. Which is not true about it?
(A) It functions as stop codon
(A) Modification of 5′ end by adding 5’ methyl guanosine
(B) Acts as initiator codon
(B) Splicing by spliceosome
(C) Codes for methionine
(C) Polyadenylation at 3′end
(D) Both (2) & (3)
(D) Modification of 3′end by capping
128.Choose the odd one w.r.t pyrimidine bases.
134.Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(A) Uracil
(A) i gene of lac operon – Non-constitutive gene
(B) Thymine
Untranslated regions – At 3' and 5' end of m-RNA in
(C) Guanine (B)
eukaryotes
(D) Cytosine
(C) 28s rRNA of eukaryotes – Catalytic role
129.Activated sludge is used as inoculum in (D) AUG – Non-degenerate codon
(A) Anaerobic sludge digesters
135.Read the following statements and state true (T) or false
(B) Aeration tanks (F).
(A) During replication, lagging strand is synthesized a
(C) Production of biogas little after the leading strand. Hence, called lagging strand
(D) Tertiary treatment (B) On lagging strand, DNA synthesis does not occur
continuously but in small fragments called okazaki
130.The technique of DNA fingerprinting involves use of a fragments
A as B that shows very high degree of (C) The removal of RNA primer is done by DNA
polymerase I
polymorphism.
The correct option for the words A and B is ABC
(1) T F F
(A) A - satellite DNA, B - probe
(2) F T T
(B) A - repetitive DNA, B - satellite DNA (3) T T T
(C) A - probe, B - polymerase (4) F F F
(D) A - short tandem repeats, B - repetitive DNA (A) (1)
131.Examine the figure given below and identify A, B, C and (B) (2)
D
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

Select the option that correctly labels A-D.

A-DNA, B-H1 histone, C-Histone octamer, D-Core of
(A)
histone molecule
A-H1 histone, B-DNA, C-Histone octamer, D-Core of
(B)
histone molecule
A-H1 histone , B-DNA, C-Core of histone molecule,
(C)
D-Histone octamer
A-DNA, B-H1 histone, C-Core of histone molecule, D-
(D)
Histone octamer
 ZOOLOGY

136.Among the given hominid fossils which one had the 142.Which of the following originated from the early reptiles?
largest cranial capacity? (i) Modern day reptiles
(ii) Mammals
(A) Homo erectus (iii) Birds
(B) Australopithecus africanus (A) (i) & (ii) only
(C) Homo habilis
(B) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(D) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
(C) (i) only
137.Select the mismatch w.r.t diseases and corresponding (D) (iii) only
causative agents.
143.Identify the correct match w.r.t. disease and its vaccine.
(A) Filariasis – W.bancrofti
(A) Tuberculosis – Harmless virus
(B) Ringworm – Microsporum
(B) Whooping cough – Killed virus
(C) Pneumonia – H. influenzae
(C) Diphtheria – Inactivated toxin
(D) Amoebiasis – Musca domestica
(D) Polio – Harmless bacteria
138."Finches of Galapagos island" present an example of
evidence of all except 144.Match the column I with column II and select the correct
option w.r.t. cranial capacity of hominid.
(A) Adaptive radiation
Column I Column II
(B) Founder effect a. Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
(C) Biogeographical evidence b. Homo erectus (ii) 650 – 800 cc
(D) Retrogressive evolution c. Homo sapiens neanderthalensis (iii) 1650 cc
d. Homo sapiens fossilis (iv) 1400 cc
139.Hashish is extracted from
(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(A) Atropa belladona
(B) Cannabis sativa (B) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(C) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(C) Erythroxylum coca
(D) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(D) Datura
145.A : Vaccination done for tetanus provides active immunity.
140.A : Mild fever contributes to the body's defense but high
R : ATS provides passive immunity when given to a
fever is hazardous to body.
R : Mild fever stimulate activity of cells responsible for person who was exposed recently to Clostridium tetani.
defense but excessive heat inactivates critical enzymes Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
and is often fatal. (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(A) (B)
the correct explanation of the assertion not the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
146.Vaccine produced by using RDT to produce antigenic
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements polypeptides of pathogen in yeast is
141.A : Mitochondrial DNA is used to study the evolutionary (A) OPV
pattern in human.
R : Mutation occur more frequently in mt DNA than (B) BCG
nuclear DNA. (C) Hepatitis B
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (D) Influenza
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
147.Select the incorrect statement.
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion The most successful story is the evolution of man with
(A)
language skills and self consciousness
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
Industrial melanism is an example of progressive
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (B)
selection
The first autotropic organisms were the
(C)
photoautotrophs that always release oxygen
The earliest organisms that appeared on earth were
(D)
presumably anaerobes
148.Read the given statements and select the correct option 154.Disease causing organisms are called
Statement-A : Phenomenon like habitat fragmentation
and genetic drift may accentuate variations leading to (A) Paratopes
speciation and evolution. (B) Pathogens
Statement-B : Due to continental drift, eutherians in
Australia survived and continue to do so in wild because (C) Allergens
of lack of competition from metatherians (D) Interferons
(A) Only statement A is correct 155.Cornea transplant is almost always successful and does
(B) Both statements A and B are correct not require a genetically compatible donor like in the
case of other transplants because
(C) Only statement B is correct
(A) The complete eyeball has no blood supply
(D) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(B) Cornea is a non-living dead tissue
149.Identify the incorrect option.
(C) It is an avascular tissue
S.L. Miller's experiment resulted in formation of simple
(A) amino acids from H , NH , CH and H O (D) Cornea is composed of enucleated cells.
2 3 4 2
Our solar system was probably created about 4.5 156.A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(B) if
billion years back
(C) Genetic drift occurs in small population (A) Random mating is absent

Darwin used the term mutation for discontinuous (B) Recombination will not occur
(D)
variations observed by him (C) Gene migration does not take place
150.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. treatment of cancers (D) There are no mutations
Biological response modifiers such as modified 157.Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from
(A)
nucleotides help in destroying the tumors the plant given below
(B) Majority of chemotherapeutic drugs have side effects
Most cancers are treated by a combination of surgery,
(C)
radiotherapy and chemotherapy
Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and
(D)
destruction by immune system
151.‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two common diseases. ‘X’ is caused
due to consumption of contaminated food and water
while ‘Y’ is transmitted through a vector. Select the option
that correctly identifies ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively.
‘X’ ‘Y’
(1) Chikungunya Malaria
(A) Sedative
(2) Common cold Ascariasis
(B) Hallucinogen
(3) Typhoid Malaria
(4) Tetanus Filariasis (C) Stimulant
(D) Analgesic
(A) (1)
158.Select the correct match.
(B) (2)
(A) Syphilis – Haemophilus ducrei
(C) (3)
(B) Genital warts – Treponema pallidum
(D) (4)
(C) AIDS – Human Papilloma Virus
152.Antibody produced maximally during anamnestic
response to antigen is (D) Malaria – Plasmodium vivax
(A) IgE
(B) IgA
(C) IgG
(D) IgM
153.A : The study of protobionts shows that relatively simple
nonliving structures exhibit some of the properties of life.
R : Microsphere is a type of protobiont formed by adding
water to abiotically formed polypeptides.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
159.Find the incorrect contrast between natural selection 166.Embryological support for evolution was proposed by
theory and mutation theory.
(A) Charles Darwin
Theory of Natural selection Mutation theory
(B) Oparin and Haldane
(1) Evolution is a gradual Evolution is a sudden (C) Ernst Haeckel
process process
(D) Alfred Wallace
(2) Continuous process Discontinuous process
167.Which of the following immunoglobulins will be produced
(3) Small changes are Sudden large change in an individual in case of an allergy attack?
inherited slowly over many called saltation forms a
generations new species (A) Ig G

(4) Directionless Directional (B) Ig M

(C) Ig E
(A) (1)
(D) Ig A
(B) (2)
168.All of the following options are associated with detection
(C) (3) of cancer, except
(D) (4) (A) Biopsy
160.Short-lived immunity acquired from mother by the foetus (B) Computed tomography
through transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an
(C) Radiotherapy
example of
(A) Innate non-specific immunity (D) MRI

(B) Artificial passive immunity 169.Which among the following is the most recently evolved
trait?
(C) Natural passive immunity
(A) Fermentation
(D) Artificial active immunity
(B) Eukaryotic cells
161.The genome of HIV, the causative organism of AIDS, is
made up of (C) Multicellularity

(A) ssRNA (D) Photosynthesis

(B) ssDNA 170.Select the incorrect match from the given options.

(C) dsRNA (A) Smack – Papaver somniferum

(D) dsDNA (B) Hashish – Cannabis sativa

162.Which region of brain contains centres that regulate heart (C) Cocaine – Erythroxylum coca
rate, blood pressure, breathing, vomiting and some other (D) Marijuana – Atropa belladonna
involuntary movement?
171.Assertion (A): Bottle neck effect is a ramification of
(A) Hypothalamus genetic drift that results in reduction in genetic variability.
(B) Cerebrum Reason (R): Bottle neck effect is the result of
catastrophism i.e. death of large section of a small
(C) Medulla oblongata population changing gene frequency.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct
(D) Limbic system
answer.
163.Cranial capacity of the fossil of Neanderthal man was Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
(A)
(A) 900 cc the correct explanation of the Assertion
(B) 1400 cc (B) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(C) 1100 cc Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
(C)
the correct explanation of the Assertion
(D) 600 cc
(D) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
164.Basic unit of natural selection is
172.Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicate that
(A) Species
(A) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors
(B) Individual
(B) Fishes were amphibians in the past
(C) Population
(C) Frogs have evolved from gilled ancestors
(D) Genus
(D) Frogs will have gills in the future generations
165.Different modes of locomotion in mammals suggest
(A) Bottleneck effect
(B) Adaptive radiation
(C) Coevolution
(D) Convergent evolution
173.Read the following statement regarding cancer and 177.Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of
select the correct option stating which is true (T) and emphysema?
which one is false (F).
A. Cancer cells have high telomerase activity (A) α-lactalbumin
B. Cancer cells perform anaerobic respiration (B) α-1-antitrypsin
C. Cancer cells are well differentiated
D. M.R.I is the safest investigation to depict cancer (C) α-interferon
A B C D (D) γ -interferon

(1) T T T T 178.The first species to invade the land from oceans were
likely
(2) T F F T
(A) Animals
(3) T F T T
(B) Plants
(4) T T F T
(C) Virus
(A) (1) (D) Mammals
(B) (2) 179.Human immuno deficiency virus-I(HIV)
(a) Is a retrovirus containing RNA
(C) (3) (b) Binds specifically to B-lymphocytes
(D) (4) (c) Can be detected in infected individual by measuring
the p24 antigen
174.Widal test is used to diagnose (d) HIV antibodies are detected by ELISA and confirmed
(A) Typhoid by Western immunoblot

(B) Malaria (A) (a), (b), (c)

(C) Diphtheria (B) (b), (c), (d)

(D) Dengue (C) (a), (c), (d)

175.Anteater is a placental mammal while Numbat is an (D) (a) & (b)

Australian marsupial but both exhibit structural similarities 180.Read the following statements.
as well as lead similar ways of life. This phenomenon of (A) B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins against
two different organisms converging towards similarity is invading pathogen that are called antibodies
called (B) The T-cells themselves do not secrete these
(A) Adaptive radiation antibodies but help B cells to produce them
Choose the correct option.
(B) Co-evolution
(A) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect
(C) Convergent evolution
(B) Both the statements are incorrect
(D) Divergent evolution
(C) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
176.A : If a bacterial pathogen lands inside the nose or eye, it
may get lysed. (D) Both the statements are correct
R : Lysozyme present in nasal mucus and tears attacks
the cell wall of many bacteria.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements